May Flashcards
Which of the following States of India are known for ‘Patachitra painting’?
Odisha and West Bengal
Explanation :
The first-generation women patachitra artists of West Bengal’s village of Naya sell their work online and are recognised the world over, encouraging future generations to stay in the profession.
About Patachitra Painting:
Patachitra, or Pattachitra, is a general term for traditional, cloth-based scroll painting based in the eastern Indian States of Odisha and West Bengal.
It is believed to have originated as early as the 12th century.
In the Sanskrit language, “Patta” literally means “cloth” and “Chitra” means “picture”.
It is known for its intricate details as well as the mythological narratives and folktales inscribed in it.
Most of these paintings depict stories of Hindu deities.
Pattachitra is one of the ancient artworks of Odisha, originally created for ritual use and as souvenirs for pilgrims to Puri, as well as other temples in Odisha.
Patachitras are a component of ancient Bengali narrative art, originally serving as a visual device during the performance of a song.
Making:
Pattachitra paintings are made on a special canvas where cotton sarees are layered with tamarind paste and then coated with clay powder.
Traditionally, cotton canvas was used; now, both cotton and silk canvas are used for paintings.
Once the canvas becomes sturdy, colours are filled in directly without any initial sketches. It is a tradition to complete the borders of the painting first.
All colours are obtained from natural sources like lamp soot and powdered conch shells.
Each painting can take up to weeks or months to be prepared.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/governance/naya-s-women-patuas-are-preserving-a-traditional-artform-while-also-securing-a-livelihood-identity-95897
Consider the following statements with reference to Look Out Circulars (LOCs):
- It is an instrument issued by the government as a directive to its immigration authorities to restrict and regulate the physical movement of a person.
- It is issued by law enforcement agencies in India under the Passports Act, 1967.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Bombay High Court recently held that public sector banks (PSBs) cannot recommend or request the issuance of Look Out Circulars (LOCs) against loan defaulters.
About Look Out Circulars (LOCs):
A LOC is an instrument issued by the government as a directive to its immigration authorities to restrict and regulate the physical movement of a person.
The immigration department is tasked to stop any such individual against whom such a notice exists from leaving or entering the country.
Law enforcement agencies often use LOCs as a coercive measure to stop any individual wanted or under suspicion by the police or an investigating agency from leaving or entering the country through designated land, air, and sea ports.
LOCs are usually issued by the police, intelligence agencies, or other government agencies authorised by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
LOC does not have express statutory backing in legislation, the power to issue LOCs and their regulation stems from the executive in the form of an Office Memorandum issued by the MHA in 2021, which provides consolidated guidelines for opening LOCs against Indian citizens or foreigners.
Guidelines:
The guidelines categorically provide that LOCs can only be opened in criminal or penal cases, and the reason for the LOC must be indicated with the issue of the circular.
If there is no criminal or penal case pending, the LOC cannot be issued, and agencies can only request that they be informed of departure or arrival.
However, the guidelines provide that in exceptional cases, an LOC may be issued against an individual even when the case is not a criminal case. This is in specified circumstances, such as when it is detrimental to the “sovereignty, or security, or integrity of India”, the “bilateral relations with any State”, or to the “strategic and economic interests of India”.
LOCs are also permitted in cases where the individual is likely to engage in terrorism or offences against the State or when such departure would not be “in the larger public interest”.
LOCs cannot be issued unless basic details — including name/parentage, passport number, and date of birth — are available, and such requests must be constantly monitored.
It is the responsibility of the originator to constantly review the LOC requests and proactively provide additional parameters to minimise harassment to genuine passengers.
It is also required that any LOC issued must be reviewed on a quarterly and annual basis by agencies that request such restrictions, and the result of the review must be informed to the MHA.
MHA has categorically transferred the legal consequences of issuing an LOC to the originating agency, even though such OMs are issued by the Bureau of Immigration.
The power to issue such OMs and LOCs is sourced from The Passports Act, 1967, the key legislation for the grant of passports, travel documents, and “endorsements” to travellers at the time of emigration or immigration.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/high-court-banks-debtors-abroad-9299608/
In context of financial markets, the term ‘front-running’ refers to:
using non-public information concerning a significant transaction to execute trades
Explanation :
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) recently approved changes in mutual fund regulations to prevent front-running in asset management companies (AMCs).
About Front-running:
Front-running is when a broker or an investor joins a trade because they have pre-existing non-public information concerning a significant transaction that may change the asset’s price, equity, or derivative to obtain economic benefits.
It is also known as forward-trading or tailgating.
It is illegal in India.
Front-running can occur in various forms and contexts, including the stock market, commodities market, and other financial markets.
The strategies commonly used to front-run trades are the Buy-Buy-Sell (BBS) trading pattern and the Sell-Sell-Buy (SSB) trading pattern.
What is Buy-Buy-Sell (BBS) trading pattern?
In this trade pattern, the alleged front-runner, by using the non-public information regarding an impending buy order of the big client, places his buy order before the big client’s buy order.
As and when the big client places a buy order, the price of the security rises, and the alleged front-runner sells the securities bought earlier.
In this way, at the raised price, the alleged front-runner makes a profit.
What is the Sell-Sell-Buy (SSB) trading pattern?
In this trading pattern, the alleged front-runner by using the non-public information regarding an impending sell order of the big client, places his sell orders before the big client’s sell order.
When the big client places a sell order the price of the security falls which allows the alleged front-runner to buy back the securities at a lower price to meet his obligations which he had created earlier by selling securities.
Difference Between Front Running and Insider Trading:
Insider trading involves trading securities based on material, non-public information about a company. Insiders, such as company executives, employees, or individuals with access to confidential information, use this privileged information to make trades for personal gain.
On the other hand, Front Running involves trading securities based on knowledge of pending orders or anticipated market movements. It typically occurs when a broker or trader exploits their position or advanced expertise to prioritize their trades over their clients or the general public.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/business/sebi-tweaks-mutual-fund-regulations-to-stop-front-running-in-asset-management-companies/cid/2016944
How do Lynx spiders, recently seen in the news, capture their prey?
By pouncing upon them
Explanation :
Daryapur-based arachnologist recently identified a green lynx spider, named Peucetia chhaparajnirvin, which was never discovered earlier.
About Peucetia chhaparajnirvin:
It is a new species of green lynx spider.
The spider was found in Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary in Churu district of Rajasthan.
The spider species has been named Peucetia chhaparajnirvin after the area in Rajasthan, Tal Chhapar, where it was discovered.
This spider is found on the green leaves of the Vachellia nilotica (babul) tree.
Their green hue aids in blending with their surroundings and ambushing prey, while their long legs allow them to move quickly.
This spider is nocturnal and feeds on small insects.
What are Lynx Spiders?
Lynx spiders, (family Oxyopidae) are any of several groups of active spiders (order Araneida) that do not build a nest or web but capture their prey by pouncing upon them.
They are among the major predators of insects occurring in low shrubs and herbaceous vegetation.
The eyes are arranged in a hexagon, and the abdomen usually tapers to a point.
Many Lynx spider species have colorfully striped abdomens and spiky legs.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-evm-vvpat-case-judgment-is-disappointing/article68122171.ece
With reference to Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014, consider the following statements:
- It was enacted in order to legalise the vending rights of Street Vendors (SVs).
- It commits to accommodating all ‘existing’ vendors in vending zones and issuing Vending Certificates (VCs).
- It establishes a participatory governance structure through Town Vending Committees (TVCs).
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A decade has passed since the Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act came into effect on May 1, 2014.
About Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014:
It was enacted in order to legalise the vending rights of street vendors (SVs).
It aimed to protect and regulate street vending in cities, with State-level rules and schemes, and execution by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) through by-laws, planning, and regulation.
The Act clearly delineates the roles and responsibilities of both vendors and various levels of government.
It commits to accommodating all ‘existing’ vendors in vending zones and issuing vending certificates (VCs).
The Act establishes a participatory governance structure through Town Vending Committees (TVCs).
It mandates that street vendor representatives must constitute 40% of TVC members, with a sub-representation of 33% of women SVs.
These committees are tasked with ensuring the inclusion of all existing vendors in vending zones.
Additionally, the Act outlines mechanisms for addressing grievances and disputes, proposing the establishment of a Grievance Redressal Committee chaired by a civil judge or judicial magistrate.
It provides that the States/ULBs conduct a survey to identify SVs at least once every five years.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-problems-with-the-street-vendors-act/article68124512.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Goldman Environmental Prize:
- It is awarded to individuals for sustained and significant efforts to enhance the natural environment.
- It is only awarded to people from European continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Alok Shukla, convenor of the Chhattisgarh Bachao Andolan and founding member of the Hasdeo Aranya Bachao Sangharsh Samiti, has been awarded the 2024 Goldman Prize from Asia.
The Prize recognizes individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment, often at great personal risk.
It is also known as the Green Nobel.
It recognizes grassroots environmental heroes from roughly the world’s six inhabited continental regions: Africa, Asia, Europe, Islands & Island Nations, North America and South & Central America
The Goldman Prize views “grassroots” leaders as those involved in local efforts, where positive change is created through community or citizen participation.
The first Goldman Environmental Prize ceremony took place on April 16, 1990. It was timed to coincide with Earth Day.
Key facts about Hasdeo Aranya region
It is a sprawling forest in the northern part of Chhattisgarh which is known for its biodiversity and also its coal deposits.
The forest falls under Korba, Surajpur and Sarguja districts with sizeable tribal population.
The Hasdeo River, a tributary of Mahanadi, flows through it.
It is the largest un-fragmented forests in Central India consisting of pristine Sal (Shorea robusta) and teak forests.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indian-forest-activist-alok-shukla-awarded-the-goldman-environmental-prize/article68124978.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Eggshell Skull Rule:
- It is common law principle applied in civil litigation.
- It states that all victims should be partially compensated for their losses due to preexisting injury.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Underlining that the state and central consumer courts incorrectly applied the ‘eggshell skull’ legal principle, the Supreme Court restored the compensation of Rs 5 lakhs awarded by the district consumer forum in a medical negligence case.
It is a common law principle applied in civil litigation.
It states that all victims should be fully compensated for their losses, even in situations where the victim was more-susceptible to injury due to a predisposing condition or preexisting injury.
This rule ensures that a defendant (the person being sued) cannot escape liability for exacerbating a pre-existing condition due to their negligence.
The eggshell skull doctrine is named after a hypothetical situation where a person with a fragile skull, akin to an eggshell, suffers a head injury.
If the victim’s skull fractures more easily than the average person, the defendant is still fully liable for all resulting damages, despite the victim’s unusual vulnerability.
Despite its name, the eggshell skull rule applies to all types of injuries, including physical, emotional, and psychological harm.
The rule is applied for claiming an enhanced compensation — for damage that is more than what could have been ordinarily anticipated to be caused by the defendant.
The eggshell skull rule has consequently also been referred to as the ‘thin skull rule’ in many of the cases
Origin: The origins of the eggshell skull rule are most often traced back to an 1891 Vosburg v. Putney case in Wisconsin, US.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/eggshell-skull-rule-9299405/
Consider the following statements regarding Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome:
- It is characterized by blood clots combined with low levels of platelets in human body.
- It is more common among younger age groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, AstraZeneca (AZ) has admitted its Covid vaccine may cause Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS).
It is characterized by blood clots (thrombosis) combined with low levels of platelets (thrombocytopenia), which are necessary for blood clotting.
It often involves unusual blood clot locations, such as in the brain (cerebral venous sinus thrombosis) or abdomen.
Symptoms of TTS: Severe or persistent headaches, blurred vision, Shortness of breath, Chest pain, Leg swelling, Persistent abdominal pain and Easy bruising or tiny blood spots under the skin beyond the injection site etc.
It is classified into two tiers based on the location of the blood clot and the severity of the symptoms.
Tier 1:
Uncommon site of thrombosis (like the brain-cerebral venous sinus thrombosis or the gut such as splanchnic vein, associated with bowel ischaemia and surgery, portal vein or other rare venous and arterial thromboses)
Thrombosis in more common locations (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism)
Platelet count is less than 1,50,000 per microlitre
A positive anti-PF4 ELISA result is supportive, but not required for diagnosis.
Tier 2:
Common sites of thrombosis include leg or lungs (venous thromboembolism, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism)
Platelet count is less than 1,50,000 per microlitre
A positive anti-PF4 ELISA result is required.
Tier 1 TTS carries a higher risk of mortality and morbidity than Tier 2. Tier 1 could be more common among younger age groups.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/understanding-covishields-rare-side-effect-what-is-thrombosis-with-thrombocytopenia-syndrome-know-symptoms-treatment-101714480699996.html
La Cumbre volcano, recently in news, is located in:
Galápagos Islands
Explanation :
Recent lava spewing from La Cumbre volcano on Galápagos Islands destroying habitat of rare land iguanas.
It is located on Fernandina Island – the third largest island in the Galápagos Islands.
It lies directly atop the mantle plume, or hot spot, that produced all of the Galápagos Island.
It is located around 1,125 kilometres off mainland Ecuador and erupted for the first time since 2020.
The volcano has a large crater, or caldera, at its summit that harbors a permanent crater lake.
This lake attracts a wide variety of animals including tens of thousands of Galápagos land iguanas (Conolophus subcristatus) that lay their eggs in nests within the caldera.
Key facts about Galápagos land iguana
It is one of three species of land iguana endemic to the Galapagos Islands (the others being the Santa Fe land iguana and the Galapagos pink land iguana).
It is a very large species of lizard in the family Iguanidae. It is primarily an herbivores species.
This large cold-blooded reptile has a mutualistic relationship with finches, which can often be seen sitting on their backs, picking ticks from between their scales.
It is active during the day spending their time foraging or basking on rocks; at night they sleep in burrows.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/la-cumbre-volcano-continues-to-spew-lava-affecting-habitat-of-rare-land-iguanas-in-galapagos-islands-716430
Consider the following:
- Bacillus Calmette-Guérin
- Human Papilloma Virus
- COVID-19
How many of the above diseases are covered under Essential Programme on Immunization of World Health Organisation?
All three
Explanation :
The year 2024 commemorates 50 years since the launch of the Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1974 which is now known as Essential Programme on Immunization.
It was launched as the Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) by World Health Organisation in 1974 to ensure that all children, in all countries, benefited from life-saving vaccines.
This programme has evolved into what is now commonly known as the Essential Programme on Immunization.
Disease covered (Total 13)
Initially this programme focused on protection against six childhood vaccine-preventable diseases namely Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG), diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles.
Later on, WHO added 7 more disease under this initiative Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), Hepatitis B (HepB), rubella, pneumococcal disease (PNC), rotavirus (Rota), Human Papilloma Virus (HPV), and COVID-19 (for adults).
India’s Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)
India launched the EPI in 1978, which was later renamed as the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) in 1985.
Objectives:
To rapidly increase immunization coverage.
To improve the quality of services.
To establish a reliable cold chain system to the health facility level.
Monitoring of performance.
To achieve self-sufficiency in vaccine production.
Eligibility:
All beneficiaries’ namely pregnant women and children can get themselves vaccinated at the nearest Government/Private health facility or at an immunization session site (Anganwadicentres/ other identified sites) near to their village/urban locality on fixed days.
The UIP covers all sections of the society across the country with the same high quality vaccines.
Under UIP, immunization is providing free of cost against 12 vaccine preventable diseases
Nationally against 9 diseases - Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Measles, Rubella, severe form of Childhood Tuberculosis, Hepatitis B and Meningitis & Pneumonia caused by Hemophilus Influenza type B
Sub-nationally against 3 diseases - Rotavirus diarrhoea, Pneumococcal Pneumonia and Japanese Encephalitis; of which Rotavirus vaccine and Pneumococcal Conjugate vaccine are in process of expansion while JE vaccine is provided only in endemic districts.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/make-epi-an-essential-programme-on-immunisation/article68126088.ece
Which among the following best describes Antares, recently seen in the news?
A red supergiant star
Explanation :
The Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) has filmed the passing of the moon in front of Antares, a bright red star.
About Antares:
Antares, also known as Alpha Scorpii, is the alpha, or brightest, star in the constellation Scorpius, and the 15th-brightest star in the whole night sky.
It is a massive red supergiant star.
It is 10,000 times brighter than our Sun.
It is one of the largest known stars, 700 times the Sun’s diameter, large enough to engulf the orbit of Mars if the solar system were centered on it.
It lies about 600 light-years from the Earth.
Despite its size, the overall density of Antares is less than one-millionth that of the Sun.
Antares is also relatively cool as stars go. Its surface temperature is about 6,100 degrees F (3,400 degrees C). That’s in contrast to our sun’s surface temperature of about 10,000 degrees F (5,500 degrees C).
The star’s low-temperature accounts for its ruddy color.
What is a Red Supergiant star?
They are very large stars that are approaching the later stages of their stellar life.
They have a radius that is several hundred to 1500 times that of the Sun.
Though they are great in size, the red color indicates that stars of this type have a relatively low surface temperature.
They are highly luminous.
Most red supergiants are variable stars. This means, their degree of brightness changes and fluctuates as seen on Earth.
Also, these stars are actively losing mass. Nebulae have been seen around them as they expel material.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indian-institute-of-astrophysics-releases-video-of-moon-occulting-antares-hiding-occultation/article68128228.ece
The Space Applications Centre (SAC) of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is located in which one of the following cities?
Ahmedabad
Explanation :
A study carried out by the scientists at the Space Applications Centre suggests that the extent of water ice in the northern polar region is twice that in the southern polar region of the Moon.
About Space Applications Centre (SAC):
It is a major research and development centre of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Located in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, SAC is spread across two campuses with multi-disciplinary activities.
Genesis:
The genesis of the centre dates back to 1966, with the establishment of the Experimental Satellite Communication Earth Station (ESCES) by the late Dr. Vikram Sarabhai in Ahmedabad.
Later in 1972, the different units of ISRO in Ahmedabad pursuing research in applications of space technology were merged to form SAC.
The core competence of the centre lies in the development of space borne and air borne instruments/payloads and their applications for national development and societal benefits.
These applications are in diverse areas and primarily meet the communication, navigation, and remote sensing needs of the country.
Besides these, the centre also contributes significantly to scientific and planetary missions of ISRO like Chandrayan-1, the Mars Orbiter Mission, etc.
The communication transponders developed at this Centre for Indian National Satellite (INSAT) and Geo Synchronous Satellite (GSAT) series of satellites are used by the government and private sector for VSAT, DTH, Internet, broadcasting, telephones, etc.
This centre also designs and develops the optical and microwave sensors for the satellites, signal and image processing software, GIS software, and many applications for the Earth Observation (EO) programme of ISRO.
These applications are in diverse areas of Geosciences, Agriculture, Environment and Climate Change, Physical Oceanography, Biological Oceanography, Atmosphere, Cryosphere, Hydrosphere, etc.
Facilities: The facilities at SAC include highly sophisticated payload integration laboratories, electronic and mechanical fabrication facilities, environmental test facilities, systems reliability / assurance group, image processing and analysis facilities, project management support group, and a well-stocked library.
SAC is a host institution for the training programmes for students from the Asia Pacific region under the aegis of the Centre for Space Science and Technology Education in Asia and the Pacific (CSSTE-AP) in satellite meteorology and communication.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.firstpost.com/world/moon-may-have-more-hidden-water-ice-to-exploit-than-previously-known-isro-13766082.html
With reference to adsorption, consider the following statements:
- It refers to a process in which a substance diffuses into a liquid or solid to form a solution.
- It is operative in most natural physical, biological and chemical systems.
- It is used in industrial applications and for the purification of waters and wastewaters.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists have conducted research on a nano-material-based adsorption process to efficiently remove uranium wastewater extracted from actual radioactive-contaminated soil.
About Adsorption:
It refers to the adhesion of atoms, ions, or molecules from a gas, liquid, or dissolved solid to the surface of a material.
It is considered a surface phenomenon that creates a film of the adsorbate on the surface of the adsorbent (a solid material, for instance).
Materials that are used to adsorb gases or dissolved substances are called adsorbents; the adsorbed molecules are usually referred to collectively as the adsorbate.
How Adsorption Works?
Adsorption depends on surface energy.
The surface atoms of the adsorbent are partially exposed, so they can attract the adsorbate molecules.
Adsorption may result from electrostatic attraction, chemisorption, or physisorption.
Characteristics of Adsorbents:
Typically, adsorbents have small pore diameters so that there is a high surface area to facilitate adsorption.
The pore size usually ranges between 0.25 and 5 mm.
Industrial adsorbents have high thermal stability and resistance to abrasion.
Depending on the application, the surface may be hydrophobic or hydrophilic.
The adsorbents come in many shapes, including rods, pellets, and molded shapes.
Examples of adsorbents include Silica gel, Alumina,Activated carbon or charcoal, Zeolites, Adsorption chillers used with refrigerants, Biomaterials that adsorb proteins, etc.
Adsorption is a different process from absorption, in which a substance diffuses into a liquid or solid to form a solution.
Adsorption phenomena are operative in most natural physical, biological and chemical systems, and adsorption operations employing solids such as activated carbon and synthetic resins are widely used in industrial applications and for the purification of waters and wastewaters.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-04-discovery-uranium-contaminated-soil-purification.html
With reference to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, consider the following statements:
- The definition of Hindu under the Act includes Buddhist, Jain and Sikh.
- Registration of a Hindu marriage is subject to laws applicable in particular States.
- Unlike any other matrimonial laws in India, the Act contains provisions for restitution of conjugal rights.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently said mere registration of marriage in absence of a proper ceremony would not be valid under the Hindu Marriage Act.
About Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (HMA Act):
It codifies the law relating to marriage among Hindus.
It not only provides for the ceremonies and registration for Hindu marriage but also lays down rules regarding divorce.
Salient Features:
A Hindu by birth or by conversion is the subject of HMA Act.
The definition of Hindu under the HMA Act includes Buddhist, Jain, and Sikh as well.
Marriageable age:
The bridegroom must be at least 21 years old, and the bride must be at least 18 years old when they get married.
Marriage among minors is punishable with imprisonment upto 3 years and/or fine upto Rs 1 lakh.
Significance of ceremonies:
Customary practices (customs/ long-term usages (Reeti-Riwaz)) are well respected under the HMA Act.
Saptapadi, i.e., steps taken by the bride and groom before holy fire, is a necessary ritual for marriage among Hindus.
However, marriage ceremonies are subject to customs and accepted accordingly.
Forbidding bigamy:
It also brought an end to the customary practice of bigamy, polygamy, or polyandry, i.e, multiple marriages.
Section 5 of the Act specifies that it is illegal to have two living wives at once, which is known as bigamy.
If one spouse is alive and the person remarries, such marriage is not only void, but the person is also punishable under Sections 494 and 495 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Focus on mental stability:
A marriage is considered null and void if anyone one or both the people get married being mentally unfit.
In such cases, the couple must get legal consent before getting married.
Registration:
Registration of a Hindu marriage is subject to laws applicable in particular States.
However, a marriage is not invalid or illegal due to lack of an official certificate.
Divorce:
The Act also allows divorce through mutual consent.
Although parties are legally not allowed to seek divorce within 1 year of marriage, they can go for judicial separation.
However, divorce may be granted before completion of 1 year in special circumstances of exceptional hardship.
It provides for the various grounds on the basis of which, divorce can be granted to one of the spouses if another does not agree to separate.
There are special grounds which specifically allow the wife to seek divorce from her husband.
Restitution of conjugal rights:
Unlike any other matrimonial laws in India, the HMA Act also contains provisions for restitution of conjugal rights.
So, if one of the spouses leaves the other without any reasonable excuse, the other spouse may reach the court to restore their matrimonial relations and bring back the spouse.
Legal Procedures:
Matters of Hindu marriages and divorce follow procedure in family court in India.
Matters under the Act are taken up by the courts of territorial jurisdiction (city/ town) where the marriage was celebrated, where one of the parties resides, or where the husband and wife last resided together.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/supreme-court-says-mere-registration-in-absence-of-ceremony-not-a-valid-marriage-under-hindu-marriage-act-3002652
Which event marked the origins of International Labour Day?
Haymarket Affair incident
Explanation :
The International Labour Day was recently observed to honour the contribution of workers across the world.
About International Labour Day:
International Labour Day, also known as Workers Day or May Day, is a global event that takes place annually on May 1st.
It is a day dedicated to honouring the efforts and achievements of workers and the labour movement.
Over 80 countries, including India, Cuba, and China, mark International Labour Day.
On this day, people all over the world march to advocate working-class rights and protect them from exploitation.
History:
The origins of International Labour Day can be traced back to the late 19th-century labour movement in the United States.
In 1886, a large demonstration happened in America where the labours demanded eight hours of work on a daily basis.
However, soon the demonstration went out of hand, and in Chicago, a lot of people got hurt. This incident came to be known as the Haymarket Affair.
The Haymarket Affair incident marked the start of International Labour Day.
In 1889, a lot of socialist parties in Europe came together and decided to celebrate May 1 as International Labour Day.
Since then, the special day has been observed every year on the same day.
In India, the first May Day was celebrated in Chennai (then Madras) in 1923 by the Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsonair.gov.in/international-labour-day-observes-today/
Consider the following statements with reference to Project ISHAN:
- It aims to streamline and enhance air traffic management.
- It unifies four Flight Information Regions to single continuous airspace in Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India has kickstarted the process of unifying its four airspace regions into one spanning the entire nation under Project ISHAN.
The Indian Single Sky Harmonized Air Traffic Management (ISHAN) initiative aims to streamline and enhance air traffic management.
India is planning a major move to unify its four Flight Information Regions (FIRs) in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai into one continuous airspace in Nagpur and have harmonized Air Traffic Management from Nagpur.
The Airports Authority of India (AAI), the public entity invited expressions of interest (EoI) for the preparation of a detailed project report.
What’s the arrangement at present?
Currently, Indian airspace is divided into four flight information regions (FIRs) in Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, and a sub-FIR in Guwahati each managed separately.
Significance: It is expected to streamline operations, enhance capacity, and alleviate congestion, benefiting both airlines and passengers.
Key facts about AAI
It is a statutory body under the Directorate General of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
It was constituted by an Act of Parliament and came into being on 1st April 1995, by merging the erstwhile National Airports Authority and the International Airports Authority of India.
It is entrusted with the responsibility of creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing civil aviation infrastructure both on the ground and in air space in the country.
It also provides Air Traffic Management Services (ATMS) over the entire Indian Air Space and adjoining oceanic areas, with ground installations at all airports, and 25 other locations to ensure the safety of aircraft operations.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/india-news/one-nation-one-airspace-indias-mission-ishan-to-benefit-airlines-and-passengers-both-714250
Consider the following statements regarding the Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) System:
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
- It consists of two-stage solid propulsion and precision inertial navigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) tested a next-generation torpedo release system.
Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) System has been designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
It was launched from a ground mobile launcher from the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the Odisha coast.
Features
This missile-based mechanism to launch lightweight torpedoes can target submarines hundreds of kilometres away — far beyond the conventional range of lightweight torpedoes.
It will be particularly employed in the absence of other assets for immediate action when an enemy submarine is detected.
It is the canister-based missile system comprises several advanced subsystems including two-stage solid propulsion and precision inertial navigation.
It carries an advanced lightweight torpedo missile as a payload along with a parachute-based release mechanism.
Several state-of-the-art mechanisms, such as symmetric separation, ejection and velocity control, have been validated with this test.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/drdo-successfully-tests-missile-assisted-torpedo-release-system-9302427/
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Kutch Ajrakh:
- It is a textile craft created on cotton cloth with intricate designs.
- It was introduced in India by the Mughal empire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks (CGPDTM) has bestowed the Geographical Indication (GI) certificate upon the traditional artisans of ‘Kutch Ajrakh,’ hailing from the vibrant region of Kutch in Gujarat.
The Ajrakh is a textile craft, holds deep roots in the cultural tapestry of Gujarat, particularly in the regions of Sindh, Barmer, and Kutch, where its legacy spans millennia.
The art of Ajrakh entails a meticulous process of hand-block printing on treated cotton cloth, culminating in intricate designs infused with rich symbolism and history.
Ajrak’s nomenclature originates from ‘Azrak’, meaning indigo, a well-known substance most often employed as a powerful dye to achieve a bluish effect.
Ajrakh prints have traditionally consisted of three colors: blue which signifies the sky, red which signifies the land and the fire, and white which signifies the stars.
Textiles are treated with vegetable and mineral colours and the fabric goes through a washing cycle about eight times.
This craft was introduced to this region over 400 years back by the Sind Muslims.
Nomadic pastoralist and agricultural communities like the Rabaris, Maldharis, and Ahirs wear Ajrakh printed cloth as turbans, lungis, or stoles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/fashion/buzz/ajrakh-from-kutch-gets-gi-tag/articleshow/109698796.cms
Red Colobus Conservation Action Plan is an initiative of:
International Union for Conservation of Nature
Explanation :
A new study by an international team of scientists stated conserving Red colobus could hold the keys to protecting tropical forests.
These are a rare group of imperilled monkeys spread across Africa. They are primary indicators of biodiversity.
Red colobus monkeys are one of two major simian groups globally.
Colobines are primarily leaf-eaters, as compared to the cercopithecines, which are omnivores and thus include animals in their diet as well.
Colobines also include the langurs of south and southeast Asia besides Africa’s colobus (olive and black-and-white besides red) monkeys.
Distribution: Ranging from forests in Senegal to the Zanzibar Archipelago.
Most red colobus are facing extinction, making them the most threatened group of non-ape primates in mainland Africa.
More than half of the 18 distinct forms of red colobus monkeys (scientists are unclear about how many species there are) are classified as Endangered or Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Threats
Hunting for trade and local subsistence
Habitat loss, degradation and fragmentation due to logging, mining, charcoal production, infrastructure development and conversion of forest to farms and agriculture plantations.
Initiative to conserve Red Colobus
The Red Colobus Conservation Action Plan, initiated by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Species Survival Commission Primate Specialist Group and the African Primatological Society.
The action plan aims to make red colobus a priority conservation target, which will help to secure Africa’s tropical forests and reduce unsustainable hunting for wild meat.
A Red Colobus Working Group (RCWG) has been formed to guide implementation of the action plan and a Red Colobus Conservation Network (RCCN) has been created to promote communication, capacity-building and monitoring of red colobus conservation efforts.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/red-colobus-conserving-these-old-world-primates-could-help-save-africa-s-tropical-forests-says-study-95900
With reference to Navratna Public Sector Undertakings (PSU), consider the following statements:
- They can invest up to Rs 1,000 crore without seeking approval from the Central Government.
- They can enter into technology joint ventures with other companies.
- They have autonomy to incur capital expenditure on purchase of new items.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency public sector undertaking company was granted ‘Navratna status’ from the department of public enterprises.
The government categorises all Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) into three categories, namely Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna.
The Government had introduced the ‘Navratna’ scheme in 1997.
Criteria for Navratna status
A PSU should be a Miniratna-I, Schedule ‘A’ company, should have obtained an ‘excellent’ or ‘very good’ MoU rating in three of the last five years, and must have a composite score of 60 in six performance indicators.
It must report a net profit of more than Rs 5,000 crore for three consecutive years, and maintain an average annual turnover of Rs 25,000 crore for three years, or have an annual average net worth of over Rs 15,000 crore for three years.
Benefits
Financial Independence: They invest up to ₹1,000 crore without seeking approval from the Central Government.
Navratna companies are also allowed to invest up to 15% of their net worth on a single project, or 30% of their net worth in a given year, subject to a cap of ₹1,000 crore.
To incur capital expenditure on purchase of new items or for replacement, without any monetary ceiling.
To enter into technology joint ventures or strategic alliances.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/market/stock-market-news/ireda-share-price-jumps-over-10-as-it-attains-navratna-status-11714362891328.html
Which one of the following major infrastructure projects is linked to the Shaksgam Valley?
Karakoram Highway
Explanation :
India has lodged a strong protest with China for carrying out construction activities in the Shaksgam valley, in an “illegal” attempt to alter the situation on the ground.
About Shaksgam Valley:
The Shaksgam Valley, or Trans Karakoram Tract, is part of the Hunza-Gilgit region of Pakistan-Occupied Kashmir (POK) and is a disputed territory claimed by India but controlled by Pakistan.
It borders Xinjiang Province of the People’s Republic of China (PRC) to the north, the Northern Areas of POK to the south and west, and the Siachen Glacier region to the east.
It was ceded to China by Pakistan in 1963, when both countries signed a boundary agreement to settle their border differences.
However, Article 6 of the agreement clearly stated that “the two parties have agreed that after the settlement of the Kashmir dispute between Pakistan and India, the sovereign authority concerned will reopen negotiations with the Government of the People’s Republic of China, on the boundary as described in Article Two of the present agreement, so as to sign a formal Boundary Treaty to replace the present agreement.”
The agreement laid the foundation of Karakoram highway, which was built jointly by Chinese and Pakistani engineers in the 1970s.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-protest-china-infra-development-shaksgam-valley-9303777/
With reference to Garo Hills, consider the following statements:
- It forms the western part of Meghalaya State.
- It is part of the Patkai hill range, which extends across the Indo-Myanmar border.
- It is one of the wettest places in the world and is drained by tributaries of the Brahmaputra River.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Geological Survey of India (GSI) explorers recently made a breakthrough, uncovering ancient fossils, estimated to be around 35-40 million years old, in Tolegre, South Garo Hills of Meghalaya.
About Garo Hills:
The Garo Hills form the western part of Meghalaya State.
The range is part of the Meghalaya subtropical forests eco-region.
Situated close to the Indo-Bangladesh border, the Garo hills are part of the Patkai hill range, which extends across the Indo-Myanmar border.
It is one of the wettest places in the world.
The region is drained by various tributaries of the Brahmaputra River.
Garo Hills comprises 5 districts; North Garo Hills, East Garo Hills, West Garo Hills, South Garo Hills, and South-West Garo Hills.
The Garo Hills are mostly dominated by the tribes known as Garos. The Garos call themselves Achik-mande.
Garos form the second largest tribe in the state of Meghalaya.
They are one of the last remaining matrilineal tribes in the world.
Their main festival is the Wangala festival, a harvest festival, which is predominantly celebrated by the Songsareks (those following the traditional religion of animism).
Two mountain ranges, the Arabella range and the Tura range, passthrough the Garo Hills, forming the great Balpakram valley in between.
Balpakram area is considered sacred for the Garo community due to their belief that the spirits of the dead sojourn here.
The highest point in the Garo Hills is Nokrek Peak, with an elevation of 1412 m, which is covered by a thick film of lush forest.
The region is home to the esteemed Nokrek National Park, protects a highly diverse plant and animal diversity. In 2009, the park was designated a biosphere reserve by UNESCO.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/meghalaya/story/meghalaya-gsi-unearths-40-million-year-old-fossils-in-south-garo-hills-996981-2024-05-02
High Mobility Artillery Rocket Systems (HIMARS), recently seen in the news, is developed by which one of the following countries?
USA
Explanation :
Russia’s government recently published new footage claiming to show the targeting of two Ukrainian High Mobility Artillery Rocket Systems (HIMARS) shortly after the U.S. authorized a significant new chunk of military aid for Ukraine.
About High Mobility Artillery Rocket Systems (HIMARS):
It is a light, multiple rocket launcher.
It is manufactured by Lockheed Martin Corporation, a US-based security and aerospace company.
HIMARS is intended to engage and defeat artillery, air defence concentrations, trucks, light armour, and personnel carriers, as well as support troop and supply concentrations.
Features:
It is an air-transportable wheeled launcher mounted on a 5-ton Family of Medium Tactical Vehicles (FMTV).
It can carry either a launcher pod of six rockets or one MGM-140Army Tactical Missile System (ATACMS), which have a range of 300 km (186 miles).
The HIMARS requires less than 20 seconds to be prepared for firing, and a full launcher load of six rockets can be fired within 45 seconds.
The system launches its weapons and moves away from the area at high speed before enemy forces locate the launch site.
The HIMARS is equipped with the Increased Crew Protection cabin, which is designed to protect the three-man operating crew against plume gases, rocket launch debris, and small arms.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsweek.com/russia-himars-video-ukraine-1896512
Consider the following statements with reference to the Standard Essential Patents (SEP):
- It is a patent granted for a technological invention which is essential for the working of a standard.
- Lack of any competing technology grants the SEP holder a monopolistic right over the SEP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
There is a possible crisis brewing in India over the manner in which certain technology companies are wielding ‘standard essential patents’ (SEP) against the telecom manufacturing sector in India.
About Standard Essential Patents (SEP):
A SEP is a patent granted for a technological invention which is essential for the implementation and working of a standard.
What is a Standard?
A ‘standard’ is a set of technical requirements or agreed technical descriptions which cover ideas, products, or services and make sure that technologies interact and work together.
Standards can be adopted worldwide, regionally or even nationally.
It is usually in the interest of industrial players to create products that comply with standards.
One example of a widely used standard is the A4 size for sheets of paper.
Patents which are essential to a standard and have been adopted by a Standard Setting Organization (SSO) are known as SEPs.
SSOs are either governmental, quasi-governmental, or a private group of independently governed industry associations.
SSOs set, develop, coordinate, interpret, and maintain standards.
Industry participants can collaborate on a single technical solution because of such standards.
When a patent is acknowledged by the SSO and designated as a SEP, manufacturers can only produce their goods in the market after first acquiring a license under the SEP.
From an antitrust standpoint, the lack of any competing technology grants the SEP holder a monopolistic right over the SEP.
Consequently, it is impossible to produce products that comply with standards without using technologies that are covered by one or more SEPs.
SEPs are common in the mobile telephony and telecommunications industry, a sector which is highly standardised due mainly to the need for interoperability between mobile devices.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-judiciarys-shadow-over-standard-essential-patents/article68132782.ece
With reference to Charge Sheet, consider the following statements:
- It is filed by the investigating officer under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) after the completion of the investigation.
- Once the charge sheet has been submitted to a court of law, prosecution proceedings against the accused begin.
- The filing of a chargesheet is mandatory for both cognizable and non-cognizable offences.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Supreme Court recently observed that the charge sheet must contain clear and complete entries of all columns to enable the court to understand which crime has been committed by which accused and what is the material evidence available on the file.
About Charge Sheet:
A chargesheet is a final report that is filed by the investigating officer or police officials under Section 173 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)after the completion of the investigation in a cognizable or non-cognizable case.
It contains all the stringent records right from the commencement of investigation procedure of lodging an FIR to the completion of investigation and the preparation of final report.
Once the charge sheet has been submitted to a court of law, prosecution proceedings against the accused begin.
This report by the investigating officer should be in the form prescribed by the state government.
Contents of the chargesheet: A chargesheet must contain the following information as per Section 173(2)(i) of the CrPC:
The names of the parties.
Nature of the information.
Names of the persons who appear to be acquainted with the events.
About the offence that appears to have been committed and the person by whom it has been committed.
Information regarding the arrest of the accused, his/their release with or without sureties, and whether he has been forwarded into custody under Section 170.
Benefits of a chargesheet:
It contains the statements of the accused and all other witnesses.
Marks the beginning of a criminal trial.
Charges on which courts have to proceed against the accused are mentioned.
It is useful for the accused in obtaining bail as the offences are mentioned clearly.
Time limit for filing a Charge Sheet:
It is to be filed within 60 days from the date of arrest of the accused in cases triable by lower courts and 90 days in cases triable by Court of Sessions.
If the charge sheet is not filed within the prescribed time mentioned above, the accused has a right to default bail.
Is filing a chargesheet compulsory?
Filing of a chargesheet in case a cognizable offence is said to be committed by the accused is mandatory on the part of police officials, either by themselves or on the orders of the court, after filing an FIR.
However, the same is not compulsory in cases where a non-cognizable offence has been committed unless the court orders an investigation.
What is a Cognizable Offence?
The Cr.P.C. classifies all the crimes into two categories: (i) Cognizable and (ii) Non-cognizable.
A Cognizable offence or case is defined as one which an officer in-charge of a police station may investigate without the order of a magistrate and effect arrest without a warrant.
The Police have a direct responsibility to take immediate action on the receipt of a complaint or credible information in such crimes, visit the scene of the crime, investigate the facts, apprehend the offender, and arraign him before a Court of law having jurisdiction over the matter.
Non-Cognizable crimes are defined as those which cannot be investigated by police without the order of a competent magistrate.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/chargesheet-must-contain-clear-complete-entries-specify-role-of-each-accused-witness-statements-be-enclosed-with-it-supreme-court-256699
Consider the following statements regarding the Commission on Population and Development:
- It was established by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
- It consists of 47 member countries elected for a period of four years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Permanent Mission of India to the United Nations and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with the United Nations Population Fund is organizing event titled “Localizing the SDGs: Women in Local Governance in India Lead the Way” during the 57th Session of the Commission on Population and Development (CPD57).
It was established by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in 1946, which was renamed as the Commission on Population and Development by the General Assembly in 1994.
Members: It is composed of 47 member countries.
Term: Member countries are elected by the Economic and Social Council for a period of four years on the basis of geographic distribution.
It was constituted as three-tiered intergovernmental mechanism that plays the primary role in the follow-up to the implementation of the programme of action at the national, regional and international levels and advise the Council thereon.
The meetings of commission were held typically every two or three years until 1994, after which it has been held once a year.
It is not a United Nations affiliated body.
What is United Nations Population Fund?
It is an international development agency created in 1968 to support the execution of projects and programmes in the area of population and sexual and reproductive health.
In 1987, it was officially renamed as the United Nations Population Fund but the original abbreviation UNFPA (United Nations Fund for Population Activities) was retained.
It is not directly responsible for the collection of primary statistics; it plays an important role in the technical and financial support of statistical activities in countries, such as population censuses and thematic surveys etc.
Headquarters: New York
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2019408
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian diplomatic passport:
- Its holders are entitled to privileges and immunities as per the international law.
- It is not issued to immediate family of officers employed in the Ministry of External Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, embroiled in a sex abuse case, one of the Indian political Party’s Member of Parliament (MP) fled to Germany on a diplomatic passport.
It has maroon cover and valid for five years or less.
Holders of such passports are entitled to certain privileges and immunities as per the international law, including immunity from arrest, detention, and certain legal proceedings in the host country.
Issuing Authority: The Ministry of External Affair’s (MEA) Consular, Passport & Visa Division issues diplomatic passports (‘Type D’ passports) to people falling in broadly five categories:
those with diplomatic status;
government-appointed individuals travelling abroad for official business;
officers working under the branches A and B of the Indian Foreign Service (IFS), normally at the rank of Joint Secretary and above; and
Relatives and immediate family of officers employed in IFS and MEA.
select individuals who are authorized to undertake official travel on behalf of the government”
The MEA issues visa notes to government officials going abroad for an official assignment or visit.
Revocation of Passport
As per the Passport Act 1967, the passport authority may, as per the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 6 or any notification under section 19, cancel a passport or travel document, with the previous approval of the Central government.
The passport authority can impound or revoke a passport if the authority believes that the passport holder or travel document is in wrongful possession; if the passport was obtained by the suppression of material information or on the basis of wrong information provided by the individual; if it is brought to the notice of the passport authority that the individual has been issued a court order prohibiting his departure from India or has been summoned by court.
A diplomatic passport can be revoked upon orders from a court during proceedings with respect to an offence allegedly carried out by the passport holder before a criminal court.
What is Operational Visa exemption Agreement?
India has operational visa exemption agreements for holders of diplomatic passports with 34 countries and Germany is one amongst them.
According to a reciprocal deal signed in 2011, holders of Indian diplomatic passports do not require a visa to visit Germany, provided their stay does not exceed 90 days.
India has similar agreements with countries such as France, Austria, Afghanistan, Czech Republic, Italy, Greece, Iran, and Switzerland.
India also has agreements with 99 other countries wherein apart from diplomatic passport holders, even those holding service and official passports can avail operational visa exemption for stays upto 90 days.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/flight-of-prajwal-revanna-how-diplomatic-passports-visa-regimes-work-9304621/
Consider the following statements with reference to electrolyser:
- It is an apparatus that produces hydrogen through a chemical process by using electricity.
- The oxygen generated in the process can be used as medical or industrial gas in some cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Investing in a homegrown electrolyser manufacturing infrastructure is anticipated to drive down the price of green hydrogen and enhance India’s competitive edge.
It is an apparatus that produces hydrogen through a chemical process (electrolysis) capable of splitting water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen molecules by using electricity.
Working:
An electrolyser consists of a conductive electrode stack separated by a membrane to which a high voltage and current is applied.
This causes an electric current in the water which causes it to break down into its components: hydrogen and oxygen.
The oxygen generated in parallel is released into the atmosphere or can be stored for later use as a medical or industrial gas in some cases.
The hydrogen is stored as a compressed gas or liquefied for use in industry or in hydrogen fuel cells, which can power transport vehicles such as trains, ships and even aircraft.
Types of Electrolysers
Alkaline electrolysers: Alkaline electrolysis is a mature and commercially available technology used primarily by the fertiliser and chlorine industries.
It presently accounts for almost two-thirds of the global electrolyser capacity.
It uses thick membranes and nickel-based electrodes.
Proton exchange membrane (PEM) electrolysers: It operates at high pressure, due to the use of thin perfluorosulfonic acid (PFSA) membranes.
However, the PFSA acidic environment makes it necessary to use gold and titanium plated electrodes and metals such as platinum, iridium, and ruthenium as catalysts.
They are the most popular because they produce high-purity hydrogen and are easy to cool.
Solid oxide electrolysis cell (SOEC) electrolysers : They utilise heat to make hydrogen from steam and are best placed where there is a heat source available (nuclear or industrial facilities).
They operate at high temperatures (500 – 850 degrees).
Anion exchange membrane (AEM) electrolysers: They operate at significantly lower temperatures of 50 – 60 degrees.
They combine the less harsh conditions of alkaline electrolysers with the simplicity and high efficiency of PEM electrolysers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/energy/domestic-manufacturing-of-electrolysers-can-be-game-changer-for-industrial-emissions-95933
Batillipes chandrayaani, recently seen in news, is a/an:
marine tardigrade
Explanation :
A new species of marine tardigrade discovered from the southeast coast of Tamil Nadu has been named Batillipes chandrayaani after the Chandrayaan-3 moon mission by researchers at the Cochin University of Science and Technology (Cusat).
It has been discovered in the intertidal beach sediments at Mandapam in Tamil Nadu.
Features
It is similar in size to other tardigrades, it grows to a length of 0.15 millimetres and 0.04 millimetres in width.
It has a trapezoid-shaped head and four pairs of legs with sharp-tipped sensory spines. Both sexes are similar in terms of morphology and size.
It is also the 39th species described under the genus Batillipes.
What are Tardigrades?
These are microscopic marvels commonly known as ‘water bears,’
Marine tardigrades account for 17% of all known tardigrade species. They are also found in all the oceans.
Despite their tiny physiques, these micro-metazoans easily rank among the hardiest animals, enduring mass extinctions and are highly regarded for their survival skills.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-tardigrade-species-named-after-chandrayaan-3-mission/article68131345.ece
Consider the following:
- Australia
- New Zealand
- India
- United States
How many of the above countries are part of the Five Eyes intelligence-sharing network?
Only three
Explanation :
Recently, 4 countries on 3 continents, which are part of the Five Eyes intelligence-sharing network has been, accused India for running espionage operations and India has denied the allegations.
It is a multilateral intelligence-sharing network shared by over 20 different agencies of five English-speaking countries — Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States.
It is both surveillance-based and signals intelligence (SIGINT).
Its genesis lies in the post-war 1946 UKUSA Agreement, intended as a cooperative arrangement for sharing signals intelligence (SIGINT).
Over time, this partnership has extended its reach, becoming an integral part of global intelligence and security operations.
Intelligence documents shared between the members countries are classified as ‘Secret—AUS/CAN/NZ/UK/US Eyes Only,’ which gave the group its title ‘Five Eyes.
Its scope was limited to “communication intelligence matters only” related to “unrestricted” exchange of intelligence products in six areas:
Collection of traffic; acquisition of communication documents and equipment; traffic analysis; cryptanalysis; decryption and translation; and acquisition of information regarding communication organisations, practices, procedures, and equipment.
The arrangement was later extended to ‘second party’ countries —Canada joined in 1948, while Australia and New Zealand became part of the alliance in 1956.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/in-the-world-of-spycraft-why-national-interest-trumps-all-9304549/
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Press Freedom Index 2024:
- It is an annual report released by Human Rights Watch.
- India has been ranked among the bottom ten countries in the index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
India’s score in the World Press Freedom Index fell over the last year, from 36.62 to 31.28, according to the recently published World Press Freedom Index 2024.
About World Press Freedom Index 2024:
It is an annual report released by the global media watchdog Reporters Without Borders (RSF).
The index ranks 180 countries on the ability of journalists to work and report freely and independently.
The press freedom questionnaire covers five categories: political context, legal framework, economic context, sociocultural context, and security.
It only deals with press freedom and does not measure the quality of journalism in the countries it assesses, nor does it look at human rights violations in general.
Highlights of the 2024 Index:
It shows an overall decline in press freedom globally and a steep rise in the political repression of journalists and independent media outlets, noting that press freedoms fell by an average of 7.6 points globally.
Norway topped the ranking, while Denmark was on the second rank.
The countries where press freedom is “good” are all in Europe, and more specifically within the European Union, which has adopted its first Media Freedom Law (EMFA).
The Maghreb and Middle East regions performed the worst in terms of restrictions on press freedom by government forces.
Eritrea was at the bottom of the list, with Syria just ahead of it.
India’s Ranking:
India’s rank improved from 161 in 2023 to 159 in 2024, but this was because other countries had slipped in their rankings.
Scores for India dropped (worsened) in all but the security indicator.
India is ranked behind Turkey, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka, which are ranked at positions 158, 152, and 150, respectively.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-press-freedom-score-falls-says-reporters-sans-frontieres/article68136062.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Peptides:
- They are chains of amino acids that are naturally found in the body.
- They may provide pro-aging support, anti-inflammatory, or muscle-building properties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists have developed a promising therapy using cow-derived peptides to combat deadly drug-resistant bacteria, offering a new approach to tackle severe infections resistant to conventional antibiotics.
About Peptides:
Peptides are chains of amino acids that are naturally found in the body.
The amino acids in a peptide are connected to one another in a sequence by bonds called peptide bonds.
Peptides vs. Proteins:
Proteins and peptides are fundamental components of cells that carry out important biological functions.
Typically, peptides are distinguished from proteins by their shorter length, although the cut-off number of amino acids for defining a peptide and protein can be arbitrary.
Traditionally, peptides are defined as molecules that consist of between 2 and 50 amino acids.
Meanwhile, proteins are long molecules made up of multiple peptide subunits, and are also known as polypeptides.
In addition, peptides tend to be less well defined in structure than proteins, which can adopt complex conformations known as secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures.
Proteins can be digested by enzymes (other proteins) into short peptide fragments.
Functions of Peptides:
The body makes lots of different peptides, each of which has a different role.
They may provide pro-aging support, anti-inflammatory, or muscle-building properties.
Some peptides act as hormones, which are molecules, that when released from cells, affect other areas of the body.
Due to the potential health benefits of peptides, many supplements are available that contain peptides that manufacturers have derived either from food or made synthetically.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://scitechdaily.com/newly-discovered-peptide-could-treat-incurable-bacterial-infections/
With reference to Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), consider the following statements:
- It aims to protect married women from cruelty inflicted upon them by their husbands or their relatives.
- There is no limitation as to the number of years within which the complaint has to be filed under this Section.
- Any offence under this Section is a cognizable and non-compoundable offence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court urged the Central Government and the parliament to make necessary changes to the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (BNS) with respect to the provision replacing Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
About Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC):
It is a crucial legal provision that aims to protect married women from cruelty inflicted upon them by their husbands or their relatives.
This section was introduced in 1983 as an amendment to the IPC to address the growing concern of domestic violence and harassment faced by married women in India.
Under Section 498-A IPC, a husband or his relatives can be sentenced to a jail term of three years for subjecting the wife to cruelty.
The section applies to married women only.
The section defines cruelty as any wilful conduct that is likely to drive a woman to commit suicide or to cause grave injury to her life, limb, or health, whether mental or physical.
The conduct can be in the form of harassment or torture, with the intent to coerce the woman or her relatives to meet unlawful demands for property or money.
The section also defines the term ‘husband’ to include a person who has a legal or customary relationship with the woman, such as a live-in partner or a person who claims to be married to the woman but has not been legally married.
There is no limitation as to the number of years within which the complaint has to be filed, and a wife can file a complaint under this section at any time.
Any offence under Section 498A is a cognizable one and is also non-compoundable and non-bailable.
Bail under Section 498A can only be granted by the Magistrateonce a First Information Report (FIR)has been registered by the police based on a complaint filed by the aggrieved party.
Supreme Court Rulings:
The Supreme Court has ruled that Section 498A should be used sparingly and only in caseswhere there is genuine evidence of cruelty.
The court has also ruled that the section should not be used as a tool to settle personal scores.
The court emphasized the need for the police to conduct a thorough investigation beforemakingarrests, to avoid unnecessary harassment of the accused.
To address these concerns, the government of India introduced the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act (PWDVA) in 2005, which provides a more comprehensive legal framework for addressing domestic violence and abuse against women.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Consider the following statements with reference to C295 Transport Aircraft:
- It is a new-generation tactical airlifter indigenously designed and developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
- It is powered by turboprop engines and designed to provide low-level flight characteristics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is a reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling, VIP transport, and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours, can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload, or as many as 71 troops, at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025, and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.aninews.in/news/national/general-news/iaf-takes-delivery-of-second-c295-transport-aircraft20240504015259/
Consider the following statements with reference to Thunderstorms:
- Swift updrafts of warm, moist air is an essential condition for the formation of thunderstorms.
- The temperate and tropical regions of the world are the most prone to thunderstorms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Heavy rains and thunderstorms lashed the UAE recently, leading to the cancellation of several international flights.
About Thunderstorm:
A thunderstorm is a rain shower during which you hear thunder. Since thunder comes from lightning, all thunderstorms have lightning.
Formation:
Thunderstorms arise when layers of warm, moist air rise in a large, swift updraft to cooler regions of the atmosphere.
There, the moisture contained in the updraft condenses to form towering cumulonimbus clouds and, eventually, precipitation.
Columns of cooled air then sink earthward, striking the ground with strong downdrafts and horizontal winds.
At the same time, electrical charges accumulate on cloud particles (water droplets and ice).
Lightning discharges occur when the accumulated electric charge becomes sufficiently large.
Lightning heats the air it passes through so intensely and quickly that shock waves are produced. These shock waves are heard as claps and rolls of thunder.
On occasion, severe thunderstorms are accompanied by swirling vortices of air that become concentrated and powerful enough to form tornadoes.
What is a severe thunderstorm? A thunderstorm is classified as “severe” when it contains one or more of the following: hail one inch or greater, winds gusting in excess of 50 knots (57.5 mph), or a tornado.
Thunderstorms are known to occur in almost every region of the world, though they are rare in polar regions and infrequent at latitudes higher than 50° N and 50° S.
The temperate and tropical regions of the world, therefore, are the most prone to thunderstorms.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/uae-weather-today-several-flights-cancelled-as-heavy-rains-thunderstorms-return-to-uae-5570795
With reference to Oxytocin, consider the following statements:
- It is a hormone secreted by the pituitary glands of mammals during social bonding.
- It can be chemically manufactured and used for maternal health purpose.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Delhi High Court called for action against ‘rampant use of Oxytocin’ in dairy colonies in the national capital.
It is also known as the ‘love hormone’, is a hormone secreted by the pituitary glands of mammals during sex, childbirth, lactation or social bonding.
However, it can also be chemically manufactured and is sold by pharma companies for use during childbirth. It is administered either as an injection or a nasal solution.
The drug was banned by the Central government in 2018, saying that it was being misused on milch cattle to increase yield, which not only affects the health of the cattle but also humans who consumed the milk.
Why is it vital?
Oxytocin helps contract the uterus and induce delivery, control bleeding, and promote the release of breast milk.
Its use is especially crucial to prevent new mothers from excessively bleeding after giving birth—a common cause of maternal deaths.
What are hormones?
Hormones are chemicals that coordinate different functions in your body by carrying messages through your blood to your organs, muscles and other tissues. These signals tell your body what to do and when to do it.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/banned-oxytocin-still-used-in-milk-supplied-in-delhi-hc-takes-note-9306510/
In which one of the following States is Bhadra Tiger Reserve located?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Recently, the number of people visiting the Bhadra tiger reserve for safari has gone up and the tourists need to take adequate care not to disturb this eco-sensitive zone.
It is situated in the midst of the Western Ghats region of Karnataka.
The reserve is unique as it nestled within several hill ranges. The habitat has a good population of elephants and is also an Elephant Reserve.
It boasts of a substantial tiger population and as such the sanctuary was declared the 25th Project Tiger reserve of India in 1998.
Rivers: It is well drained by the river Bhadra and its tributaries.
Vegetation: It has dry-deciduous, moist-deciduous, shola, and semi-evergreen patches.
Flora: Teak, Rosewood, Mathi, Honne, Nandi and many medicinal plants etc.
Fauna: Tiger, Leopard, Leopard cat, Dholes, Indian Civet, ungulates like Gaur, Sambar and Barking Deer are common.
Other Tiger Reserves of Karnataka: Bandipura, Nagarahole, Dandeli-Anshi and Biligiriranga Tiger Reserve
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/bhadra-tiger-reserve-a-paradise-for-scientists-tourists-and-photographers/article68128430.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Swing Trading:
- It is a form of trading in which investors hold onto stocks for several days or weeks.
- It allows investors to capitalise on both upward and downward movements in the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian stock market has been witnessing volatility amid the ongoing Lok Sabha elections and swing trading has been trending on the internet.
It is a style of trading where investors keep their positions for longer than a single day, typically holding onto stocks for several days or weeks.
The goal of swing trading is to capture gains in a stock’s value as it swings up and down.
A swing trader will look for stocks with high volume (a lot of trading activity) and volatility (price movement).
The entry into a swing trade involves setting up stop-loss orders (to limit potential losses) and target prices (to capture profits) based on support and resistance levels.
Swing traders buy at support (lower price level) and sell at resistance (higher price level) anticipating the stock’s price to swing back and forth within these bounds.
What’s the objective of swing trading?
The primary goal of swing trading is to profit from short- to medium-term fluctuations in stock prices.
Traders aim to enter and exit positions quickly, typically holding stocks for 2 days to a few weeks.
Swing traders capitalise on both upward and downward movements in the market, seeking to take advantage of trends and momentum.
Swing trading offers flexibility and can be less time-consuming compared to day trading. Traders can benefit from short- to medium-term gains and adjust their positions swiftly based on market conditions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/business/story/explained-what-is-swing-trading-stock-market-volatility-2534911-2024-05-03
Consider the following statements with reference to Eta Aquariid meteor shower:
- It forms when Earth passes through the orbital plane of the Halley’s Comet.
- It appears for the same number of times in both Northern and Southern hemispheres of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Eta Aquariid meteor shower, which has been active since April 15, will peak on May 5 and 6.
The Eta Aquariid meteor shower is formed when Earth passes through the orbital plane of the famous Halley’s Comet, which takes about 76 years to orbit the Sun once.
This shower seems to be originating from the Aquarius constellation — hence ‘Eta Aquariid’.
It is known for its rapid speed. This makes for long, glowing tails which can last up to several minutes.
About 30 to 40 Eta Aquarid meteors can be seen per hour during the peak of the meteor shower, if observed from the Southern Hemisphere.
The number decreases to about 10 meteors per hour if being viewed in the Northern Hemisphere. This is due to the location of the “radiant” — the position in the sky where the meteor shower seems to come from.
In the Northern Hemisphere, Eta Aquarid meteors most often appear as ‘Earthgrazers’ — long meteors which appear to skim the surface of the Earth. In the South, however, they can be seen higher up in the sky, and hence are more visible.
What are comets?
These are frozen leftovers from the formation of our solar system, some 4.6 billion years ago.
Comets are composed of dust, rock and ice, and orbit around the Sun in highly elliptical orbits which can, in some cases, take hundreds of thousands of years to complete.
Billions of them theorised to be orbiting the Sun beyond Neptune, in the Kuiper Belt and even more distant Oort cloud.
As they come closer to the Sun, comets “heat up and spew gases and dust into a glowing head that can be larger than a planet”. This material also forms a tail which stretches millions of miles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/eta-aquariid-meteor-shower-visible-9306317/
Consider the following statements with reference to delisting of shares:
- It refers to the shares of a listed company that can no longer be traded on the stock exchange.
- The company which intends to delist its share needs to buy back 90% of the total issued shares.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, an investor in Reliance Capital Ltd (RCL), which has been facing insolvency proceedings, has challenged certain regulations of SEBI’s delisting of shares norms.
It means removing the shares of a listed company from a stock exchange. Once delisted, the securities of that company can no longer be traded on the stock exchange.
Delisting can be either voluntary or compulsory.
In voluntary delisting, a company decides on its own to remove its securities from a stock exchange.
In compulsory delisting, they are removed as a penal measure for the company not making submissions or complying with requirements set out in the listing agreement within the prescribed timeframes.
If a company wants to delist its securities, it needs to buy back 90% of the total issued shares.
Key facts about SEBI
It is a statutory regulatory body that oversees the securities market in India.
It was established in April 1988 as an executive body and was given statutory powers in January 1992 through the SEBI Act, 1992.
It is responsible for issuing regulations for various participants in the securities market, such as listed companies, brokers, mutual funds, and rating agencies.
It monitors and regulates the Indian capital and securities market while ensuring to protect the interests of the investors, formulating regulations and guidelines.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/reliance-capital-ltd-challenge-resolution-plan-9305148/
Which one of the following statements best describes “Endosymbiotic Theory”?”
Some organelles in eukaryotic cells were once independent prokaryotic microbes.
Explanation :
Two papers published recently have generated new interest in the endosymbiotic theory.
About Endosymbiotic Theory:
The endosymbiotic theory states that some of the organelles in today’s eukaryotic cells were once prokaryotic microbes.
In this theory, the first eukaryotic cell was probably an amoeba-like cell that got nutrients by phagocytosis and contained a nucleus that formed when a piece of the cytoplasmic membrane pinched off around the chromosomes.
Some of these amoeba-like organisms ingested prokaryotic cells that then survived within the organism and developed a symbiotic relationship.
Mitochondria formed when bacteria capable of aerobic respiration were ingested; chloroplasts formed when photosynthetic bacteria were ingested. They eventually lost their cell wall and much of their DNA because they were not of benefit within the host cell.
The endosymbiotic theory describes how a large host cell and ingested bacteria could easily become dependent on one another for survival, resulting in a permanent relationship.
Over millions of years of evolution, mitochondria and chloroplasts have become more specialized, and today they cannot live outside the cell.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/can-the-newly-discovered-organelle-help-engineer-plants-to-fix-nitrogen/article68136173.ece
Which one of the following is the primary function of Boeing Starliner, recently seen in the news?
Transporting astronauts to the International Space Station
Explanation :
An Atlas V rocket is set to lift off with a team of two veteran astronauts sitting inside a crew capsule called Starliner, built by Boeing, on the capsule’s third test flight and the first with astronauts on board.
About Boeing Starliner:
Starliner is a spacecraft that transports astronauts into space after being launched there by a rocket.
It consists of a crew capsule and a service module.
The crew capsule houses the astronauts; like others of its kind, it will be able to survive reentry and return to the ground.
The service module consists of the equipment and systems the astronauts need to survive in space, including air and temperature control, water supply, sanitation, etc., plus the engines and fuel required to manoeuvre the spacecraft.
The service module won’t be reusable.
Starliner is more than 4 meters wide and can house up to seven astronauts.
The Starliner has an innovative, weldless structure and is reusable up to 10 times with a six-month turnaround time.
It also features wireless internet and tablet technology for crew interfaces.
It can be fit atop an Atlas V rocket, operated by United Launch Alliance, a joint venture between Boeing and Lockheed Martin.
What is Starliner’s purpose?
In 2014 2014, NASA announced it had awarded contracts to SpaceX and Boeing to fly astronauts to the International Space Station (ISS).
Since being awarded the NASA contracts, SpaceX has flown 13 missions to the ISS onboard its Dragon crew capsule (which can also house seven astronauts).
After NASA shut its Space Shuttle programme in 2011 and before SpaceX’s Dragon capsule got ready in 2020, only Russia’s Soyuz rocket and capsule could ferry astronauts to and from the ISS.
If the Starliner mission succeeds, the U.S. will, for the first time in its history, have two spacecraft to launch astronauts to space.
SpaceX and Boeing will take turns launching astronauts to the ISS—each crew’s expedition lasts up to six months—until the ISS is decommissioned next decade.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/significance-of-boeing-starliners-first-crewed-test-flight-on-may-7-explained/article68136296.ece
Bhavishya platform, recently launched by the Government of India, primarily aims to:
track pension sanction and payment process online
Explanation :
The Government’s Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare recently started the Integrated Pensioners’ Portal in collaboration with Bank of India.
About Integrated Pensioners’ Portal:
The portal is specifically designed to ensure complete digitization of the pension processing and payment system.
It combines the pension processing and payment services of five banks (Bank of India, State Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, Punjab National Bank, and Canara Bank) into a single window.
Most pension-disbursing banks will be integrated with the portal later.
Its primary objective is to achieve transparency and efficiency in pension-related services.
With this system, the pensioner’s personal and service particulars can be captured, which enables the online submission of pension forms.
Retirees will also be notified of the progress of their pension sanction through SMS or email, keeping them informed throughout the process.
A major feature of the IPP is that retirees can access their monthly pension slips, check the status of life certificates, submit Form 16, and view statements of arrears paid.
The portal has a Bhavishya platform and a Centralised Pension Grievances Redress and Monitoring System (CPENGRAMS).
Bhavishya platform:
It is an online Pension Sanction & Payment Tracking System launched by the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare.
It provides online tracking of pension sanction and payment process by the individual as well as the administrative authorities for all actions preparatory to grant pension and other retirement benefits, as well as payment of monthly pension after retirement.
The system captures the pensioners personal and service particulars.
The forms for processing pensions can be submitted online.
It keeps retiring employees informed of the progress of the pension sanction process through SMS/ Email. The system obviates delays in the payment of pensions by ensuring complete transparency and establishing accountability in the pension sanction and payment process.
The system obviates delays in the payment of pensions by ensuring complete transparency.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/personal-finance/retirement-planning/story/good-news-for-pensioners-centre-launches-integrated-pensioners-portal-check-details-here-428260-2024-05-04
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lakshya Aircraft:
- It is a re-usable high subsonic aerial target system powered by a gas turbine engine.
- It is designed and built by the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Aeronautical Development Establishment, a Bengaluru-based Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) lab that developed the Lakshya aircraft, has been visited by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
About Lakshya Aircraft:
It is an indigenously developed micro-light and pilot-less target aircraft.
It designed and built by the Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE), a subsidiary of DRDO, for the Indian Armed Forces.
The Lakshya was inducted into the Indian Air Force, Indian Navy, and Indian Army in 2000, 2001, and 2003, respectively.
It is a cost-effective re-usable high subsonic aerial target system powered by a gas turbine engine.
The engine is designed and manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in Bangalore.
It is required for evaluation and development trials of new surface-to-air and air-to-air weapon systems.
It carries two tow targets of tow lengths of 1.5 km each, having radar, IR or visual signature augmentation, and a Miss Distance Indication Scoring System.
These tow targets are used for training of land- or ship-based gun and missile crew and combat aircraft pilots in weapon engagement.
It was designed to launch either from land or sea through a zero-length launcher and be recovered by a dual stage parachute system.
The Lakshya can be controlled from the Ground Control Station (GCS) through pre-programmed hardware and software systems.
Designed to be reused for 15 missions, the aircraft can spiflicate airborne incoming enemy targets.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://sundayguardianlive.com/news/cbi-probes-role-of-drdo-employee-in-possible-graft
Consider the following statements with reference to the Artificial General Intelligence (AGI):
- It is a machine or software that can perform any intellectual task that a human can do.
- It can be used in healthcare and financial sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a recent interview, Sam Altman, CEO of OpenAI, expressed his commitment to invest billions of dollars towards the development of Artificial General Intelligence (AGI).
It refers to a machine or a software that can perform any intellectual task that a human can do. This includes reasoning, common sense, abstract thinking, background knowledge, transfer learning, ability to differentiate between cause and effect, etc.
It aims to emulate human cognitive abilities such that it allows it to do unfamiliar tasks, learn from new experiences, and apply its knowledge in new ways.
How is AGI different from AI we already use?
The main difference between AGI and the more common form of AI, also known as narrow AI, lies in their scope and capabilities.
Narrow AI is designed to perform specific tasks such as image recognition, translation, or even playing games like chess—at which it can outdo humans, but it remains limited to its set parameters.
On the other hand, AGI envisions a broader, more generalised form of intelligence, not confined to any particular task (like humans).
Applications of AGI
Healthcare: It can redefine diagnostics, treatment planning, and personalised medicine by integrating and analysing vast datasets, far beyond the capabilities of humans.
Finance and business: AGI could automate various processes and enhance the overall decision-making, offering real-time analytics and market predictions with accuracy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/artificial-general-intelligence-agi-9307895/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Blue Corner notice:
- It is issued to collect information about a person’s location or activities in relation to a criminal investigation.
- It is issued by the Interpol’s General Secretariat at the request of a member country’s Interpol National Central Bureau.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is likely to issue a Blue Corner notice against a political Party MP who fled to Germany on a diplomatic passport after allegations of sexual abuse.
It is a part of Interpol’s elaborate system of colour-coded notices, which enable countries to “share alerts and requests for information [on wanted persons/crimes] worldwide”.
This sharing of critical crime-related information is crucial for tackling internationally spread out criminal activities.
There are seven types of notices — Red Notice, Yellow Notice, Blue Notice, Black Notice, Green Notice, Orange Notice, and Purple Notice. Each has a different implication.
Red Notice: To seek the location and arrest of persons wanted for prosecution or to serve a sentence.
Yellow Notice: To help locate missing persons, often minors, or to help identify persons who are unable to identify themselves.
Blue Notice: To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location or activities in relation to a criminal investigation.
Black Notice: To seek information on unidentified bodies.
Green Notice: To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety.
Orange Notice: To warn of an event, a person, an object or a process representing a serious and imminent threat to public safety.
Purple Notice: To seek or provide information on modus operandi, objects, devices and concealment methods used by criminals.
These notices are issued by the Interpol’s General Secretariat at the request of a member country’s Interpol National Central Bureau and are made available for all member countries.
What is International Criminal Police Organization?
It is commonly known as Interpol, facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control.
Mandate: It is an international organization facilitating international police cooperation against cross-border terrorism, trafficking, and other crime.
Governance: All decisions regarding the activities of INTERPOL are made by the General Assembly which is its supreme governing body which meets annually.
Status: It is ‘NOT’ a unit or part of a united nation system. It is an independent international organization.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/blue-corner-notice-prajwal-revanna-9307699/
Koothandavar festival, recently in news, is celebrated in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
Koothandavar festival at Koovagam in Tamil Nadu plays out a tale of marriage and widowhood, all in a day.
In the Tamil month of Chithirai (mid-April to mid-May), the 18-day Koothandavar festival takes place in Koovagam of Tamil Nadu.
It is the annual event, steeped in tradition, garners global attention for its unique celebration of the transgender identity.
History
In a Tamil version of the Mahabharata, a character called Aravan offered himself as sacrifice for the Pandavas’ triumph in war.
It is said he had a boon of marriage before his sacrifice but no woman wanted to marry him as it would mean widowhood.
Eventually, it is said Lord Krishna married Aravan after taking the form of Mohini. Lore has it that Lord Krishna grieved for Aravan as a widow.
Rituals
The focal point of the festival, Lord Aravan’s sacrificical ritual.
On the 17th day of the ceremony, transwomen from far and wide congregate to wed Lord Aravan.
The next day, as the culmination of the festival, Aravan would be sacrificed in the war.
Marking his death, the transwomen who married him go through the rituals of widowhood, lamenting Aravan’s death.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/in-frames-vicissitudes-of-a-wedding/article68141754.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Paliyar Tribe.
- They mainly reside in the State of Karnataka.
- They never burn the dead bodies but have the customary practices of burying them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, a recent research carried out on ‘Paliyar Tribals in Kodaikanal and Theni areas’ urged the State government to take necessary and immediate steps to uplift the Paliyar tribes as well as the other such Adivasi communities.
The term ‘Paliyar ’ has been derived from the word ‘Palaniyan’ , which in Tamil language means a man from Palani.
They are and have been known by multiple names such as the Paliyans, Pazhaiyarares and Panaiyars.
Location: They are distributed in the districts of Madurai, Thanjavur, Pudukkottai Tirunelveli and Coimbatore of Tamil Nadu.
Language: They speak Tamil and use the Tamil script for both inter-group and intra-group communication.
Occupation: Traditionally, the Paliyars were hunters and gatherers.
The tribal people offer prayers to the Vanadevadai in the interior forest. They also worship god Karuppan by visiting a remote area of the forest along with the families
The Paliyar tribes never burned the dead bodies. They had the customary practices of burying the dead bodies in an area near to their residential area on the western side.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Madurai/state-government-urged-to-take-steps-to-uplift-paliyar-other-tribes/article68139968.ece
With reference to Goods & Services Tax Appellate Tribunal, consider the following statements:
- It is established under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017.
- Its members have a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 62 years.
- It is equivalent to a Civil Court for trying a case.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Centre has appointed retired Justice Sanjaya Kumar Mishra as the President of the Goods & Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT).
It represents a specialised authority formed to resolve GST-related disputes at the appellate level.
It is established under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017 (CGST Act) to hear various appeals under the said Act and the respective State/UT GST Acts.
It will have one Principal Bench located at Delhi and 31 State benches located at various locations across States.
Composition
It consists of the President (Head), a Judicial Member, and 2 Technical Members (one from the state and another from the Centre).
Further, there may be state benches consisting of two Judicial Members, a Technical Member (Centre) and a Technical Member (state).
Eligibility
The president must be a Supreme Court judge or have served the High Court as the Chief Justice.
The Judicial member must be a High Court Judge or has served as an Additional District Judge or a District Judge for a period of 10 years.
The Technical Member (Centre) must be an Indian Revenue Service member belonging to Group A or must be a member of All India Service with three years of experience in administering GST in the Central Government.
Also, the Technical Member from the Centre should have completed twenty-five years in Group A services.
The Technical Member (state) must be a state government officer or All India Service officer with the rank above Additional Commissioner of Value Added Tax; also, the rank should be above the First Appellate Authority.
The Technical Member from the state must have completed twenty-five years in Group A Services or equivalent and three years administering GST or finance and taxation in the State Government.
Age limit and Tenure: The president and judicial and technical members of GSTAT shall hold office for four years, or until he attains the age of 70 years and 67 years.
It is equivalent to a Civil Court for trying a case. It can pass orders, hear cases, impose penalties, and revoke or cancel registrations.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/policy/sanjaya-kumar-mishra-to-head-gst-appellate-tribunal/article68134666.ece
With reference to Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) technology, consider the following statements:
It is primarily inducted into nuclear-powered submarines.
It allows the submarines to stay for longer hours in the water.
It decreases the noise levels made by the submarines.
How many of the above statements are correct?
b. Only two
Explanation:
A massive Rs 60,000 crore contract to modernize the Indian Navy submarine fleet to build six stealth submarines equipped with Air Independent Propulsion (AIP) technology has started with trials of competing teams at Mazagaon Docks, Mumbai.
What is AIP?
With the emergence of submarines, there was a problem finding satisfactory forms of propulsion underwater.
Traditional diesel-electric submarines need to surface frequently to charge their batteries and have an underwater endurance of only a few days.
As battery technology improved, the endurance of these submarines increased proportionally. But it was not enough to last them beyond a week.
In 1908, the Imperial Russian Navy launched the submarine Pochtovy, which used a gasoline engine fed with compressed air and exhausted underwater.
These two approaches, the use of a fuel that provides energy to an open-cycle system, and the provision of oxygen to an aerobic engine in a closed cycle, characterise AIP today.
Most of these systems generate electricity, which, in turn drives an electric motor for propulsion or recharges the boat’s batteries.
The introduction of AIP vastly improved the underwater endurance of these submarines and gave them a distinct advantage.
AIP is mostly implemented as an auxiliary source, with the traditional diesel engine handling surface propulsion.
AIP technology can be installed on existing, older-generation submarines by inserting a new hull section during a retrofit.
A typical conventional power plant provides 3 megawatts maximum, and an AIP source around 10 percent of that. A nuclear submarine’s propulsion plant is much greater than 20 megawatts.
Advantages of AIP system:
It allows the submarines to stay for longer hours in the water.
It decreases the noise levels made by the submarines. This makes it hard to detect the submarines.
Types of AIP:Open-cycle systems, Closed-cycle diesel engines, Closed-cycle steam turbines Stirling cycle engines and Fuel cells.
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is using the fuel cells-based AIP System. It is unique as hydrogen is generatedThe plant was operated in endurance mode and max power mode as per the user requirements. The system is being developed by the Naval Materials Research Laboratory (NMRL) of DRDO.
Types of Submarines:
Conventional or Diesel-electric submarine: They need atmospheric oxygen to run the diesel generator, which in turn charges the batteries.
Nuclear Submarine: It is a submarine powered by a nuclear reactor, but not necessarily nuclear-armed. They have considerable performance advantages over conventional submarines.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.freepressjournal.in/india/indian-navys-ambitious-submarine-fleet-modernisation-to-advance-with-aip-technology
Which one of the following statements best describes the term “Drip Pricing”?
A pricing technique where additional charges are revealed gradually during the buying process.
Explanation :
The Centre recently warned about “drip pricing”, saying it can surprise consumers with “hidden charges”.
About Drip Pricing:
Drip pricing is a pricing technique in which firms advertise only part of a product’s price and reveal other charges later as the customer goes through the buying process.
Drip pricing may initially withhold unavoidable fees, such as booking, service, resort, or credit card fees, local hotel taxes, or any other add-ons like internet access or certain facilities and amenities that are required to use a product or service.
These additional and often mandatory costs are then disclosed by the seller one by one or “dripped” to the buyer at the point of purchase.
It is commonly used in the hospitality and travel markets, as well as for other online payments.
Companies may utilize a price-dipping approach in order to entice a customer into starting the purchase process, at which point the customer may not want to restart his or her search, once they find out the added costs.
It can be frustrating for consumers, who typically want to know up front how much a product or service will cost and may feel duped by later add-ons.
Drip pricing can make comparison shopping more difficult and penalize sellers who are more transparent with their pricing.
An example of price dipping is the cost of an airplane ticket that doesn’t include baggage fees.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/business/centre-issues-warning-against-drip-pricing-what-is-it-101714907056107.html
‘MQ-9B Predator’, recently seen in news, is a:
high-altitude Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
Explanation :
The MQ-9B Predator drones India will be buying from the United States will be placed in two States: Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.
About MQ-9B Predator:
It is a high-altitude, long-endurance armed Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV), capable of remotely controlled or autonomous flight operations.
It is a variant of the MQ-9 “Reaper” developed by General Atomics Aeronautical Systems (GA-ASI), with its primary purpose being for the United States Air Force (USAF).
The United States uses these drones for surveillance, intelligence gathering, and airstrikes.
The MQ-9B drone has two variants: SkyGuardian and SeaGuardian. The latter has been in operation by the Indian Navy since 2020.
Features:
It can carry up to 5,670 kg and has a fuel capacity of 2,721 kg.
It can operate at altitudes exceeding 40,000 feet.
It can fly as close as 250 metres from the ground without the target even having an inkling it is there unless spotted.
With a maximum endurance of 40 hours, they provide a reliable platform for prolonged surveillance.
It has a top speed of 275 mph, or 442 km/h.
It is armed with strike missiles, allowing it to engage and eliminate enemy targets with high precision. It can carry four Hellfire missiles and around 450 kg of bombs.
This feature enhances its effectiveness in various roles, including land and maritime surveillance, anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, electronic warfare, and expeditionary missions.
It is capable of automatic take-offs and landings, providing operational flexibility.
It can safely integrate into civil airspace, enabling joint forces and civil authorities to obtain real-time situational awareness in the maritime domain, day or night.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/india-to-strategically-place-hunter-killer-predator-drones-from-us-in-up-tamil-nadu-12712355.html
With reference to Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), consider the following statements:
- They can only accept demand deposits from the public.
- They do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself.
- Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to depositors of NBFCs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) are increasing their fixed deposit (FD) rates to mop up funds that can make up for lower bank borrowings.
About Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC):
An NBFC is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956, engaged in the business of loans and advances, the acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by the Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business.
It does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, the purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property.
A non-banking institution which is a company and has the principal business of receiving deposits under any scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or in installments by way of contributions, or in any other manner, is also an NBFC (Residuary non-banking company).
Generally, these institutions are not allowed to take traditional demand deposits from the public. They can only accept time deposits, and they do not provide savings or current account facilities.
They cannot accept deposits for a period less than 12 months and more than 60 months.
NBFCs cannot offer interest rates higher than the ceiling rate prescribed by RBI from time to time. The present ceiling is 12.5 per cent per annum.
NBFCs also provide a wide range of monetary advice like chit-reserves and advances.
NBFCs lend and make investments, and hence their activities are akin to that of banks; however, there are a few differences as given below:
NBFCs do not have a banking license;
NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits;
NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on itself;
deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs, unlike in the case of banks.
Unlike banks, NBFCs are not subjected to stringent and substantial regulations.
Regulation:
The functions of the NBFCs are managed by both the Ministry of Corporate Affairs and the RBI.
The RBI has the authority to issue licenses to NBFCs, regulate their operations, and ensure that they adhere to the established norms and regulations.
NBFCs are categorized
in terms of the types of liabilities into Deposit and Non-Deposit accepting NBFCs,
non-deposit taking NBFCs by their size into systemically important and other non-deposit holding companies (NBFC-NDSI and NBFC-ND) and
by the kind of activity, they conduct.
What are systemically important NBFCs?
NBFCs whose asset size is ₹ 500 crore or more as per the last audited balance sheet are considered systemically important NBFCs.
The rationale for such classification is that the activities of such NBFCs will have a bearing on the financial stability of the overall economy.
Examples of NBFCs include investment banks, mortgage lenders, money market funds, insurance companies, equipment leasing companies, infrastructure finance companies, hedge funds, private equity funds, and P2P lenders.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.financialexpress.com/money/nbfcs-raise-fixed-deposit-rates-go-for-longer-tenures-in-fds-with-higher-credit-ratings-3477869/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Capital Gains Tax (CGT):
- It is levied on profits accumulated from the sale of any capital assets, including rights in or in relation to an Indian company.
- It applies to both individuals and businesses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Finance Minister has denied reports that the Income Tax Department is planning to introduce changes in the capital gains tax structure in case the government is voted back to power in the ongoing Lok Sabha 2024 polls.
About Capital Gains Tax (CGT):
The term capital gains can be defined as profits accumulated from the sale of any capital asset.
Land, buildings, house property, vehicles, patents, trademarks, leasehold rights, machinery, and jewellery are a few examples of capital assets.
This includes having rights in or in relation to an Indian company.
It also includes the rights of management, control, or any other legal right.
Depending on the duration, capital gains can either be short-term or long-term.
Since profits are categorised as an ‘income’, they are liable for taxation, which is known as CGT.
Such taxes are levied when an asset is transferred between owners.
This tax applies to both individuals and businesses.
Taxpaying individuals can use tax-efficient financial strategies to reduce the burden of their CGT.
There are two types of CGT: Short-term CGT and Long-term CGT
Short-term CGT:
Any asset that is held for less than 36 months is termed as a short-term asset.
In the case of immovable properties, the duration is 24 months.
The profits generated through the sale of such an asset would be treated as short-term capital gain and would be taxed accordingly.
Long-term CGT:
Any asset that is held for over 36 months is termed as a long-term asset.
Assets like preference shares, equities, UTI units, securities, equity-based Mutual Funds and zero-coupon bonds are also considered as long-term capital asset if they are held for over a year.
The profits generated through the sale of such an asset would be treated as long-term capital gain and would attract tax accordingly.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/markets/news/fm-s-clarification-on-capital-gains-tax-could-see-markets-recover-on-monday-124050400291_1.html
What is the primary objective of a Nifty Non-Cyclical Index Fund, recently seen in the news?
To invest in securities of companies that are not impacted by economic instability
Explanation :
Groww Mutual Fund recently launched India’s first Nifty Non-Cyclical Consumer Index Fund.
About Nifty Non-Cyclical Index Fund:
It is a type of mutual fund that aims to generate long-term capital growth by investing in securities of the Nifty Non-Cyclical Consumer Index (TRI).
This index contains 30 companies that are not majorly impacted by economic instability and are in regular demand, making them a good investment option during economic downturns.
Non-cyclical stocks are also known as defensive stocks; these stocks outperform their industry in the stock market despite economic instability.
They are not affected by cyclical changes and are in constant demand due to the everyday needs of consumers, such as food, water, and other utilities.
Key Facts about NIFTY:
NIFTY is a market index introduced by the National Stock Exchange (NSE),India’s largest stock exchange.
It is a blended word: National Stock Exchange and Fifty coined by the NSE.
Nifty was established in 1996 with the name CNX Nifty. Further, in 2015, it was renamed Nifty 50.
NIFTY 50 is a benchmark-based index and also the flagship of NSE.
It represents the performance of the 50 largest and most actively traded stocks listed on the NSE.
It includes stocks of companies from 12 sectors, such as financial services, information technology, consumer goods, metals, pharmaceuticals, energy, etc,and collectively represents the stock market and economic trends of India.
NSE ranks companies based on free-float market capitalisation.
It is one of the two main stock market indices in India, the other being SENSEX, a product of the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/mf/analysis/groww-mutual-fund-launches-nifty-non-cyclical-consumer-index-fund/articleshow/109780486.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the Participatory Notes:
- These are financial instruments used by investors to invest in the Indian securities.
- These are issued by the Reserve Bank of India to overseas investors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) domiciled at the GIFT International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) and registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) have been allowed to issue participatory notes.
These are often referred to as PNs or P-Notes.
These are financial instruments used by investors and hedge funds to invest in the Indian securities, and no registration is required with the Security Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Investments flowing in through PNs are considered as offshore derivative investments.
These are issued by registered FPIs to overseas investors who wish to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly.
While the FIIs have to report all such investments each quarter to SEBI, they need not disclose the identity of the actual investors.
What is Foreign Portfolio Investment?
It refers to the purchase and holding of a wide array of foreign financial assets by investors seeking to invest in a country outside their own.
Foreign portfolio investors have access to a range of investment instruments such as stocks, bonds, mutual funds, derivatives, fixed deposits, etc.
FPI generally intends to invest money into the foreign country’s stock market to generate a quick return.
In India, foreign portfolio investment is regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/markets/news/gift-city-foreign-portfolio-investors-allowed-to-issue-participatory-notes-124050301109_1.html
Hopen Island, recently in news, is situated in:
Southeast of Svalbard
Explanation :
The first case of a walrus dying from bird flu has been detected on Hopen Island in the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard.
It is a small, remote island in the far southeast of Svalbard and part of the Southeast Svalbard Nature Reserve.
It is mostly covered by rocks and continuous permafrost, with a very narrow beach from which the landscape rises sharply.
In the north of the island there are steep cliffs with horizontal shelves which are ideal for breeding seabirds, including the globally vulnerable Atlantic puffin.
Fauna: There are huge seabird colonies on steep cliffs with Brunich’s Guillemots, Kittywakes, Fulmars etc.
The numbers of breeding birds here make Hopen one of the most important seabirds island of the Barents Sea.
Key facts about Walrus
It is a pinniped, or fin-footed mammal, and is related to seals and sea lions. Their skin is covered by a thin layer of small coarse hairs.
It is easily recognised by its sheer size and magnificent tusks. It is a keystone species in Arctic marine ecosystems.
Walruses are terrestrial, marine mammals, meaning they can swim in the ocean and walk on land and sea ice.
They typically eat mollusks, but worms, snails, soft shell crabs, shrimp, and sea cucumbers can also be found on their menu.
Distribution: Walruses live in Arctic and sub-Arctic regions of the world near the North Pole. They can be found in the Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean, and Arctic Ocean.
Threats: It is threatened by commercial hunting, but today the biggest danger it faces is climate change.
Conservation status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/first-case-of-walrus-dying-from-bird-flu-recorded-on-arctic-island-researcher-716830
Lake Maracaibo, recently in news, is located in:
Venezuela
Explanation :
A convergence of several factors give rise to the unique conditions required for Catatumbo lightning.
It is a natural phenomenon that occurs over the Catatumbo River in Venezuela, where lightning strikes almost continuously.
This phenomenon primarily happens at the mouth of the Catatumbo River, where it meets Lake Maracaibo, the largest lake in Venezuela.
How it occurs?
Warm, moist air from the Caribbean Sea is pushed towards the Andes mountains, where it collides with cooler air descending from the peaks.
This collision creates a perfect storm of sorts, as the warmer air is forced to rise rapidly by the shape of the local landscape. And as it does, it cools and condenses, forming towering cumulonimbus clouds.
Meanwhile, the combination of strong winds and temperature differentials generates electrical charges within these clouds.
The cumulonimbus clouds — sometimes reaching heights of more than 5 km — load up on static electricity.
When the electrical potential within the clouds becomes too great, it discharges in the form of lightning.
Catatumbo lightning is distinguished by its frequency and duration: the strikes occur for up to 160 nights in a year, with an average of 28 lightning strikes per minute at its peak. Thanks to this constant flow of current, the area has earned the title of “the lightning capital of the world”.
Key facts about Lake Maracaibo
It is located in Venezuela and is the largest lake in Latin America.
It is also among the oldest water bodies on the planet. Its proximity to the Andes Mountains and the Caribbean Sea creates a unique geographical setup that plays a crucial role in the frequency of lightning in the region.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header
With reference to Sahyadri Tiger reserve, consider the following statements:
- It has the presence of barren rocky and lateritic plateaus locally called Sadas.
- It is located in the State of Karnataka.
- It includes the area around Koyna Dam and Warna river.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Maharashtra forest department is gearing up for translocation of a few tigers from the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) in Chandrapur to Sahyadri Tiger reserve.
It is located in the Sahyadri Ranges of the Western Ghats in Maharashtra.
It was notified in 2010 by amalgamating the Chandoli national park and Koyna wildlife sanctuary.
The region of this Tiger Reserve includes the area around the Koyna Dam, the Warna River, and many other small rivers and streams originating from the Western Ghats and flowing to the east.
Unique features
It is undulating with steep escarpments along western boundary.
The most distinct feature of the Tiger Reserve is the presence of numerous barren rocky and lateritic plateaus, locally called “Sadas”, with less perennial vegetation and over hanging cliffs on the edges along with numerous fallen boulders with dense thorny bushes.
Sahyadri Tiger Reserve is the only place where climax and near-climax vegetations are plentiful and prospects of adverse anthropogenic influence in the future are minimal.
Vegetation: The forest cover here is that of moist evergreen, semi-evergreen, moist, and dry deciduous vegetation.
Flora: There are many medicinal and fruit-bearing trees along with the commercial hard wood trees in the reserve.
Fauna: Tiger, leopard, and some lesser cats along with the wolf, jackal, and wild dog.
Other tiger reserves of Maharashtra: Melghat Tiger Reserve, Bor Tiger Reserve, Nawegaon-Nagzira Tiger Reserve, Pench Tiger Reserve and Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/mumbai/maharashtra-gears-up-to-translocate-tigers-from-tatr-to-sahyadri-reserve-9310281/
Consider the following statements with reference to Goldene:
- It is one atom thick first free-standing 2D metal.
- It can be used in carbon dioxide conversion and hydrogen-generating catalysis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
For the first time, researchers have created a free-standing sheet of gold that is only one atom thick and named it as Goldene.
It is the first free-standing 2D metal and is only one atom thick.
How it is created?
Researchers first sandwiched an atomic monolayer of silicon between layers of titanium carbide.
When they deposited gold on top of this sandwich structure, the gold atoms diffused into the material and replaced the silicon atoms, forming a trapped monolayer of gold atoms.
Subsequently, scientists etched away the titanium carbide layers to create a free-standing, one atom thick layer of gold.
This was done with the help of an age-old Japanese technique used to forge katanas and high-quality knives, using a chemical popularly known as Murakami’s reagent.
These sheets of goldene are roughly 100 nanometres thick (a nanometre is a billionth of a metre), approximately 400 times thinner than the thinnest commercially available gold leaf.
Applications
It can be used in electronics industry.
It could also be used in carbon dioxide conversion, hydrogen-generating cat alysis, selective production of value-added chemicals, hydrogen production, water purification, etc.
Significance: It holds promise as a great catalyst because it’s much more economically viable than thicker, three-dimensional gold.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/goldene-a-sheet-of-gold-that-is-only-one-atom-thick-9310360/
Consider the following statements with reference to Choline:
- It is an essential nutrient that supports cellular growth and metabolism in human body.
- The human body cannot produce choline on its own and must obtain it from the diet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered that an essential nutrient called choline is transported into the brain by a protein called FLVCR2.
About Choline:
It is an essential nutrient that supports various bodily functions, including cellular growth and metabolism.
It exists as both water-soluble and fat-soluble molecules. The body transports and absorbs choline differently depending on its form.
The body can also produce small amounts of choline on its own in the liver, but not enough to meet daily needs. As a result, humans must obtain some choline from the diet.
The richest dietary sources of choline are meat, fish, dairy, and eggs. Many fruits, vegetables, and whole grains contain choline as well.
Functions:
Cell structure: It is a constituent of an important class of lipids (fats) called phospholipids (e.g., lecithin), which form structural elements of cell membranes. Therefore, all plant and animal cells need choline to preserve their structural integrity.
It serves as a source of the methyl groups (―CH3 groups), which are required in various metabolic processes.
Liver Health: Choline is also required to clear cholesterol from your liver. Deficiencies cause fat and cholesterol accumulation in your liver, which puts you at risk for nonalcoholic fatty liver disease.
A healthy nervous system: This nutrient is required to make acetylcholine, an important neurotransmitter. It’s involved in memory, muscle movement, regulating the heartbeat, and other basic functions.
Choline also plays important roles in modulating gene expression, cell membrane signaling, lipid transport and metabolism, and early brain development.
It is also “food” for beneficial gut bacteria.
Choline deficiency can lead to health conditions, such as cardiovascular disease and muscular damage.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.news-medical.net/news/20240502/UQ-research-finds-molecular-doorways-to-help-deliver-drugs-into-the-brain.aspx
With reference to Venus, consider the following statements:
- It is the hottest planet in the Solar system.
- Venus and Earth are similar in density, composition and gravity.
- It is highly visible from Earth due to its reflective clouds.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A team of US scientists has shown through computer simulations that the absence of water on Venus results from hydrogen chemistry in the planet’s atmosphere and not just because it is a scorching hot planet.
About Venus:
It is the second planet from the Sun and the sixth largest planet.
It is the hottest planet in the Solar System, even though Mercury is twice as close to the Sun and receives four times more solar energy.
Venus’ atmosphere traps heat from the sun as an extreme version of the greenhouse effect that warms Earth.
Temperatures on Venus reach 880 degrees Fahrenheit (471 degrees Celsius), which is more than hot enough to melt lead.
Venus and Earth are often called twins because they are similar in size, mass, density, composition, and gravity.
Venus is only a little bit smaller than Earth, with a mass of about 80% of Earth’s.
Composition:
It is not a gas planet, but a rocky planet. The interior of Venus is made up of a central iron core and a rocky mantle, similar in composition to Earth.
Its atmosphere is made up of mainly carbon dioxide (96%) and nitrogen (3.5%), with trace amounts of carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, water vapour, argon, and helium making up the other 0.5%.
Venus is one of only two planets in our solar system that doesn’t have a moon (the other being Mercury).
Venus is unusual because it spins the opposite direction of Earth and most other planets.
It takes 243 Earth days to rotate on its axis, which is by far the slowest of any of the major planets.
It takes 225 Earth days for Venus to go all the way around the Sun. That means that a day on Venus is a little longer than a year on Venus.
Venus is highly visible from Earth due to its reflective clouds. In the sky, Venus appears as a brilliant white object that is one of the brightest natural things in the night sky.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.telegraphindia.com/science-tech/study-finds-why-water-vanished-from-venus-hydrogen-chemistry-at-play/cid/2018119
Consider the following statements with reference to Orangutans:
- They are the smallest arboreal mammals that live in Amazon rainforests.
- All the species of Orangutans are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists recently observed a wild male orangutan repeatedly rubbing chewed-up leaves of a medicinal plant on a facial wound in a forest reserve in Indonesia.
About Orangutans:
Known for their distinctive red fur, Orangutans are the largest arboreal (animals that live in trees) mammals.
They spend more than 90 percent of their waking hours in the trees.
Distribution: They live on the Indonesian island of Sumatra and on both the Malaysian and Indonesian portions of the island of Borneo.
Habitat: Habitats range from peat swamp forests near sea level to mountainous forests almost a mile (1.6 kilometers) above sea level.
There are three species of Orangutans-the Bornean, Sumatran, and Tapanuli.
They are one of humankind’s closest relatives. These great apes share 96.4% of our genes and are highly intelligent creatures.
Features:
The adult male is typically twice the size of the female and may attain a height of 1.3 metres (4.3 feet) and a weight of 130 kg (285 pounds) in the wild.
They have long, sparse orange or reddish hair unequally distributed over their bodies.
They are very well adapted to life in the trees, with arms much longer than their legs. They have grasping hands and feet with long curved fingers and toes.
Older males develop wide cheek pads, a unique feature among primates.
Lifespan: Up to 50 years in the wild.
Diet: Daytime eaters, their diet consists mostly of fruit and leaves, but they also eat nuts, bark, insects, and, once in a while, bird eggs, too.
Social Structure: Orangutans live semi-solitary lives in the wild. While they are the most solitary of the great apes, they exhibit social tolerance during times of high fruit abundance when they come together in aggregations known as parties.
Conservation status: All three species are classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/in-a-first-an-orangutan-is-seen-using-medicinal-plant-to-treat-a-wound/articleshow/109829227.cms
Consider the following:
- Russia
- Turkey
- Iran
- Ukraine
How many of the above countries share border with the Black Sea?
Only three
Explanation :
Ukraine’s exploding drone boats appear to be hunting down smaller, high-speed vessels in the Black Sea after Russia pulled back its larger warships following a spate of devastating attacks.
About Black Sea:
It is a large inland sea located at the southeastern extremity of Europe.
It covers an area of approximately 436,000 square kilometers (168,000 square miles).
Bordering countries: It is bordered by Ukraine to the north, Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.
Russia has the longest coastline on the sea (2,300 km), followed by Turkey (1,329 km) and Ukraine (1,282 km).
The Crimean Peninsula extends into it from the north.
It is connected with the Aegean Sea (an arm of the Mediterranean Sea) through the Bosporus Strait, the Sea of Marmara, and the Dardanelles Strait, and with the Sea of Azov by the Kerch Strait.
Created when structural upheavals in Asia Minor split off the Caspian basin from the Mediterranean Sea, the Black Sea gradually became isolated; salinity is now less than half that of the world’s oceans.
The Black Sea receives freshwater inflows all around the basin. It is a meeting point for many rivers, such as the Danube, Southern Bug, Dnieper, Rioni and Dniester.
It is the largest meromictic basin, which means the movement of water between the lower and upper layers of the Sea is rare.
It is one of the world’s largest anoxic basins, meaning it has areas with very little dissolved oxygen.
Islands: It contains several islands, with the largest ones being Snake Island (Ukraine), Giresun Island (Turkey), and St. Ivan Island (Bulgaria).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.businessinsider.in/international/news/watch-an-exploding-ukrainian-drone-boat-dodge-fire-from-the-air-to-kill-one-of-the-small-high-speed-russian-ships-still-fighting-in-the-black-sea/articleshow/109894022.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the FWD-200B, recently seen in the news:
- It is an indigenous military-grade bomber Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
- It is designed and manufactured by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India’s first indigenous bomber UAV aircraft, the FWD-200B, developed by Flying Wedge Defence, an Indian defence and aerospace company, was unveiled recently.
About FWD-200B:
It is an indigenous military grade bomber Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
It is India’s first indigenous unmanned bomber aircraft.
It is designed and manufactured by Flying Wedge Defence and Aerospace Technologies, an Indian defence and aerospace company.
It has a payload capacity of 100 kg and is classified as a MALE (medium-altitude, long-endurance) Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle.
The Unmanned Aerial System (UAS) consists of optical surveillance payloads and is integrated with missile-like weapons for precision air strikes.
It has a maximum speed of 370 kmph (200 knots), an endurance capacity of 12 to 20 hours, and a ground control station range of 200 km.
At six metres long, with an eight-metre wingspan, the aircraft can carry a maximum take-off weight of 498 kg and has an operational altitude of 9,000 feet above mean sea level.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/karnataka/2024/May/04/first-indigenous-bomber-uav-unveiled-in-bengalur
Consider the following statements with reference to the Magnetic Resonance Imaging:
- It uses the body’s natural magnetic properties to generate 2D or 3D images of the scanned body.
- It is a non-invasive diagnostic procedure used in medical field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
For those trying to look inside the human body without surgery, magnetic resonance imaging is an indispensable tool.
It is used to obtain images of soft tissues within the body. Soft tissue is any tissue that hasn’t become harder through calcification.
It is a non-invasive diagnostic procedure widely used to image the brain, the cardiovascular system, the spinal cord and joints, various muscles, the liver, arteries, etc.
Its use is particularly important in the observation and treatment of certain cancers, including prostate and rectal cancer, and to track neurological conditions including Alzheimer’s, dementia, epilepsy, and stroke.
The MRI technique’s use of strong magnetic fields, individuals with embedded metallic objects (like shrapnel) and metallic implants, including pacemakers, may not be able to undergo MRI scans.
Working:
In MRI procedure reveals an image of a body part using the hydrogen atoms in that part.
It uses the body’s natural magnetic properties to produce detailed images from any part of the body. For imaging purposes the hydrogen nucleus (a single proton) is used because of its abundance in water and fat.
The machine includes a superconducting magnet creating a stable magnetic field, aligning hydrogen atom spins. A radiofrequency pulse is emitted, exciting excess atoms.
When the pulse stops, these atoms emit energy, detected and converted into signals by a receiver. These signals are processed by a computer to generate detailed 2D or 3D images of the scanned body part.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-magnetic-resonance-imaging-explained/article68145357.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Chloropicrin:
- It is a compound that is used both as a warfare agent and pesticide.
- It is manufactured in a chemical reaction involving sodium hypochlorite and nitromethane.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The U.S. State Department accused Russia of using chemical agent chloropicrin in Ukraine which is a violation of the Chemical Weapons Convention.
It is a chemical compound which is also known as nitrochloroform. It is used both as a warfare agent and pesticide.
Appearance: It is a colourless to yellow oily liquid.
It is used broadly as a fungicide, herbicide, insecticide, nematicide and antimicrobial.
It is an irritant with characteristics of a tear gas. It has an intensely irritating odour, and can be absorbed through inhalation, ingestion, and the skin.
It was first made for use as a poison gas in the First World War, by both the Allied and the Central Powers.
Manufacturing
It’s manufactured in a chemical reaction involving sodium hypochlorite (which in dilute form is called bleach) and nitromethane (a common industrial solvent).
It can also be made by combining chloroform with nitric acid, which yields chloropicrin and water.
Impacts on Health
Chloropicrin has documented irritating and tears-inducing effects on humans, and is also known to be highly toxic and carcinogenic and also induce vomiting.
Key facts about Chemical Weapons Convention
It is a multilateral treaty that bans chemical weapons and requires their destruction within a specified period of time.
It entered into force in 1997.
It requires states-parties to declare in writing to the OPCW their chemical weapons stockpiles, chemical weapons production facilities (CWPFs), relevant chemical industry facilities, and other weapons-related information.
It is open to all nations and currently has 193 states-parties.
India is a signatory and party to the Chemical Weapons Convention. It has signed the treaty at Paris in 1993.
It is pursuant to provisions of the Convention enacted the Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/us-accuses-russia-of-using-chemical-weapons-against-ukraine/article68135164.ece
Fusobacterium nucleatum, recently in news, is mainly found in:
human mouth
Explanation :
In a new study, a group of researchers has identified a distinct subtype of the Fusobacterium nucleatum that’s found in relatively greater quantities in colorectal cancer (CRC) tumours.
Fusobacteria are Gram-negative anaerobic bacilli with species-specific reservoirs in the human mouth, gastrointestinal tract and elsewhere.
It has long been considered as an opportunistic pathogen given its frequent isolation and identification in anaerobic samples from patients with different infections.
Highlights of the research
The researchers first analyzed the genomes of F. nucleatum types taken from human colorectal tumors and from the mouths of people without cancer. Out of its several known subspecies, only one, called F. nucleatum animalis (or Fna), was routinely found in the tumor samples.
Additional genetic analyses revealed that Fna could be divided even further, into two separate groups.
While both groups were found in about equal proportions in the mouth, only one, dubbed Fna C2, was found in colorectal tumor samples in substantial numbers.
Fna C2’s higher resistance to acid, which could allow it to potentially reach the intestines directly from the mouth, through the stomach.
Fna C2 also had the ability to hide inside certain tumor cells, which could protect it from the immune system. And it was able to use nutrients found in the gastrointestinal tract, which are very different from those found in the mouth.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/a-mouth-bacteria-has-starring-role-in-colorectal-cancer-study-finds/article68145511.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to India VIX:
- It is an index that serves as a measure of market expectation of volatility in India.
- It has a strong positive correlation with Nifty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, volatility gauge India VIX surged to as much as 15 percent to 16.58, prompting experts to advise caution against large leveraged positions.
It is an index that serves as a measure of market expectation of volatility in the near term. It is also known as fear index.
Volatility signifies the rate and magnitude of change in the stock price or index value.
The movement in the VIX index reflects the overall market volatility expectations over the next 30 days.
So, a spike in the VIX value means the market is expecting higher volatility in the near future.
The VIX index was first created by the Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE) and introduced in 1993 based on the prices of S&P 500 index.
Since then, it has become a globally recognised gauge of volatility in the U.S equity markets.
The India VIX was launched with a similar intent in 2010 and is based on the computation methodology of CBOE though amended to align with the Indian markets.
India VIX It is calculated by the National Stock Exchange.
India VIX has a strong negative correlation with Nifty. When the India VIX falls, the Nifty is seen to rise and vice versa.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/markets/india-vix-jumps-above-16-5-amid-election-led-volatility-experts-advise-caution-on-leveraged-positions-12715589.html
Consider the following statements with reference to carbon farming:
- It is a whole farm approach to optimise carbon capture on working landscapes.
- It can help ameliorate soil degradation and challenges related to climate variability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The practice of carbon farming is easy to adopt across various agro-climatic zones and it can also help ameliorate soil degradation, water scarcity, and challenges related to climate variability.
It is a whole farm approach to optimizing carbon capture on working landscapes by implementing practices that are known to improve the rate at which CO2 is removed from the atmosphere and stored in plant material and/or soil organic matter.
The practice is easy to adopt across various agro-climatic zones. It can also help ameliorate soil degradation, water scarcity, and challenges related to climate variability.
Its effectiveness varies depending on multiple factors — geographical location, soil type, crop selection, water availability, biodiversity, and farm size and scale. Its usefulness also depends on land management practices, sufficient policy support, and community engagement.
How can carbon farming help?
A simple implementation of carbon farming is rotational grazing. Others include agroforestry, conservation agriculture, integrated nutrient management, agro-ecology, livestock management, and land restoration.
Agroforestry practices: It includes silvopasture and alley cropping which can further diversify farm income by sequestering carbon in trees and shrubs.
Conservation agriculture techniques: It includes zero tillage, crop rotation, cover cropping, and crop residue management (stubble retention and composting) can help minimise soil disturbance and enhance organic content, particularly in places with other intense agricultural activities.
Integrated nutrient management practices promote soil fertility and reduce emissions by using organic fertilizers and compost.
Agro-ecological approaches such as crop diversification and intercropping have benefits for ecosystem resilience.
Livestock management strategies including rotational grazing, optimising feed quality, and managing animal waste can reduce methane emissions and increase the amount of carbon stored away in pasture lands.
Carbon Farming Schemes Worldwide
‘4 per 1000’ initiative: It was launched during the COP21 climate talks in 2015 in Paris highlights the particular role of sinks in mitigating greenhouse-gas emissions.
Agricultural Carbon Project: It is Kenya’s initiative which is supported by the World Bank and highlights the potential for carbon farming.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-is-carbon-farming-explained/article68147027.ece
Which among the following is the causative agent of West Nile Fever, recently seen in the news?
Virus
Explanation :
Kerala’s health department recently reported West Nile fever cases in three districts.
About West Nile Fever:
It is a disease caused by the West Nile Virus (WNV).
WNV is a member of the flavivirus genus and belongs to the Japanese encephalitis antigenic complex of the family Flaviviridae.
Birds are the natural hosts of WNV.
The virus is commonly found in Africa, Europe, the Middle East, North America, and West Asia.
It can cause a deadly neurological disease in humans.
It is named after the West Nile district of Uganda, where it was first identified in 1937.
Transmission:
It is most commonly spread to people by the bite of an infected mosquito. The mosquitoes get the virus when they bite an infected bird.
There is no evidence that WNV can be spread directly from one person to another.
But there have been a few cases where it has spread through organ transplants.
Symptoms:
Most people infected by the virus are asymptomatic (no symptoms).
Symptoms include fever, headache, tiredness, body aches, nausea, vomiting, occasional skin rash, and swollen lymph glands.
The symptoms of severe disease (also called neuroinvasive disease, such as West Nile encephalitis or meningitis or West Nile poliomyelitis) include headache, high fever, neck stiffness, stupor (near-unconsciousness), disorientation, coma, tremors, convulsions, muscle weakness, and paralysis.
Treatment:
There is no medicine or vaccine available against the WNV.
Treatment is based on supportive care involving hospitalisation, intravenous fluids, respiratory support, and prevention of secondary infections.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livemint.com/science/keralas-west-nile-fever-health-department-on-alert-issues-directives-to-take-mosquito-control-measures-11715131414507.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Pyrenees Mountains:
- It is a fold mountain chain located in southwestern Europe.
- It forms a natural border between France and Germany.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
xplanation :
The French President recently hosted Chinese President Xi Jinping at the Tourmalet Pass in the Pyrenees for private meetings.
About Pyrenees Mountains:
The Pyrenees are a chain of mountains in southwestern Europe that form a natural border between Spain and France.
It is a fold mountain chain created by the continental collision of the microcontinent of Iberia with the massive Eurasian plate.
They are quite old mountains in comparison to the Alps.
It extends for about 500 km from the coasts of the Mediterranean Sea in the east to the Bay of Biscay (Atlantic Ocean) in the west.
Politically, it is divided into the Spanish and French Pyrenees. The tiny country of Andorra is found sandwiched between them, in the eastern part of the Pyrenees Mountains.
It separates the rest of continental Europe from the Iberian Peninsula.
The western end of the Pyrenees Mountains merges with the Cantabrian Mountains, located in the northern part of the Iberian Peninsula.
Located in Spain, Aneto Peak, is the highest mountain peak in the Pyrenees Mountains (3,404 m).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.oneindia.com/international/xi-macron-meet-french-pyrenees-personal-diplomacy-011-3819113.html
Which among the following best describes Spektr-RG (SRG), recently seen in the news?
A space observatory to study the universe in the X-ray range.
Explanation :
Astronomers report the discovery of a new pulsar using the Spektr-RG space observatory.
About Spektr-RG (SRG):
Spektr-Rentgen-Gamma (Spektr-RG, SRG) is a German-Russian high-energy astrophysics space observatory to study the universe in the X-ray range of electromagnetic radiation.
It was launched in 2019 on a Proton-M rocket from the cosmodrome in Baikonur, Kazakhstan.
It moves along a so-called halo orbit around the outer Lagrange point (L2) of the Sun-Earth system at a distance of 1.5 million km from the Earth with a period of about 6 months.
A Lagrange point is a position in space where the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the centripetal force required for a small object to move with them.
Instruments:
The primary instrument of the mission is eROSITA, built by the Max Planck Institute for Extraterrestrial Physics (MPE) in Germany.
It is designed to conduct a seven-year X-ray survey, the first in the medium X-ray band less than 10 keV energies, and the first to map an estimated 100,000 galaxy clusters.
This survey may detect new clusters of galaxies and active galactic nuclei.
The second instrument, ART-XC, is a Russian high-energy X-ray telescope capable of detecting supermassive black holes.
It is intended to replace the Spektr-R, known as the “Russian Hubble”. Spektr-R was launched in 2011 to observe black holes, neutron stars, and magnetic fields, aiding understanding of cosmic expansion.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-05-accreting-millisecond-ray-pulsar.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):
- It is responsible for overseeing the import, manufacture, sale and distribution of medical device in the country.
- It works under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has become the sole authority for issuing manufacturing licences for new drugs meant for exports, withdrawing the power from State Governments amid heightened global scrutiny of Indian made drugs.
About Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):
It is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for the medical devices industry under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
It is responsible for overseeing the import, manufacture, sale and distribution of medical device in the country. The CDSCO ensures that medical devices comply with safety, quality, and efficacy standards.
It works under the Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India.
The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the head of the CDSCO.
Headquarters: New Delhi.
Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for,
Approval of new drugs;
Conduct of clinical trials;
Laying down the standards for drugs;
Control over the quality of imported drugs in the country;
Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations;
CDSCO, along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for the grant of licenses for certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine, and Sera.
The CDSCO conducts inspections and audits to ensure that medical device companies are complying with regulations related to safety, quality, and efficacy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/politics/policy/centre-takes-away-state-powers-for-issuing-noc-for-export-of-drugs-11714736259536.html
Shinkun La Tunnel, is an upcoming motorable tunnel, that connects which one of the following regions?
Ladakh and Himachal Pradesh
Explanation :
The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) is preparing to commence the construction of the Shinkun La Tunnel.
About Shinkun La Tunnel:
It is an upcoming motorable tunnel under the 16,580 feet high Shinku-La pass between Himachal’s Lahaul valley and Ladakh’s Zanskar valley.
It is located on the Nimu-Padam-Darcha Road link.
The length of the tunnel will be 4.1 km.
After completion, the Shinku-la tunnel will be the longest high altitude highway tunnel in the world.
The Border Roads Organization (BRO) will construct the tunnel at a cost of Rs. 1,681.5 crores.
It will provide all-weather road connectivity to Ladakh, and this will be the shortest route to the border areas of Ladakh.
It is expected to streamline the transportation of heavy machinery to strategic locations such as Kargil, Siachen and the Line of Control (LOC), reducing travel distances by approximately 100 km.
The traffic movement in the tunnel will not be vulnerable to long-range artillery shelling or missile firings, either by China or Pakistan.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/bro-to-complete-2-roads-near-china-border-start-work-on-world-s-highest-tunnel-101715083708936.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Leber congenital amaurosis:
- It is a rare genetic eye disorder which affects infants.
- It prevents the proper functioning of the protein-CEP290.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have used a CRISPR-Cas9 tool to restore vision in a group of adults and children with congenital blindness known as Leber congenital amaurosis (LCA).
It is a rare genetic eye disorder where affected infants are often blind at birth.
Children born with LCA have light-gathering cells (rods and cones) of the retina that do not function properly.
It affects about one in 40,000 people and causes severe vision loss at an early age.
This blindness is caused by a gene mutation that prevents a protein from functioning properly. That protein — CEP290 — is critical for sight.
Recent development
Scientists used a human gene editing tool, CRISPR-Cas9, to restore vision of people who are affected by this disorder and the trial was called “BRILLIANCE”.
Participants in the study received a single dose of a CRISPR gene therapy called EDIT-101.
In the case of EDIT-101, the treatment cuts out the mutation in CEP290 and inserts a healthy strand of DNA back into the gene. This restores normal function of the protein CEP290, allowing the retina to detect light.
What is CRISPR-Cas9?
It is a unique technology that enables geneticists and medical researchers to edit parts of the genome by removing, adding or altering sections of the DNA sequence.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/crispr-gene-editing-blindness-research-9314245/
With reference to Arecanut, consider the following statements:
- It grows well in brackish and calcareous soils.
- Karnataka is the highest arecanut-producing State in India.
- India is the largest producer and consumer of arecanut in the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The arecanut grown in the Tirthahalli region emerged as the best quality areca among the varieties grown in Karnataka in an analysis conducted by the Areca Research Centre at Keladi Shivappa Nayaka University of Agricultural and Horticultural Sciences in Shivamogga.
The arecanut palm is the source of common chewing nut, popularly known as betel nut or supari.
It is one of the important commercial crops grown in India.
Required climatic condition:
The cultivation of arecanut is mostly confined to 28º north and south of the equator.
Temperature: It grows well within the temperature range of 14ºC and 36ºC.
Soil: The largest area under the crop is found in gravelly laterite soils of red clay type. It can also be grown on fertile clay loam soils. Sticky clay, sandy, alluvial, brackish and calcareous soils are not suitable for arecanut cultivation.
Rain: It can be grown in areas receiving annual rainfall of 750 mm.
Altitude: It can be cultivated upto an altitude of 1000 m from mean sea level.
India is the largest producer of arecanut and at the same time largest consumer also.
Major States cultivating this crop are Karnataka (40%), Kerala (25%), Assam (20%), Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya and West Bengal.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/tirthahalli-areca-emerges-best-variety-among-nuts-grown-in-karnataka/article68138358.ece
Glyptothorax punyabratai, recently in news, is a:
Catfish
Explanation :
Recently, the ICAR-NBFGR discovered a new catfish species in the pristine waters of Arunachal Pradesh, India and named it as Glyptothorax punyabratai.
The species was collected from Tung Stream, a tributary of the Tissa River, in the Brahmaputra River basin.
It is a new catfish species.
Key Facts about Catfish
Catfish represent one of the largest groups of freshwater fishes, with more than 2000 species.
Most catfish are found in freshwater but a few are marine.
Most species of catfish are nocturnal.
Catfish are primarily benthic or bottom-dwellers.
Features:
Most catfish have a cylindrical body with a flattened ventral to allow for benthic feeding.
Catfish are so-named because of the long barbels, or feelers, which are present about the mouth of the fish and resemble cat whiskers.
Most catfish possess leading spines in their dorsal and pectoral fins.
Catfish are scaleless, a characteristic of catfishes distinguishing them from others.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://krishijagran.com/news/new-catfish-species-discovered-in-arunachal-pradesh-by-icar-nbfgr/
Consider the following statements with reference to LockBit Ransomware:
- It is malicious software designed to block user access to computer systems.
- It only targets individuals and requests financial payment in exchange for decryption.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the U.S. Department of Justice has indicted Russian national Dimitry Yuryevich Khoroshev and announced a $10 million reward for his alleged involvement with LockBit ransomware.
It is malicious software designed to block user access to computer systems in exchange for a ransom payment.
It was formerly known as “ABCD” ransomware, but it has since grown into a unique threat within the scope of extortion tools.
It is a subclass of ransomware known as a ‘crypto virus’ due to forming its ransom requests around financial payment in exchange for decryption.
It focuses mostly on enterprises and government organizations rather than individuals.
It functions as ransomware-as-a-service (RaaS). It is now working to create encryptors targeting Macs for the first time.
Working
It works as a self-spreading malware, not requiring additional instructions once it has successfully infiltrated a single device with access to an organisational intranet.
It is also known to hide executable encryption files by disguising them in the . PNG format, thereby avoiding detection by system defences.
Attackers use phishing tactics and other social engineering methods to impersonate trusted personnel or authorities to lure victims into sharing credentials.
Once it has gained access, the ransomware prepares the system to release its encryption payload across as many devices as possible.
It then disables security programs and other infrastructures that could permit system data recovery.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/us-announces-10-million-bounty-for-alleged-lockbit-ransomware-creator/article68152146.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Interactive Voice Response System:
- It is an automated telephone system technology that enables callers to provide information.
- It can provide specific verbal prompts to consumers depending on their inquiry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, voters are receiving Interactive Voice Response System (IVRS) calls every day and they want the Election Commission of India (ECI) should order an inquiry as to how the service providers of various telecom firms shared our mobile phone numbers with the political parties.
It is an automated telephone system technology that enables callers to receive or provide information, or make requests using voice or menu inputs, without speaking to a live agent.
IVR is powered by a pre-recorded messaging or text-to-speech technology with a Dual-Tone Multi-Frequency (DTMF) interface.
Types of IVR systems
Touch-tone replacement: This system prompts callers to use a touch-tone keypad selection to access information. For example, a pre-recorded message might say, “Press one for store hour information,” and the caller would respond with “one.”
Directed dialogue: This type of IVR provides specific verbal prompts to callers depending on their inquiry. For example, the recording might ask, “Are you looking for store hours or location information?” The caller may respond with “store hours.”
Natural language: This advanced IVR system uses speech recognition to better understand user requests.
Benefits of IVRS system
A well designed IVR software system can help increase customer satisfaction and improve contact center operations and KPIs.
Particularly during times of high call volume, an effective interactive voice response system can help avoid hold time by helping customers find answers.
These systems are incredibly cost-effective. They not only reduce high call volumes for customer service representatives
It has been utilized across a wide variety of industries like: Banking, Customer service, education, Health care, travel etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/elections/andhra-pradesh-assembly/ivrs-calls-from-political-leaders-draw-voters-ire-eci-orders-probe-into-alleged-propaganda/article68149291.ece
With reference to World Migration Report 2024, consider the following statements:
- It is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
- China is the origin of the largest number of international migrants.
- India is the top remittance recipient country in the world.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
India received over USD 111 billion in remittances in 2022, becoming the first country to reach and even surpass the USD 100 billion mark, according to the World Migration Report 2024.
About World Migration Report:
It is a bi-annual report published by the International Organization for Migration (IOM).
It presents key data and information on migration, as well as thematic chapters on highly topical migration issues.
Highlights of the 2024 Report:
Overall, the estimated number of international migrants has increased over the past five decades.
The current global estimate is that there were around 281 million international migrants in the world in 2020, which equates to 3.6 percent of the global population.
India is the origin of the largest numbero f international migrants-nearly 18 million-with a large diaspora in UAE, US and Saudi Arabia.
There were 3.47 million Indians in UAE, followed by 2.7 million in US and 2.5 million in Saudi Arabia.
There is an overall increase in remittances in recent decades, from $128 billion in 2000 to $831 billion in 2022.
Of that USD831 billion in remittances, USD647 billion were sent by migrants to low- and middle-income countries.
In 2022, India, Mexico, China, the Philippines and Egypt were (in descending order) the top five remittance recipient countries, followed by the Philippines, France, and Pakistan.
India received over USD 111 billion in remittances in 2022, the first country to surpass USD 100 billion threshold.
The United States is the top remittance-sending country, with a total outflow of $79 billion in 2022, followed by Saudi Arabia ($39 billion), Switzerland ($31.9 billion), and Germany ($25.6 billion).
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-received-over-111-billion-in-remittances-in-2022-first-country-to-ever-reach-that-figure-un-9315208/
Consider the following statements with reference to cloud seeding:
- It is a scientific process to create artificial clouds.
- High temperatures and high wind speeds are the necessary conditions required for cloud seeding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently told the Uttarakhand government that rain gods or cloud-seeding would not douse the forest fires that had claimed five lives in the State.
Why Cloud Seeding is done?
Water vapour condenses around small particles to form the droplets that make up a cloud.
These droplets collide and grow; as they get heavy and the cloud gets saturated, it rains.
Not all clouds create rain. Even if they do make rainwater, only a few clouds are able to produce enough moisture that allows for large raindrops.
This may happen because there aren’t enough ice particles within a cloud.
Because of this, there aren’t enough cloud droplets to combine and make raindrops.
What is Cloud Seeding?
Cloud seeding is a scientific process that improves a cloud’s ability to make rain or snow, as well as control other weather events.
It is the deliberate introduction into clouds of various substances (seed) that act as condensation nuclei or ice nuclei in an attempt to induce precipitation.
Cloud seeding gives these clouds a lot more ice crystals (or cloud nuclei).
It has been performed from aircraft, rockets, cannons, and ground generators.
Many substances have been used, but solid carbon dioxide (dry ice) and silver iodide have been the most effective. When used in supercooled clouds (composed of water droplets at temperatures below freezing), they form nuclei around which the water droplets evaporate.
The resulting water vapour deposits into ice crystals, which build quickly as water droplets attach themselves.
Right after, the ice crystal becomes a heavy, large raindrop, it will then fall through the cloud and onto the ground as rainfall.
Conditions Required:
Cloud seeding requires existing clouds, and not all types of clouds are suitable for seeding.
Clouds must be deep enough and of a suitable temperature (between -10 and -12 degrees Celsius) to be seeded effectively.
The wind must also be below a certain speed. These conditions are most common in mountainous areas.
Benefits: It is used all over the world as a method for enhancing winter snowfall and increasing mountain snowpack, supplementing the natural water supply available to communities in the surrounding area.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/rain-gods-and-cloud-seeding-are-not-the-answers-to-forest-fires-supreme-court-tells-uttarakhand-government/article68153820.ece
Agenda 2063 is related to which one of the following organisations?
African Union (AU)
Explanation :
The African Union recently condemned the Israeli military’s moves into southern Gaza’s Rafah, calling for the international community to stop “this deadly escalation” of the war.
About African Union (AU):
It is a continental body consisting of the 55 member states that make up the countries of the African Continent.
It was officially launched in 2002 and replaced its predecessor, the Organization of African Unity (OAU), which was founded in 1963.
Primary Objective: To promote unity, cooperation, and development among African nations while advancing the continent’s interests on the global stage.
The AU is guided by its vision of “An Integrated, Prosperous, and Peaceful Africa, driven by its own citizens and representing a dynamic force in the global arena.”
To ensure the realisation of its objectives and the attainment of the Pan African Vision of an integrated, prosperous and peaceful Africa, Agenda 2063 was developed as a strategic framework for Africa’s long term socio-economic and integrative transformation.
Agenda 2063 calls for greater collaboration and support for African led initiatives to ensure the achievement of the aspirations of African people.
Headquarters: Addis Ababa, Ethiopia
Structure:
Assembly: It is the highest decision-making body, consisting of the heads of state and government of member countries.
Executive Council: Made up of foreign affairs ministers, handles policy matters and makes recommendations to the Assembly.
AU Commission: Headquartered in Addis Ababa, is the administrative arm responsible for implementing the decisions of the Assembly and the Executive Council.
The Peace and Security Council: Responsible for maintaining peace and security on the continent.
The AU structure promotes the participation of African citizens and civil society through the Pan-African Parliament and the Economic, Social & Cultural Council (ECOSOCC).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/african-union-firmly-condemns-israeli-incursion-into-rafah/article68156083.ece
Widal Test, recently seen in the news, is related to which one of the following?
Diagnosis of typhoid fever
Explanation :
The Widal Test’s propensity for erroneous results is obfuscating India’s typhoid burden, increasing expenses and risking more antimicrobial resistance.
About Widal Test:
It is a test done for diagnosing typhoid fever.
Typhoid fever, also known asenteric fever, is a bacterial infection caused by the bacterium Salmonella Typhi, and it is commonly spread through contaminated food or water.
A person with typhoid fever will experience symptoms like fatigue, high fever, headache, diarrhoea or constipation, abdominal pain, weight loss, and red spots.
These symptoms mimic those of malaria, dengue, influenza, and typhus, to name a few, making it difficult to diagnose without proper testing.
As with other infections, our immune system produces antibodies in the blood against the bacteria, causing enteric fever.
The widal test is a serological test that detects antibodies against the bacteria in a patient’s blood sample, indicating whether or not they have been infected with the bacteria.
It is used to help diagnose a current or recent infection or to determine if an individual has had a previous typhoid infection.
It’s a point-of-care test and doesn’t need special skills or infrastructure.
Developed in the late 1800s by a French physician, it is no longer used in many countries because of its flaws. The World Health Organization (WHO) has said that due to the various factors that can influence the results of a Widal test, it is best not to rely too much on this test.
Limitations:
A single positive Widal test report doesn’t necessarily mean a typhoid infection is present, and a negative report doesn’t confirm the disease’s absence.
To diagnose an active infection, clinicians must test at least two serum samples taken at least 7-14 days apart, so that they may detect a change in the concentrations of the antibodies. But getting two samples is rarely feasible and time-consuming.
In areas with a high and continuous typhoid burden, certain levels of antibodies against the bacteria may already be present in the blood. Without knowing the baseline cut-off, it isn’t possible to correctly interpret the test.
The reagents used in the Widal test to reveal the presence of various antibodies can cross-react with antibodies produced against infections by other bacteria, viruses or parasites, or even in typhoid-vaccinated individuals, leading to false positives.
Prior antibiotic therapy can also affect antibody levels and yield a false negative.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/widal-test-overuse-typhoid-antimicrobial-resistance-health-expenses/article68152863.ece
What is the main focus of the Glide Phase Interceptor (GPI) Project, recently seen in the news?
Missile interception
Explanation :
Amid growing concerns over rivals deploying advanced weapons like hypersonic missiles, Japan is investing in the Glide Phase Interceptor (GPI) Project under joint development with the US.
About Glide Phase Interceptor (GPI) Project:
It is a missile-intercepting system under joint development by the US and Japan.
By the end of 2032, Washington and Tokyo aim to achieve full operational capability for the system.
What is the Glide Phase?
With a traditional Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM), the warhead separates from its booster and continues on a parabolic, gravity driven trajectory to its target.
A hypersonic weapon, by contrast, separates from its booster after the peak of its trajectory and accelerates toward the Earth using gravity. It then performs a pitch manoeuvre to begin a flatter trajectory called the glide phase.
Unlike typical ballistic missiles, the hypersonic and glide vehicles travel at five times (or more) the speed of sound on an unpredictable trajectory.
What is the Project all about?
Hypersonic weapons or missiles pose a unique challenge due to their blinding speeds and relatively low altitudes (20 to 80 km) during the glide phase.
They can navigate around areas containing known missile defence sensors.
These characteristics make it particularly challenging for ground-based radar systems to track them efficiently.
The GPI Project aims to provide regional hypersonic missile defence.
It will achieve this by launching specially modified missiles from surface warships.
These missiles will engage and destroy incoming hypersonic missiles as they glide through the boundary between space and Earth’s atmosphere.
The “glide” phase of the missile’s trajectory provides the best opportunity to intercept it before it enters its last high-speed drop.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news9live.com/knowledge/what-is-the-glide-phase-interceptor-gpi-programme-2529244
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD):
- A negative IOD is associated with cooler than normal Sea-Surface Temperatures (SST) in the Pacific Ocean.
- A positive IOD event helps rainfall along the African coastline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, two Australian weather agencies have said that Positive Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) or Indian Nino in the Indian Ocean, may re-emerge for the second consecutive year in the latter half of 2024.
It is sometime referred to as the Indian Nino, is a similar phenomenon, playing out in the relatively smaller area of the Indian Ocean between the Indonesian and Malaysian coastline in the east and the African coastline near Somalia in the west.
A ‘positive IOD’ — or simply ‘IOD’ — is associated with cooler than normal sea-surface temperatures (SST) in the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean and warmer than normal sea-surface temperatures in the western tropical Indian Ocean.
The opposite phenomenon is called a ‘negative IOD’ and is characterized by warmer than normal SSTs in the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean and cooler than normal SSTs in the western tropical Indian Ocean.
A positive IOD event is often seen developing at times of an El Nino, while a negative IOD is sometimes associated with La Nina.
Impacts
A positive IOD helps rainfall along the African coastline and also over the Indian sub-continent while suppressing rainfall over Indonesia, southeast Asia and Australia. The impacts are opposite during a negative IOD event.
The IOD was identified as an independent system only in 1999.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/positive-iod-may-re-emerge-this-year-likely-to-boost-south-west-monsoon/article68149347.ece
With reference to Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting (ATCM), consider the following statements:
- It safeguards Antarctica’s fragile ecosystem and promote scientific research in the region.
- It is a biennial meeting held under the Antarctic Treaty System.
- It is advised by the Committee for Environment Protection on environmental conservation in Antarctica.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The 46th Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting (ATCM) and the 26th Meeting of the Committee for Environment Protection (CEP) will be held in Kochi from May 20-30.
It is pivotal in the international community’s ongoing efforts to safeguard Antarctica’s fragile ecosystem and promote scientific research in the region.
It is convened annually under the Antarctic Treaty System, these meetings serve as forums for Antarctic Treaty Consultative Parties and other stakeholders to address Antarctica’s pressing environmental, scientific, and governance issues.
What is the CEP?
It was established under the Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty (the Madrid Protocol) in 1991.
The CEP advises the ATCM on environmental protection and conservation in Antarctica.
Key facts about the Antarctic Treaty
It was signed in 1959 and entered into force in 1961.
It established Antarctica as a region dedicated to peaceful purposes, scientific cooperation, and environmental protection. Over the years, the Treaty has garnered widespread support, with 56 countries currently party to it.
Provisions of the treaty
Antarctica shall be used for peaceful purposes only
Freedom of scientific investigation in Antarctica and cooperation toward that end… shall continue
Scientific observations and results from Antarctica shall be exchanged and made freely available
India has been a Consultative Party to the Antarctic Treaty since 1983.
It participates in the decision-making process along with other 28 Consultative Parties to the Antarctic Treaty.
India’s first Antarctic research station, Dakshin Gangotri, was established in 1983.
At present, India operates two year-round research stations: Maitri (1989) and Bharati (2012).
The permanent research stations facilitate Indian Scientific Expeditions to Antarctica, which have been ongoing annually since 1981.
In 2022, India enacted the Antarctic Act, reaffirming its commitment to the Antarctic Treaty.
The Antarctic Treaty Secretariat (ATS) serves as the administrative hub for the Antarctic Treaty System.
ATS was established in 2004 and coordinates the ATCM and CEP meetings, reposits and disseminates information, and facilitates diplomatic communication, exchanges, and negotiations related to Antarctic governance and management.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/climate-change/india-atcm-research-station-antarctica-9316472/
AlphaFold, an AI model that can predict the interactions of all life’s molecules, is developed by:
Google Deepmind
Explanation :
Google Deepmind has unveiled the third major version of its “AlphaFold” artificial intelligence model, designed to help scientists design drugs and target disease more effectively.
It is a new AI model developed by Google DeepMind and Isomorphic Labs.
It is a revolutionary model that can predict the structure and interactions of all life’s molecules with unprecedented accuracy and even it mapped the behaviour for all of life’s molecules, including human DNA.
It can generate molecules joint 3D structure, revealing how they all fit together.
It models large biomolecules such as proteins, DNA and RNA, as well as small molecules, also known as ligands — a category encompassing many drugs.
Furthermore, AlphaFold 3 can model chemical modifications to these molecules which control the healthy functioning of cells, that when disrupted can lead to disease.
It assembles its predictions using a diffusion network, akin to those found in AI image generators.
Significance
It allows scientists to see cellular systems in all their complexity, across structures, interactions and modifications.
This new window on the molecules of life reveals how they’re all connected and helps understand how those connections affect biological functions — such as the actions of drugs, the production of hormones and the health-preserving process of DNA repair.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/google-deepmind-unveils-next-generation-of-drug-discovery-ai-model/article68156080.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Neural Processing Unit (NPU):
- It is a dedicated processor that mimics the human brain for processing data.
- It harnesses parallel computing to execute numerous calculations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Apple company debuted the M4 chip with the iPad Pro and the most prominent change in this chip is the 16-core Neural Engine, which is Apple’s term for Neural Processing Unit (NPU).
It is a dedicated processor designed specifically for accelerating neural network processes.
A neural network is essentially a type of machine learning algorithm that mimics the human brain for processing data.
It is highly capable for handling machine learning operations that form the basis for AI-related tasks, such as speech recognition, natural language processing, photo or video editing processes like object detection, and more.
In most consumer-facing gadgets such as smartphones, laptops and tablets, the NPU is integrated within the main processor, adopting a System-on-Chip (SoC) configuration.
How is NPU different from Central Processing Unit (CPU)?
CPUs employ a sequential computing method, issuing one instruction at a time, with subsequent instructions awaiting the completion of their predecessors.
In contrast, NPU harnesses parallel computing to simultaneously execute numerous calculations. This parallel computing approach results in swifter and more efficient processing.
NPU is also able to learn based on accumulated data in order to deduce optimal solutions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/technology/tech-news/npu-what-is-it-and-why-is-it-gaining-importance-in-semiconductor-industry-124050800939_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Dice snake:
- It is a non-venomous snake mainly found in the Eurasian region.
- It fakes its death to avoid being eaten by predators.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The recent study found that the dice snakes can fake their own death when being attacked by predators by putting on a theatrical display which includes oozing “mouthfuls” of blood.
It is a nonvenomous snake belonging to the family Colubridae, subfamily Natricinae. It is also called water snake.
Females of this species are bigger than males.
Distribution: They are mainly found in much of Eurasia and are also present in Egypt.
Habitat: They live near rivers, lakes, streams, ponds, and the surrounding grasslands.
They can also be found in coastal areas and frequent plantations and urban areas.
Unique character:
They fake their own death to avoid being eaten by predators, as it is a good tactic for the prey to create a distraction and escape.
This behaviour depended on various factors like the sex of the individual, injuries, body temperature, size, age, presence of food in the stomach, presence of eggs in females, and previous experience with a predator.
When feeling threatened, they spread a very bad-smelling secretion from their cloaca or play dead.
Threats: They suffer from loss of the wetland habitat in some areas of their range, pollution, roadkill, persecution by people, and collection for the pet trade.
Conservation status
IUCN Red list: Least Concern
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/dice-snakes-fake-their-own-death-by-leaking-blood-from-mouth-smearing-faeces-study-719506
Hindon River, recently seen in the news, is a tributary of which one of the following rivers?
Yamuna
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) recently asked the Uttar Pradesh Pollution Control Board (UPPCB) to submit within two weeks an additional report on pollution of the Hindon River including action it has taken against offending municipal bodies.
About Hindon River:
It is a tributary of the Yamuna River and is primarily a rain fed river.
Course:
It originates from the lower Shivalik ranges in Saharanpur District of Uttar Pradesh.
It flows across the industrial belt of Western Uttar Pradesh for 400 kilometres before discharging into the Yamuna River in Noida.
Tributaries: The Kali (West) River and Krishni River are the main tributaries of River Hindon.
Due to urban, agricultural and industrial waste which is being released without sufficient treatment into its waters, the Hindon is now one of the most polluted stretches in the Ganga basin.
In 2015, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) found that the Hindon’s pollution levels were so severe that it was declared a ‘dead river’ and ‘unfit’ even for bathing in several sections of the river.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://theprint.in/india/river-hindon-pollution-ngt-allows-uppcb-2-weeks-to-file-additional-report/2077876/
In which one of the following States is Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary located?
Assam
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) recently asked Assam’s Chief Secretary to provide details of officers who let polling stations, schools, and other construction activities in Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary.
About Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is a protected area located in the north-western area of Sonitpur district of Assam.
It is located along the foothills of the Great Himalayan Range.
The area was declared a sanctuary in 1998.
Climate: The sanctuary experiences a sub-tropical type of climate with hot and humid summers, with heavy summer rains often causing floods and river overflows.
The Burhi dihing River traces its course through the sanctuary.
The Namchang River, flowing from the State of Arunachal Pradesh, enters this region and joins the Burhi dihing River.
Flora: It mostly comprises evergreen forest. However, grasslands are also common in this region.
Fauna:
The main attractions of the sanctuary are elephants and Indian bison. The other animals found in the sanctuary are deer, one-horned rhinoceros, leopard, tiger and some rare species of cats.
Avifauna includes endangered species like White Winged Wood Duck. Other birds commonly found here are Woodpecker, Hill Myna, Indian Roller, Nightjar, Horned Owl, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/polling-stations-constructed-in-wildlife-sanctuary-ngt-seeks-assam-govts-reply/article68156773.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA):
- It is a multi-stakeholder alliance of Governments, International Organizations and Industries.
- It is an initiative by the United Nations to position biofuels as a key to the energy transition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA) has adopted a work plan focused on assessing country landscapes, drafting policy frameworks, and conducting biofuel workshops, petroleum and natural gas ministry officials said recently.
About Global Biofuel Alliance (GBA):
GBA is a multi-stakeholder alliance of Governments, International Organizations, and Industries.
It is an initiative by India, bringing together the biggest consumers and producers of biofuels to drive the development and deployment of biofuels.
It was launched on the sidelines of the 2023 G20 summit in New Delhi.
The initiative aims to position biofuels as a key to the energy transition and contribute to jobs and economic growth.
Significance of the alliance:
It will place emphasis on strengthening markets, facilitating global biofuels trade, developing concrete policy lesson-sharing and providing technical support for national biofuels programs worldwide.
It intends to expedite the global uptake of biofuels through facilitating capacity-building exercises across the value chain, technology advancements, and intensifying the utilization of sustainable biofuels through the participation of a wide spectrum of stakeholders.
GBA will facilitate the development, adoption, and implementation of internationally recognized standards, codes, sustainability principles, and regulations to incentivize biofuel adoption and trade.
The alliance will also act as a central repository of knowledge and an expert hub.
24 countries and 12 international organizations have already agreed to join the alliance.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/global-biofuel-alliance-sets-up-three-pronged-work-plan-says-govt-124050500378_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI):
- It is administered by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
- It has been granted the status of ‘Deemed University’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) recently introduced a new high-yielding wheat seed variety, HD 3386.
About Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI):
It is India’s largest and foremost institute in the field of research and higher education and training in agricultural sciences.
The Institute is situated in Delhi and is administered by the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
History:
IARI, popularly known as Pusa Institute, began in 1905 at Pusa (Bihar) with a generous grant of 30,000 pounds from an American philanthropist, Henry Phipps.
The institute was then known as the Agricultural Research Institute (ARI), which functioned with five departments, namely Agriculture, Cattle Breeding, Chemistry, Economic Botany and Mycology. Bacteriology unit was added in 1907.
The name of ARI was changed to Imperial Institute of Agricultural Research in 1911 and in 1919 it was renamed Imperial Agricultural Research Institute.
Following a devastating earthquake in 1934, the institute was shifted to Delhi in 1936.
Post-independence, the institute has been renamed IARI.
Mandate of IARI:
Basic, strategic, and anticipatory research in field and horticultural crops for enhanced productivity and quality.
Research in frontier areas to develop resource-use efficient integrated crop management technologies for sustainable agricultural production systems.
Serve as a centre for academic excellence in the areas of post-graduate and human resources development in agricultural science.
Provide national leadership in agricultural research, education, extension, and technology assessment and transfer by developing new concepts and approaches and serving as a national referral point for quality and standards.
It attained the status of a Deemed University in the year 1958.
The IARI was responsible for the research leading to the “Green Revolution in India” of the 1970s.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/policy/economy-govt-introduces-high-yielding-amp-disease-resistance-wheat-variety-3481576/
Which one of the following is the primary cause of Sickle Cell Disease?
Inheritance of a defective gene
Explanation :
Recently, a 12-year-old boy from USA, became the first person in the world with sickle cell disease to begin a commercially approved gene therapy that may cure the condition.
About Sickle Cell Disease (SCD):
It is an inherited blood disorder.
It is marked by flawed hemoglobin.
Hemoglobin is the molecule in Red Blood Cells (RBCs) that carries oxygen to the tissues of the body.
People with SCD have a typical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort RBCs into a sickle, or crescent, shape.
SCD interferes with the delivery of oxygen to the tissues.
How does it affect blood flow?
Normally, RBCs are disc-shaped and flexible enough to move easily through the blood vessels.
In SCD, RBCs become crescent- or “sickle”-shaped due to a genetic mutation.
These sickled RBCs do not bend or move easily and can block blood flow to the rest of the body.
What causes it?
The cause of SCD is a defective gene, called a sickle cell gene.
A person will be born with SCD only if two genes are inherited—one from the mother and one from the father.
Symptoms:
Early stage: Extreme tiredness or fussiness from anemia, painfully swollen hands and feet, and jaundice.
Later stage: Severe pain, anemia, organ damage, and infections.
Treatments:
A bone marrow transplant (stem cell transplant) can cure SCD.
However, there are treatments that can help relieve symptoms, lessen complications, and prolong life.
Gene therapy is also being explored as another potential cure.
The UK recently became the first country to approve gene therapy treatment for SCD.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/in-a-1st-us-patient-begins-gene-therapy-for-sickle-cell-disease/articleshow/109897117.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Foot rot disease:
- It is caused by a soil-seed borne fungus.
- It primarily affects arecanut plants particularly at the seedling stage.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Ludhiana’s Punjab Agricultural University has come up with biocontrol agent Trichoderma asperellum to combat ‘foot rot’ disease, prevalent in Basmati rice varieties and registered it with the Central Insecticides Board and Registration Committee (CIBRC).
It is a fungal disease that affects Basmati rice crops particularly at the seedling stage.
It might also cause infection after transplantation in case infected seedlings are transplanted.
It is caused by the fungus Fusarium verticillioides, a soil-seed borne pathogen which spreads the infection through the root of the plant, and eventually leads to the colonisation of the stem base.
Infected seedlings first turn pale yellow, then elongate and dry up, and eventually (usually) die.
Currently, seedlings are treated with Trichoderma harzianum before sowing and transplantation.
Seeds are also treated with fungicides such as Sprint 75 WS (carbendazim + mancozeb) before sowing. But these are the chemical treatments which are harmful for the soil and can be toxic for consumers of the rice.
The fungicide carbendazim is already banned in Punjab because it leaves behind high residues.
What is Trichoderma asperellum?
It is a biocontrol agent offers a non-chemical alternative to traditional pesticides, aiding in disease management while minimising environmental harm.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/biocontrol-agent-to-manage-foot-rot-disease-in-basmati-crop-9318082/
With reference to Market Economy, consider the following statements:
- It is a system in which prices of goods and services are guided by the interactions of consumers and businesses.
- It follows the law of supply and demand.
- It gives entrepreneurs the freedom to pursue profits by creating new products.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Vietnam has been pushing the President United States of America to quickly change its “non-market economy” classification to “market economy” status.
The United States of America designates a country as non-market economy based on several factors namely
If the country’s currency is convertible;
If wage rates are determined by free bargaining between labour and management;
If joint ventures or other foreign investment are allowed; whether the means of production are owned by the state; and
If the state controls the allocation of resources and price and output decisions. Other factors like human rights are also considered.
The non-market economy label allows the US to impose “anti-dumping” duties on goods imported from designated countries.
What is market Economy?
It is a system in which production decisions and the prices of goods and services are guided primarily by the interactions of consumers and businesses.
That is, the law of supply and demand, not a central government’s policy, is allowed to determine what is available and at what price.
A market economy gives entrepreneurs the freedom to pursue profits by creating new products, and the freedom to fail if they misread the market.
Key facts about anti-dumping duty
It is a tariff imposed on imports manufactured in foreign countries that are priced below the fair market value of similar goods in the domestic market.
The government imposes anti-dumping duty on foreign imports when it believes that the goods are being “dumped” – through low pricing – in the domestic market.
Anti-dumping duty is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair competition by foreign imports.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/vietnam-us-non-market-economy-9316314/
Batagay crater, recently in news, is located in:
Russia
Explanation :
According to a new study a huge Batagay crater in Siberia’s permafrost, is growing by 35 million cubic feet every year as the frozen ground melts.
It is also called as “gateway to the underworld,” by some locals in Russia’s Sakha Republic.
Location: It is located in Russia’s Far East that forms the world’s biggest permafrost crater.
It is a crater or megaslump, features a rounded cliff face that was first spotted on satellite images in 1991 after a section of hillside collapsed in the Yana Uplands of northern Yakutia in Russia.
Scientists believe that the crater is the result of a melting permafrost land, which was frozen during the Quaternary Ice Age 2.58 million years ago.
What is Permafrost?
It is any ground that remains completely frozen—32°F (0°C) or colder—for at least two years straight.
Global Distribution
These permanently frozen grounds are most common in regions with high mountains and in Earth’s higher latitudes—near the North and South Poles.
It covers large regions of the Earth. Almost a quarter of the land area in the Northern Hemisphere has permafrost underneath.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/gateway-to-the-underworld-in-siberia-is-growing-at-a-staggering-rate-every-year-719019
Consider the following statements with reference to Maillard Reaction:
- It is a chemical process that occurs when amino acids and sugars are heated.
- It depends on acidity and moisture content of the food.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Maillard Reaction explains about complex chemical mechanism regarding flavours, aromas, and textures of foods.
It was named after the early 20th-century French scientist Louis-Camille Maillard.
The Maillard reaction is a chemical process that occurs when amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins, and sugars are heated. The process affects the flavours, aromas and textures of foods.
This reaction is a form of non-enzymatic browning of food, which means that the colour change occurs without the activity of enzymes.
How does the Maillard reaction cause browning of food?
It is a complex chemical mechanism that leads to the formation of multiple products through the process. Chemist J.E. Hodge in 1953 was the first to break down the reaction into steps for simplification.
A variety of foods, including meats, bread, vegetables, coffee beans etc., contain both sugars and protein units.
When food is heated, these sugars and proteins undergo a condensation reaction to form a protein-sugar compound called unstable Schiff base.
When the Schiff base is rearranged and dehydrated, various intermediate compounds form. These compounds react further to produce important flavour compounds and contribute to the development of characteristic aromas in the food.
Some of the intermediate compounds undergo a rearrangement, which results in the reorganisation of the atoms in the Schiff base, creating a more stable product. These products are important precursors for melanoidins, which are responsible for the brown coloration of the food.
These compounds undergo further changes like condensation and polymerisation, leading to the formation of melanoidins — nitrogen-containing compounds that give food the distinct brown colour.
Factors affecting the reaction
The rate and extent of this reaction depend on several factors, including temperature, acidity, moisture content, and the types and concentrations of proteins and sugars in the food.
Ideal Temperature: These are in the range of 110 degrees C and 170 degrees C, and temperatures higher than that can burn the food and render bitter flavours.
Generally, higher temperatures accelerate the reaction while acidic conditions and the presence of water can inhibit it.
This is the reason that foods brown more quickly at higher temperatures and dry foods, such as bread crusts, can develop a deep brown colour during baking.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/newsletter/newsletter-science/science-for-all-what-causes-the-browning-of-food/article68149199.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the UN Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund:
- It was established under the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime.
- It is only funded by the member states of the United Nations (UN).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Recently, India contributed $5,00,000 to UN Counter-Terrorism Trust Fund, reaffirming unwavering commitment to global fight against terrorism.
It was established in 2009 and transferred to UN Office of Counter-Terrorism (UNOCT) in 2017.
The Fund accepts contributions from Governments, inter-governmental and non-governmental organizations, private institutions and individuals.
Contributions may be unearmarked or earmarked for one of UNOCT’s global programmes or specific initiatives.
India’s contribution would support UNOCT’s global programmes — mainly Countering Financing of Terrorism (CFT) and Countering Terrorist Travel Programme (CTTP).
They are aimed at building capacities of the member states of eastern and southern Africa to combat the critical issues of financing of terrorism and prevent the movement and travel of terrorists.
Key facts about UN Office of Counter- Terrorism
It was established in 2017 through the adoption of UN General Assembly.
Functions
Provide leadership on the General Assembly counter-terrorism mandates entrusted to the Secretary-General from across the United Nations system
Enhance coordination and coherence across the Global Counter-Terrorism Coordination Compact entities to ensure the balanced implementation of the four pillars of the UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy
Strengthen the delivery of United Nations counter-terrorism capacity-building assistance to Member States
Improve visibility, advocacy and resource mobilization for United Nations counter-terrorism efforts
Ensure that due priority is given to counterterrorism across the United Nations system and that the important work on preventing violent extremism is firmly rooted in the Strategy
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/india-contributes-500000-to-un-counter-terrorism-trust-fund/article68152922.ece
Cook Islands, recently seen in the news, are located in:
Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
The Cook Islands is at the vanguard of a quest to mine the ocean floor for minerals used in electric car batteries.
It is a self-governing island state in free association with New Zealand.
Location: It is located in the South Pacific Ocean, between Tonga to the west and French Polynesia to the east.
It consists of 15 islands divided into a northern group of six islands and a southern group of nine islands.
Northern Islands: These are mostly low-lying and sparsely populated coral atolls; and include the islands of Manihiki, Nassau, Penrhyn, Pukapuka, Rakahanga, and Suwarrow and are covered in light vegetation and equipped with stunning white sand beaches.
Southern islands: These generally consist of much larger higher islands that are volcanic in origin and more densely populated. The southern island group includes Rarotonga, Aitutaki, Atiu, Mangaia, Manuae, Mauke, Mitiaro, Palmerston, and Takutea.
The highest point is Te Manga which rises to 652m on the Rarotonga island.
Population: Most of the population is found on the island of Rarotonga.
Capital city: Avarua, which is on Rarotonga island.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/mining-the-ocean-floor-9318460/
55 Cancri e Planet, recently in news, is located in:
Milky Way galaxy
Explanation :
Recently, astronomers detected rocky planets beyond our solar system with an atmosphere.
55 Cancri e Planet is an exoplanet also known as Janssen and is a super-Earth.
The planet is located in our Milky Way galaxy about 41 light-years from Earth, in the constellation Cancer.
It is a rocky planet significantly larger than Earth but smaller than Neptune.
It orbits perilously close to a star dimmer and slightly less massive than our sun, rapidly completing an orbit every 18 hours or so.
It is about 8.8 times more massive than Earth, with a diameter about twice that of our planet.
It orbits its star at one-25th the distance between our solar system’s innermost planet Mercury and the sun. As a result, its surface temperature is about 3,140 degrees Fahrenheit.
The planet is probably tidally locked, meaning it perpetually has the same side facing its star, much like the moon does toward Earth. Four other planets, all gas giants, are known to orbit its host star.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/astronomers-finally-detect-a-rocky-planet-with-an-atmosphere/article68160507.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Oleander plant:
- It is mainly found in the tropical and subtropical regions of the world.
- Its oil prepared from the root bark can be used to treat Tuberculosis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Two Kerala government-controlled temple boards have banned use of oleander in temple offerings after a 24-year old woman died after accidentally chewing some oleander leaves.
Nerium oleander, commonly known as oleander or rosebay, is a plant cultivated worldwide in tropical, subtropical, and temperate regions.
It is known for its drought tolerance and the shrub is often used for ornamental and landscaping purposes.
In Kerala, the plant is known by the names of arali and kanaveeram and is grown along highways and beaches as a natural, green fencing.
There are different varieties of oleander, each with a flower of a different colour.
The plant has been frequently described in Brihattrayi, Nighantus and other classical Ayurvedic texts.
Charka [Charak Samhita] has prescribed the leaves of white-flowered variety externally in chronic and obstinate skin diseases of serious nature including leprosy.
According to Ayurvedic Pharmacopoeia of India (API) an oil prepared from the root bark can be used to treat skin diseases.
Oleander’s toxicity
Ingestion or inhalation of smoke from burning oleander can be intoxicating.
This is due to the properties of cardiac glycosides (a type of chemical) including oleandrin, folinerin, and digitoxigenin, which are present in all parts of the plant.
Effects of oleander toxicity include nausea, diarrhoea, vomiting, rashes, confusion, dizziness, irregular heartbeat, slow heartbeat, and, in extreme cases, death.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/kerala-banned-oleander-flowers-temple-offerings-9320431/
Consider the following statements with reference to constructed wetlands:
- They are engineered structures that direct wastewater through gravel beds to promote microbial activity.
- They are constructed to convert pollutants into benign compounds through natural processes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Constructed wetlands emerge as a promising approach, offering not only effective treatment but also environmental and economic benefits.
These are engineered structures designed to replicate the functions of natural wetlands.
They are comprised of meticulously chosen vegetation, soil and water, orchestrated to facilitate a seamless process of purification.
Constructed wetlands are typically divided into two categories:
Subsurface flow (SSF): These wetlands direct wastewater through gravel beds or porous media, promoting microbial activity that degrades organic matter.
Surface flow (SF): These wetlands demonstrate their aesthetic appeal above the water’s surface, with gently flowing streams and lush vegetation.
Objective: To convert pollutants into benign compounds through natural processes.
Unlike conventional concrete tanks, these wetlands foster biodiversity, welcoming a diverse array of life forms — ranging from microorganisms to aquatic plants and even birds — to engage in the purification process.
India boasts several remarkable locations where constructed wetlands are utilised for wastewater treatment.
One such example is the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary in Delhi, situated on the city’s outskirts.
The Kolkata East Wetlands in West Bengal, designated as a Ramsar site, feature a vast network of natural and constructed wetlands.
Benefits
Cost-Effectiveness: In contrast to traditional treatment facilities, constructed wetlands frequently offer a more economical option for construction and upkeep.
Environmental benefits: In addition to their primary role in wastewater treatment, constructed wetlands offer supplementary environmental advantages. They function as habitats for a wide array of plant and animal species, promoting biodiversity conservation.
Scalability and adaptability: Constructed wetlands are flexible in their scalability, able to be adjusted to fit various industrial operations and spatial limitations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/water/constructed-wetlands-are-nature-s-ingenious-solution-for-wastewater-treatment-in-india-96014
Kattupoovamkurunnila, a rare plant species, was rediscovered from which part of India?
Western Ghats
Explanation :
After a gap of 140 years, researchers have rediscovered Uniyala multibracteata from a non-protected area of the Wagamon hills in the Western Ghats.
It is a rare tree species which is locally known as Kattupoovamkurunnila.
The genus Uniyala is named to recognise the contribution of B.P Uniyal, a renowned plant taxonomist. This genus has 11 species, most of which are endemic to south India.
It is a small tree or large shrub of 2 to 5 metres high. Its leaves are covered with cottony hairs.
Its flowers are very beautiful and [the tree] produces flowers from October to January.
Habitat: Its habitat consists of evergreen forests and rocky grasslands 1,200 metres above sea level. Interestingly, such rare species of plants have not yet been discovered in protected forests.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/researchers-rediscover-rare-tree-species-in-wagamon-after-140-years/article68161724.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Carboxysomes:
- They are intracellular structures mainly found in autotrophic bacteria.
- They can be used in plant synthetic biology to improve photosynthetic efficiency and crop yield.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A research team led by the Hong Kong University of Science and Technology (HKUST) has discovered how carboxysomes work.
These are intracellular structures found in many autotrophic bacteria, including Cyanobacteria, Knallgasbacteria, Nitroso- and Nitrobacteria.
They are proteinaceous structures resembling phage heads in their morphology; they contain the enzymes of carbon dioxide fixation in these organisms.
Similar structures are known to harbor the B12-containing coenzyme glycerol dehydratase, the key enzyme of glycerol fermentation to 1,3-propanediol, in some Enterobacteriaceae, such as Salmonella.
They perform carbon fixation, which is the process of converting carbon dioxide from the atmosphere into organic compounds that can be used by the cell for growth and energy.
These are made of polyhedral protein shells about 80 to 140 nanometres in diameter.
These compartments are thought to concentrate carbon dioxide to overcome the inefficiency of RuBisCo (ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase) – the predominant enzyme in carbon fixation and the rate limiting enzyme in the Calvin cycle.
Application
One of the most promising applications of carboxysomes is in plant synthetic biology, whereby the introduction of carboxysomes into plant chloroplasts as the CO2-concentrating mechanism can improve photosynthetic efficiency and crop yield.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-05-carboxys
With reference to DigiLocker, consider the following statements:
- It is the flagship initiative of the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.
- The issued documents in the DigiLocker system are not deemed to be at par with the original physical documents.
- It has the feature of 2048 Bit encryption and multi-factor authentication.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
DigiLocker has become a digital placeholder for administrative and government-related documents and now students have the option of viewing their scores and even obtaining their verified marksheets.
It is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY) under the Digital India Programme in 2015.
It is a government approved application and is ideally maintained with strict security protocols framed by officials.
It operates as an app to store users’ digital records. The app can be used when applying for a passport, reviewing marksheets, or proving one’s identity during travel.
The app is part of the Indian Government’s paper-free initiative aimed at letting users access, verify, and store essential documents in a digital wallet so that they are easy to retrieve and present to officials when required.
The issued documents in DigiLocker system are deemed to be at par with original physical documents as per Rule 9A of the Information Technology (Preservation and Retention of Information by Intermediaries providing Digital Locker facilities) Rules, 2016.
It has standard security measures in place including 2048 Bit RSA SSL encryption, multi-factor authentication (OTP verification), consent systems, timed log outs, and security audits.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/what-is-digilocker-and-does-it-keep-your-data-safe-explained/article68163891.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Hanooman AI platform:
- It is a largest Generative Artificial Intelligence platform.
- It can perform complex technical tasks like coding and tutoring.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, 3AI Holding Limited and SML India, announced the launch of ‘Hanooman’, India’s homegrown multilingual GenAI platform.
It is the largest multilingual and most affordable Gen AI platform.
Features
It is available in 98 global languages, of which, 12 are Indian languages.
The 12 Indian languages that the web version and app are currently available in include Hindi, Marathi, Gujarati, Bengali, Kannada, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese, Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam, and Sindhi.
It can handle everything from a casual chat to offering professional advice as well as performing complex technical tasks like coding and tutoring.
The Gen AI platform will offer its multimodal and multilingual capabilities, including text, voice, image, and code to users.
It aims to cater to four sectors: healthcare, governance, financial services, and education. It offers an open-source alternative to commercially accessible Large Language Models (LLMs).
What is Generative Artificial Intelligence?
It refers to deep-learning models that can take raw data and “learn” to generate statistically probable outputs when prompted.
It is powered by foundation models (large AI models) that can multi-task and perform out-of-the-box tasks, including summarization, Q&A, classification, and more.
With minimal training required, foundation models can be adapted for targeted use cases with very little example data.
It works by using a Machine Learning model to learn the patterns and relationships in a dataset of human-created content.
It then uses the learned patterns to generate new content.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/indian-ai-platform-hanooman-launches-in-98-global-languages/article68160674.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to PS4 engine:
- It is used in uppermost stage of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
- It uses a bipropellant combination of nitrogen oxide as the oxidizer and monomethyl hydrazine as the fuel.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) achieved yet another milestone in design and manufacturing by successfully conducting a long duration test of the PS4 engine of the PSLV stage.
It is the uppermost stage of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), comprising of two Earth storable liquid engines.
It uses a bipropellant combination of nitrogen tetroxide as the oxidizer and monomethyl hydrazine as the fuel. It was developed by Isro’s Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre.
The same engine is also used in the Reaction Control System (RCS) of the first stage (PS1) of PSLV.
ISRO redesigned the conventionally manufactured PS4 engine to make it compatible with additive manufacturing techniques and this innovative approach, known as Design for Additive Manufacturing, has yielded remarkable advantages.
What is Additive Manufacturing?
It is also known as 3D printing which is an emerging technology that is rapidly transforming manufacturing processes worldwide.
It creates 3-dimensional objects by successively layering materials under computer control.
It involves layering materials like plastics, composites, or bio-materialsto create objects that range in shape, size, rigidity, and colour.
Compared to traditional subtractive techniques, 3D printing offers immense design flexibility, reduced waste, and the ability to produce complex geometries.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/karnataka/2024/May/11/isros-engine-design-saves-raw-material-time
Consider the following statements with reference to the FLiRT Variants:
- They are dominant strains related to the Hepatitis b disease.
- These can spread via respiratory droplets of the person to others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) have found that there is an unfamiliar set of COVID-19 variants spreading across the US and they are collectively called FLiRT.
KP.2 and KP1.1, dubbed ‘FLiRT’ variants, are descendants of the Omicron JN.1 which spread globally over the winter last year.
Features
The variants appear to outstrip their ancestor and other Omicron variants. KP.2 is the more dominant strain of the two and it is believed to leap past immunity built up from vaccines and previous infections.
The FLiRT’ variants are descendants of the JN.1 variant of the SARS-CoV-2 virus with two new added spike mutations.
How it spreads? This variant spreads via respiratory droplets of the person to others, or touching infected surfaces such as faucets, furniture, elevator buttons etc.
Symptoms of FLiRT
The symptoms of the new variant are similar to those of other Omicron subvariants: sore throat, cough, nausea, congestion, fatigue, headache, muscle or body ache, loss of taste or smell.
Prevention: Vaccination and preventive measures are advised to curb the spread.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/all-about-flirt-the-new-covid-19-variants-explained/article68144878.ec
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sperm Whale:
- It is the largest of the toothed whales.
- It is confined to tropical oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Scientists studying the sperm whales have described for the first time the basic elements of how they might be talking to each other.
About Sperm Whale:
It is the largest of the toothed whales, easily recognized by its enormous square head and narrow lower jaw.
It has the largest head and the largest brain of any animal on the planet.
Scientific Name: Physeter macrocephalus
They are named after the waxy substance—spermaceti—found in their heads.
The spermaceti is an oil sac that helps the whales focus sound. Spermaceti was used in oil lamps, lubricants, and candles.
Distribution:
They have one of the widest global distributions of any marine mammal species.
They are found in all deep oceans, from the equator to the edge of the pack ice in the Arctic and Antarctic.
Features:
The sperm whale is dark blue-gray or brownish, with white patches on the belly.
It has small paddle-like flippers and a series of rounded humps on its back.
Lifespan: Up to 60 years
They are highly social mammals that communicate with one another using a series of clicks called codas, and that each coda has a distinct purpose.
Ambergris, a material sometimes found floating in the sea, is formed in the sperm whale’s intestines around a core of undigested solid matter such as squid beaks.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/trending/how-do-sperm-whales-talk-to-each-other-mit-scientists-decode-basic-elements-of-communication-system-101715158351469.html
Consider the following statements with reference to T Cell:
- It is a type of Red Blood Cell (RBC).
- It is part of the immune system and help protect the body from infection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Results from a new clinical trial shed light on the performance of infusions of immune-calming regulatory T cells for children with type 1 diabetes.
About T Cells:
T cell is a type of white blood cell.
It is also called T lymphocyte and thymocyte.
T cells are part of the immune system and develop from stem cells in the bone marrow.
They help protect the body from infection and may help fight cancer.
There are two main types:
Cytotoxic T-cells: Destroy infected cells.
Helper T-cells: Send signals that direct other immune cells to fight infection.
Rather than generically attack any antigens, T cells circulate until they encounter their specific antigen.
T-cells have many identical T-cell receptors that cover their surfaces and can only bind to one shape of antigen.
When a T-cell receptor fits with its viral antigen on an infected cell, the Killer T-cell releases cytotoxins to kill that cell.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/82857/OPS/G50CPNVI0.1+G3QCPPS8H.1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Panama:
- It is a country in Central America situated between the Caribbean Sea and the Gulf of Mexico.
- Panama Canal is a constructed waterway that connects the Atlantic and Pacific oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Panama is on the verge of a dramatic change to its immigration policy that could reverberate from the dense Darien jungle to the U.S. border.
About Panama:
It is a country in Central America located on the Isthmus of Panama, the narrow bridge of land that connects North and South America.
It is bordered by Costa Rica and Colombia and is situated between the Caribbean Sea and the North Pacific Ocean.
Embracing the isthmus and more than 1,600 islands off its Atlantic and Pacific coasts, the tropical nation is renowned as the site of the Panama Canal, which cuts through its midsection.
Most Panamanians are descended from indigenous, or native, people, Europeans, Afro-Caribbeans, and immigrants from all over the world.
Panama has the largest rainforest in the Western Hemisphere outside the Amazon Basin.
Capital: Panama City
Language: Spanish
What is the Panama Canal?
It is a constructed waterway that connects the Atlantic and Pacific oceans across the Isthmus of Panama.
It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal.
It is approximately 80 kilometers long.
The canal was built by the United States between 1904 and 1914, and it was officially opened on August 15, 1914.
It is owned and administered by the Republic of Panama since the oversight of the Canal was transferred from the United States to Panama in 1999.
The Panama Canal consists of a series of locks that raise and lower the water level to facilitate the passage of ships through the continental divide.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/panamas-next-president-says-hell-try-to-shut-down-one-of-worlds-busiest-migration-routes/article68164058.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Neural Processing Unit (NPU):
- It is a dedicated processor designed specifically for accelerating neural network processes.
- It harnesses parallel computing to simultaneously execute numerous calculations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Neural Processing Units are gaining importance in the semiconductor industry.
About Neural Processing Units (NPU):
An NPU, or a Neural Processing Unit, is a dedicated processor designed specifically for accelerating neural network processes.
A neural network is essentially a type of machine learning algorithm that mimics the human brain for processing data.
Therefore, the NPU is highly capable for handling machine learning operations that form the basis for AI-related tasks, such as speech recognition, natural language processing, photo or video editing processes like object detection, and more.
In most consumer-facing gadgets, such as smartphones, laptops, and tablets, the NPU is integrated within the main processor, adopting a System-on-Chip (SoC) configuration.
However, for data centres, the NPU might be an entirely discrete processor, separate from any other processing unit such as the central processing unit (CPU) or the Graphics Processing Unit (GPU).
How is NPU different from CPU and GPU?
CPUs employ a sequential computing method, issuing one instruction at a time, with subsequent instructions awaiting the completion of their predecessors.
In contrast, the NPU harnesses parallel computing to simultaneously execute numerous calculations. This parallel computing approach results in swifter and more efficient processing.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/technology/tech-news/npu-what-is-it-and-why-is-it-gaining-importance-in-semiconductor-industry-124050800939_1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Kawasaki Disease:
- It is a rare heart condition that causes a high fever and inflammation of the blood vessels.
- It usually affects old age people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Two baby girls diagnosed with Kawasaki disease were successfully treated at Coimbatore Medical College and Hospital (CMCH) very recently.
About Kawasaki Disease:
Kawasaki disease is a rare heart condition that causes a high fever and inflammation of the blood vessels.
It usually affects children under the age of 5.
It’s one of the leading causes of heart disease in kids.
The condition causes the immune system to attack blood vessels, which become inflamed and swollen.
Kawasaki disease tends to affect the coronary arteries, which carry blood to the heart muscle.
It can also cause problems with lymph nodes, skin, and the lining of a child’s mouth, nose, and throat.
Clinical signs include fever, rash, swelling of the hands and feet, irritation and redness of the whites of the eyes, swollen lymph glands in the neck, and irritation and inflammation of the mouth, lips, and throat.
The disease was first described in Japan by Tomisaku Kawasaki in 1967, and the first cases outside of Japan were reported in Hawaii in 1976.
The cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, although more cases happen in late winter and early spring.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/coimbatore/two-babies-with-kawasaki-disease-successfully-treated-at-cmch/articleshow/110045398.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Deadbots:
- They are AI-enabled digital representations of departed loved ones.
- They are conversational AI models and simulates human conversation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new study urges caution in the development of Artificial Intelligence (AI) chatbots designed to mimic deceased loved ones, known as ‘deadbots’.
These are also known as griefbots, are AI-enabled digital representations of departed loved ones.
Working: These chatbots simulate their language patterns and personality traits using their digital footprint, like emails, social media posts and even voice recordings, to create a conversational AI that reflects their personality.
Issues:
Researchers have warned that these chatbots, while potentially comforting, could lead to psychological distress if not designed with safety in mind.
Solutions that might be enthusiastically adopted in one cultural context could be completely dismissed in another.
What is Conversational AI?
It is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) that can simulate human conversation.
It is made possible by natural language processing (NLP), a field of AI that allows computers to understand and process human language and Google’s foundation models that power new generative AI capabilities.
It works by using a combination of natural language processing (NLP), foundation models, and machine learning (ML).
These AI systems are trained on large amounts of data, such as text and speech.
This data is used to teach the system how to understand and process human language. The system then uses this knowledge to interact with humans in a natural way. It’s constantly learning from its interactions and improving its response quality over time.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/digitally-immortalising-departed-loved-ones-comes-with-ethical-concerns-study-calls-for-cautious-design-of-ai-deadbots–96054
With reference to Aurora, consider the following statements:
- It occurs when charged Sun’s particles interact with Earth’s magnetic field.
- It cannot be seen in the midlatitudes of the Earth.
- It primarily appears near the poles of both the northern and southern hemispheres.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the night sky was lit up by northern lights, or aurora borealis, at Hanle village in Ladakh.
These are essentially natural lights that appear as bright, swirling curtains in the night sky and can be seen in a range of colours, including blue, red, yellow, green, and orange.
These lights primarily appear near the poles of both the northern and southern hemispheres all year round but sometimes they expand to lower latitudes.
These are called as aurora borealis in the north and in the south, it is known as the aurora australis.
Why do auroras occur?
It is due to activity on the surface of the Sun.
The star continuously releases a stream of charged particles, mainly electrons and protons, and magnetic fields called the solar wind.
As the solar wind approaches the Earth, it is deflected by the planet’s magnetic field, which acts like a protective shield.
However, some of the charged particles are trapped in the magnetic field and they travel down the magnetic field lines at the north and south poles into the upper atmosphere of the Earth.
These particles then interact with different gases present there, resulting in tiny flashes that light up the night sky.
When solar wind particles collide with oxygen, a green colour light is produced. Interaction with nitrogen produces shades of blue and purple.
Auroras expand to midlatitudes when the solar wind is extremely strong.
This happens when the activity on the Sun’s surface goes up, leading to solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs), which are essentially extra bursts of energy in the solar wind.
In such cases, the solar wind is so intense that it can result in a geomagnetic storm, also known as a magnetic storm — a temporary disturbance of the Earth’s magnetic field. It is during a magnetic storm that auroras can be seen in the mid-latitudes.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/northern-southern-lights-aurora-9322408
Consider the following statements with reference to Kamikaze drone:
- It is a small, unmanned aircraft packed with explosives which can attack enemy troops directly.
- It can be programmed to hit targets without human intervention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In the ongoing conflict in Ukraine, Russia’s utilization of the Lancet Kamikaze drone, which incorporates American AI technology, highlights complex global supply chain issues.
These are small, unmanned aircraft packed with explosives that can be flown directly at a tank or a group of troops that are destroyed when it hits the target and explodes.
These are also called as Switchblade drones.
The name comes from the World War 2 era’s feared Japanese kamikaze pilots, who conducted suicide attacks by intentionally crashing their explosive filled aircraft into enemy targets.
Features
The modern drone versions have the capability of surpassing traditional defences to strike their targets and are also cheaper than their larger counterparts.
The small lethal drones are difficult to detect on radar, and through the use of facial recognition, can be programmed to hit targets without human intervention.
Although the US Kamikaze might be the most advanced in this class of drones, Russia, China, Israel, Iran and Turkey all have some versions of it.
What is Lancet-3 drone?
It is a type of loitering munition, integrates the Jetson TX2 — described by Nvidia as the most power-efficient embedded AI computing device.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/europe/russias-killer-lancet-drone-are-running-on-us-ai/articleshow/110004683.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Forum on Forests:
- It was established by the UN Economic and Social Council of the United Nations (ECOSOC).
- India is not a founding member of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Delegates at 19th Session of the United Nations Forum on Forests (UNFF19) entered into informal negotiations over the draft texts of the High-Level Declaration.
It was established in 2000 by the UN Economic and Social Council of the United Nations (ECOSOC).
It promotes the management, conservation, and sustainable development of all types of forests.
The Forum meets annually at the UN Headquarters in New York, bringing together representatives of all member states and forest-related agencies for high-level dialogue on technical matters in odd years and policy matters in even years.
The forum has universal membership and is composed of all Member States of the United Nations and specialized agencies.
India is a founding member of UNFF.
The declaration of the 19th session aims to achieve agreement on a high-level political commitment to forest protection, with specific actions for effective implementation of the UN Strategic Plan for Forests (UNSPF) by UNFF and its stakeholders.
UN Strategic Plan for Forests 2017-2030
It provides a global framework for actions at all levels to sustainably manage all types of forests and trees outside forests and halt deforestation and forest degradation.
The UNSPF also provides a framework for forest-related contributions to the implementation of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, the Paris Agreement adopted under the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, the Convention on Biological Diversity and the UN Convention to Combat Desertification etc.
It serves as a reference for the forest-related work of the UN system and for fostering enhanced coherence, collaboration and synergies among UN bodies and partners.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/early-warning-systems-and-controlled-burning-for-forest-fire-management-in-talks-at-un-forum-on-forests-96075
Consider the following statements with reference to Sea anemones:
- It is a vertebrate aquatic species found in sea bottoms.
- It is known to form symbiotic relationships with Hermit Crab.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Scientists at the ICAR-National Bureau of Fish Genetic Resources (NBFGR) working on sea anemones of the Lakshadweep group of islands have found mass anemone bleaching off the Agatti island.
It is an invertebrate aquatic animal marked by soft bodies and has an ability to sting. They are close associates of corals and live rocks.
It is an ocean-dwelling members of the phylum Cnidaria.
It has a sticky foot or disc that allows them to anchor to rocks on the sea bottom or on coral reefs.
They have stinging cells which are equipped with organelles known as nematocysts that contain small threads which are forcefully everted when stimulated mechanically or chemically.
They are known to form symbiotic relationships with other animals; their most well-known alliance is with clownfish.
They make their homes within the anemone’s tentacles, protected from predators; in return, the anemone eats the clownfish’s leftover meals.
Anemones can have anywhere from a dozen to a few hundred tentacles. These cnidarians come in a variety of colors, decorating a tide pool or reef like a garden of wildflowers.
Some species of sea anemones also have a relationship with Hermit crabs. The anemone will attach itself to the crab’s shell and be carried around to find more food, while the crab uses the anemone as protection from its predators.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Kochi/scientists-flag-mass-sea-anemone-bleaching-off-agatti-island/article68164568.ece
Which of the following is not an objective of the Vibrant Village Programme?
Comprehensive development of villages along coastal states
Explanation :
The Home Ministry recently sanctioned 113 roads under the Vibrant Village Programme in Arunachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Sikkim to improve connectivity in areas along the border.
About Vibrant Village Programme:
It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented over the financial years 2022-23 to 2025-26.
Objective:
Comprehensive development of villages and blocks on the northern border, thus improving the quality of life of people living in identified border villages.
This will help in encouraging people to stay in their native locations in border areas and reversing the outmigration from these villages, adding to improved security of the border.
The programme will provide funds for the development of essential infrastructure and the creation of livelihood opportunities in 2967 villages in 19 Districts and 46 Border blocks of 4 States and 1 UT along the northern land border of the country: Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, and the UT of Ladakh.
The programme envisages focused areas of intervention in the select villages for the creation of opportunities for livelihood generation through promotion of tourism and cultural heritage, skill development and entrepreneurship, and development of cooperative societies, including agriculture/horticulture, cultivation of medicinal plants/herbs etc.
Interventions also include providing road connectivity to unconnected villages, housing and village infrastructures, energy including renewable energy, television and telecom connectivity.
Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats, and 100 % saturation of Central and state schemes will be ensured.
There will be no overlap with the Border Area Development Programme.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/82998/OPS/G23CPRI3L.1+GLUCPTKO5.1.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Zero-Day Vulnerability (ZDV):
- It is a system or software vulnerability unknown to the vendor.
- It is a vulnerability for which no mitigation is available at the time it is discovered.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Google Chrome has been hit with another zero-day vulnerability, which has set the alarm bells ringing among users and cyber experts.
About Zero-Day Vulnerability:
A ZDV is a system or software vulnerability unknown to the vendor and for which no patch or means of mitigation are available at the time it is discovered.
The term ZDV refers to the flaw itself, while zero-day attack refers to an attack that has zero days between the time the vulnerability is discovered and the first attack.
Zero-day exploit refers to the method or technique hackers use to take advantage of a ZDV, often via malware, and execute the attack.
Thus, a zero-day attack occurs when threat actors develop and release malware that targets the ZDV.
Because they were discovered before security researchers and software developers became aware of them—and before they can issue a patch— ZDVs pose a higher risk to users for the following reasons:
Cybercriminals race to exploit these vulnerabilities to cash in on their schemes.
Vulnerable systems are exposed until a patch is issued by the vendor.
Once a ZDV has been made public, it is known as an n-day or one-day vulnerability.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.news18.com/tech/indian-govt-warns-about-major-google-chrome-security-alert-what-you-need-to-know-8887378.html
With reference to Credit Information Companies (CICs), consider the following statements:
- They are licensed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- Both banks and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) can refer to the CIC report to assess the creditworthiness of borrowers.
- Every Credit Institution (like banks) should be a member of at least one CIC.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently issued notice in a plea alleging right to privacy violations by four foreign credit information companies operating in India.
About Credit Information Companies (CICs):
CICs collect public data, credit transactions, and payment histories of individuals and companies regarding loans and credit cards, among others.
Their primary function is to gather data from various sources, such as banks, financial institutions, lenders, and other credit-granting entities, and based on the collected data, CICs form a credit report and generate a score.
Banks and non-banking financial institutions refer to the CIC’s report and score to decide borrowers’ creditworthiness before granting a loan or issuing a credit card.
The credit score ranges from 350 to 850, and anything above 750 is considered a good score.
CICs in India are licensed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and governed by the Credit Information Companies Regulation Act, 2005 (CICRA) and various other rules and regulations issued by the RBI.
As per Section 15 of the CICRA, every Credit Institution (like banks) should be a member of at least one CIC.
CICRA also stipulates that a CIC may seek and obtain information from its members only.
Thus, if a bank seeks information from a CIC, it will get the information given by other institutions (to CIC) only.
As per the RBI’s notification, each customer/individual should be provided with one base-level Credit line Information Report (CIR) free of cost per year by a Credit Information Company (CIC).
The CIC’s have their own procedure through which individuals can apply for a credit report at a specified fee.
At present, there are four well known CICs in India. These companies are Credit Information Bureau (India) Limited (CIBIL), Equifax Credit Information Services Private Limited, Experian Credit Information Company of India Private Limited, and CRIF High Mark Credit Information Services Private Limited.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/supreme-court-notice-plea-right-to-privacy-violations-credit-score-companies
Rat-Hole Mining is a method of manual drilling most common in which one of the following States in India?
Meghalaya
Explanation :
A one-member panel appointed by the High Court of Meghalaya to handle coal-related issues has flagged the lack of progress in restoring the environment damaged by rat-hole coal mining in the State.
About Rat-Hole Mining:
It is a method of manual drilling most common in Meghalaya, especially in the West Jaintia Hills, East Jaintia Hills, and West Khasi Hills.
The term “rat hole” refers to the narrow pits dug into the ground, typically just large enough for one person to descend and extract coal.
The coal is manually extracted using primitive tools such as pickaxes, shovels, and baskets.
Rat-hole mining is broadly classified into two categories: Side-cutting procedure and box-cutting.
In the side-cutting procedure, narrow tunnels are dug on the hill slopes, and workers go inside until they find the coal seam.
Box-cutting entails digging a circular or squarish pit at least 5 sq. metre in width up to a depth of 400 feet.
Miners who drop down in makeshift cranes or using rope-and-bamboo ladders dig horizontally after finding the coal seam.
The tunnels are dug in every direction from the edge of the pit, resembling the tentacles of an octopus.
Risks associated:
Rat-hole mining is largely unregulated, and miners have to work without proper ventilation, safety gear, and any structural support.
The narrow and vertical nature of the pits makes them prone to collapse, leading to accidents and fatalities.
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) banned rat-hole mining in 2014 for being unscientific, although the practice remains widespread.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/panel-flags-lack-of-progress-in-reversing-meghalaya-coal-mining-damage/article68167935.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Leopard Cat:
- It is a species of forest-dwelling cat endemic to Indian Subcontinent.
- It is listed as Endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A leopard cat has been spotted in Maharashtra’s Pench Tiger Reserve for the first time, a senior forest official said recently.
About Leopard Cat:
It is a species of forest-dwelling cat, of the family Felidae.
Scientific Name: Prionailurus bengalensis
It is noted for its leopard-like colouring.
Distribution:
They are the most widely distributed Asian small cats.
Their range extends from the Amur region in the Russian Far East over the Korean Peninsula, China, Indochina, the Indian Subcontinent, to the West in northern Pakistan, and to the south in the Philippines and the Sunda Islands of Indonesia.
Habitat:
They are found in agriculturally used areas but prefer forested habitats.
They live in tropical evergreen rainforests and plantations at sea level, in subtropical deciduous and coniferous forests in the foothills of the Himalayas at altitudes above 1000 m.
Features:
They vary widely in size and appearance across their range. The colouration ranges from pale tawny, to yellow, red, or grey above, with the underparts white, and spotted.
There are usually four black stripes running down the forehead to the nape, breaking up into short bands and elongate spots on the shoulders.
The length of the animal ranges from 45 to 75 cm (18 to 30 inches), excluding the 23–35-cm (9–13.8-inch) tail.
They are solitary, nocturnal carnivores.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://theprint.in/india/leopard-cat-sighted-in-maharashtras-pench-tiger-reserve-for-first-time-official/2081611/
Consider the following statements with reference to Peregrine Falcon:
- It is found on all continents except Antarctica.
- It helps in regulating population of pigeons and doves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Project Raptor Watch (PRW) of the Madras Naturalist’s Society, who have been tracking peregrines in Chennai for two years and aims to document, study and monitor raptor species in few districts of Tamil Nadu.
The Peregrine Falcon is one of the most widespread birds in the world.
Distribution: It is found on all continents except Antarctica, and on many oceanic islands.
Habitat:
They prefer open habitats, such as grasslands, tundra, and meadows.
They are most common in tundra and coastal areas and rare in sub-tropical and tropical habitats. They nest on cliff faces and crevices.
Behaviour: They are active during the day. When not breeding they are primarily solitary and establish and defend territories.
Ecological role: They are high level predators, peregrine falcons play an important role in regulating populations of their prey, particularly pigeons and doves.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List status: Least Concern.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/peregrine-falcon-shaheen-highrise-urban-cities/article68071415.ece#
Consider the following statements with reference to Mammoth carbon capture Plant:
- It is situated in the Antarctica region.
- It draws in air and chemically extracts carbon dioxide, which can then be stored underground.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the world’s largest facility designed to remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere started operations in Iceland.
It is the largest carbon dioxide capture and storage facility of its kind and launched operations. It is situated on a dormant volcano in Iceland.
It is dubbed as “Mammoth,” this plant is Climeworks’ second commercial direct air capture (DAC) facility in the nation and is significantly larger than its predecessor, Orca, which began in 2021.
Working:
This cutting-edge technology draws in air and chemically extracts carbon dioxide, which can then be stored underground, converted into stone, or reused.
The Swiss company Climeworks, in partnership with Icelandic company Carbfix, plans to sequester the captured carbon by turning it into stone beneath the earth’s surface, utilizing Iceland’s abundant geothermal energy to power the process.
What is direct air capture?
This technology extracts CO2 directly from the atmosphere at any location, unlike carbon capture which is generally carried out at the point of emissions, such as a steel plant.
The CO2 can be permanently stored in deep geological formations or used for a variety of applications.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/icelands-mammoth-raises-potential-for-carbon-capture/article68160386.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement:
- It was signed at the 7th ASEAN Economic Ministers-India Consultations in Bangkok in 2009.
- It only applies to trade in physical goods and does not apply to trade in services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 4th Joint Committee meeting for the review of AITIGA (ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement) was held in Putrajaya, Malaysia from 7-9 May 2024.
It is a trade deal between the ten member states of ASEAN and India.
It was signed at the 7th ASEAN Economic Ministers-India Consultations in Bangkok, Thailand in 2009.
The agreement, which came into effect in 2010, is sometimes referred to as the ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement.
The Agreement covers trade in physical goods and products; it does not apply to trade in services.
ASEAN and India signed a separate ASEAN-India Trade in Services Agreement in 2014.
What is ASEAN?
It is a group of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, which was established in 1967 with the signing of the Bangkok declaration.
Founding members: Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand.
Presently ASEAN comprises 10 member states namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam.
It promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic, political, security, military, educational, and sociocultural integration between its members and other countries in Asia.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2020351
Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Ocean Basin-Wide (IOBW) index:
- It indicates the average sea-surface temperature variations across the tropical Indian Ocean.
- It has a stronger association with the Northern Hemisphere than the Southern Hemisphere of Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to the study Indian Ocean basin-wide (IOBW) index exhibits a close association with dengue outbreaks in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres.
It represents the average sea-surface temperature variations across the tropical Indian Ocean.
It has emerged as a key indicator for predicting the magnitude and timing of dengue epidemics in each country.
IOBW index’s association with the Southern Hemisphere is stronger than that with the Northern Hemisphere.
The index has a more pronounced impact on temperatures in tropical regions. Brazil, for example, bears a higher burden of dengue in the Southern Hemisphere.
The Northern Hemisphere witnesses a peak dengue epidemic period between July and October and the Southern Hemisphere in February and April, both in the summers.
Further, the amplitude of dengue incidence was high when the index was positive and low when it was negative.
The link between the Indian Ocean’s temperature and dengue incidence is likely due to its influence on regional temperatures through teleconnections, large-scale atmospheric patterns that can transfer heat and moisture across vast distances.
Key facts about Dengue
It is caused by the dengue virus (DENV)
Transmission: It is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected female mosquitoes, primarily the Aedes aegypti mosquito.
The severe form of dengue fever, also called dengue hemorrhagic fever, can cause serious bleeding, a sudden drop in blood pressure (shock) and death.
It is more common in tropical and subtropical climates.
Symptoms: The most common symptoms are high fever, headache, body aches, nausea and rash.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/can-changes-in-indian-ocean-temperatures-help-predict-dengue-outbreaks-new-paper-finds-links-96071#
Caenorhabditis elegans, which is recently in news, is a:
Nematode
Explanation :
Researchers found that after C. elegans worms ate a disease-causing bacteria, its children knew from birth to avoid making the same mistake
Caenorhabditis elegans is a nematode worm which is a small, relatively simple, and precisely structured organism.
C. elegans grows within 3-5 days from a fertilised egg to a millimetre-long adult, and it has informed profound insights into the human body, as well as biology.
It is widely used in research to understand neuronal and molecular biology.
It was the first multicellular organism to have its full genome sequenced and neural wiring mapped.
It has two sexes—a hermaphrodite and a male.
The hermaphrodite can be viewed most simply as a female that produces a limited number of sperm: she can reproduce either by self-fertilization, using her own sperm, or by cross-fertilization after transfer of male sperm by mating.
Self-fertilization allows a single heterozygous worm to produce homozygous progeny.
What are Nematodes?
These are among the most abundant animals on Earth.
They occur as parasites in animals and plants or as free-living forms in soil, fresh water, marine environments, and even such unusual places as vinegar, beer malts, and water-filled cracks deep within Earth’s crust.
Features:
These are bilaterally symmetrical, elongate, and usually tapered at both ends.
Some species possess a pseudocoel, a fluid-filled body cavity between the digestive tract and the body wall.
They have been reported from every continent on earth and occur in deserts, swamps, the oceans, the tropics and Antarctica.
Nematode parasites of animals occur in almost all organs of the body, but the most common sites are in the alimentary, circulatory, and respiratory systems.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/caenorhabditis-elegans-learned-avoidance-inherit-food-habits/article68167495.ece
4) What is C295 Transport Aircraft?
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling ,VIP transport and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload or as many as 71 troops at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In September 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025 and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Sources: https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/an-overview-of-section-498-a-of-ipc
https://www.international-divorce.com/Indias-Notorious-Section-498A.htm
https://blog.ipleaders.in/section-498a-ipc/
https://lawrato.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/offences-under-ipc-section-498a-bailable-or-not
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-12725-section-498a-ipc-unraveling-misuse-and-relevant-case-laws.html
https://www.lawtendo.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/what-is-section-498a-of-ipc/64bce053c302e71eadbe30d6/
ImageLink: https://airbusus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/C295-3.jpg
‘Exercise Shakti’ is a joint military exercise between India and which one of the following countries?
France
Explanation :
The 7th edition of India-France Joint Military Exercise SHAKTI commenced at the Joint Training Node in Umroi, Meghalaya recently.
About Exercise Shakti:
It is a biennial training event conducted alternatively in India and France.
The last edition was conducted in France in 2021.
Aim: To enhance the joint military capability of both sides to undertake multi-domain operations in a Sub-Conventional scenario under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate.
The joint exercise will focus on operations in the semi-urban and mountainous terrain.
Objectives to be achieved from the joint training are a high degree of physical fitness, rehearsing and refining drills for operations at the tactical level, and sharing of best practices.
It will enable the two sides to share their best practices in Tactics, Techniques and Procedures for conducting joint operations.
The Indian contingent comprises 90 personnel, primarily from the Rajput Regiment, along with personnel from other arms and services, participating in the exercise.
Observers from the Indian Navy and the Indian Air Force are also part of this 14-day exercise.
It will also include the French contingent, consisting of 90 personnel, mainly from the 13th Foreign Legion Half-Brigade (13th DBLE).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2020423#:~:text=Exercise%20SHAKTI%20is%20a%20biennial,from%20other%20arms%20and%20services.
With reference to Chabahar Port, consider the following statements:
- It is the only Iranian port with direct access to the Indian Ocean.
- It is situated on the Persian Gulf.
- It is a key transit center on the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India recently signed a 10-year agreement with Iran to develop and manage the Chabahar port, marking a pivotal development in bilateral ties between the two nations.
About Chabahar Port:
It is a deep-water port located in Iran’s Sistan-Baluchistan province.
It is on the Gulf of Oman at the mouth of the Strait of Hormuz.
It is the only Iranian port having direct access to the Indian Ocean.
It consists of two separate ports called Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
It’s geographic proximity to countries such as Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India, as well as its status as a key transit center on the burgeoning International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), gives it the potential to develop into one of the most important commercial hubs in the region.
INSTC is a multi-modal transportation route linking the Indian Ocean and the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Iran, and onward to northern Europe via Saint Petersburg in Russia.
Kandla port in Gujarat is 550 Nautical Miles from Chabahar port, while the distance between Chabahar and Mumbai is 786 Nautical Miles.
Chabahar Project:
In 2016, India signed a tripartite agreement with Iran and Afghanistan to develop the Shahid Beheshti Terminal at Chabahar.
It is India’s first foreign port project.
The deal agreement aims to establish an international transport and transit corridor in Chabahar.
The construction of the Chabahar Port and the construction of a rail line from Chabahar Port to Zahedan are the major highlights of this project.
The idea was that the port would enable India to bypass Pakistan and access Afghanistan, and ultimately Central Asia.
Moreover, the port could serve as a hub for transit trade between India, Iran, and Afghanistan and provide an alternative route to the traditional Silk Road that passes through China.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/business/story/india-signs-10-year-deal-with-iran-to-manage-chabahar-port-2538654-2024-05-13
With reference to Mahi River, consider the following statements:
- It is one of the major west-flowing rivers of India.
- It extends over the States of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
- It drains into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Two youngsters died by drowning in Mahi River near Kotna village on the outskirts of the Vadodara city recently.
About Mahi River:
It is one of the major west-flowing interstate rivers of India.
It extends over the States of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
Course:
It originates from the northern slopes of Vindhyas at an altitude of 500 m near village Bhopawar, in the Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh, and flows through Madhya Pradesh for about 120 km in a southerly direction.
It then enters the southeastern portion of Rajasthan, which is the Vagad region. The river flows through the Banswara district, which comes under the Vagad region.
Before entering Gujarat, the river makes a ‘U’-shaped loop in Rajasthan.
It drains into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat.
The total length of Mahi is 583 km.
It is bounded by the Aravalli Hills on the north and the north-west, by the Malwa Plateau on the east, by the Vindhyas on the south, and by the Gulf of Khambhat on the west.
Tributaries: The main tributaries of the river are Eru, Nori, Chap, Som, Jakham, Moran, Anas, Panam, and Bhadar.
The Mahi River has a dam on it, namely, the Mahi Bajaj Sagar Dam. The whole of Gujarat gets water to drink and electricity from the dam.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vadodara/two-drown-in-mahi-river-near-kotna/articleshow/110065065.cms
In India, which one of the following organizations regulates the India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX)?
International Financial Services Centers Authority (IFSCA)
Explanation :
State Bank of India (SBI) recently announced it has become the first trading-cum-clearing member at the India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX).
About India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX):
It is India’s first International Bullion Exchange.
It is based at GIFT City (Gujarat International Finance Tech City) IFSC (International Finance Services Center), Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
IIBX has been conceptualized to provide a gateway to import bullion into India and provide a world class bullion exchange ecosystem to promote bullion trading, investment in bullion financial products and vaulting facilities in IFSCs.
It will facilitate Transparent Price Discovery, Responsible sourcing and supply chain integrity, Quality Assurance and Standardization.
The IIBX is regulated by the International Financial Services Centers Authority (IFSCA), a unified authority for the development and regulation of financial products, financial services, and financial institutions at IFSCs.
Products and technology offered at IIBX are diversified, and available at a cost that is far more competitive than those at Indian exchanges, as well as global exchanges in Hong Kong, Singapore, Dubai, London, and New York.
What is a bullion?
Bullion refers to physical gold and silver of high purity that is often kept in the form of bars, ingots, or coins.
Bullion can sometimes be considered legal tender and is often held as reserves by central banks or held by institutional investors.
Key Facts about International Financial Services Centers Authority (IFSCA):
It is a statutory authority established under the International Financial Services Centres Authority Act, 2019 (“IFSCA Act”).
Mandate: To develop and regulate the financial products, financial services, and financial institutions in the International Financial Services Centres (‘IFSC’).
The IFSCA aims to develop a strong global connection and focus on the needs of the Indian economy, as well as serve as an international financial platform for the entire region.
Before the establishment of IFSCA, the domestic financial regulators, namely, RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, and IRDAI regulated the business in IFSC.
GIFT-IFSC is the maiden IFSC in India.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ahmedabad/sbi-becomes-first-trading-clearing-member-of-iibx/articleshow/110098300.cms
With reference to the General Provident Fund (GPF), consider the following statements:
- It is a kind of Public Provident Fund (PPF) account that is available only for government employees in India.
- The contributions are deducted from the employee’s monthly salary and the amount earns interest at a predetermined rate.
- Employees can withdraw their savings from the GPF upon retirement or resignation from service.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A single judge bench of the Madras High Court recently held that employees are not automatically entitled to pension benefits based on deductions made under the GPF scheme.
About General Provident Fund (GPF):
GPF is a kind of Public Provident Fund (PPF) account that is available only for government employees in India.
It allows them to allocate a portion of their salaries to their GPF accounts.
Upon retirement, employees receive the accumulated corpus from their GPF accounts, reflecting their service tenure contributions.
As per the GPF rules, the following are eligible to subscribe to GPF account:
All temporary government servants who have given their service for continuously one year
All re-employed pensioners (except those eligible for admission to the contributory provident fund)
All permanent government servants
Contribution:
It is a mandatory scheme for government employees, requiring them to contribute a certain percentage of their salary towards the fund.
The contributions are deducted from the employee’s monthly salary and the amount earns interest at a predetermined rate.
Employees can also increase their GPF deductions as per their choice.
Withdrawal:
Employees can withdraw their savings from the fund upon retirement or resignation from service.
A GPF is flexible, allowing employees to withdraw money from the fund for various reasons, such as marriage, education, and medical emergencies.
Employees can also take out loans against their GPF account, subject to certain conditions.
Employees, who transfer to another government department or leave their job, can withdraw their GPF balance or transfer it to their new employer.
The GPF sum will be paid to their nominee if the employee passes away.
GPF also offers a competitive interest rate, revised quarterly.
The GPF scheme is administered by the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare, falling under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
This scheme offers several benefits to government employees, including tax savings, low-risk investments, and guaranteed returns.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/high-court/madras-high-court/madras-high-court-deductions-gpf-scheme-automatically-entitle-employees-pension-benefits-257
Consider the following statements with reference to the GPT-4o:
- It can recognise the voice of the speaker or multiple speakers.
- It can pick up user’s emotions and come up with different kinds of emotive styles of conversation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The ChatGPT, OpenAI has brought the capabilities of GPT-4 through its latest model named GPT-4o.
GPT-4o (“o” for “omni”) offers GPT-4 level intelligence and it is much faster and improves its capabilities across text, vision, and audio.
Features
It makes human-to-machine interaction much more natural and far easier.
The voice mode on GPT-4o is efficient and intuitively recognises the voice of the speaker or multiple speakers.
Until now, the voice mode had three models that came together to deliver the feature. These are – transcription, intelligence, and text-to-speech and they all came together and orchestrated to deliver the voice mode. This led to latency, however, with GPT-4o all of this happens natively. “GPT-4o reasons across voice, text, and vision.
It also has a vision, allowing users to upload photos and documents, and can start conversations about the same.
One can also use the Memory feature and browse to search real-time information during conversations. Also, OpenAI has improved the quality and the speed in 50 different languages.
This model can pick up on a user’s emotions and come up with different kinds of emotive styles of conversation.
It is also capable of telling about your feelings by looking at your face in real-time.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/artificial-intelligence/openai-unveils-gpt-4o-free-gpt-4-9326627/
Consider the following statements with reference to soil nailing:
- It is a geotechnical engineering technique that involves the insertion of reinforcing elements into the soil to strengthen it.
- It is used to check the concentration of lead in the soils of a particular area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The project, known as ‘slope stabilisation using soil nailing and Hydroseeding method,’ is being undertaken in few areas in Tamil Nadu around the Nilgiris’ major roads by the state highways department.
It is a geotechnical engineering technique that involves the insertion of reinforcing elements into the soil in a specified area to strengthen it.
This soil reinforcement process uses steel tendons which are drilled and grouted into the soil to create a composite mass similar to a gravity wall.
Soil nailing methods
Drilled and grouted soil nailing methods: The nails are inserted in the pre-drilled holes and filled with grouting materials.
Driven Soil Nailing Method: It is used for temporary stabilization, it is fast. However, it does not provide corrosion protection to the steel or nails.
Drilling Soil Nailing Method: In this method the hollow bars are used in this method, bars are drilled and grout is injected. This method is typically faster than driven nails.
Jet Grouted Soil Nailing Method: This method is used for eroding soil for creating holes in the soil surface, steel bars are installed in this hole and grout with concrete.
Launched Soil Nailing Method: This method involves nailing steel bars forced to the soil with a single shot using compression by an air mechanism.
It is commonly used for:
Stabilizing slopes and landslides
Supporting excavations
Repairing existing retaining walls
What is hydroseeding?
It is a process of applying a mixture of seeds, fertilizer, organic materials and water onto the soil to facilitate the growth of grass and plant-life, which will help hold the topsoil together and prevent erosion.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/a-green-solution-to-prevent-landslips-in-the-nilgiris/article68167534.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime:
- It is responsible for implementing the United Nations lead programme on terrorism.
- It publishes the World Wildlife Crime Report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The recently launched the World Wildlife Crime Report 2024 by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime highlighted that the rhino and the cedar were the animal and plant species most affected by global illegal wildlife trade during 2015-2021.
It is a global leader in the fight against illicit drugs and international crime, in addition to being responsible for implementing the United Nations lead programme on terrorism.
It was established in 1997 through a merger between the United Nations Drug Control Programme and the Centre for International Crime Prevention.
What are its functions?
It works to educate people throughout the world about the dangers of drug abuse.
Strengthen international action against illicit drug production and trafficking and drug-related crime.
It also works to improve crime prevention and assist with criminal justice reform in order to strengthen the rule of law, promote stable and viable criminal justice systems and combat the growing threats of transnational organized crime and corruption.
In 2002, the UN General Assembly approved an expanded programme of activities for the Terrorism Prevention Branch of UNODC. The activities focus on providing assistance to States, on request, in ratifying and implementing the eighteen universal legal instruments against terrorism.
Funding: It relies on voluntary contributions, mainly from governments, to carry out the majority of our work.
Headquarters: Vienna, Austria
What is World Wildlife Crime Report?
It is the 3rd edition (2024) of the report and earlier editions were published in 2016 and 2020.
It probes trends in the illicit trafficking of protected wildlife species.
It also presents systematic analyses of wildlife crime harms and impacts, probes the factors driving wildlife trafficking trends, and takes stock of current knowledge about the effectiveness of the different types of intervention being pursued to resolve this problem.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/rhinos-elephants-pangolins-cedars-rosewoods-agarwood-most-affected-by-illegal-wildlife-trade-unodc-96131
Consider the following statements with reference to Xenotransplantation:
- It involves the transplantation of tissues or organs from non-human animal sources into a human recipient.
- It involves genetic modification of a selected animal organ.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the first recipient of a modified pig kidney transplant passed away around two months after the surgery was carried out.
Xenotransplantation is any procedure that involves the transplantation, implantation or infusion into a human recipient of either live cells, tissues, or organs from a nonhuman animal source or human body fluids, cells, tissues or organs that have had ex vivo contact with live nonhuman animal cells, tissues or organs.
Xenotransplantation involving the heart was first tried in humans in the 1980s.
The animal organ selected has to undergo genetic modifications, so that the human body does not reject it.
Even after the operation, constant monitoring needs to be done to check the body’s response to the organ.
Why pig is often used for Xenotransplantation?
Pig heart valves have been used for replacing damaged valves in humans for over 50 years now.
The pig’s anatomical and physiological parameters are similar to that of humans, and the breeding of pigs in farms is widespread and cost-effective.
Also, many varieties of pig breeds are farmed, which provides an opportunity for the size of the harvested organs to be matched with the specific needs of the human recipient.
In 2022, the first xenotransplantation of a genetically-modified pig heart was done.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/pig-kidney-transplant-death-xenotransplantation-9325986/
With reference to Silk cotton tree, consider the following statements:
- It is only found in the Indian Himalayan region.
- It is considered a pioneer tree and generates a rich biomass every season.
- The Kathodi tribe uses its wood to craft musical instruments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Silk cotton trees are disappearing from south Rajasthan, launching a cascade of adverse consequences for forests and people in the area.
The silk cotton tree (Bombax ceiba L.) is locally known as semal tree.
It is a lofty deciduous tree with butressed base when old and whole trunk is covered with large conical prickles.
It is mainly found in moist deciduous and semi-evergreen forests, also in the plains.
Occasionally found in plains from the coast, on the deciduous belt of the hills to 1400 m.
Members of the Garasia tribe in Rajasthan believe they are descended from semal trees.
Distribution: In India, it is seen in Andaman & Nicobar Island, Assam, Bihar, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh.
Significance of the tree:
It has multiple purposes and is useful to wild animals, insects, and even to tribal communities.
It is a fire-resistant tree. It is also known for its cooling properties.
It is considered a pioneer tree that generates a rich biomass every season and has been used to reclaim wastelands.
This tree fixes carbon and helps carbon sequestration by shedding all leaves before flowering.
Many researchers believe the semal to be a bio indicator—a late fl owering could mean a hot summer or a delayed monsoon.
The rock bees nestle on its branches because the tree’s spikes keep its predator, the sloth bears, away.
Members of tribal communities consume the tree’s reddish root for food during the monsoons.
It provides opportunities for agroforestry and resources like food, fodder, and fuel wood.
Members of the Kathodi tribe use its wood to craft musical instruments while those of the Bhil use it to make utensils.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/udaipur-holika-dahan-semal-trees-rajasthan-disappearing/article68170694.ece
Which of the following constitutes ‘home charges’ during colonial rule?
- Salaries of European officials, European traders and planters remitted to England
- Pensions to those who retired from civil and military services
- The salaries of the ministers of the British government in London
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Dadabhai Naoroji in his book ‘Poverty and un-British rule in India’ explained how the English rulers were different from the earlier invaders. Naoroji argued that a great deal of wealth was drained to England in the form of Home Charges. The following constituted the home charges:
Incentive to the shareholders of the Company.
Savings and the salaries of European officials, European traders and Planters remitted to England. So, point 1 is correct.
Pensions to those who retired from civil and military services. So, point 2 is correct.
The salaries of the staff and the secretary to the home government, India office at London. So, point 3 is not correct.
Expenses on wars fought in India and interests for the loans obtained from the banks for the conduct of wars and for the building of railroads.
Consider the following statements:
- The British colonial policies led to commercialization of Indian agriculture.
- Gopal Krishna Gokhale put forward the theory of economic drain in his book, “The Economic History of India”.
- The Welby Commission was established by the British government to prevent the drain of the Indian economy.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Commercialization of agriculture means production of certain specialized agricultural crops for commercial consideration rather than for family consumption. It began in the latter half of the nineteenth century, due to British colonial policies in India, when commercial crops like cotton, jute, groundnut, oilseeds etc began to be cultivated. So, statement 1 is correct.
The early intellectuals of the first half of the nineteenth century supported British rule under the impression that it would modernize the country based on the latest technology and capitalist economic organization. After the 1860s, disillusionment started to set in and they began to probe into the reality of British rule in India.
The foremost among these economic analysts was Dadabhai Naoroji who put forward the theory of economic drain in “Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India”, Romesh Chandra Dutt in “The Economic History of India”. Other economic analysts included MG Ranade and Gopal Krishna Gokhale etc. So, statement 2 is not correct.
During the nineteenth century, the Indian economy was in a great imbalance of income and expenditure. In order to prevent the drain on the Indian economy a royal commission was set up on Indian expenditure named the Welby Commission. It inquired into the administration and management of the military and civil expenditure incurred under the authority of the Secretary of State for India-in-council or the Government of India. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Moderate phase of the Indian National Movement:
- Moderates tried to ignore and bypass all the caste and communal differences and focused the attention of educated classes on the questions of common interest.
- They did not believe in the principle of laissez-faire.
- They believed that the Indians were capable of managing their political and civil affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Indian National Movement: The Moderate Era
During its early years, the Congress was entirely under the influence of leaders, described as the Moderates, who were guided by the following principles:
Belief in Gradual Reforms: The Moderates believed in agitating for piecemeal reforms.
Faith in constitutional method: The Moderates were confirmed believers in the efficacy of the constitutional method. They avoided conflict with the Government at all costs. They eschewed violence. They followed the method of prayers, petitions, representations and deputations.
Faith in the British sense of justice and fair play: Most of the early congress leaders believed that the British people were essentially just and fair.
Regarded connection with the British for the Good of India: Most of the early congressmen were the product of Western civilization and were imbued with western thought.
Programs and Policies of Moderates
Secular Nationalism: The progressive part of the ideology of the liberals was their secular nationalism. They firmly believed that in spite of all the diversities, India was a nation. They tried to ignore and bypass all the caste and communal differences and focused the attention of educated classes on the questions of common interest. So, statement 1 is correct.
No Doctrinaire Liberty: Although the democratic ideals of liberty, equality and representative Government had a great fascination for them, they were not doctrinaire philosophers. Their ideal of liberty was not a reproduction of the western concept. They did not believe in the principle of laissez-faire. So, statement 2 is correct.
No Doctrinaire Equality: similarly, they had anything to do with the doctrinaire concept of equality. They believed that the Indians were not capable of managing their political and civil affairs, and, therefore, they needed to pass through a period of tutelage under the guardianship of the British. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).
He was the Professor of Gujarati at University College London. He started a newspaper called ‘Voice of India’. He was the first Indian to become a member of the British Parliament. He was
Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation :
Dadabhai Naoroji:
Dadabhai Naoroji was born in Bombay on 4 September 1825 in a priestly Parsi family. As a consequence of his outstanding performance at the Elphinstone College, Naoroji obtained the Clare Scholarship. Soon after graduation in 1845, he became the first Indian to be appointed Professor at Elphinstone.
On 27 June 1855 he left for London to join the business as a partner in Cama & Co., the first Indian company to be established in London. Four years later he started his own firm Naoroji & Co. Later he became a Professor of Gujarati at University College London.
In 1867 he founded the East India Association in London, one of the predecessor organizations of the Indian National Congress with the aim of putting across the Indian point of view before the British public.
He was appointed as Justice of the Peace in 1883, started a newspaper called ‘Voice of India’ and was elected to the Bombay Municipal Corporation for the second time. In August 1885 he joined the Bombay Legislative Council at the invitation of the Governor, Lord Reay.
In 1902 he was elected as a Member of the Liberal Party in the House of Commons, representing Central Finsbury, he was the first British Indian MP. He presided over the Indian National Congress Annual Sessions in 1886 (Calcutta), 1893 (Lahore) and 1906 (Calcutta).
He was a prominent nationalist of progressive views. He belonged to the school of moderates and was a great believer in constitutional methods. Although he was a champion of Swadeshi, he was not against the use of machines for organizing key industries in the country.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Moderate phase of the Indian National Congress, consider the following statements:
- Congress was dominated by the affluent middle-class intelligentsia.
- Congress demanded complete independence for India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The moderate phase (1885-1095) of the Congress was dominated by the ‘moderates.’ They were people who believed in British justice and were loyal to them. Dadabhai Nauroji, Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Sir Surendranath Banerjee were leaders during this phase.
They believed in peaceful and constitutional methods to demand and fulfill those demands. They used petitions, meetings, resolutions, pamphlets, memoranda and delegations to voice their demands. These methods have been called 3P – Prayers, Petition and Protest. They had complete faith in the British justice system. They aimed only at getting political rights and self-government under British dominion.
During the Moderate period, the Congress was dominated by the affluent middle-class intelligentsia, men of legal, medical, engineering, literary pursuits and journalists. So, statement (1) is correct.
During this period, Congress demanded a few concessions and not freedom for the nation. Most of the Congress leaders of the period believed that the British people were just, righteous and freedom loving. They were further convinced that the British people meant justice to be done to India. If Indians had certain grievances, these were only due to the reactionary policy of the British bureaucracy in India or ignorance of the British people about these grievances. So, statement (2) is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a).
With reference to the moderates in the Indian National Congress, consider the following statements:
- Their focus was on constitutional reforms rather than revolutionary methods.
- The slogan “No taxation without representation” was given by them in India.
- Their vision also involved the equality of women in national life.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The moderate political activity involved constitutional agitation within the confines of law. The constitution was to be considered inviolable and hence repeatedly they appealed to the British parliament complaining about the Government of India subverting the constitution. They believe in presenting their demands through resolutions, petitions, meetings etc so that authorities could concede these demands gradually. So, statement 1 is correct.
From the establishment of Congress in 1885 to 1892, the moderate leaders’ demands for constitutional reforms revolved around expansion of councils and reform of councils. However, Lord Cross’s Act or Indian Councils Amendment Act of 1892 did not delegate satisfactory control over the finances to the councils. Thus, they gave the slogan “No taxation without representation” which was inspired from the American revolution. So, statement 2 is correct.
The early moderates included Dadabhai Naroji, Pherozshah Mehta and Anand Mohan Bose etc. They also wanted to give women of India due status in national life. In 1890, Kadambini Ganguli, the first woman graduate of Calcutta University, addressed the congress session, which symbolised the intention of the leaders. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Who among the following authored “The Arctic Home in the Vedas”, a debate over the
origins and the original homeland of the Aryans in the Arctic?
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Explanation :
Bal Gangadhar Tilak’s campaign against the British colonial rule was anchored on reclaiming Indian heritage and culture, some of which were reflected in his 1892 paper, “The Orion, or Researches into the Antiquity of the Vedas”, which drew on the vast knowledge of the Hindu Vedas and Avesta, the sacred scripture of Zoroastrianism. In sum, it was a search into the antiquity of the Aryan-Vedic culture, challenging the ancientness of the Bible and establishing the primacy of the Vedic literature.the Arctic Home In The vedas eBook by Bal Gangadhar Tilak - 1230004241133 | Rakuten Kobo United States
Tilak’s articulation of the Vedic culture was further elaborated in his 1904 work, ‘’The Arctic Home of the Vedas’’ that brought in an Indian consciousness to human social evolution as a response to the physical environment. While updating his estimate of the Vedic antiquity, Tilak came to the conclusion that the advancement of geological science, astronomy and archaeology proved that the climate conditions at the pole during the interglacial period was conducive for human habitation establishing, thereby, his long-held belief that the ancestors of India’s ancient Vedic civilisation lived in the Arctic region.
Sri Aurobindo, the renowned Vedic scholar, in his work, The Secret of the Vedas, appreciates Tilak’s interpretation noting that by examining the “Vedic Dawn, the figure of the Vedic cows, and the astronomical data of the hymns”, a strong probability of the Aryan race “descending from the Arctic regions in the glacial period” emerges.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
He did his schooling from England and had a brilliant academic career at Kings College, Cambridge. He authored the famous work ‘the life divine’. Rabindranath Tagore poetically described him as the ‘O voice incarnate, free, Of India’s soul’. He published a series of articles in the journal ‘Indu Prakash’. He was
Aurobindo Ghosh
Explanation :
Born in 1872, Sri Aurobindo was sent to England at the age of seven, where he did his schooling and went on to a brilliant academic career at Kings College, Cambridge, before returning to India with Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad of Baroda in 1893. Sri Aurobindo returned as a strong nationalist and almost immediately began writing on the political situation. His first series of articles in the journal ‘Indu Prakash’, published in 1894, was so radical that the editor had to discontinue them after the first two were published.
During the partition of Bengal, his passionate editorials in the ‘Bande Mataram’ and the ‘Karmayogin’ became the inspiration for a whole generation of revolutionaries.
Along with the political goal of complete independence, Sri Aurobindo also developed a parallel program of constructive action. His writings combined erudition with patriotism and created a tremendous stir among the intelligentsia and youth. As Rabindranath Tagore put it, he was the “O voice incarnate, free, Of India’s soul”.
The Life Divine: It first appeared serially in the monthly review ‘Arya’ between August 1914 and January 1919. Each installment was written immediately before its publication. In 1939 and 1940 Sri Aurobindo revised The Life Divine for book publication.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Widow Marriage Association was established by Vishnu Shastri Pandit and M. G. Ranade in 1861 at Bombay. It campaigned for widow remarriages and against child marriages. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Arya Mahila Samaj was founded by Pandita Ramabai Saraswati to serve the cause of women. It aimed to create a support network for newly educated women. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Bharat Stree Mahamandal was founded at Allahabad in 1910. It was considered as the first major Indian women’s organization set up by a woman. Sarala Devi Chaudhurani convened the first meeting. Its objectives included promotion of education among women and abolition of the purdah system. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Ladies Social Conference was founded by Ramabai Ranade under National Social conference at Bombay in 1904. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following pairs:
S.no
Name of the Paper/Journal
Founded by
Explanation :
Mirat-ul-Akbar the First journal in Persian was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy. The Licensing Regulations, 1823 induced restrictions against Indian language newspapers or those edited by Indians. Later on, the Act was extended to cover journals, pamphlets, and books. Due to these regulations, Rammohan Roy’s Mirat-ul-Akbar had to stop publication. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
The Bengalee was founded in 1862 by Girish Chandra Ghosh as an English language newspaper based in Kolkata. The newspaper had a nationalist editorial stand. Surendranath Banerjee served as its editor. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Amrita Bazar Patrika was founded by Sisirkumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh. Under Vernacular Press Act, proceedings were instituted against Amrita Bazar Patrika. But when the officials woke up the morning after the Act was passed, they discovered to their dismay that the Patrika had foxed them; overnight, the editors had converted it into an English newspaper. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, consider the following statements:
- He founded a monthly literary magazine titled ‘Bangadarshan’.
- His political novel Anandamath, was centred on the 1855 Santhal revolt.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Bankim chandra chattopadhyay founded a monthly literary magazine, Bangadarshan, in 1872, through which Chattopadhyay is credited with influencing the emergence of a Bengali identity and nationalism. So, statement 1 is correct.
Anandamath is a political novel written by him which was primarily about the Sanyasi rebellion in Bengal against the East India Company. So, statement 2 is not correct.
2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The British Indian Association was founded in Calcutta in 1851, formed by Zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, was the earliest public organization to mobilize people for the political cause. The President of the first committee of this organization was Raja Radhakanta Deb, while Debendranath Tagore was its secretary. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Indian Association was formed on July 26, 1876 by Surendra Nath Banerjee along with Ananda Mohan Bose in Kolkata. The aim was to unite the scattered political aspirations and developments across India. In the process, it laid the groundwork for the Indian National Congress that was subsequently established in December, 1885. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Bombay Presidency Association in 1885 in Bombay by militant intellectuals like K.T. Telang and Pherozeshah Mehta who broke away from older leaders like Dadabhai Nauroji and Dinshaw Petit on political grounds. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Madras Mahajan Sabha in 1884 by younger men of Madras — M. Viraraghavachariar, G. Subramaniya Iyer, P. Ananda Charlu and others. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Arrange the following political organisations in chronological order of their formation:
- East India Association
- Bombay Presidency Association
- British Indian Association
- Indian League
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3-1-4-2
Explanation :
The correct chronological order will be - British Indian Association - The East India Association - The Indian League - Bombay Presidency Association.
The Bengal British India Society was founded in 1843 with the object of the dissemination of information relating to the actual condition of the people of British India and to employ the means of peaceful and lawful character to secure the welfare of all classes of our fellow subjects. In 1851, both the Landholders’ Society and the Bengal British India Society merged into the British Indian Association.
The East India Association was organised by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866 in London to discuss the Indian question and influence public men in England to promote Indian welfare.
The Indian League was started in 1875 by Sisir Kumar Ghosh with the object of “stimulating the sense of nationalism amongst the people” and of encouraging political education.
The Bombay Presidency Association was started by Badruddin Tyabji, Pherozshah Mehta and K.T. Telang in 1885.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Indian National Association, consider the following statements:
- It was founded by Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose.
- It helped in organising an all-India conference in Calcutta in 1883.
- It demanded reduction of age limit for candidates of the Indian Civil Service examination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Indian National Association was also known as the Indian Association of Calcutta. It superseded the Indian League and was founded in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjea and Ananda Mohan Bose, who were getting discontented with the conservative and pro-landlord policies of the British Indian Association. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Indian National Association aimed to create a strong public opinion on political questions, and unify Indian people in a common political programme. The association sponsored an all-India conference which first took place in Calcutta in 1883. It later merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886. So, statement 2 is correct.
Activities of the Indian National Association
It protested against the reduction of age limit in 1877 for candidates of the Indian Civil Service examination. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The association demanded simultaneous holding of civil service examination in England and India and Indianisation of higher administrative posts.
It led a campaign against the Repressive Arms Act and the Vernacular Press Act introduced by Lytton in 1878.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The ecological pyramid of biomass is normally upright in terrestrial ecosystems and inverted in aquatic ecosystems.
- In a grassland ecosystem, the ecological pyramid will generally be inverted.
- The ecological pyramid of energy is always upright.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The ecological pyramid deals with the relationship between the number of primary producers and consumers (herbivores and carnivores) of different orders. In the pyramid of biomass, individuals in each trophic level are weighed i.e., the total dry weight of all organisms at each trophic level at a particular time. For most ecosystems on land, the pyramid of biomass has a large base of primary producers with a smaller trophic level perched on top. In contrast, in many aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass may assume an inverted form. So, statement 1 is correct.
In a grassland ecosystem, the amount of grass (producers) is always high, followed by primary consumers (herbivores) that are less, the secondary consumers (carnivores) that are lesser and finally the top carnivore. Hence, the ecological pyramid will generally be upright. So, statement 2 is not correct.
An energy pyramid reflects the laws of thermodynamics, with the conversion of solar energy to chemical energy and heat energy at each trophic level and with loss of energy being depicted at each transfer to another trophic level. Hence the pyramid is always upward, with a large energy base at the bottom. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to nutrient cycling, consider the following statements:
- The reservoir for the gaseous as well as sedimentary cycle exists in the earth’s crust.
- Sedimentary cycles are perfect cycles as they provide immediate recycling of nutrients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Nutrient cycling: It refers to various cycles that keep the nutrients cycling so as to support life on the earth. Such nutrient cycles include the carbon cycle, the nitrogen cycle and the sulphur cycle etc. They are of two types: (a) gaseous and (b) sedimentary. The reservoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle (e.g., nitrogen, carbon cycle) exists in the atmosphere and for the sedimentary cycle (e.g., sulphur and phosphorus cycle), the reservoir is located in Earth’s crust. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Gaseous cycles are generally perfect cycles as they provide immediate recycling of nutrients whereas in sedimentary cycles nutrients might get locked into sediments and are not always immediately available. So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the productivity of an ecosystem, consider the following statements:
- Primary Productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area.
- Gross Primary Productivity is the amount of organic substances left in the plant after its own metabolism.
- Secondary Productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
- Oceans have higher annual net primary productivity compared to land.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Primary Production
It is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of weight or energy. The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
Primary Productivity depends on the plant species inhabiting a particular area. It also depends on a variety of environmental factors, availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants. Therefore, it varies in different types of ecosystems. So, statement 1 is correct.
Gross Primary Production (GPP)
It is the total rate at which the radiant energy is stored by the process of photosynthesis in green plants. It can also be defined as the total amount of solar energy captured and stored in the form of organic substances by the green plants. This is also known as total photosynthesis or total assimilation. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Net primary productivity (NPP)
From the gross primary productivity a part is utilized by the plants for its own metabolism.
Net primary productivity is the amount of organic substances left in the plant after its own metabolism that GPP = NPP + plant respiration
Secondary productivity
It is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers. So, statement 3 is correct.
The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter. Of this, despite occupying about 70 percent of the surface, the productivity of the oceans is only 55 billion tons. Rest is on land. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Ectotherm organisms are those that maintain a constant body temperature independent of the environment.
- Endotherm is an organism whose regulation of body temperature depends on external sources.
- Eurythermal organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Ectotherms: These are cold-blooded animals. These are any animal whose regulation of body temperature depends on external sources, such as sunlight or a heated rock surface. The ectotherms include the fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and invertebrates. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Endotherms: These are warm-blooded animals. They maintain a constant body temperature independent of the environment. The endotherms primarily include birds and mammals; however, some fish are also endothermic. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Eurythermal and Stenothermal organisms: A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures, they are called eurythermal. But, a vast majority of them are restricted to a narrow range of temperatures, such organisms are called stenothermal. The levels of thermal tolerance of different species determine to a large extent their geographical distribution. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the Detritus food chain, consider the following statements:
- It is the type of food chain that starts with dead organic materials.
- It produces a very low amount of energy compared to the grazing food chain.
- It is completely isolated from the grazing food chain.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Detritus food chains:
The detritus food chain starts from the dead organic matter such as dead bodies of animals or fallen leaves, which are eaten by microorganisms and then followed by detritus feeding organisms (detritivores) and their predators. In a detritus food chain or food web, the energy comes from dead organic matter (i.e. detritus) instead of green producers. These food chains are less dependent on direct solar energy. For example, the food chain operating in the decomposing accumulated litter in a temperate forest ecosystem is a detritus food chain. So, statement 1 is correct.
Unlike the grazing food chain, the detritus food chain produces a large amount of energy. This type of food chain ensures maximum utilization and minimum wastage of the available material. It is useful in the fixation of inorganic nutrients and utilizing them up to the maximum. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Detritus food chains and grazing food chains, under natural conditions, are not completely isolated from one another. For example, dead bodies of small animals that were once part of the grazing food chain become incorporated in the detritus food chain as do the faeces of grazing food animals. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the Ecological Concepts, consider the following statements:
- No two species in a habitat can have the same niche.
- Earth has only three major habitats namely terrestrial, freshwater and ocean.
- A habitat cannot support a wide range of species with similar needs.
Which among the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The term niche means the sum of all the activities and relationships of a species by which it uses the resources in its habitat for its survival and reproduction. A niche is unique for a species while many species share the habitat. No two species in a habitat can have the same niche. This is because if two species occupy the same niche they will compete with one another until one is displaced. For example, a large number of different species of insects may be pests of the same plant but they can co-exist as they feed on different parts of the same plant. The three species of warbler birds search for insects as food in the forest at different levels in the tree and so occupy different niches. So, statement 1 is correct.
Earth has four major habitats-(1) Terrestrial (2) Freshwater (3) Estuarine (Where rivers meet the ocean) and (4) Ocean. The human gut is the habitat of a tapeworm and the
rotting log a habitat of a fungus. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Habitat is the physical environment in which an organism lives. Each organism has particular requirements for its survival and lives where the environment provides for those needs. The environmental requirement of an elephant would be a forest. A habitat may support many different species having similar requirements. For example, a single ocean habitat may support a whale, a sea-horse, seal, phytoplankton and many other kinds of organism. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Nitrogen cycle, consider the following statements:
- Abiotic processes such as lightning and UV radiation fix more than half of the nitrogen in the atmosphere.
- Nitrifying bacteria transforms soil ammonia into nitrates.
- Azotobacter and clostridium are nitrifying bacteria found in soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The nitrogen cycle is a gaseous biogeochemical cycle which refers to the circulation of nitrogen in various forms through nature. Nitrogen fixation is a process that causes free nitrogen (N2) to combine chemically with other elements to form nitrogen compounds such as ammonia. It is mostly (90 per cent) accomplished by certain bacteria and blue-green algae. A much smaller amount of free nitrogen is fixed by abiotic means (e.g., lightning, ultraviolet radiation, electrical equipment) and by conversion to ammonia through the Haber-Bosch process. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Nitrifying bacteria are any of a small group of aerobic bacteria that use inorganic chemicals as an energy source and convert soil ammonia to nitrates making it usable by plants. So, statement 2 is correct.
Azotobacter, beijerinckia, and clostridium are nitrogen-fixing bacteria that convert atmospheric nitrogen into fixed nitrogen that is usable by plants. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to the flow of energy in an ecosystem, consider the following statements:
- Ecological efficiency is the efficiency at which energy is transferred from one trophic level to another.
- More than half of the energy is transferred from one trophic level to another.
- Assimilation efficiency is the efficiency by which animals convert the food they ingest into energy.
- Herbivores generally have higher assimilation efficiencies than carnivores.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Ecological efficiency (also called Lindman’s efficiency) is the efficiency at which energy is transferred from one trophic level to another. On average it is estimated that there is only a 10 percent transfer of energy. Lindman in 1942 defined these ecological efficiencies for the 1st time and proposed a 10% rule e.g. if autotrophs produce 100 cal, herbivores will be able to store 10 cal. and carnivores 1 cal. However, there may be slight variations in different ecosystems and ecological efficiencies may range from 5 to 35%. So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
Energy is lost in several ways as it flows along these pathways of consumption. Most plant tissue is uneaten by herbivores, and this stored energy is therefore lost to the plant-herbivore-carnivore food chain. In terrestrial communities less than 10 percent of plant tissue is actually consumed by herbivores. The rest falls into the detritus pathway, although the detritivores consume only some of this decaying tissue. Oil and coal deposits are major repositories of this unused plant energy and have accumulated over long periods of geologic time.
The efficiency by which animals convert the food they ingest into energy for growth and reproduction is called assimilation efficiency. So, statement 3 is correct.
Herbivores assimilate between 15 and 80 per cent of the plant material they ingest, depending on their physiology and the part of the plant that they eat. For example, herbivores that eat seeds and young vegetation high in energy have the highest assimilation efficiencies, those that eat older leaves have intermediate efficiencies, and those that feed on decaying wood have very low efficiencies. Carnivores generally have higher assimilation efficiencies than herbivores, often between 60 and 90 percent, because their food is more easily digested. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Organisms living in lagoons and estuaries have to make adaptations to cope with which of the following changes?
- Salinity.
- Instability of the floor bed.
- Evaporation.
- Dissolved oxygen in the soil.
Select the correct answer using the code below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
The primary adaptation that both animals and plants of lagoons and estuaries have is the ability to cope with seasonal or daily changes in salinity. This is particularly true of plants and animals in estuaries, where there are daily fluctuations in salinity. Animals and plants that can tolerate only small changes in salinity are called stenohaline. Organisms that live only in freshwater or saltwater are known as stenohaline. In contrast, plants and animals that are able to tolerate a wide range of salinities are called euryhaline. Half-beaks and Milkfish are euryhaline species. Many crab, shrimp, oyster, clam, mussel and snail species living in lagoons and estuaries are euryhaline. Freshwater fish eliminate excess water and saltwater fish get rid of excess salt from their blood. Euryhaline fish are able to do both by sensing the salinity in their surroundings. So, statement 1 is correct.
The ebb and flow of tides in estuaries result in i) an instability of the floor bed and ii) daily exposure to air and submersion in the water of organisms. To cope with the instability in the substrate, plants — such as Mangrove (Rhizophora) — have stilt roots that extend sideways to provide support to the main stem. Seagrasses, found in lagoons and estuaries, use their extensive underground horizontal stems (rhizomes) to anchor themselves in many places to the lagoon or estuary bed. Rhizomes are firmly attached to sediment and this prevents plants from becoming uprooted or the sediment eroding. These rhizomes can remain alive for long periods of time until the conditions are conducive to the production of new leaves. In addition, the leaves of seagrasses are usually flat, ribbon-shaped and flexible; the stems are also flexible, allowing the leaves to bend with the currents and not break. So, statement 2 is correct.
There are daily and seasonal fluctuations of salinity in lagoons and estuaries. Salinity
is highly variable because freshwater enters from rivers and watersheds, increasing in
quantity during rainy periods. Salt water enters with the tides, and the salinity increases when temperatures increase, with a concurrent increase in evaporation. When evaporation is high, salinity can be greater than that of seawater, i.e., the water can be hypersaline. So, statement 3 is correct.
The mud in lagoons and estuaries is water-logged, so that sufficient oxygen is not readily available to the roots of plants in these water bodies. Mangroves have special breathing roots (pneumatophores) that are above ground (aerial), and these roots are adapted to absorb oxygen from the air and transport it underground. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the stratification in an ecosystem, consider the following statements:
- Variation in sunlight can lead to vertical stratification in forests.
- Stratification results in increased interspecific competition.
- Horizontal differences among species generally occur due to differences in the amount of water or nutrients.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Stratification in an ecosystem:
Community structure can become stratified both vertically and horizontally during the process of succession as species become adapted to their habitat. Gradations in environmental factors such as light, temperature, or water are responsible for this fractionation.
The vertical stratification that occurs within forests results from the varying degrees of sunlight that the different strata receive: the taller the plant and the more foliage it produces, the more light it can intercept. Three or more vertical strata of plants often are found in a forest. Animals are affected by this stratification of plant life. Although they can move from one layer to another quite easily, they often adhere closely to a specific layer for foraging, breeding, or other activities. So, statement 1 is correct.
Plants and animals of each layer differ in size, behaviour and adaptation from those of other layers. The different layers of organisms minimise competition and conflict among the members of the community. The various species in the community compete for nutrients, space, light and other resources. Stratification is a practical strategy to minimise interspecific competition. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Horizontal patterns among species also can emerge from gradients in the physical environment. Differences in the amount of water or nutrients over a region can affect the distribution of animal and plant species. On a mountain, plant and animal species vary at different elevations as well as among the north, south, east, and west slopes. Drastic differences in certain factors over a very short distance can create sharp boundaries between communities, whereas gradual differences can produce a more integrated flow of species. These gradients help to maintain regional biodiversity. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
What is the correct chronological order of the following ecosystems based on the decreasing level of Net Primary Productivity?
- Savanna Grasslands
- Open Ocean
- Estuaries
- Forests
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
3-4-1-2
Explanation :
Productivity of an ecosystem:
Primary production is measured in two ways: gross primary production (GPP) and net primary production (NPP). Gross primary production is the total amount of energy produced by the autotrophic primary producers at trophic level one. In other words, gross primary production refers to the total amount of energy assimilated by autotrophic primary producers i.e., green plants.
While net primary production (NPP) represents the amount of energy or organic matter fixed or stored at trophic level one. Thus, net primary production excludes the amount of energy that is lost through respiration by autotrophic primary producer plants. Net primary production represents the usable amount of energy at trophic levels.
The ecosystem productivity whether gross or net, is generally measured in gram/m2/day or year.
Net Primary Productivity (gram/m2/year) of a few ecosystems:
Forests - 1290
Open Ocean - 125
Grasslands (Savanna) - 600
Continental shelf - 350
Cultivated land - 650
Reefs and estuaries - 2000
Tundra - 140
Desert - 003
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
What is ‘Ligdus garvale’, recently seen in the news?
A new species of jumping spider.
Explanation :
A team of naturalists recently documented a new spider species named ‘Ligdus Garvale’ from Garvale, a village nestled in the Somwarpet taluk of the Kodagu district, Karnataka.
About Ligdus Garvale:
It is a new species of jumping spider.
It was found in Garvale village of the Kodagu district, Karnataka, which is surrounded by agroforestry, with coffee plantations being prominent along with pepper and paddy fields.
It marks only the second recorded instance of the Ligdus genus in 129 years.
The first, Ligdus Chelifer, was reported from Myanmar by Thorell in 1895.
Ligdus Garvale was discovered under the leaf of a torch ginger plant and bears a resemblance to Pseudoscorpions.
Due to its nature as a high canopy jumper, it often goes unnoticed and constructs a double-layered web for retreat.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mangaluru/new-spider-species-found-in-kodagu/articleshow/110097976.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Kadars:
- They are a small indigenous tribal community in Northeastern India.
- They are traditional forest dwellers who depend on forest produce for sustenance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The recent death of a Kadar tribesman in Tamil Nadu’s Anamalai Tiger Reserve in an elephant attack has left the indigenous community and conservationists in shock as Kadars are known to co-exist with wild elephants for ages.
About Kadars:
The Kadars are a small indigenous tribal community in South India.
They reside along the hilly border between Cochinin Kerala and Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu.
They are traditional forest dwellers who depend on forest produce for sustenance.
They do not practice agriculture, building shelters thatched with leaves and shifting locations as their employment requires.
They prefer to eat rice obtained in trade or as wages rather than to subsist on food of their own gathering.
They have long served as specialized collectors of honey, wax, sago, cardamom, ginger, and umbrella sticks for trade with merchants from the plains.
Kadar have a symbiotic relationship with nature, and they believe in the coexistence of Kadar and Kaadu (forest).
The Kadar have traditional protocols to ensure the sustainable use of forest resources.
Every practice of resource collection—be it honey, firewood, resin, or herbs—is designed to allow time for regeneration.
Their population was estimated at approximately 2,000 individuals in the early 21st century.
They speak the Dravidian languages of Tamil and Kannaḍa.
They worship jungle spirits and their own kindly creator couple, as well as local forms of the Hindu deities.
They are listed as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Kerala, but not in Tamil Nadu.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/conflict-with-pachyderm-pathways/article68178685.ece
Bulava, an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), is developed by:
Russia
Explanation :
Russian President has bolstered the country’s military capabilities by ordering the addition of a new nuclear-capable missile known as the Bulava into the Russian military arsenal.
About Bulava Missile:
RSM-56 Bulava (NATO reporting name: SS-N-32) is a Russian submarine-launched intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
Designed by the Moscow Institute of Thermal Technology, development of the missile was launched in the late 1990s, and is designed to be deployed on Russia’s Borei-class submarines.
Bulava represents a core component of Russia’s future strategic nuclear force.
Features:
It is a three-stage solid-propellant missile.
The missile has a launch mass of about 36.8 tonnes and a throw weight of 1,150 kg.
It measures 12.1 meters in length in a launch container and 2 meters in diameter.
Bulava has a maximum range of 8,300 km (5,160 miles) and a payload of up to 10 multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles, or MIRVs, capable of delivering nuclear warheads to different targets.
The missile’s RVs are capable of in-flight maneuverability and re-targeting to out maneuver any enemy defense.
The RVs have an expected accuracy of around 250 to 300 m.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/videos/putin-adds-new-nuclear-missile-to-russias-arsenal-how-deadly-is-bulava-submarine-launched-icbm-101715719145202.htmlExplanation :
Russian President has bolstered the country’s military capabilities by ordering the addition of a new nuclear-capable missile known as the Bulava into the Russian military arsenal.
About Bulava Missile:
RSM-56 Bulava (NATO reporting name: SS-N-32) is a Russian submarine-launched intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
Designed by the Moscow Institute of Thermal Technology, development of the missile was launched in the late 1990s, and is designed to be deployed on Russia’s Borei-class submarines.
Bulava represents a core component of Russia’s future strategic nuclear force.
Features:
It is a three-stage solid-propellant missile.
The missile has a launch mass of about 36.8 tonnes and a throw weight of 1,150 kg.
It measures 12.1 meters in length in a launch container and 2 meters in diameter.
Bulava has a maximum range of 8,300 km (5,160 miles) and a payload of up to 10 multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles, or MIRVs, capable of delivering nuclear warheads to different targets.
The missile’s RVs are capable of in-flight maneuverability and re-targeting to out maneuver any enemy defense.
The RVs have an expected accuracy of around 250 to 300 m.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/videos/putin-adds-new-nuclear-missile-to-russias-arsenal-how-deadly-is-bulava-submarine-launched-icbm-101715719145202.html
With reference to Insurance Surety Bond, recently seen in the news, consider the following:
- It is a financial instrument where insurance companies act as ‘Surety’ and provide the financial guarantee that the contractor will fulfil its obligations as per the agreed terms.
- In case the contractor fails to deliver his promise, monetary compensation is paid to the obligee by the insurer.
- Unlike a bank guarantee, the insurance surety bonds do not require large collateral from the contractor.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Insurance companies have issued about 700 insurance surety bonds valued about ₹3,000 crore after Centre makes the instrument on par with bank guarantees for all government procurements.
What is a Surety Bond?
A surety bond is a promise to be liable for the debt, default, or failure of another.
It is a three-party contractin which one party (the surety) guarantees the performance or obligations of a second party (the principal) to a third party (the obligee).
About Insurance Surety Bonds:
It is a financial instrument, where insurance companies act as ‘Surety’ and provides the financial guarantee that the contractor will fulfil its obligation as per the agreed terms.
It is a risk transfer mechanism wherein an insurer provides a guarantee to a beneficiary or oblige that the principal or contractor will meet his contractual obligations.
In case the principal fails to deliver his promise, a monetary compensation is paid to the obligee by the insurer.
There are 3 parties involved:
The Surety (Insurance Companies) will provide the financial guarantee to the Obligee /beneficiary.
Obligee or Beneficiary (example-Government, Infrastructure Development Authorities etc.) -the party that needs the surety and is often the beneficiary of the surety bond.
Principal (could be the owner or contractor)-the party that purchases the Surety bond from an insurer as a guarantee and undertakes a commitment to perform the obligations as per the contract entered.
Who can buy the policy?
A surety bond is provided by the insurance company on behalf of the contractor or business owner to the entity which is awarding the project as a guarantee against the future work performance to Obligee.
Advantages:
It will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate the contractor as well as the principal.
Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance does not require large collateral from the contractor thus freeing up significant funds for the contractor, which they can utilize for the growth of the business.
The product gives the principal a contract of guarantee that contractual terms and other business deals will be concluded in accordance with the mutually agreed terms.
Henceoption c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/nhai-says-3000-cr-insurance-surety-bonds-issued-by-insurers-so-far/article68179832.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Report on Internal Displacement 2024:
- It is an annual report published by the International Organization for Migration (IOM).
- As of 2023, the number of people internally displaced due to disasters significantly outnumber the number of people internally displaced due to conflict and violence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
In 2023, the number of internally displaced people increased to 75.9 million, from 71.1 million in the preceding year, according to the Global Report on Internal Displacement 2024 (GRID-2024) released recently.
About Global Report on Internal Displacement 2024:
It is an annual report published by the Geneva-based Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre (IDMC).
It records internal displacements due to conflict and violence and disasters.
Highlights of GRID-2024:
In 2023, the number of internally displaced people (IDP) increased to75.9 million, from 71.1 million in the preceding year.
Report says 7.7 million displaced by disasters (one-fourth of it was caused by earthquakes) and 68.3 million by conflict and violence.
Sudan, Syria, the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Colombia, and Yemen host nearly half of the world’s IDPs.
At 9.1 million, Sudan has the highest number of IDPs recorded for a single country.
Most of the new displacement this year happened in Sudan, the Palestinian territories, and the Democratic Republic of Congo, accounting for almost two-thirds of all new displacement.
South Asia:
The IDMC said around 5.3 million people were living in internal displacement as a result of conflict and violence across South Asia at the end of 2023, 80 percent of whom were in Afghanistan.
Conflict and violencetriggered69,000 displacements in South Asia in 2023, with Manipur violence alone accounting for 67,000.
It is the highest number of displacements triggered by conflict and violence in India since 2018.
There is a sharp decline in IDP in 2023 from 2.5 million internal displacements due to natural disasters in India in 2022. Internal displacements by natural disasters in 2023 was 528,000.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/weather-related-disasters-continue-to-displace-more-than-conflict-and-violence-96147
Sahul, a supercontinent which helped humans travel across continents, connected:
Australia and Papua New Guinea
Explanation :
Recently, archeologists have found evidence of a lost landscape known as Sahul in the ancient days that helped humans travel across continents.
It can be termed as a supercontinent which was stood exposed on the Earth’s surface when humans were in the middle of what can be termed as the last ice age.
Since the ice age led to glaciation of water levels on the planet, it ended up exposing parts of land like Sahul which connected to currently known Australia to Papua New Guinea in the north and Tasmania in the south.
It helped humans in ancient times to cross continents from Asia to Australia almost 7,000 decades ago.
What is Ice age period?
It is any geologic period during which thick ice sheets cover vast areas of land. Such periods of large-scale glaciation may last several million years and drastically reshape surface features of entire continents.
The earliest known took place during Precambrian time dating back more than 570 million years.
The most recent periods of widespread glaciation occurred during the Pleistocene Epoch (2.6 million to 11,700 years ago).
Ice ages are not uniformly cold. There can be colder and warmer periods during the overall ice-age period.
Colder periods lead to more extensive areas of continental ice sheets, valley glaciers and sea ice, while warmer periods lead to reduced areas of ice.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/us/atlantis-like-continent-from-ancient-times-found-humans-existed-there-70000-years-ago-know-in-detail/articleshow/110090952.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding International Cryosphere Climate Initiative:
- It was formed in 2009 Conference of Parties (COP-15) held in Copenhagen.
- It works on preserving the Antarctica region only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The International Cryosphere Climate Initiative (ICCI) said that Venezuela’s only remaining glacier — the Humboldt, or La Corona, in the Andes — had become “too small to be classed as a glacier.
It was formed in 2009 following COP-15 in Copenhagen meeting.
It is a network of senior policy experts and researchers working with governments and organizations to create, shape and implement initiatives designed to preserve as much of the Earth’s cryosphere as possible.
Its programs target the unique climate dynamics at work in the cryosphere, while at the same time lending increased urgency to global climate efforts aimed at CO2 and other greenhouse gases by communicating the unexpected rapidity and global implications of cryosphere warming.
Its work focuses on three major areas of the cryosphere: the Arctic, the Antarctic and high mountain regions.
Key facts about Humboldt glacier of Venezuela
It is also known as La Corona glacier and it is 4,900 metres above sea level.
It was the only one left near the country’s second-highest peak, Pico Humboldt.
The Humboldt glacier was projected to last at least another decade but latest assessments have found the glacier melted much faster than expected.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/video/climate-change/how-did-venezuela-s-humboldt-glacier-shrink-to-an-ice-field–96174
Consider the following statements regarding the Extra-pulmonary TB:
- It is an infection which impact human body organs other than lungs.
- It is more prevalent in people living with HIV.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Nearly one in five TB patients has Extra-pulmonary TB and most of them go undiagnosed, and the few who are diagnosed cannot benefit from care unless they visit a few specialist health facilities.
It refers to Tuberculosis infections affecting organs other than the lung (namely lymph nodes, brain, gut, eyes, or other organs).
It is often stain negative, which means it is not detectable on regular TB stain tests.
The infection may surface in any part of the body and present itself like other non-TB conditions. Many cases of EPTB may not have a corresponding lung infection.
It can affect any organ and is more prevalent in people living with HIV.
Issues with EPTB
A troubling aspect of EPTB infection is the prolonged presence of disease markers even after the infection is resolved with treatment.
Diagnosis and treatment protocols for all organs affected by EPTB do not exist.
The twin challenges in tackling EPTB are lack of awareness, even among physicians, and lack of accurate diagnostic and treatment criteria.
Some EPTB patients who complete anti-TB therapy may still find themselves affected by the disease.
INDEX-TB guidelines were formulated over a decade ago and need to be updated with the latest data and experience.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-challenge-of-extra-pulmonary-tb/article68174298.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Igla-S defence system:
- It is a hand-held defence system that can be operated by an individual or crew.
- It has a capacity of attacking targets up to an altitude of 3.5 kilometres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Army is all set to begin receiving another set of Russian Igla-S very short range air defence systems (VSHORAD) by the end of May or early next month.
It is a man-portable air defence system (MANPADS) developed by Russia.
Capabilities:
It is a hand-held defence system that can be operated by an individual or crew.
It is designed to bring down low-flying aircraft and can also identify and neutralise air targets such as cruise missiles and drones.
It comprises the 9M342 missile, the 9P522 launching mechanism, the 9V866-2 mobile test station, and the 9F719-2 test set. These components work together to provide a comprehensive air defence solution.
A VSHORAD is the soldier’s last line of defence against enemy combat aircraft, helicopters and UAVs in the multilayered air defence network.
Range: It has a range of 500 metres to 6 kilometres and attack targets up to an altitude of 3.5 kilometres. The speed of the missile is 400 metres per second and the deployment time is 13 seconds.
Significance: The acquisition of the Igla-S MANPADS marks a significant step in enhancing India’s air defence capabilities, particularly in mountainous regions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/army-set-to-receive-igla-s-air-defence-systems-partly-assembled-in-india/article68179544.ece
With reference to Kanwar lake, consider the following statements:
- It is a freshwater lake located in the Uttar Pradesh.
- It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to the meandering of Gandak river.
- It is one of the inhibiting sites for critically endangered white-rumped vulture.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Kanwar lake which was once a migratory bird paradise, now struggles for its survival.
It is Asia’s largest freshwater oxbow lake located in Bihar.
It is also known as Kabartal jheel which is a rainfed lake.
It is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to the meandering of Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga.
It is covering the majority of the Indo-Gangetic plains in northern Bihar,
The Wetland is an important stopover along the Central Asian Flyway, with 58 migratory waterbirds using it to rest and refuel.
It is also a valuable site for fish biodiversity with over 50 species documented.
Five critically endangered species inhabit the site, including three vultures – the red-headed vulture (Sarcogyps calvus), white-rumped vulture (Gyps bengalensis) and Indian vulture (Gyps indicus) – and two waterbirds, the sociable lapwing (Vanellus gregarius) and Baer’s pochard (Aythya baeri).
Threats: Major threats to the site include water management activities such as drainage, water abstraction, damming and canalization.
What is an oxbow lake?
It is a curved lake formed alongside a winding river as a result of erosion and sediment deposition over time.
Oxbow lakes are typically crescent-shaped and are common features in floodplains and low-lying areas near rivers.
Hence only statement 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/kanwar-lake-bihar-s-only-ramsar-site-faces-challenge-of-survival-but-not-a-poll-issue-96172
With reference to the Narmada River, consider the following statements:
- It is the largest west-flowing river in peninsular India.
- It flows through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
- The Tropic of Cancer crosses the Narmada basin.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
At least seven members of a family, including minors, are feared to have drowned in the Narmada River in Gujarat’s Narmada district recently.
About Narmada River:
It is the largest west-flowing riverin peninsular India.
Of the major rivers of peninsular India, only the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahirun from east to west.
Course:
The origin of the river is a tiny reservoir named Narmada Kund, which is situated on the Amarkantak Hill in East Madhya Pradesh at an elevation of 1,057 m (3,467.8 ft).
The river flows through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat between Vindhya and Satpura hill ranges before falling into the Gulf of Cambay in the Arabian Sea about 10 km north of Bharuch, Gujarat.
Length: The total length of the river from source to sea is 1312 kilometres (815 miles). It is the fifth longest river of India.
The Narmada basin extends over an area of 98,796 sq. km., which is nearly 3% of the total geographical area of the country.
The basin is bounded on the north by the Vindhyas, on the east by the Maikala range, on the south by the Satpuras, and on the west by the Arabian Sea.
The Tropic of Cancer crosses the Narmada basin in the upper plains area, and a major part of the basin lies just below this line.
It is one of the rivers that flow in a rift valley and acts as a divider between north Indiaand south India.
These rift valleys are the result of the faulting that took place when the northern flank of the Peninsula suffered subsidence.
The river has numerous waterfalls, notably the Dhuandhar Falls, southwest of Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.
Tributaries:
The main tributaries of Narmada River namely, Hallon River, Banjar River, Barna River, and Tawa River are the main source of water, irrigation and other resource-based activities in central India.
The Tawa River is the longest tributary of the Narmada River.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/gujarat-seven-members-of-family-feared-drowned-in-narmada-river-at-poicha-101715747162786.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Synchrotron:
- It is a type of circular particle accelerator, where particles move in a loop and produce very bright light.
- High Energy Photon Source (HEPS) is a Synchrotron facility located in Geneva, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
China’s latest scientific milestone, the High Energy Photon Source (HEPS), set to be the first fourth-generation synchrotron light source in Asia, will begin operations by the end of this year.
About Synchrotron:
A synchrotron is a type of circular particle accelerator, where particles move in a loop.
It works by accelerating charged particles (electrons) throughsequences of magnetsuntil they reachalmost the speed of light.
These fast-moving electrons produce very bright light, called synchrotron light.
This very intense light, predominantly in the X-ray region, is millions of timesbrighterthanlight produced from conventional sources and 10 billion times brighter than the sun.
The light is channelled down beamlinesto experimental workstations, where it is used for research.
Scientists can use this light to study minute matter such as atoms and molecules.
They can examine how a sample scatters, diffracts, absorbs, or reemits the synchrotron light, which reveals various different details of structure or chemical composition.
There are approximately 70 synchrotrons around the world in various stages of development. There are technical differences between the use and capabilities of synchrotrons, with some being used for appliances and others for fundamental/theoretical research.
Key Facts about High Energy Photon Source (HEPS):
Location: It is located approximately 50 kilometers from Beijing in Huairou, China.
The HEPS is designed to accelerate electrons up to energies of 6 giga electron volts within its 1.36-kilometer circumference storage ring.
This process will produce high-energy X-rays that can penetrate deep into samples, revealing intricate details at the nanometer scale.
HEPS will provide researchers with access to 14 beamlines catering to diverse fields such as energy, condensed matter physics, materials innovation, and biomedicine.
Compared to third-generation synchrotrons like the Shanghai Synchrotron Radiation Facility, which boasts a circumference of 432 meters and stands as China’s most advanced working synchrotron,HEPS will offer a time resolution 10,000 times superior.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/china/china-inaugurates-next-generation-synchrotron-boasting-worlds-brightest-x-rays/articleshow/110124437.cms
With reference to Venezuela, consider the following statements:
- It is located on the eastern coast of South America.
- Its official language is Portuguese.
- It is home to the world’s largest oil reserves.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Venezuela is thought to be the first nation in modern times to have completely lost all of its glaciers.
About Venezuela:
It is located on the northern coast of South America.
It covers a total area of 916,445 sq.km (353,841 sq mi).
Boundaries: It is bounded by the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean to the north, Guyana to the east, Brazil to the south, and Colombia to the southwest and west.
Capital: Caracas
A physiographically diverse country, Venezuela incorporates the northern Andean Mountain chains and interior highlands, the main portions of the Orinoco River basin with itsexpansive Llanos (plains), Lake Maracaibo, which is the largest lake in South America, and the spectacular Angel Falls, the world’s highest waterfall.
Major Rivers:
Rio Negro (shared with Colombia and Brazil): 2,250 km. It is a major tributary of the Amazon River.
Orinoco (shared with Colombia): 2,101 km. It is the third-longest river in South America, after the Parana and the Amazon.
Venezuela administers a number of Caribbean islands and archipelagos, among which are Margarita Island, La Blanquilla, La Tortuga, Los Roques, and Los Monjes.
Since the early 19th century, Venezuela has claimed jurisdiction over Guyanese territorywest of the Essequibo River, totaling some 53,000 square miles (137,000 square km)—nearly two-thirds of the land area of Guyana.
Resources: Venezuela is home to the world’s largest oil reserves as well as huge quantities of coal, iron ore, bauxite, and gold.
Languages: Spanish (official) 98.2%, indigenous 1.3%, Portuguese 0.1%, other 0.4% (2023 est.)
Currency: Venezuelan bolívar
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/video/climate-change/how-did-venezuela-s-humboldt-glacier-shrink-to-an-ice-field–96174
What is the effect of the rule of ‘Lis Pendens’ on property transfers during pending litigation?
It makes the transferee subject to the result of the litigation
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that the non-applicability of the provisions of Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1881 (TPA) wouldn’t bar the applicability of principles of lis-pendens, which are based on justice, equity and good conscience.
About Doctrine of Lis Pendens:
“Lis Pendens,” when translated, means “pending suit or cause.”
This doctrine has been expressed in the maxim: “pendente lite nihil innovature” which means nothing new should be introduced during the pendency of litigation.
This doctrine prohibits the transfer of property in pending litigation.
It is dealt with in Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, in India.
It serves to protect the rights and interests of parties involved in a pending lawsuit concerning a specific property.
The doctrine of lis pendens can be defined as the legal authority, control, or jurisdiction that a court holds over the propertyin question during the entire duration of a lawsuit, extending until a final judgment is reached.
The underlying rationale behind the doctrine of lis pendens is to prevent the subject matter of a lawsuit from being transferred to a third party while the case is still pending.
Conditions for Applicability: The Supreme Court has stated the required elements for the applicability of the rule of lis pendens under Section 52. They are as follows:
The suit must be in proceeding.
The instituted suit should be filed in courtwithcompetent jurisdiction.
The right of title of an immovable property is directly and specifically in question.
The suit directly affects the rights of the other party.
The property in question is being transferred by either party.
The suit must not be collusive (a suit in which a decree is obtained by a fraud or collusion) in nature.
Non-Applicability of Doctrine: This doctrine is not applicable in certain cases. They are as follows:
Sale made bymortgager in exercise of his power conferred under the deed.
In cases where only the transferor is affected.
In caseswhere proceedings are collusive in nature.
When the property is not described correctly and makes it unidentifiable.
When the right to the said property is not directly in question and alienation is permitted.
This doctrine fails to apply when a court orders the restoration of immovable property under Rule 63 of order 21 under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908.
Effect of Doctrine of Lis Pendens:
The effect of the rule of lis pendens is not to invalidate or avoid the transfer but to make it subject to the result of the litigation.
According to this rule, therefore, whosoever purchases a property during the pendency of a suit is bound by the judgment that may be made against the person from whom he derived title, even though such a purchaser was not aparty to the action or had no notice of the pending litigation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/though-s52-of-transfer-of-property-act-is-not-applicable-in-some-states-lis-pendens-doctrine-can-be-applied-based-on-equity-supreme-court-257167
Ambaji White Marble, recently seen in the news, is predominantly quarried from which one of the following States?
Gujarat
Explanation :
Marble mined in Gujarat’s Ambaji has recently been awarded the Geographical Indication, or GI tag, by the Central Government.
About Ambaji White Marble:
It is a type of marble known for its stunning white appearance and unique natural patterns.
It is named after the town of Ambaji in the state of Gujarat, where it is predominantly quarried.
It is also known as Amba White Marble and Ambe White Marble.
It is characterized by its pristine white color, which often features subtle gray or beige veining.
The veins can vary in intensity, ranging from fine and delicate to bold and pronounced, giving each slab a distinct and individualistic appearance.
These variations occur naturallydue to the presence of minerals and impurities during the marble formation process.
It has very long-lasting shine and durability.
The smooth and polished surface of the marble adds to its appeal and sophistication.
It is widely used for luxury architectural projects, sculptures, and monuments.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/video/news/gujarat-ambaji-marble-gets-gi-tag-traders-in-the-town-expect-it-will-boost-business-2024-05-13-931047
Which one of the following statements best describes the Deda method, recently seen in the news?
A method of preserving seeds by the Muria tribal farmers
Explanation :
Muria tribal farmer, who migrated from Chhattisgarh and settled in the dense forests of the Godavari Valley, is practising ‘deda’ method.
It is a method of preserving seeds that his ancestors handed over to his family.
How do they preserve?
The seeds are preserved in leaves and packed almost airtight to look like boulders from a distance.
The packaged seeds are, in turn, woven with Siali leaf (Bauhinia vahlii), which is locally known as ‘addakulu’ to make the deda.
A deda has three layers. In the first layer, wood ash is spread inside the Siali leaves.
Later, the ash is covered with lemon leaves to form a casing, and, lastly, the seeds are preserved inside the casing and sealed. Each deda is crafted to support at least 5kg of seeds.
Advantages
The deda method guarantees protection of seed from pests and worms.
In this method, the stored seeds can be used for cultivation for up to five years.
It helps in preserving the seeds of pulses like the green gram, red gram, black gram and beans.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/muria-tribes-own-eco-friendly-foolproof-seed-preservation-method/article68178897.ece#
Consider the following statements with reference to the Apple Cultivation:
- It requires well-drained, loamy soils for its growth.
- It is cultivated only in the Western Himalayan region in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Gradual warming of temperatures observed over the past few decades made Apple cultivation viable in the lower regions of Spiti, up to an elevation of 3,400 metres above sea level.
Apple (Malus pumila) is an important temperate fruit.
However, in India, the apple-growing areas do not fall in the temperate zone but the prevailing temperate climate of the region is due to the Himalayan ranges and high altitudes.
Climatic conditions required
Temperature: The average summer temperature should be around 21-24 degrees C during the active growth period.
It can be grown at an altitude of 1500- 2700 m above sea level.
Rainfall: Well-distributed rainfall of 1000-1250 mm throughout the growing season is most favourable for the optimum growth and fruitfulness of apple trees.
Soil: Apples grow best on well-drained, loamy soils.
Apple growing areas in India:
In India apple is primarily cultivated in Jammu & Kashmir; Himachal Pradesh; the hills of Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal.
It is also cultivated to a small extent in Arunachal Pradesh; Nagaland; Punjab and Sikkim.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/climate-change/global-warming-s-unforeseen-outcome-how-spiti-s-new-crop-of-apple-farmers-are-reaping-a-fortune-96160
Consider the following statements with reference to the Swachhata Pakhwada:
- It is an initiative launched under the Swachh Bharat Mission in 2016.
- It is monitored closely using the online monitoring system of Swachhata Samiksha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER) has taken a significant step towards promoting cleanliness and environmental sustainability with the launch of Swachhata Pakhwada and it will run from 16th May to 31st May 2024.
It is an initiative launched in April, 2016 under the Swachh Bharat Mission.
Objective: It was launched with the objective of bringing a fortnight of intense focus on the issues and practices of Swachhata by engaging the central government ministries/departments.
Aim: It aims to include all ministries and departments through a common programme to contribute for Swachh Bharat Mission.
An annual calendar is pre-circulated among the ministries to help them plan for the Pakhwada activities.
The ministries observing Swachhata Pakhwada are monitored closely using the online monitoring system of Swachhata Samiksha where action plans, images, videos related to Swachhata activities are uploaded and shared.
For the Pakhwada fortnight, observing ministries are considered as ‘Swachhata Ministries’ and are expected to bring qualitative swachhata improvements in their jurisdictions.
Key facts about Swachh Bharat Mission
The Indian government launched the swachh bharat mission on October 2, 2014.
The mission covered all rural and urban areas.
The urban component of the mission is implemented by the Ministry of Urban Development, and the rural component by the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
The programme includes elimination of open defecation, conversion of unsanitary toilets to pour flush toilets, eradication of manual scavenging, municipal solid waste management and bringing about a behavioural change in people regarding healthy sanitation practices.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2020795
The term Digital arrest, recently seen in the news, is a:
tactic employed by cybercriminals to defraud gullible victims and extort money
Explanation :
Following increasing reports of “digital arrests” by cybercriminals the central government has collaborated with Microsoft to block more than 1,000 Skype IDs used for online intimidation, blackmail, and extortion.
It is a new and innovative tactic employed by cybercriminals to defraud gullible victims and extort money.
Modus operandi:
The modus operandi in this cybercrime method is that fraudsters pose as law enforcement officials such as police, Enforcement Directorate, CBI, among others, and manipulate them into believing that they have committed some serious crime.
In certain cases, the victims are “digitally arrested”, and forced to stay visible over Skype or other video conferencing platforms to the criminals until their demands are met.
The cyber fraudsters deceive the victim into believing that he or she has been put under ‘digital arrest’ and will be prosecuted if they do not pay the scamsters a huge amount of money.
The cyber criminals often force the naive victims to self-arrest or self-quarantine themselves, by tricking them into believing that they have been put under ‘digital arrest’ and cannot leave their house unless they pay up.
Preventing measures
Cyber Hygiene: It is done by regularly updating passwords, and software and also enabling two-factor authentications to reduce the chances of unauthorized access.
Phishing Attempts: These can be evaded by refraining from clicking on dubious links or downloading attachments from unknown sources and also authenticating the legitimacy of emails and messages before sharing any personal information.
Secured devices: By installing reputable antivirus and anti-malware solutions and keeping operating systems and applications up to date with the latest security protocols.
Virtual Private Networks (VPNs): VPNs can be employed to encrypt internet connections thus enhancing privacy and security. However one must be cautious of free VPN services and OTP only for trustworthy providers.
Secure communication channels: Secure communication techniques such as encryption can be done for the protection of sensitive information. Sharing of passwords and other information must be cautiously done especially in public forums.
Awareness: There is a need for preventive measures and increased public awareness.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/xi-putin-and-the-world-9333972/
With reference to PREFIRE Polar Mission, consider the following statements:
- It is developed by the NASA.
- It reveals the full spectrum of heat loss from Earth’s polar regions.
- It helps in assessing how efficiently far-infrared heat is emitted by snow and sea ice.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A NASA PREFIRE polar mission is set to be launched from New Zealand on May 22.
The Polar Radiant Energy in the Far-InfraRed Experiment (PREFIRE) polar mission consists of twin satellites, each carrying one instrument and measuring the poles about six hours apart.
Objective: The objective of the mission is to reveal the full spectrum of heat loss from Earth’s polar regions for the first time, making climate models more accurate.
Aim :
The data from PREFIRE mission is aimed at addressing the gap in knowledge and provide data to improve predictions of climate change and sea level rise.
Provide new information on how Earth’s atmosphere and how ice influences the amount of heat being radiated out to space from the Arctic and Antarctic.
How will the satellites work?
The mission with cube satellites about the size of a shoebox will be launched aboard an Electron launch vehicle.
It is equipped with technology proven on Mars, and will measure a “little-studied portion” of the radiant energy emitted by Earth.
Two satellites carrying a thermal infrared spectrometer will be in asynchronous near-polar orbits and will be passing over a given spot on Earth at different times. To maximize coverage, they will be overlapping every few hours near the poles.
The instruments weighing less than 6 pounds (3 kilograms) each will make readings using a device called a thermocouple, similar to the sensors found in many household thermostats.
The mission will help in
Understand why the Arctic has warmed more than 2½ times faster than the rest of the planet since the 1970s.
Give scientists a better idea of how efficiently far-infrared heat is emitted by matter like snow and sea ice, and how clouds influence the amount of far-infrared radiation that escapes to space.
It will help researchers better predict how the heat exchange between Earth and space will change in the future, and how those changes will affect phenomena like ice sheet melting, atmospheric temperatures, and global weather.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/nasa-prefire-mission-polar-earth-climate-9333490/
The term ‘Dyson Sphere’, recently seen in the news is a:
hypothetical engineering project that harnesses a star’s energy
Explanation :
Recently, an international team of researchers based in Sweden, India, the US, and the UK have devised a way to search for unimaginably complex extraterrestrial megastructures, known as Dyson spheres.
About Dyson Sphere:
A Dyson sphere is a hypothetical engineering project that only highly advanced civilizations could build.
These Dyson spheres would allow a civilization to harness all of a star’s energy.
The prospect of such a construction was first proposed by physicist and astronomer Freeman J. Dyson back in 1960.
He envisioned them as a solar-system-sized shellconsisting of a ‘swarm of objects’’ that could travelon independent orbitsaround a star, such as our sun.
The idea behind this is that the aliens commandeeringthis multi-faceted sphere would use it to harness the energy of the star to fulfil the energy needs of its technologically sophisticated people.
Do Dyson spheres exist?
Because of their infrared radiation, Dyson spheres are considered a type oftechnosignature—a sign of activity that distant astronomers could use to infer the existence of intelligent beings in the universe, according to a NASA report.
A handful of Earth-based researchers havescanned infrared maps of the night sky in hopes of spotting Dyson spheres, but so far, nobody has seen anything out of the ordinary.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/science/scientists-spot-7-stars-that-show-signs-of-hosting-advanced-alien-civilisations-5678975
Consider the following statements with reference to Plunging Region of a Black hole:
- It is an area where matter stops circling a black hole and instead falls straight in.
- It was predicted by Albert Einstein’s theory of general relativity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A strange area around black holes called the “plunging region” has been spotted for the first time.
What is a Black Hole?
It is a cosmic body of extremely intense gravity from which nothing, not even light, can escape.
This intense gravity occurs because a large amount of matter has been squeezed into a very small space.
Formation:
A black hole can be formed by the death of a massive star.
When such a star has exhausted the internal thermonuclear fuels in its core at the end of its life, the core becomes unstable and gravitationally collapsesinward upon itself, and the star’s outer layers are blown away.
The crushing weight of constituent matter falling in from all sidescompresses the dying starto a point of zero volume and infinite densitycalled the singularity.
Event Horizon:
The event horizon is the boundary around a black hole beyond which no light orother radiation can escape.
Once an object crosses this boundary, it cannot escape the black hole’s gravitational pull.
About Plunging Region of a Black Hole:
It is an area where matter stops circling a black hole and instead falls straight in.
It was predicted by Albert Einstein’s theory of general relativity.
When any mattergetstooclose to a black hole, it rips apart and forms an orbiting ring around it called an accretion disc.
General relativity predictsthere should be an inner boundary to the accretion disc past which nothing can orbit the black hole and insteadplunges towardsthe black hole at near the speed of light.
The region where this occurs was named the “plunging region”, within which it is impossible to stop the final descent past the black hole’s event horizon.
The plunging region is just outside the event horizon.
Studying plunging regions could teach us about how black holes form and evolve, as well as reveal new information about the fundamental nature of space-time.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/science/einstein-proved-right-study-gives-first-proof-of-plunging-regions-around-black-holes/articleshow/110185013.cms
With reference to Gulf of Aden, consider the following statements:
- It is an extension of the Indian Ocean, located between the Arabian Peninsula and the African continent.
- It is connected to the Somali Sea to the south by the Strait of Bab el Mandeb.
- It is demarcated from the Arabian Sea by the Horn of Africa and the Socotra Islands.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
European Union naval forces recently arrested six suspected pirates after they allegedly opened fire on an oil tanker traveling through the Gulf of Aden.
About Gulf of Aden:
It is an extension of the Indian Ocean, located between the Arabian Peninsula and the African continent.
It connects the Red Sea to the Arabian Sea and ultimately the Indian Ocean.
The gulf is named after “Aden,” a port city on Yemen’s coast.
It is approximately 900 km long and 500 km wide and covers roughly 410,000 square kilometers.
It is bounded to the south by Somalia and the Socotra Islands (part of Yemen), north by Yemen, east by the Arabian Sea, and west by Djibouti.
The gulf is connected to the Somali Sea to the south by the Guardafui Channel, and to the Red Sea on the west by the Strait of Bab el Mandeb.
In the west, it narrows into the Gulf of Tadjoura, near Djibouti.
It is demarcated from the Arabian Sea by the Horn of Africa and the Socotra Islands.
The dominant relief feature of the gulf’s terrain is the Sheba Ridge, an extension of the Indian Ocean ridge system, which extends along the middle of the gulf.
Some of the major cities near the gulf include Aden, Mukalla, Ahnwar, Balhaf, Berbera, Bosaso, and Djibouti City.
Major Ports: Aden in Yemen, and Berbera and Bosaso in Somalia.
It is also a critical part of the Suez Canal shipping route, which connects the Red Sea and the Mediterranean Sea.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.marineinsight.com/shipping-news/eu-naval-forces-capture-6-pirates-after-failed-piracy-attack-in-the-gulf-of-aden/
With reference to National Savings Certificate (NSC), consider the following statements:
- It aims at encouraging users, who are primarily low- to mid-income investors, to invest as well as save taxes.
- NSC certificates are accepted as collateral or security for secured loans in banks and NBFCs.
- Non-resident Indians (NRIs) are not eligible to invest in NSC.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Prime Minister recently declared Rs 9.12 lakh investment in the National Savings Certificate (NSC) scheme in his nomination filing.
About National Savings Certificate (NSC):
It is a fixed-income investment scheme launched by the government of India.
It aims at encouraging users, who are primarily low- to mid-income investors, to invest as well as save taxes.
You can invest in NSCfrom the nearest post officein your name, for a minor or with another adult as a joint account.
Features:
Interest Rates: The certificates earn an annual fixed interest, which is revised every quarter by the government, thus guaranteeing a regular income for the investor.
Maturity Period: Five years.
The amountof NSCs that can be purchased has no upper limit.
Tax Saver: As a government-backed tax-saving scheme, the principal invested in NSC qualifies for tax savings underSection 80C of the Income Tax Act up to Rs. 1.5 lakhs annually.
Accessible: It can be easily bought from any post office on submission of the required KYC documents. Also, it is easy to transfer the certificate from one POto another, as well as from one person to another, without impacting the interest accrual/maturity of the original certificate.
Loan Collaterals: NSC certificates are accepted as collateral or security for secured loans in Banks and NBFCs.
Nomination: The investor can nominate any family member (even a minor) so that they can inherit it in the unfortunate event of the investor’s demise.
Premature Withdrawal: Generally, one cannot exit the scheme early except on the death of an investor, on a court order, or on forfeiture by a pledgee who is a Gazetted Government Officer for it.
Eligibility Criteria for NSC:
Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), Trusts, and Private and public limited companies are not eligible to invest in NSC.
The individual must be a resident Indian citizen. Non-resident Indians (NRIs) are not eligible to invest in NSC.
There is no age limit for individuals to purchase an NSC.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://business.outlookindia.com/personal-finance-news/pm-modi-invests-in-this-post-office-scheme-check-all-major-schemes-at-post-offices
MATES Migration Scheme, is a bilateral framework that supports and promotes two-way migration and mobility between India and which one of the following countries?
Australia
Explanation :
The Australian Federal Budget Document, released recently, announced the start date for the Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES) for Indian Nationals.
About MATES Migration Scheme:
On May23, 2023, Australia and India entered into a Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA).
The MMPA is a bilateral framework that supports and promotes two-way migration and mobility between our two countries while addressing issues pertaining to illegal and irregular migration.
The Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-Professionals Scheme, or ‘MATES’, is a new scheme established under the MMPA to enable the temporary mobility of Indian university graduates and early career professionals.
MATES aims to encourage mutuallybeneficial skills and knowledge transfer betweenAustralia and India.
Under the scheme,Indian graduatesand early career professionals (aged 18 to 30 years) with knowledge and skillsin targeted fields of study will be offered a new temporary mobility pathway, to live and work in Australiafor up to two years.
Eligibility Criteria for MATES: MATES will be open to Indian Nationals who are:
Must be 30 years old or younger at the time of application
Have not previouslyparticipated in MATES
Have proficient English language skills
Have graduated within two years from an eligible educational institution at the time of application
Hold a qualification (Bachelor’s degree or higher) in target fields of study
There will be no requirement for sponsorship by an Australian employer to be eligible to apply for a visaas part of MATES.
What are the permitted activities?
MATES participants will be able to live and work in Australia for up to 2 years.
Whilst there is no strict requirement for visa holders to work in their nominated field of study, it is designed to support young professionals expand their skills and networks, particularlywithin the specified sectors.
As a pilot initiative, MATES will initially offer 3,000 placesfor primary applicantsper program year.
Participants will be able to apply to bring dependents (spouses and dependent children). Dependents will have work rights in Australia, and will not count towards the annual cap.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/education/news/australian-mates-scheme-to-facilitate-mobility-of-indian-early-career-professionals-eligibility-and-other-key-components-explained/articleshow/110123224.cms
RoseTTAFold, recently seen in the news, is a:
AI-based prediction tool used for drug development
Explanation :
AI-based prediction tool RoseTTAFold has provided a major scientific breakthrough in the last four years in the area of computational drug development.
It is developed by researchers at the University Of Washington, U.S.
It uses generative diffusion-based architectures (one kind of AI model) to predict structural complexes.
The tools’ neural networks use massive amounts of input data to produce the desired output — the three-dimensional structures of proteins.
It uses deep learning to quickly and accurately predict protein structures based on limited information. Without the aid of such software, it can take years of laboratory work to determine the structure of just one protein.
It is a “three-track” neural network, meaning it simultaneously considers patterns in protein sequences, how a protein’s amino acids interact with one another, and a protein’s possible three-dimensional structure.
It has the capability to predict not just static structures of proteins and protein-protein interactions but also their ability to predict structures and interactions for any combination of protein, DNA, and RNA.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/the-use-of-ai-in-drug-development-explained/article68183913.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bond Buyback:
- It is a process in which central and state governments buy back their existing securities from holders by redeeming them prematurely.
- It is aimed to decrease the liquidity in the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has responded to tight liquidity conditions in the banking system by announcing a significant reduction in the government’s treasury bill sales and introducing a new selection of bonds for the Centre’s buyback operations.
Bond Buyback is a process whereby the central government and state governments buy back their existing securities, by redeeming them prematurely, from the holders.
Bond buybacks is a liability management tools widely used in government securities markets to manage refinancing and liquidity risks.
It enables issuers to retire an outstanding debt before its maturity date against a cash payment.
The objectives of buyback can be
Reduction of cost (by buying back high coupon securities),
Reduction in the number of outstanding securities and improving liquidity in the G-Secs market (by buying back illiquid securities) and
Infusion of liquidity in the system.
What is a Bond?
It is a debt instrument in which an investor loans money to an entity (typically corporate or government) which borrows the funds for a defined period of time at a variable or fixed interest rate.
Bonds are used by companies, municipalities, states and sovereign governments to raise money to finance a variety of projects and activities. Owners of bonds are debt holders, or creditors, of the issuer.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/rbi-announces-reduction-in-the-quantum-of-the-governments-treasury-bill-sales/articleshow/110217290.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sea otters:
- It is found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean in North America and Asia.
- It is considered one of the keystone species of the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new study offers a fuller understanding of the tool use by the Sea otters and utilizing rocks and other objects to break open hard prey by them.
It is an aquatic member of the weasel family, found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean in North America and Asia.
Habitat: It spends most of its time in the water but, in some locations, comes ashore to sleep or rest.
Appearance: Sea otters have webbed feet, water-repellent fur to keep them dry and warm, and nostrils and ears that close in the water.
They generally eat food equal to about a quarter of their body weight daily as they prowl kelp forests and seagrass beds.
Ecological significance
It’s a keystone species, which means that the health of sea otters is a good indication of the health of other species and ecosystems nearby.
It plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of marine ecosystems. By preying on sea urchins, they help control the population of these spiny creatures.
Without otters, sea urchins can overpopulate and decimate kelp forests. These kelp forests are vital habitats for a myriad of marine life, offering shelter and food for numerous species.
The presence of sea otters helps sustain the biodiversity and health of these underwater forests.
Conservation status
IUCN Red List: Endangered
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/sea-otters-get-more-prey-and-reduce-tooth-damage-using-tools/article68185659.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI) platform:
- It is launched to monitor the safety of medical devices.
- The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission functions as National Coordination Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) directed all medical device licence holders and manufacturers to report any adverse events related to life-saving medical equipment on the government’s Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI) platform.
It was launched on July 6, 2015 to monitor the safety of medical devices in the country.
It aims to collect data on medical device related adverse events systematically and scientifically analyze them to aid in regulatory decisions and recommendations on safe use of medical devices.
Objective: To improve Indian patient safety by monitoring, recording and analysing the root cause of adverse events or risks associated with the use of medical devices including in-vitro diagnostics by healthcare professionals or patients/users and suggesting regulatory bodies for appropriate action with the sole intention of improving patient safety.
It is an important program for reporting of adverse events, coordinated analysis etc related to the medical devices including in-vitro diagnostic devices.
The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) functions as National Coordination Centre (NCC) since 2018.
It is regulated by the Central Drugs Standards Control Organization (CDSCO).
Medical devices consist of electronic equipment, implant, consumables and disposables, surgical instruments and in-vitro diagnostic reagents, among others.
Currently, all medical devices in India are regulated by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Medical Device Rule, 2017.
At present, India is 80% dependent on imports for medical devices.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry Of Health and Family Welfare
Key facts about Drugs Controller General of India
Drugs Controller General of India is the head of the department of the CDSCO of the Government of India responsible for approval of licences of specified categories of drugs such as blood and blood products, IV fluids, vaccines and sera in India.
DCGI also sets standards for the manufacturing, sales, import, and distribution of drugs in India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/dcgi-calls-for-strict-reporting-of-side-effects-related-to-medical-devices/article68187080.ece
With reference to Registered Unrecognised Political Parties, consider the following statements:
- They are newly registered parties or those which have not secured enough percentage of votes in the assembly or general election.
- It is mandatory for these parties to furnish audited accounts of last three financial years.
- They are not restricted to choose party symbols of their choice.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, it has been noticed that less than a third of Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPP) are contesting elections in India.
These are the parties which are either newly registered parties or those which have not secured enough percentage of votes in the assembly or general elections to become a state party, or those which have never contested elections since being registered.
Allocation of symbols to RUPP: Common symbols are provided to RUPPs based upon an undertaking that they would put up “at least 5% of total candidates with regard to said Legislative Assembly election of a State”.
Election commission of India made it mandatory for RUPPs to furnish audited accounts of last three financial years, expenditure statements of last two elections.
The EC receives the applications from RUPPs in prescribed proforma for allotment of symbol under Provisions of Para 10B of the Election Symbols (Reservation & Allotment) Order, 1968.
What are registered parties?
The Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) lays down the requirements for registration of a political party with the ECI.
Any political party that seeks registration should submit a copy of its memorandum/constitution.
Such document should declare that the party shall bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India. It should also bear allegiance to the principles of socialism, secularism and democracy, and uphold the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
Benefits
Tax exemption for donations received under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Common symbol for contesting general elections to the Lok Sabha/State Assemblies, and
Twenty ‘star campaigners’ during election campaign.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are orrect.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/can-parties-be-de-recognised-or-de-registered-explained/article68183892.ece
Which one of the following is the primary objective of SPECULOOS Project, recently seen in the news?
To search for exoplanets orbiting ultra-cool dwarf stars
Explanation :
An international team of astronomers recently detected a new, Earth-sized planet named SPECULOOS-3b, just 55 light years away, orbiting an ultra-cool red dwarf star.
About SPECULOOS-3b:
It is an Earth-size planet orbiting an ultracool red dwarf star, 55 light-years away from Earth.
This red dwarf, though similar in size to Jupiter, emits light 100 times dimmer than the sun and has half the temperature.
The planet is only the second of its kind to be discovered around this type of star.
SPECULOOS-3b receives high levels of radiation from its sun, probably leaving the planet without an atmosphere. The planet receives almost 16 times more energy per second than Earth receives from the Sun.
It takes around 17 hours tocomplete an orbit of the star.
The planet is thought to be tidally locked, so the same side, known as the dayside, always faces the star, like the Moon to Earth. The nightside would be locked in never-ending darkness.
The discovery was made by the teamfrom the SPECULOOS (Search for Planets EClipsingULtra-cOOl Stars) project, which is led by the University of Liège, in Belgium, in collaboration with the Universities of Birmingham, Cambridge, Bern, and the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, using the observatory located in the Atacama Desert of northern Chile.
The SPECULOOS project was established to search for exoplanets orbiting ultra-cool dwarf stars using a network of robotic telescopes based around the world.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-05-astronomers-earth-sized-world-orbiting.html
Phawngpui National Park is located in which one of the following states?
Mizoram
Explanation :
A rare hemi-parasitic terrestrial plant named Phtheirospermumlushaiorum has been found in Phawngpui National Park in Mizoram.
About Phtheirospermumlushaiorum:
It is a new species of hemi-parasitic terrestrial plant.
These hemi-parasitic plantslackafully developed root system and form connections with another plant, from which theyobtain some or all of theirwater and minerals.
Such plants have chlorophyll and produce their own food by photosynthesis, and in some cases, are capable of limited growthin the absence of the host plant.
They tap into the sap-conducting tissue of the host by means of specialized structures called haustoria.
The new species has been found in Phawngpui National Park of Mizoram.
Phtheirospermumlushaiorum attaches themselves to the roots of their host and appear like normal plants growing in the soil.
They flower only during July to September and fruits are produced during August to October.
The specific epithet “lushaiorum” is named after the “Lushai” tribe of Mizoram.
Key Facts about Phawngpui National Park:
It is located in the Lawngtlai district under the Lai Autonomous District Council of Mizoram, towards the southeast bordering Myanmar.
It derives its name from the Phawngpui Mountain, the highest peak in the state, reaching 2157 meters.
It covers an area of 50 sq. km, including the entire Phawngpui Mountain along with cliffs and patches of natural grasslands.
This park is also called Phawngpui Blue Mountain National Park,as the mountainous region of Phawngpui is often covered by a thin layer of clouds,which makes it blue in appearance from a distance.
Flora: The flora of Phawngpui mostly includes grasses, orchids, trees of rhododendrons, and oak.
Fauna: It is home to an amazing variety of birdlife, including the rare Blyth’s Tragopan, Dark Rumped Swift, and Mrs. Hume’s Pheasant, the Mizoram state bird, and endangered mammals like the Slow Loris, Tiger, Leopard, Leopard Cat, Serow, Goral, Asiatic Black Bear, Stump-tailed Macaque, and Capped Langur.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.eastmojo.com/mizoram/2024/05/18/new-hemiparasite-plant-species-named-after-lushai-tribe-of-mizoram/
Consider the following countries:
- Russia
- Kazakhstan
- Belarus
- Iran
How many of the above are the members of the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)?
Only three
Explanation :
India is “seriously considering” starting talks for a free trade agreement with the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU), the Foreign Minister of Belarus declared during his two-day visit to India recently.
About Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU):
It is an international economic union and free trade zone comprising countries locatedin central and northern Asia and Eastern Europe.
It was established by the Treaty on the Eurasian Economic Union signed on May 29, 2014, in Astana.
Member countries include Russia, Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, and Kyrgyzstan.
The EAEU is being created to comprehensively upgrade, raise the competitiveness of and cooperation between the national economies, and promote stable development in order to raise the living standards of the nations of the Member-States.
The EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital and labor, pursues coordinated, harmonized, and single policy in the sectors determined by the Treaty and international agreements within the Union.
Structure:
The Supreme Eurasian Economic Council is the highest body of the EAEU, which consists of the heads of the Union’s member states.
The Eurasian Economic Commission,based in Moscow, is the permanent supranational regulatory body of the union. The main purpose of the Commission is to ensure the functioning and development of the EAEU and developing proposals for the further development of integration.
The Court of the EAEU,based in Minsk, serves as the judicial body.
Unlike the European Commission, the Eurasian Economic Commission’s power is limited.
Member states disagreeing with its judgements can appeal to other bodies, and the Commission has no power to bring a member state before the Court in a case of non-compliance.
Disputes are often resolved bilaterally rather than via EEU institutions.
Unlike the European Union (EU), the EAEU does not share a common currency.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-seriously-considering-fta-with-eurasian-economic-union-belarus-foreign-minister/article67950870.ece
With reference to India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC), consider the following:
- It will provide a reliable and cost-effective cross-border ship-to-rail transit network to supplement existing maritime routes.
- It will comprise two separate corridors, the east corridor connecting India to the Gulf and the northern corridor connecting the Gulf to Europe.
- Beyond the transport infrastructure, undersea cables and long-distance hydrogen pipelines are also part of the project.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
An Indian delegation recently paid a visit to the UAE for the first time to hold discussions with the key entities there on the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC).
About India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC):
It was announced on the sidelines of the G20 meeting in New Delhi when a memorandum of understanding was signed between the European Union and seven countries, namely India, the US, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), France, Germany, and Italy.
The corridor will provide a reliable and cost-effective cross-border ship-to-rail transit network to supplement existing maritime routes.
It intends to increase efficiency, reduce costs, secure regional supply chains, increase trade accessibility, enhance economic cooperation, generate jobs, and lower greenhouse gas emissions.
The IMEEC will comprise two separate corridors, the east corridor connecting India to the Gulf and the northern corridor connecting the Gulf to Europe.
The corridor will include a shipping route connectingMumbai and Mundra (Gujarat) with the UAE, and a rail network connecting the UAE, Saudi Arabia, and Jordanwith the Israeli port of Haifato reach the shores of the Mediterranean Sea.
Haifa will then be connected by sea to the port of Piraeus in Greece to eventually be connected to Europe.
Beyond the transport infrastructure, undersea cables would facilitate the exchange of data, while long-distance hydrogen pipelines would boost the participants’ climate and decarbonisation goals.
Henceoption c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news18.com/world/india-uae-hold-talks-to-advance-middle-east-europe-economic-corridor-8895327.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lab-Grown Diamonds:
- They have essentially the same chemical, optical, and physical properties and crystal structure as natural diamonds.
- India accounts for more than 50% per cent of global production of Lab-Grown Diamonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India is playing a significant role in the lab-grown diamond industry, positioning itself as the world’s second-largest producer of precious stones created in laboratories rather than extracted from the earth.
About Lab-Grown Diamonds:
Laboratory-grown diamonds have essentially the same chemical, optical, and physical properties and crystal structure as natural diamonds.
Like natural diamonds, they are made of tightly-bonded carbon atoms.
They respond to light in the same way and are just as hard as natural diamonds.
The main differences between laboratory-grown and natural diamonds lie in their origin.
Lab-grown diamonds are diamonds that are produced using specific technology which mimics the geological processesthat grow natural diamonds.
The diamond simulants such as Moissanite, Cubic Zirconia (CZ), White Sapphire, YAG, and others are used to make them look like natural diamonds.
How are LGDs produced? There are multiple ways in which LGDs can be produced.
High pressure, high temperature” (HPHT) method:
It is the most common and cheapest method.
This method mimics the conditions under which natural diamonds are formed inside the earth.
To produce the lab diamond, a large machine is fed a certain amount of carbon materialthat it then crushes under pressures of more than 870,000 lbs. per square inch at extreme temperatures ranging from 1300 – 1600 degrees Celsius.
Lower-quality diamonds, whether natural or laboratory-grown, can also be put through the HPHT process to improve color. This process can also be used to change the color of diamonds to pink, blue or yellow.
Chemical Vapor Deposition (CVD):
This technique enables scientists to grow laboratory-grown diamonds using moderate temperatures (700°C to 1300°C) and lower pressures.
Carbon-containing gas is pumped into a vacuum chamber and deposits onto a diamond seed,crystallizing as laboratory-grown diamond.
The eventual size of the diamond depends on the time allowed for growth.
Application of Lab-grown diamonds:
Used for industrial purposes, in machines and tools and their hardness and extra strength make them ideal for use as cutters.
Pure synthetic diamonds are used in electronicsas a heat spreader for high-power laser diodes, laser arrays and high-power transistors.
India produces more than three million lab-grown diamonds a year and accounts for 15 per cent of global production.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thenationalnews.com/business/2024/05/18/will-the-sparkle-of-indias-lab-grown-diamonds-last-forever/
In which one of the following Wildlife Sanctuary, Sri Lankan golden-backed frog was recently rediscovered?
Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation :
Researchers from the Zoological Survey of India, in partnership with the Andhra Pradesh Biodiversity Board, rediscovered the Sri Lankan golden-backed frog (Hylarana gracilis) after two centuries in the Koundinya wildlife sanctuary in the Chittoor district.
It is located in Palamner - Kuppam forest ranges of Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh.
It is the only sanctuary in the whole state housing Asian elephants.
This Sanctuary comes under Project elephant - a Country wide Elephant Conservation Project taken up by Government of India.
Rivers: Kaigal and River Kaundinya flow through this sanctuary and is characterized by high hills, deep valleys.
Vegetation: Southern tropical dry deciduous forest, with patches of thorn, scrub and grassy plains.
Flora: Plants like Albizzia amara, Ficus glomerata, Zizyphus xylocarpus, Gymnosporia Montana, etc;
Fauna: Elephant, Panther, Sloth bear, Wild boar, Chowsingha, Nilgai, Hyena, Jackal, etc.
Key facts about Sri Lankan golden-backed frog
It is also known as Gravenhorst’s frog or Sri Lanka wood frog, belongs to the family Ranidae.
It was considered endemic to Sri Lanka, commonly found from sea level to 1250 meters in various districts including Anuradhapura, Galle, and Kandy.
The separation of India and Sri Lanka dates back to the early Miocene era, around 15 million years ago.
Throughout the Pleistocene, fluctuating sea levels periodically exposed and submerged the land bridge across the Palk Strait, facilitating biotic exchanges.
Hylarana gracilis, typically associated with freshwater habitats, shows a shallow genetic divergence (0.2% to 1.1%) between populations in the Eastern Ghats and Sri Lanka.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/sri-lankan-golden-backed-frog-rediscovered-after-200-years-in-indias-koundinya-wildlife-sanctuary/article68190161.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Endangered Species Day:
- It is observed every year on the third Friday of the May month.
- The theme for the year 2024 was Celebrate Saving Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the National Endangered Species Day was celebrated across the world.
It is observed to create awareness about the consequences of human activities and what we can do to save endangered species.
Every year, National Endangered Species Day is observed on the third Friday of the month of May.
History
In the year 2006, David Robinson and the Endangered Species Coalition established National Endangered Species Day to be celebrated every year to urge people to contribute to the safety and protection of endangered species.
According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature, forty percent of animals, insects and plants on this planet are at risk of extinction.
The theme for the year 2024: Celebrate Saving Species.
Significance
The day promotes conservation efforts and encourages individuals and organisations to participate in activities that help protect endangered species.
This includes habitat restoration, supporting conservation laws, and advocating for stronger environmental policies.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/festivals/national-endangered-species-day-2024-date-history-significance-and-all-that-you-need-to-know-101715855720810.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Iberian lynx:
- It is generally nocturnal and its activity patterns are closely synchronized with its major prey.
- It is distributed throughout the European continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Spanish government said the number of endangered Iberian lynx in the wild in Spain and Portugal has nearly doubled since 2020.
It is one of two carnivore species endemic to Europe (the other being European mink, Mustela lutreola).
It is the world’s most endangered and known for its pointy ears, long legs and leopard-like spotted fur.
This species, like other cat species, is sexually dimorphic, with males being heavier and longer than females.
This lynx is generally nocturnal and its activity patterns are closely synchronized with those of their major prey, the rabbit.
Habitat: It require variable terrain below 1300 m, containing a mosaic of closed Mediterranean scrubland interspersed with open patches of grassland, often with marsh ecotones.
Distribution: It was once distributed throughout the Iberian Peninsula, the species is now sparsely distributed in Spain and Portugal.
Threats: These are related to human activities, such as poaching and habitat destruction, Illegal Hunting and decrease food base etc.
Conservation status
IUCN Red list: Endangered
CITES: Appendix II
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_international/issues/83667/OPS/G5VCPHBTG.1+GA9CQHEUA.1.html
Which of the following best describes the term Vishing, recently seen in the news?
It is a type of phishing carried out through a call on a mobile phone or landline
Explanation :
Recently, the government released a circular warning its employees of a sophisticated cybercrime— vishing.
It is short form of voice+phishing, is carried out through a call on a mobile phone or landline.
It’s a technique wherein a threat actor calls the victim over the phone and tries to trick him/her into clicking on malicious files or emails, which can then take one to a legitimate-looking website asking to share personal information.
In other cases, the attacker can solicit sensitive information from the victim.
It can be so tricky that the caller might appear as the manager or colleague of the victim, enticing her to share sensitive information, at times using urgency as the tactic.
How to spot a vishing scam?
A pre-recorded message: On many occasions, a vishing call starts with an automated call claiming there’s an urgency related to financial or other matters, making you click a few numbers or take certain actions.
Pretending to be a government official: There’s a very slim chance that a government official would directly call you or even email or text. And if you get a call from somebody claiming to be a government official,chances are high that it’s not legitimate.
Using fear and urgency tactics: In case of a vishing attack, chances are that the scammer would stoke a sense of urgency using threat or fear.
Poor audio quality: If in doubt, also pay attention to the call’s audio quality and any background noises. At times, there could be robotic-sounding voices, which could mean that it’s a robocall.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/technology-beware-of-vishing-how-not-to-fall-prey-to-voice-call-frauds-3492956/
With reference to Calcium carbide, consider the following statements:
- It is commonly used for ripening of fruits.
- It is a highly reactive compound and releases acetylene gas.
- It causes serious health issues such as dizziness and frequent thirst.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has alerted traders’/fruits handlers/Food Business Operators (FBOs) operating ripening chambers to strictly ensure compliance with the prohibition on calcium carbide for artificial ripening of fruits, particularly during the mango season.
It is a compound with the chemical formula CaC2 and also known as ‘masala’.
It is commonly used for ripening fruits like mangoes, releases acetylene gas which contains harmful traces of arsenic and phosphorus.
Manufacturing: It is manufactured by heating a lime and carbon mixture to 2000 to 2100°C (3632 to 3812°F) in an electric arc furnace.
It has been prohibited as per the provision in the sub-regulation of Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restriction on Sales) Regulation, 2011.
Application
It is used in mining and metal industries as well as in the production of acetylene gas.
It is a highly reactive compound and releases acetylene gas which is used to artificially ripen fruits
Health impacts
It can cause serious health issues such as dizziness, frequent thirst, irritation, weakness, difficulty in swallowing, vomiting and skin ulcers, etc.
Additionally, acetylene gas is equally hazardous to those handling it.
There are chances that calcium carbide may come in direct contact with fruits during application and leave residues of arsenic and phosphorus on fruits.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2021025
Consider the following statements with reference to the Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ):
- It is a commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
- It functions as a governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
After five days of discussions to strengthen crime prevention, criminal justice responses and cooperation, the 33rd session of the Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice, came to a conclusion recently.
About Commission on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice (CCPCJ):
CCPCJ is a commission of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC).
It acts as the principal policy making body of the United Nations (UN) in the fields of crime prevention and criminal justice.
Membership: The CCPCJ has 40 member states that are elected by ECOSOC and is chaired by a Bureau.
ECOSOC provided for CCPCJ mandates and priorities in resolution 1992/22, which includes the following:
International action tocombat national and transnational crime, such as organized crime, economic crime and money-laundering
Promoting the role of criminal lawin protecting the environment
Crime prevention in urban areas, including juvenile crime and violence
Improving the efficiency and fairness of criminal justice administration systems
CCPCJ also offers Member States a forum for exchanging expertise, experience,and information in order to develop national and international strategies and to identify priorities for combating crime.
It also acts as preparatory bodyand as implementing body for the quinquennial United Nations Congress on Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice.
In 2006, the General Assembly adopted resolution 61/252, which further expanded the mandates of CCPCJ to enable it to function as a governing body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), and to approve the budget of the United Nations Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Fund, which provides resources for technical assistance in the field of crime prevention and criminal justice worldwide.
The Commission maintains close linkswith the research institutes belonging to the UN Crime Prevention and Criminal Justice Programme Network (PNI).
The network has been developed to assist the international community in strengthening cooperation in the area of crime prevention and criminal justice.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.unodc.org/unodc/frontpage/2024/May/strengthening-global-cooperation-in-crime-prevention-and-enhancing-criminal-justice-systems_-highlights-from-the-33rd-crime-commission.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX):
- It is a collaborative endeavor between ISRO and NASA.
- It aims to explore the moon’s southern polar region and investigate the presence of water and other elements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The India-Japan partnership for their joint moon mission, Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX), is likely to take flight in a few years, the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) said in an interview recently.
About Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX):
It is a collaborative endeavor between ISRO and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
The mission is scheduled to launch in 2025.
This mission will take off aboard Japan’s H3 rocket.
Primary Goal: To explore the moon’s southern polar region, investigating the presence of water and other elements, potentially in the form of surface ice.
It aims to showcase innovative surface exploration technologies. The special focus is on vehicular transport and lunar night survival.
It features both a lander and a rover. JAXA is responsible for developing and operating the rover, and ISRO for developing and operating the lander that will carry the rover.
The rover will drive on its own to search for areas where water is likely to be present and sample the soil by digging into the ground with a drill.
The plan is to acquire data by analyzing the collected samples in detail with observation equipment mounted on the rover.
The rover will be equipped with instruments for measuring the water content ofregolith (lunar sand), drilling, and sampling, as well as with other world-first and world-leading technologies for the driving system and batteries.
The roverwill carry not only the instruments of ISRO and JAXA but also those of the US space agency NASA and the European Space Agency (ESA).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://theprint.in/science/mission-with-india-to-search-for-water-on-moon-is-on-track-launch-in-few-years-japan-space-agency/2083007/
With reference to New Caledonia, consider the following statements:
- It is a French overseas collectivity located in the southern Indian Ocean.
- New Caledonians are French and European citizens with the right to live anywhere in France.
- It is one of the European Union’s (EU) Overseas Countries and Territories (OCTs) and is part of the European Union, the Euro or Schengen zones.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
French security forces are stepping up efforts to regain control of New Caledonia amid ongoing and deadly unrest.
About New Caledonia:
It is a French overseas collectivity with significant autonomyunder the terms of the 1998 Nouméa Accord.
It is located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean, about 900 miles (1,500 km) east of Australia.
Unlike many Pacific islands that are of relatively recent volcanic origin, New Caledonia is an ancient fragment of the Gondwana supercontinent.
It comprises the main island of Grande Terre, the four Loyalty Islands (Ouvéa, Lifou, Tiga, and Maré), the Belep archipelago, the Isle of Pines, and some remote islands.
Capital: Nouméa (located on Grande Terre)
Population:
Just over 270,000 people live in New Caledonia (2019). Approximately 39 percent are indigenous (‘Kanak’).
The remainder are Caledonians of European, Polynesian, and other (including Vietnamese, Indonesian, and Algerian) origins.
New Caledonians are French and European citizens with the right to live anywhere in France. They are entitled to vote in territorial and French national elections.
The President of the French Republic is New Caledonia’s Head of State and is represented in New Caledonia by a High Commissioner.
It is one of the European Union’s (EU) Overseas Countries and Territories (OCTs), but is not part of the EU, the Euro, or Schengen zones.
The Nouméa Accord(1998) and consequent Organic Law (March 1999) provide the constitutional framework under which New Caledonia is governed. The Accord also defines New Caledonia’s relations with France and sets out a timetable for New Caledonia to assume responsibility for most areas of government.
New Caledonia is the seat of the Secretariat of the Pacific Community, formed by Australia, France, the Netherlands, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, and the United States in 1947 to promote economic and social stability in the countries of the South Pacific.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/europe/france-will-quell-new-caledonia-riots-whatever-the-cost/articleshow/110259781.cms
With reference to Generalized System of Preferences (GSP), consider the following statements:
- It was instituted under the aegis of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
- It is a voluntary trade measure implemented by developed countries that provides preferential tariff treatment to imports from developing countries.
- Each of these developed countries has its own regulatory framework under which it provides the GSP tariff preferences.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
It is accepted wisdom that GSP renewal would offer an avenue for wide-ranging U.S.-India trade negotiations that can help in vaulting the bilateral trade relationship.
About Generalized System of Preferences (GSP):
It was instituted in 1971 under the aegis of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD).
It is a voluntary trade measure implemented by developed countries that provides an advantageous, or “preferential”, tariff treatment to imports from developing countries.
The preferences are in the form of either elimination or reduction in customs duty when the list of eligible products from the beneficiary developing country (BDC) is exported to the developed country.
However, an exporter under the GSP is required to fulfil the rules of origin under the GSP scheme. The rules of origin are the criteria required to ensure that the product exported originates from the country of export and is not being diverted from another country.
The GSP is a unilateral customs duty preference scheme i.e. there is no need for India or other BDCs to provide reciprocal customs duty preferences for the developed country.
The major countries who grant GSP preferences to developing countries are Armenia, Australia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Canada, European Union (EU), Japan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, New Zealand, Norway, Russian Federation, Switzerland, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, Turkey, United Kingdom (UK), United States (US), and Uzbekistan.
Each of these developed countries has its own regulatory framework under which it provides the GSP tariff preferences.
The GSP provided also varies in termsofthe products on which preferences are provided and the developing countries exports to which the tariff preferences are granted.
In terms of trade volumes, the GSPs granted by the EU and the US are the most comprehensive and, hence, the most important for developing countries.
Some of the GSP schemes also provide additional tariff preferencesto a specified class of developing countries, with most providing the largest coverage of GSP customs duty preferences to exports from Least Developed Countries (LDCs).
India is one of the primary beneficiaries in terms of export volume realized under the GSP.Around 40% of India’s exports to the EU are under the EU GSP,while prior to the USGSP withdrawal, around 10% of India’s total exports to the US were under the GSP.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/renew-the-generalised-system-of-preferences/article68193288.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Godavari River:
- It is India’s second-longest river after the Ganga.
- It finally empties itself into the Bay of Bengal in Odisha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Three youths from Konaseema district, Andhra Pradesh, tragically drowned to death in the Godavari River recently.
About Godavari River:
It is India’s second-longest river after the Ganga and the third-largest in India, drains about 10% of India’s total geographical area.
It is also called Dakshina Ganga, which translates into South Ganges River.
Course:
The origin of the Godavari River is in Brahmagiri Mountain at Trimbakeshwar in Nashik district of Maharashtra.
It runs for a length of about 1,465 kilometers.
It finally empties itself into the Bay of Bengal at Narasapuram in West Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh.
The river mainstem, travels through three states:Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh, while its basin includes Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, parts of Chattisgarh, and Odisha.
It has a drainage basin of some 121,000 square miles (313,000 square km)
The basin is bounded by theSatmala hills, the Ajanta range, and the Mahadeo hills on the north, by the Eastern Ghats on the south and the east and by the Western Ghats on the west.
The Godavari basin receives its maximum rainfallduring the Southwest monsoon.
Tributaries: The principal tributaries of the river are the Pravara, the Purna, the Manjra, the Penganga, the Wardha, the Wainganga, the Pranhita (combined flow of Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha), the Indravati, the Maner, and the Sabri.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/three-drowned-in-godavari/articleshow/110238432.cms
Project Astra, a multimodal AI agent, recently in news is developed by:
Explanation :
Recently, Google at the company’s annual developer conference, presented an early version of Project Astra.
It is a new multimodal AI agent developed by Google.
It is capable of answering real-time questions fed to it through text, video, images, and speech by pulling up the relevant information.
It can see the world, remember where one has left a thing and even answer if a computer code is correct by looking at it through the phone’s camera.
It even answers if a computer code is correct by looking at it through the phone’s camera.
It is more straight-forward, there is no range of emotional diversity in its voice.
It is not limited to smartphones. Google also showed it being used with a pair of smart glasses.
Project Astra can learn about the world, making it as close as possible to a human-assistant-like experience.
What is multimodal model AI?
A multimodal model is a ML (machine learning) model that is capable of processing information from different modalities, including images, videos, and text.
For example, Google’s multimodal model, Gemini, can receive a photo of a plate of cookies and generate a written recipe as a response and vice versa.
This model expands on generative capabilities, processing information from multiple modalities, including images, videos, and text. Multimodality can be thought of as giving AI the ability to process and understand different sensory modes.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/ais-her-moment-openais-gpt-4o-and-googles-project-astra-make-real-life-strides-9339372/
Consider the following statements with reference to Synuclein alpha (SNCA) protein:
- It is a protein present in healthy cells of human body.
- It is involved in the age-related neurodegenerative diseases.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Many Parkinson’s disease researchers are focused on reducing the prevalence of Synuclein alpha (SNCA) proteins in neurons as a therapeutic measure.
It is a mysterious protein which is present in healthy cells of human body.
It is notorious for its involvement in age-related neurodegenerative diseases.
Features of SNCA
It is abundant in neurons, especially in dopaminergic neurons. It is found near the nuclei of these cells and at the junctions between two neurons.
It’s capable of misfolding as well as forming filamentous structures.
So unlike most other proteins, which take up predictable three-dimensional structures, SNCA can fold in multiple ways. Misfolded proteins don’t function correctly.
SNCA is present in 2 ways as aggregates in cells: one that interferes with the structural integrity of cells’ nuclei and another that allows the cell to degrade misfolded proteins.
In these two the former are related to diseased states while the latter is important for healthy cells.
Over time, these two SNCA populations in the cells: one was around the nuclei, shapes like filaments tens of micrometres long, much like Lewy bodies.
The other population was also around the nuclei but as much smaller clumps called aggresomes. Such aggresomes are formed when cells localise misfolded proteins into a small bunch (like collecting the trash in a corner) for further processing.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/balancing-two-forms-of-snca-protein-could-help-manage-parkinsons-study-finds/article68192998.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Summer solstice:
- It is an annual phenomenon that brings the longest day of the year.
- The earth receives a greater amount of energy from the Sun during this time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The summer solstice heralds the start of astronomical summer in the Northern Hemisphere and marks the day with the most daylight for the year.
In Latin, “Solstice” means “sun stands still”.
It is an annual astronomical phenomenon that brings the longest day of the year.
On the summer solstice, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the sun, receiving the full glare of the sun’s rays.
During the solstice, the Earth’s axis — around which the planet spins, is tilted in a way that the North Pole is tipped towards the Sun and the South Pole is away from it.
Typically, this imaginary axis passes right through the middle of the Earth from top to bottom and is always tilted at 23.5 degrees with respect to the Sun.
What happens during the solstice?
This day sees the Earth receiving a greater amount of energy from the Sun.
Each year, the summer solstice in the Northern Hemisphere falls on one of two days: June 20 or June 21. In the Southern Hemisphere, the summer solstice happens on Dec. 21 or Dec. 22.
The date varies because the Gregorian calendar has 365 days, with an extra leap day added in February every four years.
The amount of light received by a specific area in the Northern Hemisphere during the summer solstice depends on the latitudinal location of the place.
The further north one moves from the equator, the more light one receives during the summer solstice. At the Arctic Circle, the sun does not set during the solstice.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/summer-solstice-the-science-behind-the-longest-day-of-the-year
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bacterial Priority Pathogens List:
- It was developed by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- It helps in fighting against antimicrobial resistance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) released its updated Bacterial Priority Pathogens List (BPPL) 2024.
It is an important tool in the global fight against antimicrobial resistance.
Background
In 2017, WHO developed the first BPPL to guide investment into the R&D of new antibacterials and it listed 13 bacterial pathogens (phenotypes).
It was developed with the multi-criteria decision analysis (MCDA) method (15).
MCDA is a decision-making scientific method that mounts and evaluates alternatives based on multiple criteria, facilitating systematic and transparent decision-making in complex options
The 2024 WHO BPPL covers 24 pathogens, spanning 15 families of antibiotic-resistant bacterial pathogens.
The 2024 list categorizes these pathogens into critical, high, and medium priority groups to inform research and development (R&D) and public health interventions.
Significance
The WHO BPPL acts as a guide for prioritizing R&D and investments in AMR, emphasizing the need for regionally tailored strategies to effectively combat resistance.
It targets developers of antibacterial medicines, academic and public research institutions, research funders, and public–private partnerships investing in AMR R&D, as well as policy-makers responsible for developing and implementing AMR policies and programs.
What is Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)?
It occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites no longer respond to medicines, making people sicker and increasing the risk of disease spread, illness and deaths.
It is driven in large part by the misuse and overuse of antimicrobials.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/critical-priority-pathogens-continue-to-present-major-global-threat-who-updates-bacterial-pathogens-priority-list/article68193373.ece
With reference to Red panda, consider the following statements:
- It is primarily an herbivore species.
- It is considered an indicator species for ecological change.
- Almost 50% of their habitat is in the Western Himalayan region.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Red panda was recently captured on camera in the Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary (EWS) located in the Singchung subdivision of the West Kameng district, Arunachal Pradesh.
It is primarily an herbivore species.
They use their long, bushy tails for balance and to cover themselves in winter, presumably for warmth.
It is a shy, solitary and arboreal animals and considered an indicator species for ecological change.
Appearance: It is of the size of a house cat, the red panda is famous for its cute face and adorable defense stance.
Distribution: It lives in the mountainous forests of Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar and Nepal. Almost 50% of their habitat is in the Eastern Himalayas.
Threats: Red panda habitat is in decline. The loss of nesting trees and bamboo in the Eastern Himalayas—the location of almost 50% of the red panda’s habitat—is causing a decline in red panda populations across much of their range.
Conservation status
IUCN Red list: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
The Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I
Key facts about Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary
It is a protected area of India in the Himalayan foothills of West Kameng District, Arunachal Pradesh.
It conjoins Sessa Orchid Sanctuary to the northeast and Pakhui Tiger Reserve across the Kameng river to the east.
It is situated in the biodiversity hotspot of Eastern Himalayas and home to over 500 bird species.
Altitude ranges are extreme: from 500 metres (1,640 ft) to 3,250 metres (10,663 ft).
It is also a part of the Kameng Elephant Reserve.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.northeasttoday.in/2024/05/15/endangered-red-panda-spotted-in-arunachals-eaglenest-wildlife-sanctuary/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Genetic Drift:
- It takes place when the occurrence of variant forms of a gene increases or decreases by chance over time in a population.
- Large populations are more susceptible to genetic drift than small populations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Genetic drift, not natural selection, was recently identified as the main factor driving speciation in endangered pupfish species.
About Genetic Drift:
It is one of the basic mechanisms of evolution.
It takes placewhen the occurrence of variant forms of a gene, called alleles, increases and decreases by chance over timein a population.
This occurs due to random sampling and the random events that influence the survival and reproduction of those individuals.
These variations in the presence of alleles are measured as changes in allele frequencies.
Small populations are more susceptible to genetic drift than large populations, whose larger numbers can buffer the population against chance events.
Once it begins, genetic drift will continue until the involved allele is either lost by a population or until it is the only allele present in a population at a particular locus.
Both possibilities decrease the genetic diversity of a population.
It could also causeinitially rare allelestobecome much more frequent, and even fixed.
Genetic drift is common after population bottlenecks, which are events that drastically decrease the size of a population.
In these cases, genetic drift can result in the loss ofrare alleles and decrease the gene pool.
Genetic drift can cause a new population to be genetically distinct from its original population, which has led to the hypothesis that genetic drift plays a role in the evolution of new species.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-05-genetic-drift-natural-main-factor.html
R21/Matrix-M vaccine, recently seen in the news, is developed for the prevention of which one of the following diseases?
Malaria
Explanation :
Vaccines manufacturer Serum Institute of India (SII) recently said it has started exports of ‘R21/Matrix-M’ malaria vaccine to Africa as part of the global fight against the disease.
About R21/Matrix-M Vaccine:
It is a new vaccine approved for the prevention of malaria in children.
It is the second malaria vaccinerecommended by the World Health Organization (WHO), following the RTS,S/AS01 vaccine, which received a WHO recommendation in 2021.
The vaccine was developed by the Jenner Institute at Oxford University and the Serum Institute of India with support from the European and Developing Countries Clinical Trials Partnership (‘EDCTP’), the Wellcome Trust, and the European Investment Bank (‘EIB’).
This low-cost, high-efficacy vaccine is already licensed by several African countries.
How does the R21/Matrix-M vaccine Works?
Vaccines work by putting the antigen, which is the piece of the virus or bacteria that our system recognises and responds to, in front of our immune cells.
The R21/Matrix-M vaccine targets the plasmodium ‘sporozoite’, which is the first form of the malaria parasite entering the human body.
Only a few (10–100) sporozoites are injectedby infected mosquitoesbefore the parasite multiplies, making them the ideal targetfor a vaccine.
R21 is a subunit vaccine that delivers parts of a proteinsecretedby the sporozoite that are bundled upwith a part of the hepatitis B virus that is known to trigger a strong immune response.
The vaccine also contains Matrix-M, an “adjuvant” which boosts the immune system’s response to make it more powerful and long-lasting.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sii-commences-shipments-of-malaria-vaccine-r21matrix-m-to-africa/article68196163.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):
- It is the principal financial institution for promotion, financing and development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector in India.
- At present, it is a wholly owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Airbus Helicopters and the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) recently signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for financing the purchase of Airbus’ helicopters in India.
About Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):
It was set up on 2nd April,1990, under an Actofthe Indian Parliament.
Purpose: To act as the principal financial institution for promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector, as well as for the co-ordination of functions of institutions engaged in similar activities.
It is under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance, GoI.
It was incorporated initially as a wholly owned subsidiary ofthe Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI).
Currently, the shares of SIDBI are held by the Government of India (GoI) and 22 other institutions/PSBs/insurance companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.
Headquarters: Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
SIDBI helps MSMEs in acquiring the funds they require to grow, market, develop, and commercialize their technologies and innovative products.
The bank provides several schemes and also offers financial services and products to meet individual requirements of various businesses.
Financial support to MSMEs is provided by way of
Indirect/refinance to banks/Financial Institutions for onward lending to MSMEs
Direct financein niche areaslike risk capital, sustainable finance, receivable financing, service sector financing, etc.
SIDBI was made responsible foradministering theSmall Industries Development Fund and the National Equity Fund that were administered by IDBI before.
In order to promote and develop the MSME sector, SIDBI adopts a ‘Credit Plus’approach, under which, besides credit, SIDBI supports enterprise development, skill upgradation, marketing support, cluster development, technology modernization, etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/airbus-helicopters-sidbi-sign-mou-for-helicopter-financing-in-india/article68197032.ece
With reference to the Copernicus Emergency Management Service (EMS) Programme, consider the following statements:
- It provides environment related information to address issues related to climate change, disaster management and agriculture, among other uses.
- It uses a group of satellites called the Sentinels, complemented by a ground segment which includes in-situ sensors that provide access to the Sentinels.
- Data from the Copernicus programme is freely available and accessible to all.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
As part of a multi-agency effort to locate a helicopter carrying Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi that crashed in East Azerbaijan province recently, the European Union activated its Copernicus EMS rapid response mapping service at Iran’s request.
About Copernicus Emergency Management Service (EMS) Programme:
Named after the renowned 15th-century scientist Nicolaus Copernicus, the programme is the earth observation componentof the European Union’s (EU) space initiative.
Copernicus was launched in 1998 and was earlier known as the Global Monitoring for Environment and Security Programme (GMES).
The programme uses global data from satellites, and ground-based, airborne, and sea-borne measurement systems to provide environment-related information to researchers, policymakers, public authorities, international organisations, and commercial and private users to address issues related to climate change, disaster management, and agriculture, among other uses.
The space segmentuses a group of satellites, called the Sentinels and the Contributing Missions.
It is complemented by a ground segment which includes in-situ sensors that provide access to the Sentinels and Contributing Missions data.
Presently, the programme is implemented by EU member states with the support of the European Space Agency (ESA) for the space component and the European Environment Agency (EEA) for the in-situ component.
Notably, data from the Copernicus programme is freely available and accessible to all.
Active since 2012, the Copernicus EMS works on two models—on-demand mapping and early warning and monitoring—to issue warnings, risk assessments, and information on the impact of disasters worldwide, before, during, or after a crisis.
While on-demand mapping offers detailed information for specific emergencies, early warning provides critical geospatial data through monitoring and forecasts for floods, droughts, and forest fires.
How does rapid mapping work?
The Copernicus EMS on-demand rapid mapping provides geospatial information within a few hours or days of a request to support efforts in the immediate aftermath of an emergency or a disaster anywhere in the world.
It acquires, processes, and analyses satellite images, geospatial data, and relevant social media in rapid mode to provide information.
The service offersfour “products”, one pre-event reference and three post-event (first estimate, delineation, and grading).
Each comprises delivery packages, including maps and a vector package of spatial data.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/iranian-president-ebrahim-raisi-crash-copernicus-ems-rapid-response-service-search-rescue-explainer/article68195943.ece
The Scarborough Shoal is located in which one of the following water bodies?
South China Sea
Explanation :
The Philippines recently challenged China to open Scarborough Shoal to international scrutiny after it accused Beijing of destroying the shoal’s marine environment.
About Scarborough Shoal:
The Scarborough Shoal (also known in English as the Scarborough Reef) is a series of small rocks and islands which are formed into a triangle shape in the South China Sea, located some 220 kilometers from the Philippines.
The largest island features a lagoon and is around sixty square miles in area, while many of the rocks are so small they protrude only a metre or so from the sea at low tide and arecompletely submergedwhen the tide is high.
The deep waters around the shoal make it a productive fishing area, rich in marine life, and the lagoon also contains many commercially valuable shellfish and sea cucumbers.
The shoal is the source of an ongoing and, so far, unresolved dispute between the People’s Republic of Chinaand the Philippines, with both countries claiming that the shoal lies within their territory and saying they have exclusive rights to access its waters.
There are no structures built on Scarborough Shoal, but the feature is effectively controlled by China, which has maintained a constant coast guard presence at the feature since 2012.
China, which now refers to the shoal as Huangyan Island, makes a historical claim to the area, stating that they can trace their ownership of the area back to the Yuan Dynasty of the 1200s.
The Philippines claim the area on the basis of geography, as it is much closer to the Philippines’ main island of Luzon, which contains the capital, Manila, but lies over 500 miles from China.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/philippines-urges-china-to-allow-scrutiny-of-disputed-south-china-sea-shoal/articleshow/110270895.cms
Which one of the following statements best describes, ‘Pig Butchering Scam’, recently seen the news?
It is an online investment fraud by creating fake online personas
Explanation :
An online financial fraud called Pig Butchering Scams are increasing across the globe, including in India.
It is also known as a “sha zhu pan” scam, is a type of online investment fraud that involves scammers creating fake online personas to lure victims into fraudulent investment schemes.
The term “pig butchering” comes from the scammers’ practice of “fattening up” their victims by building trust over time before “slaughtering” them and stealing their money.
How it is carried out?
It all begins with the “host” contacting people online through social media, dating apps, or deceptive messages.
Once they’ve found a target, known as the “pig,” the host establishes a false sense of friendship and encourages them to explore cryptocurrency trading.
Using a fraudulent trading app, the host deceives the victim into believing they’re making profits from fabricated trades.
Gradually, as the victim’s trust grows, the host persuades them to invest more money, a tactic referred to as “fattening the pig” before the scam is revealed.
When victims attempt to withdraw their funds, the fake platform either makes excuses or imposes substantial fees, ultimately exposing the scam. Retrieving lost funds is exceedingly difficult due to the nature of blockchain transactions.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/wealth/invest/pig-butchering-stock-market-get-rich-quick-scam-telegram-instagram-whatsapp-used-to-steal-lakhs-from-investors-tactics-used-how-to-stay-safe/articleshow/110167547.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the Psychedelic drugs:
- They induce states of altered perception and behavior.
- Classical psychedelics trigger hallucinations by activating a receptor called serotonin 5-HT in human body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Driven by surge in global trials and low success rate of current medications in treating mental health problems, researchers call for home-grown clinical trials of psychedelic drugs.
These are drugs that induce states of altered perception, behaviour, consciousness and thought, often with increased awareness of the senses.
The term ‘psychedelic’ comes from two Greek words denoting mind or soul and manifesting. It is a subset of psychotropic substances that can alter a person’s thoughts and perceptions, and elicit intense hallucinations.
These are categorised into two broad categories
Classical psychedelics: These are thought to trigger hallucinations by activating a receptor called serotonin 5-HT, which is widely present in the human body, from the gastrointestinal tract to platelets to the nervous system. Examples: LSD, psilocybin and DMT
Nonclassical psychedelics: These psychedelics bind to varied receptors. Examples: ketamine and MDMA
Globally, about five psychedelics are the subject of clinical research for use in treating mental health problems: psilocybin; lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD); 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-methamphetamine (MDMA); ketamine and N, N-dimethyltryptamine (DMT).
Most psychedelics work by increasing the availability of serotonin—a mood stabilising hormone—in the brain by binding to serotonin receptors (a molecule on the cell surface that binds to a specific chemical, causing a specific effect).
The United Nations’ Convention on Psychotropic Substances, 1971, lists about 200 psychotropic substances under four schedules, with schedule I substances having the most potential for abuse. The Convention does not specify which substances, or how many, are psychedelics.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/health/a-psychedelic-high-96060
Consider the following statements with reference to the Manipuri Pony:
- It is one of the horse breed which has great adaptability to harsh geoclimatic conditions.
- It is used in traditional events like Lai haraoba and also in sports like polo.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Government of Manipur has joined hands with various organisations and associations to save the Manipuri Pony or Meitei Sagol, its fabled equine, from vanishing into the pages of history.
It is also known as Meitei Sagol and is one of the seven recognised horse and pony breeds of India.
The others include the Marwari Horse, the Kathiawari Horse, the Zanskari Pony, the Spiti Pony, the Bhutia Pony and the Kachhi-Sindhi Horse.
It is a small breed of 11 to 13 Hands, is known for its unique stamina, agility, intelligence, speed, manoeuvrability and great adaptability to harsh geoclimatic conditions.
The breed is regarded as the original polo pony as modern polo is derived from the traditional Sagol Kangjei sport of Manipur.
The ponies figure prominently in the Manipuri way of life. Besides traditional events like Lai haraoba and being used in sports like polo and horseraces.
They were also utilised as mounts by cavalry of the Manipur Kingdom which was feared throughout upper Burma during the 17th century.
Status: The Manipur government declared the Manipuri Pony as an Endangered Breed in 2013.
Factors responsible for the decline
Shrinkage of wetlands, the natural habitat of the Manipuri Pony due to rapid urbanisation and encroachment;
Lack of polo grounds/polo playing areas in rural Manipur;
Restriction of pony usage except in the game of polo;
Uncontrolled diseases; and the exodus of ponies to neighbouring states and countries.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/meitei-sagol-manipur-takes-host-of-decisions-to-save-its-fabled-equines-from-extinction-96227
Consider the following statements with reference to the Critical Tiger Habitats:
- These are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972.
- These are notified by the central government in consultation with the expert committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court has ordered the Rajasthan government to shutter 68 mines operating within a 1-kilometre periphery of the critical tiger habitat (CTH) of the Sariska reserve.
It is also known as core areas of tiger reserves—are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972.
These are based on scientific evidence that “such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers”.
The notification of CTH is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose.
Key facts about Sariska Tiger Reserve
It is located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan. It is well nestled in the Aravali Hills.
It is the first reserve in the world to successfully relocate tigers.
It is also famous for old temples, palaces, and lakes such as Pandu Pol, Bhangarh Fort, Ajabgarh, Pratapgarh, Siliserh Lake, and Jai Samand Lake.
Topography: It possesses a rocky landscape, scrub thorn arid forests, grasses, hilly cliffs, and semi deciduous wood.
Vegetation: The vegetation of Sariska corresponds to Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests and Northern Tropical Thorn Forest.
Flora: Dhok trees, salar, kadaya, gol, ber, Banyan, gugal, bamboo, kair, adusta, etc.
Fauna: A variety of other wild animals, like the leopard, sambhar, chital and nilgai etc.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-illegal-mining-in-sariska-9339325/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Port of Call:
- It is an intermediate stop for a ship on its scheduled journey for cargo operation.
- Aden and Honolulu ports are the examples of Ports of Call.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Spain has refused permission for an Israel-bound ship carrying arms to call at the southeastern port of Cartagena.
It is an intermediate stop for a ship on its scheduled journey for cargo operation or transporting supplies or fuel. It is a port where a ship stops except its home port.
These are the ports which originally developed as calling points on main sea routes where ships used to anchor for refuelling, watering and taking food items. Later on, they developed into commercial ports.
Examples: Aden, Honolulu and Singapore are good examples.
It is also called port of refuge, port of call is usually not a part of a ship’s itinerary. The vessel may “call” the said intermediate port and need a stopover due to various reasons, like:
Cargo operations (cleaning, repairs, or maintenance)
Stock up supplies (fuel, food, etc.)
Load and unload cargo
Unforeseen emergencies
Depending on the reason for stopping, port of call can also be divided into subcategories, like:
Dry harbor (for vessel maintenance), Cargo harbor (for cargo dispersal) and Fish harbor (for dropping fishes), etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.reuters.com/world/europe/spain-denied-port-call-ship-carrying-arms-israel-2024-05-16/
Which of the following can be considered final goods in an economic process?
- A packet of sugar bought for household consumption.
- A packet of tea leaves bought by a restaurant that sells tea.
- Tools, implements and machines used in a factory.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
An item that is meant for final use and will not pass through any more stages of production or transformations is called a final good. Of the final goods, we can distinguish between consumption goods and capital goods.
Goods like food and clothing and services like recreation that are consumed when purchased by their ultimate consumers are called consumption goods or consumer goods.
Then other goods are of a durable character which is used in the production process. These are tools, implements and machines. While they make the production of other commodities feasible, they don’t get transformed in the production process. They are also final goods, yet they are not final goods to be ultimately consumed. These are capital goods, and they gradually undergo wear and tear and thus are repaired or gradually replaced over time.
Goods that are used as raw material or inputs for the production of other commodities are called intermediate goods. Intermediate goods can be used in production, but they can also be consumer goods. How it is classified depends on who buys it. If a consumer buys a bag of sugar to use at home, it is a consumer good. A packet of tea leaves bought by a restaurant is an intermediate good as it passes through other stages of production, as the restaurant is involved in the business of selling tea.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to a mixed economic system:
- Private ownership and control of the means of production are common in mixed economies, but they are usually regulated by the government.
- Mixed economies may nationalise select industries deemed essential or that produce public goods.
- In a mixed economy, the government may seek to redistribute wealth to promote social objectives.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
A mixed economic system is a system that combines aspects of both capitalism and socialism. A mixed economic system protects private property and allows a level of economic freedom in the use of capital, but also allows for governments to interfere in economic activities to achieve social aims. Thus, mixed economies typically maintain private ownership and control of most of the means of production, but often under government regulation. So, statement 1 is correct.
Mixed economies may nationalise select industries deemed essential or that produce public goods. Public goods are those goods and services which look essential from the perspective of social justice and well-being for the people; Eg: Education, healthcare, sanitation, drinking water… So, statement 2 is correct.
In a mixed economy, the government may seek to redistribute wealth by taxing the private sector, and using funds from taxes to promote social objectives. Trade protection, subsidies, targeted tax credits, fiscal stimulus, and public-private partnerships are common examples of government intervention in mixed economies. These unavoidably generate economic distortions but are instruments to achieve specific goals that may succeed despite their distortionary effect. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is considered as a Flow Variable?
- Foreign Debt
- Depreciation
- Inventories
- Imports
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Flow Variables:
A flow is a quantity that is measured with reference to a time. Thus, flows are defined with reference to a specific period (length of time), e.g., hours, days, weeks, months or years.
All economic variables which have time dimension, i.e., whose magnitude can be measured over a period of time, are called flow variables. For instance, the income of a person is a flow which is earned during a week or a month or any other period.
Other examples of flows are: expenditure, savings, depreciation, interest, exports, imports, change in inventories (not mere inventories), change in money supply, lending, borrowing, rent, profit, etc. because the magnitude (size) of all these are measured over a period of time.
Stock Variables:
A stock is a quantity which is measurable at a particular point of time, e.g., 4 p.m., 5th December, Sunday, 2021, etc. Capital is a stock variable. On a particular date (say, 5th December, 2021), a country owns and commands stock of machines, buildings, accessories, raw materials, etc. It is stock of capital. Like a balance-sheet, a stock has a reference to a particular date on which it shows stock position. Clearly, a stock has no time dimension (length of time) as against a flow which has time dimension.
Thus, wealth is a stock since it can be measured at a point of time, but income is a flow because it can be measured over a period of time. Examples of stocks are: wealth, foreign debts, loan, inventories (not change in inventories), opening stock, money supply (amount of money), population, etc.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are the characteristics of Monopoly Structure?
- One seller in the market
- No substitute for the commodity sold in the market
- Small number of large firms
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The market structure called monopoly exists where there is exactly one seller in any market. So, option 1 is correct.
A commodity market has a monopoly structure, if there is one seller of the commodity, the commodity has no substitute, and entry into the industry by another firm is prevented. So, option 2 is correct.
Monopolistic competition in a commodity market arises due to the commodity being non-homogenous. Oligopoly in a commodity market occurs when there are a small number of firms producing a homogenous commodity. So, option 3 is not correct.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about Giffen Goods:
- A Giffen good is a high-quality luxury product whose demand decreases when prices rise.
- Demand for Giffen goods is heavily influenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A Giffen good is a low income, non-luxury product that defies standard economic and consumer demand theory. Demand for Giffen goods rises when the price rises and falls when the price falls. In econometrics, this results in an upward-sloping demand curve, contrary to the fundamental laws of demand which create a downward sloping demand curve.
A Veblen good is a good for which demand increases as the price increases, because of its exclusive nature and appeal as a status symbol. A Veblen good has an upward-sloping demand curve, which runs counter to the typical downward-sloping curve. However, a Veblen good is generally a high-quality, coveted product, in contrast to a Giffen good, which is an inferior product that does not have easily available substitutes. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Demand for Giffen goods is heavily influenced by a lack of close substitutes and income pressures. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Laffer Curve:
- It shows the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.
- It is based on the economic idea that increasing tax rates will always lead to an increase in total tax revenue.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Laffer Curve describes the relationship between tax rates and total tax revenue, with an optimal tax rate that maximizes total government tax revenue. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Laffer Curve is based on the economic idea that people will adjust their behaviour in the face of the incentives created by income tax rates. Higher-income tax rates decrease the incentive to work and invest compared to lower rates. If this effect is large enough, it means that at some tax rate, and further increase in the rate will actually lead to a decrease in total tax revenue. For every type of tax, there is a threshold rate above which the incentive to produce more diminishes, thereby reducing the amount of revenue the government receives. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statement:
- Inferior goods due to their quality become more desirable as the standard of living of consumers increases.
- Veblen goods are high-quality goods whose demand increases with an increase in price.
- Demand for Giffen goods increases even when their prices rise, regardless of a consumer’s standard of living.
- Demand for Normal goods will rise with the increase in the standard of living of consumers.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An inferior good is a type of good whose demand declines when income rises. In other words, the demand for inferior goods is inversely related to the income of the consumer. It has no relation to the quality of goods. For example, there are two commodities in the economy – wheat flour and jowar flour – and consumers are consuming both. If the income of consumers rises, then he would be more inclined towards wheat flour, which is a little more costly than jowar flour. The mindset of the consumer behind this behaviour is that now he can afford wheat flour because of his increase in income. Therefore, he will switch his flour demand from jowar to wheat. Hence jowar, whose demand has fallen due to an increase in income, is the inferior good and wheat is the normal good. So, statement 1 is not correct.
A Veblen good is a type of luxury goods, for which the demand for good increases as the price increases, in apparent contradiction of the law of demand, resulting in an upward-sloping demand curve. These are goods with which people attach pride & serve as a status symbol. For example – possessing the latest iPhone, super-exclusive Nike sneakers, Rolls Royce cars, etc. So, statement 2 is correct.
Giffen goods are a product that people consume more of as the price rises and vice versa—violating the basic law of demand in microeconomics. The concept of Giffen goods focuses on low income, non-luxury products that have very few close substitutes. Giffen goods can be compared to Veblen goods which similarly defy standard economic and consumer demand theory but focus on luxury goods. Examples of Giffen goods can include bread, rice, and wheat. These goods are commonly essentials with few near-dimensional substitutes at the same price levels. So, statement 3 is correct.
A normal good is a good that experiences an increase in its demand due to a rise in consumers’ income. Normal goods have a positive correlation between income and demand. Examples of normal goods include food staples, clothing, and household appliances. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR) technique:
- It involves no nursery preparation or transplantation of paddy saplings.
- It eliminates the need for applying chemical pesticides to crops.
- Its adoption reduces the emission of methane from the paddy fields.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
In traditional paddy transplanting, farmers prepare nurseries where the paddy seeds are first sown and raised into young plants. These seedlings are then uprooted and replanted 25-35 days later in the main field. Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR) is a method under which pre-germinated seeds are directly drilled into the field by a tractor-powered machine.
There is no nursery preparation or transplantation involved in this method. The seeds are instead directly drilled into the field by a tractor-powered machine. So, statement 1 is correct.
Paddy growth is compromised by weeds that compete for nutrition, sunlight and water. Water prevents the growth of weeds by denying them oxygen in the submerged stage, whereas the soft ‘aerenchyma tissues’ in paddy plants allow air to penetrate through their roots. Water, thus, acts as a herbicide for paddy. The threat from weeds recedes once tillering is over; so does the need to flood the fields. In DSR, water is replaced by real chemical herbicides. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Additional Information:
There are two kinds. The first is called pre-emergent, i.e. applied before germination. In this case, the pre-emergent herbicide used is Pendimethalin. (The Punjab Agricultural University (PAU) in Ludhiana has developed a ‘Lucky Seed Drill’ that can both sow seeds and simultaneously spray herbicides to control weeds. This machine is different from the more popular ‘Happy Seeder’, used to directly sow wheat on combine-harvested paddy fields containing leftover stubble and loose straw.) that sows paddy can also spray the chemical.
The second set of herbicides is post-emergent, sprayed 20-25 days after sowing, depending upon the type of weeds appearing. They include Bispyribac-sodium and Fenoxaprop-p-ethyl.
Direct seeding of pre-germinated rice has resulted in reduced methane emissions due to a shorter flooding period and decreased soil disturbance compared to transplanting rice seedlings. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Agristack, recently seen in the news is
a collection of technology-based interventions in agriculture
Explanation :
The Department of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare has constituted a High-Level Task Force, which is in the process of finalising the “India Digital Ecosystem of Agriculture (IDEA) report. The Task Force invited comments from subject experts, farmers, Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs) and the general public and considered them. Based on this, the Department is in the process of finalising a framework for creating Agristack in the country, which will serve as a foundation to build innovative agri-focused solutions leveraging digital technologies to contribute effectively toward increasing the income of farmers and improve the efficiency of the Agriculture sector in the country.
Once finalised, this can serve as a foundation to build innovative agri-focused solutions leveraging technologies to contribute effectively towards increasing the income of farmers and improve farm efficiency/efficiency of the Agriculture sector in the country with an overall goal of Doubling Farmers’ Incomes. A federated farmers’ database is being built by the Department and once completed, this would serve as the core of the Agristack.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the concept of ‘Constitutionalism,’ consider the following statements:
- Its essence is reflected in the principle of limited government.
- Constitutionalism is inherent in all countries having constitutions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Constitutionalism is “a complex of ideas, attitudes, and patterns of behaviour elaborating the principle that the authority of government derives from and is limited by a body of fundamental law.” Constitutionalism essentially means limited government or limitation on government. It is the antithesis of arbitrary powers. The absence of it will lead to despotism. So, statement 1 is correct.
A country may have a constitution but not necessarily constitutionalism. For instance, a constitution that confers unlimited powers on a dictator lacks constitutionalism. So, such a country has a constitution but not constitutionalism as there are no limitations on the government. a constitution ought not merely to confer powers on the various organs of the government, but also seek to restrain these powers. It recognizes the need for the government but insists on limitations being placed upon governmental powers. It envisages checks and balances and puts the powers of the legislature and executive under some restraints. For example, in India, the powers of the parliament have been conferred by the constitution. Now, since our constitution is of a written nature, therefore, it clearly specifies what the parliament can and cannot do. It is due to the written nature of our constitution that the Indian parliament is not sovereign, unlike the British parliament which is sovereign primarily due to the unwritten nature of the British constitution. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the statements regarding the Indian Constitution is not correct?
It provides for complete separation between the religion and the state.
Explanation :
The Constitution of India establishes a federal system of Government. However, the term ‘Federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Article 1, on the other hand, describes India as a ‘Union of States.
The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the Constitutions of various other countries and the Government of India Act of 1935. Various features borrowed from the South African Constitution are the procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of the Rajya Sabha.
The Directive Principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India. However, unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are non-justiciable, that is, they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. Yet, the Constitution itself declares that ‘these principles are fundamental in the country’s governance and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’.
The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion (the church) and the state (the politics). This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multireligious. Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally. In other words, Indian secularism does not require a total separation of religion from State affairs.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to functions performed by the Constituent Assembly of India:
- It ratified India’s membership of the United Nations in 1949.
- It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India in 1950.
- It adopted the National flag in 1947.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions:
It ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.
It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. So, statement 3 is correct.
It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950.
It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950.
It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. So, statement 2 is correct
India is a founding member of the United Nations. On June 26, 1945, India was among 50 countries to sign the UN charter. India joined the United Nations after ratifying the UN Charter on October 30, 1945. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen by indirect election.
- The introduction of universal suffrage in the Constitution was passed without any debate.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen by indirect election by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies that had been established under the Government of India Act, 1935. The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the plan proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission. So, statement 1 is correct.
Only one provision of the Constitution was passed without virtually any debate: the introduction of universal suffrage (meaning that all citizens reaching a certain age, would be entitled to be voters irrespective of religion, caste, education, gender or income). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore option (d) is the answer
With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
- The Indian Constitution was subjected to a full-fledged referendum.
- The original Constitution was not printed but handwritten and in calligraphic form both in Hindi and English.
- The Constitution was passed on 26 November 1949 with the signature of all the Constituent Assembly members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Some countries have subjected their Constitution to a full-fledged referendum, where all the people vote on the desirability of a Constitution. The Indian Constitution was never subject to such a referendum, but nevertheless carried enormous public authority, because it had the consensus and backing of leaders who were themselves popular. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Our Constitution was not printed but handwritten and calligraphic both in Hindi and English. It was completely handcrafted by the artists of Shantiniketan with the guidance of Acharya Nandala Bose and the calligraphy texts made by Prem Behari Narain Raizada in Delhi. So, statement 2 is correct.
284 members out of a total 299 were actually present on 26 November 1949 and appended their signature to the Constitution as finally passed. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer
2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Provisions borrowed from Constitutions of different countries:
British Constitution
First Past the Post
Parliamentary Form of Government
The idea of the rule of law
Institution of the Speaker and his role and Law Making procedure
United States Constitution
Charter of Fundamental Rights
Power of Judicial Review and independence of the judiciary
Irish Constitution
Directive Principles of State Policy
French Constitution
Principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
Canadian Constitution
A quasi-federal form of government (a federal system with a strong central government)
The idea of Residual Powers
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer
Consider the following statements with reference to the Objectives Resolution:
- It was introduced by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on 13th December 1946.
- It stated that India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other parts outside British India, that are willing to be part of India
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The best summary of the principles that the nationalist movement brought to the Constituent Assembly is the Objectives Resolution (the resolution that defined the aims of the Assembly) moved by Nehru in 1946. This Resolution encapsulated the aspirations and values behind the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
Main points of the Objectives Resolution:
India is an independent, sovereign, republic;
India shall be a Union of erstwhile British Indian territories, Indian States, and other parts outside British India and Indian States as are willing to be a part of the Union; So, statement 2 is correct.
Territories forming the Union shall be autonomous units and exercise all powers and functions of the Government and administration, except those assigned to or vested in the Union;
All powers and authority of sovereign and independent India and its constitution shall flow from the people;
All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental freedoms - of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action - subject to law and public morality;
The minorities, backward and tribal areas, depressed and other backward classes shall be provided adequate safeguards;
The territorial integrity of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air shall be maintained according to justice and law of civilized nations;
The land would make full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and welfare of mankind
Therefore option (d) is the answer
2 and 4 only
Explanation :
Indian Councils Act of 1892 increased the functions of legislative councils and gave them the power of discussing the budget and addressing questions to the executive. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
Charter Act of 1853 separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council. It provided for the addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s legislative council, which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. It introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. Of the six new legislative members of the Governor General’s council, four members were appointed by the local (provincial) governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal and Agra. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Indian Councils Act of 1861 empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council. It also gave recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s). So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Government of India Act of 1919 introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian legislative council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). The majority of members of both the Houses were chosen by direct election. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following correctly defines the term Republic?
It is a form of government in which supreme power is held by the people and their elected representatives.
Explanation :
Republic is a form of Government in which a state is ruled by representatives of the citizen body. Modern republics are founded on the idea that sovereignty rests with the people, though who is included and excluded from the category of the people has varied across history. Because citizens do not govern the state themselves, but through representatives, republics may be distinguished from direct democracy, though modern representative democracies are by and large republics. The term republic may also be applied to any form of government where the head of state is not a hereditary monarch.
Thus, Republic is a government in which supreme power resides in a body of citizens entitled to vote and is exercised by elected officers and representatives responsible to them and governing according to law.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the statements given below is not correct with respect to the idea of Sovereignty embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
Indian Parliament has absolute power to make laws regarding internal matters.
Explanation :
The term ‘Sovereign’ which is proclaimed by the Preamble means that India has its own independent authority and it is not a dominion of any other external power. There is no authority above it, and it is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal and external). Thus, India is free to join any multilateral alliances.
Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.
Although India being a Sovereign country, the power of the Indian Parliament to make laws is not absolute but limited by the Constitution. Its powers are curbed by the various administrative details—Part III of the Constitution pertaining to the Fundamental Rights) and the State List in Schedule VII. This limitation is implemented by entrusting power of judicial review to the Courts. Thus, in India there is no parliament sovereignty rather there is constitutional sovereignty.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Constitution:
- It derives its ultimate authority from the Parliament.
- Original Constitution provided for a three-tier polity.
- The Indian Constitution provides the Constitutions of both the Union and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
The Constitution draws its authority from the people and has been promulgated in the name of the people. This is evident from the Preamble which states “We the people of India …. do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.” So, statement 1 is not correct.
Originally, the Indian Constitution, like any other federal Constitution, provided for a dual polity and contained provisions with regard to the organization and powers of the Centre and the states. Later, the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts (1992) have added a third-tier of Government (i.e., local) which is not found in any other Constitution of the world. So, statement 2 is not correct.
While the Constitution of the United States deals only with the Federal Government and leaves the States to draw up their own Constitutions, the Indian Constitution provides the Constitutions of both the Union and the Units (i.e., the states), with the same fullness and precision. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The Constitution of India is called a ‘living document’ for which one of the following reasons?
It can accommodate the changing needs of society.
Explanation :
The Constitution of India accepts the necessity of modifications according to changing needs of the society. Secondly, in the actual working of the Constitution, there has been enough flexibility of interpretations. Both political practice and judicial rulings have shown maturity and flexibility in implementing the Constitution. These factors have made our Constitution a living document rather than a closed and static rulebook.
The fact that our Constitution is a balance between rigidity and flexibility which enables us to sustain the core basic structure while amending the rest of the structure according to the changes in the society is proof that our Constitution is not only a living document but also a means to steer towards the path of advancement.
The provisions related to Right To Education, Amending Article 370, Goods and Service Tax, National Commission of Backward Classes or the judgments related to the right to privacy, section 377, triple talaq or the NOTA judgment, show that just like Darwin pointed out that ‘it is not the strongest of the species that survive, nor the most intelligent, but the one most responsive to change’, similarly only with change and adaptation can our democracy survive.
The Constitution is not merely a lengthy legal document but a charter of values and principles; a dream of a free, just, and equal society.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Independence Act of 1947:
- The Act was based on the June 3 Plan for the independence and partition of India.
- It altered the status of India from a Dependency of the British Crown to that of an Independent Republic.
- It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty relations with tribal areas from August 15, 1947.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
On February 20, 1947, British Prime Minister Clement Atlee declared that the British rule in India would end by June 30, 1948; after which the power would be transferred to responsible Indian hands. This announcement was followed by the agitation by the Muslim League demanding partition of the country. Again, on June 3, 1947, the British Government made it clear that any Constitution framed by the Constituent Assembly of India (formed in 1946) cannot apply to those parts of the country which were unwilling to accept it. On the same day (June 3, 1947), Lord Mountbatten, the Viceroy of India, put forth the partition plan, known as the Mountbatten Plan (also known as the 3 June Plan). The plan was accepted by Congress and the Muslim League. Immediate effect was given to the plan by enacting the Indian Independence Act. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Act ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947. It provided for the partition of India and the creation of two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth. Therefore, Indian Independence Act of 1947 altered the status of India from a Dependency of the British Crown to that of the Dominion of India. India declared itself a Sovereign, Democratic and Republic state with the adoption of the Constitution on January 26, 1950. This day was recognised as the Republic Day of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Under the Act, neither of the two dominions of India and Pakistan derived its authority from the British crown. It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty relations with tribal areas from August 15, 1947. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- M. N. Roy was the first to demand a Constituent Assembly for India in 1934.
- Indian National Congress, for the first time, made a formal demand for a Constituent Assembly at its Tripuri Session in 1939.
- The demand for Constituent Assembly was finally accepted by the British under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
M.N. Roy was the first to demand a Constituent Assembly for India in 1934. So, statement 1 is correct.
A year later, the Indian National Congress made this a formal demand in a resolution that rejected a British proposal (‘White Paper’) on constitutional reforms for India - which would later become the Government of India Act 1935. The resolution stated that ‘the only satisfactory alternative to the White Paper is a constitution drawn by a Constituent Assembly elected based on adult suffrage or as near it as possible…’. In the years that followed, this demand for a Constituent Assembly was reiterated in a range of Congress Party resolutions and in its leaders’ speeches at various forums. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The demand for Constituent Assembly was finally accepted by the British in what is known as the August Offer of 1940. It stated that after World War II, a Constituent Assembly will be formed comprising mainly Indians. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constituent Assembly of India:
- Around 20% of the assembly members were women.
- The Drafting Committee of the assembly took almost three years to prepare its first draft of the new Constitution.
- The Assembly was dissolved on January 24, 1950, after its final session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
None of the above
Explanation :
The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389, of which 292 were representatives of the provinces, 93 represented the princely states and four were from the chief commissioner provinces of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British Baluchistan.
The elections for the 296 seats assigned to the British Indian provinces were completed by August 1946. The majority of the members elected to the Constituent Assembly were male Hindus. However, there were 15 women representatives to the Assembly, and all major religious communities were represented by at least two members from each community. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, the most important committee was the Drafting Committee set up on August 29, 1947. The Drafting Committee, after taking into consideration the proposals of the various committees, prepared the first draft of the Constitution of India, which was published in February, 1948. The Drafting Committee took less than six months to prepare its draft. In all, it sat only for 141 days. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The motion on Draft Constitution was declared as passed on November 26, 1949, and received the signatures of the members and the president. On January 24, 1950, the Constituent Assembly held its final session. It, however, did not end and continued as the provisional parliament of India from January 26, 1950, till the formation of new Parliament after the first general election in 1951-52. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following with reference to the composition of the Constituent Assembly:
The system of communal representation was abandoned while electing the members of the provincial legislative assembly.
The Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body.
Gandhiji was elected unopposed into the Constituent Assembly, with the support of the Muslim League.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
2 only
Explanation :
The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited franchise. The representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states. It is thus clear that the Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time, with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi and M A Jinnah. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
The PM-WANI Scheme, recently seen in the news primarily aims to:
provide affordable and high-speed internet connectivity to the public in remote areas
Explanation :
Public wifi hotspots under the Prime Minister Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI) scheme are nearing the 2-lakh mark in the country.
About PM-WANI Scheme:
It was launched by the Department of Telecommunication (DoT) in December 2020 to provide affordable and high-speed internet connectivity to the public in rural and remote areas of the country.
The scheme aims to establish a public Wi-Fi network across the country through the creation of Wi-Fi Access Points (WAPs) set up by public data offices (PDOs).
The WAPs will operate on an open-architecture system, allowing multiple service providers to offer their services to the public through a single platform.
PM-WANI ecosystem: It consists of four parts: Public Data Office (PDO), Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA), App Provider, and Central Registry.
PDO establishes Wi-Fi hotspots and provides internet access to users. There shall be no license required by PDOs from the DoT for providing broadband Internet through these public Wi-Fi networks.
PDOA provides authorisation and accounting services to PDOs. PDOA provides user interface for the user to buy a plan and keep track of their data consumption. PDOA need not pay any license fees.
The small shopkeepers can become PDOs as last-mile access service providers and take services from PDOAs for Internet and backend services.
App Provider, who will develop an application to register users, and ‘discover’ and display PM-WANI Wi-Fi hotspots in proximity for accessing the internet service, and also authenticate the potential broadband users. Startups and wallet providers can become App Providers.
The central registry overseen by the Centre for Development of Telematics maintains details of App Providers, PDOs, and PDOAs.
How can you access the PM-WANI internet?
To access public hotspots under the PM-WANI scheme, one needs to download a relevant app which shows the available networks.
The user can then choose from a list of available connections and make a payment to use the network.
The user can access the network till his/her balance is exhausted.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://business.outlookindia.com/personal-finance-news/public-wifi-hotspots-near-2-lakh-mark-under-pm-wani-how-to-use-internet-economically-while-travelling
With reference to the X-Chromosome, consider the following statements:
- It is one of the two sex chromosomes in humans.
- Males typically have two X chromosomes, while females typically have one X and one Y chromosome.
- Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with X-Chromosome.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists have found a molecular link between altered X-chromosome inactivation and autoimmune diseases.
About X-Chromosome:
It is one of the two sex chromosomes in humans (the other is the Y chromosome).
There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in the human body. This includes 22 pairs of autosomal or somatic chromosomes that are common to both men and women and one chromosome that differs according to what gender a person is (sex chromosomes).
Each person usually has one pair of sex chromosomes in each cell. Females typically have two X chromosomes, while males typically have one X and one Y chromosome.
Men inherit the X chromosome they have from their mother and the Y chromosome from their father, while women inherit one X chromosome from the mother and the other from the father.
In women, the X chromosome represents almost 5% of the total DNA, and in men, who have only one X chromosome, it represents about 2.5% of the total DNA.
Early in the embryonic development of people with two X chromosomes, one of the X chromosomes is randomly and permanently inactivated in cells other than egg cells. This phenomenon is called X-inactivation or lyonization.
X-inactivation ensures that people with two X chromosomes have only one functional copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
Because X-inactivation is random, normally, the X chromosome inherited from one parent is active in some cells, and the X chromosome inherited from the other parent is active in other cells.
The X chromosome likely contains 900 to 1,400 genes that provide instructions for making proteins.
Genetic disorders that arise from missing, additional, or malformed copies of the X chromosome are termed numerical disorders.
Examples include Klinefelter’s syndrome, where a male has one or more extra copies; Triple X syndrome, where a female has one extra copy and Turner syndrome, where a female has one normal X chromosome and one missing or abnormal one.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/x-chromosome-revival-in-older-women-ups-autoimmune-disease-risk/article68199496.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC):
- No person, in any case, shall be detained as an undertrial for more than the maximum period of imprisonment provided for the said offence under that law.
- A person who has spent one third of the maximum period of the prescribed sentence as an undertrial shall be released on bail.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court (SC) recently reiterated that the benefit of Section 436A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) is also applicable to those accused of money laundering.
About Section 436A of the CrPC:
It was introduced in the CrPC, 1973, vide an amendment in 2005.
As per Section 436A CrPC, a person who has spent one half of the maximum period of the prescribed sentence as an undertrial shall be released on bail.
It states that where a person has, during the period of investigation, inquiry, or trial under the CrPC, 1973, of an offence under any law (not being an offence for which the punishment of death has been specified as one of the punishments under that law) undergone detention for a period extending up to one-half of the maximum period of imprisonment specified for that offence under that law, he shall be released by the Court on his personal bond with or without sureties.
Provided that the Court may, after hearing the Public Prosecutor and for reasons to be recorded by it in writing, order the continued detention of such person for a period longer than one-half of the said period or release him on bail instead of the personal bond with or without sureties.
Provided further that no such person shall, in any case, be detained during the period of investigation, inquiry, or trial for more than the maximum period of imprisonment provided for the said offence under that law.
In computing the period of detention under this Section for granting bail, the period of detention passed due to delay in proceeding caused by the accused shall be excluded.
The SC held that Section 436A would apply to the Special Acts also in the absence of any specific provision.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/pmla-undertial-bail-supreme-court-9343306/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Bharal or Blue Sheep:
- It is endemic to the Western Himalayas.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Wildlife authorities in Himachal Pradesh’s high altitude, cold desert district of Lahaul & Spiti have started surveys as part of census to estimate the population of blue sheep or bharal and the Himalayan ibex, the main prey of the iconic snow leopard.
About Bharal:
The bharal, also called the blue sheep, is a caprine native to the high Himalayas.
Scientific Name: Pseudois nayaur
It is the only member of the genus Pseudois.
Distribution: It occurs in India, Bhutan, China (in Gansu, Ningxia, Sichuan, Tibet, and Inner Mongolia), Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan.
Features:
These medium-sized caprids are 115 to 165 cm (45 to 65 in) long along the head and body, with a tail of 10 to 20 cm (3.9 to 7.9 in).
They stand 69 to 91 cm (27 to 36 in) high at the shoulder.
Males are slightly larger than females.
The short, dense coat is slate grey in colour, sometimes with a bluish shine. The underparts and backs of the legs are white, while the chest and fronts of the legs are black.
It has horns that grow upwards, curve out, and then towards the back, somewhat like an upside-down.
Bharal are active throughout the day, alternating between feeding and resting on the grassy mountain slopes.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule 1
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/census-exercise-begins-in-himachal-s-cold-desert-lahaul-spiti-district-to-estimate-blue-sheep-himalayan-ibex-96259
With reference to the International Criminal Court (ICC), consider the following statements:
- It is a permanent judicial body established by the United Nations to investigate, prosecute, and try individuals.
- India is a signatory to the Rome Statute, the ICC’s founding treaty.
- The ICC may only exercise its jurisdiction if the national court is unable or unwilling to do so.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The International Criminal Court’s (ICC) prosecutor is seeking arrest warrants for Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu, Defence Minister Yoav Gallant, and three Hamas leaders for war crimes.
About International Criminal Court (ICC):
It is a permanent judicial body established by the Rome Statute (1998) to investigate, prosecute, and try individuals accused of genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression, and to impose prison sentences upon individuals who are found guilty of such crimes.
Background: The court’s founding treaty, the Rome Statute, was adopted in July 1998, and the court began work in 2003.
HQ: Hague, Netherlands.
Members: 123 nations are States Parties to the Rome Statute and recognize the ICC’s authority. The notable exceptions being the US, China, Russia, and India.
Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from the States Parties and by voluntary contributions from Governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
Composition:
Judges: The Court has eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to nonrenewable nine-year terms.
The Presidency: Consists of three judges (the President and two Vice-Presidents) elected from among the judges. It represents the Court to the outside world and helps with the organization of the work of the judges.
Judicial Divisions: 18 judges in 3 divisions, the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division.
Office of the Prosecutor (OTP): OTP is responsible for receiving referrals and any substantiated information on crimes within the jurisdiction of the Court. OTP examines these referrals and information, conducts investigations, and conducts prosecutions before the Court.
Registry: The core function of the Registry is to provide administrative and operational support to the Chambers and the OTP.
Jurisdiction of ICC:
Unlike the International Court of Justice, which hears disputes between states, the ICC handles prosecutions of individuals.
The ICC is only competent to hear a case if:
the country where the offence was committed is a party to the Rome Statute; or
the perpetrator’s country of origin is a party to the Rome Statute.
The ICC may only exercise its jurisdiction if the national court is unable or unwilling to do so.
The ICC only has jurisdiction over offences committed after the Statute’s entry into force on 1 July 2002.
Relation with United Nations (UN):
While not a UN organization, the Court has a cooperation agreement with the UN.
When a situation is not within the Court’s jurisdiction, the UN Security Council can refer the situation to the ICC, granting it jurisdiction.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/diplomacy/international-criminal-court-seeks-arrest-warrants-for-netanyahu-hamas-leaders-over-war-crimes/2094200/
Emblica chakrabartyi, recently seen in the news is a species of:
plant
Explanation :
Recently, scientists have reported the discovery of a new plant species Emblica chakrabartyi from Adichilthotti within the Edamalayar forest range of Kerala.
The species belonging to the gooseberry (Phyllanthaceae) family, has been named after Tapas Chakrabarty, former scientist at the Botanical Survey of India, for his contribution to the study on Phyllanthaceae.
Features
The plant attains a height of approximately 2 metres. The leaves are large with a shiny elongated oval shape of up to 13 cm.
The flowering and fruiting occur during December to June. Male flowers are found in inflorescence whereas females ones are in single, on the leaf axils.
Each flower bears yellowish green coloured six petals. The fruits are brown to black when they ripen and the seeds are black about 8-9 mm diameter.
Generally growing as shrubs in tropical rain forests, 55 species of the genus Emblica have been recorded all around the world.The new plant is the eleventh from India.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-plant-species-discovered-from-edamalayar-forest-range/article68196865.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Aircraft Turbulence:
- It is disruption of airflow over the wings of an airplane which makes it to enter irregular vertical motion.
- Mechanical turbulence occurs when tall solid objects such as mountains disrupt the normal airflow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, one passenger died of a suspected heart attack and 30 others were injured after a Singapore Airlines flight from London to Singapore hit severe turbulence.
Turbulence means disruption of airflow over the wings of an airplane, which causes it to enter irregular vertical motion.
These pockets of disturbed air can have many causes, most obviously the unstable weather patterns that trigger storms.
There are at least seven kinds of turbulence that an aircraft can run into:
Wind Shear: It happens when there is a sudden change in wind direction, whether vertically or horizontally. Typically occurs close to thunderstorms, jet streams, etc.; tricky for pilots as tailwinds suddenly change to headwinds or vice versa.
Frontal: Created in the frontal zone when warm air is lifted by sloping frontal surface and friction between opposing air masses. Most palpable when warm air is moist; intensity increases with thunderstorms. Most common close to thunderstorms.
Convective: When land surface temperature rises, the air above the ground heats up and rises, creating air pockets around it. Convection currents cause difficulties during approach as they tend to affect the rate of descent.
Wake: It forms behind an aircraft when it flies through air-creating wingtip vortices.
Mechanical: This type of turbulence occurs when tall solid objects such as mountains or highrise constructions disrupt the normal airflow, causing the air for planes to fly through to become dirty.
Clear air: It occurs when an aircraft crosses from one air mass to another, which has a different direction. Clear air turbulence could also happen when an aircraft moves out of a jet stream. Clear air turbulence is mainly caused by wind or jet streams.
Mountain view: It is one of the most severe; these are oscillations that form on the downwind side of mountains when strong winds flow towards mountains in a perpendicular fashion. Aircraft tracking perpendicularly across, or downwind of a mountain, may experience sudden loss of altitude followed by a sudden reduction in airspeed.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-aircraft-turbulence-and-how-common-is-it-explainer/article68201559.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Booker Prize:
- It is awarded annually for the finest single work of fiction from around the world translated into English and published in the United Kingdom.
- It is awarded only to the authors who belong to the United Kingdom.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Kairos’ by Jenny Erpenbeck, translated by Michael Hofmann, has won the International Booker Prize 2024.
It is awarded annually for the finest single work of fiction from around the world which has been translated into English and published in the UK and/or Ireland.
This prize began life in 2005 as the Man Booker International Prize.
It was initially a biennial prize for a body of work, and there was no stipulation that the work should be written in a language other than English.
This prize aims to encourage more reading of quality fiction from all over the world,and has already had an impact on those statistics in the UK.
Eligibility: Eligible work of long-form fiction, written originally in English by an author of any nationality, and published in the UK and/or Ireland.
Prize money
The prize celebrates the vital work of translators, with the £50,000 prize money divided equally between the author and the translator.
In addition, the shortlisted authors and translators each receive £2,500.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/books/jenny-erpenbecks-kairos-wins-the-international-booker-prize-2024/article68201642.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Rangelands:
- These are category of Earth’s land cover consisting mostly of the natural grasslands.
- They include tallgrass prairies and steppes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The recently published report, “Global Land Outlook Thematic Report on Rangelands and Pastoralists” by the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification highlighted that rangelands are facing a ‘silent demise’.
The rangelands are category of Earth’s land cover consisting mostly of the natural grasslands used by livestock and wild animals to graze and forage.
The vegetation of ranges may include tallgrass prairies, steppes (shortgrass prairies), desert shrublands, shrub woodlands, savannas, chaparrals, and tundras.
Rangelands are the “Wild Open Spaces” that cover about half of the earth’s land surface and half of western North America.
Reasons for degradation
The problem is driven largely by converting pastures to cropland and other land use changes due to population growth and urban expansion,
Rapidly rising food, fibre and fuel demands, excessive grazing, abandonment and policies that incentivise overexploitation.
Significance of Rangelands
These are used for livestock forage, wildlife habitat, water, mineral resources, wood products, wildland recreation, open space and natural beauty.
These are an important economic engine in many countries and define cultures. Home to one quarter of the world’s languages, they also host numerous World Heritage Sites and have shaped the value systems, customs and identities of pastoralists for thousands of years.
Two billion people – small-scale herders, ranchers and farmers, often poor and marginalised – depend on healthy rangelands worldwide.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/rangelands-are-facing-a-silent-demise-suffering-losses-as-high-as-50–96257
With reference to Naegleria fowleri, consider the following statements:
- It is a free-living amoeba found in lakes and rivers.
- It mainly lives in cold water regions around the world.
- It causes a rare infection called Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a five-year-old girl undergoing treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM), a rare infection caused by Naegleria fowleri or “brain-eating amoeba”, died at the Government Medical College Hospital in Kozhikode.
It is a free-living amoeba or a single-celled living organism.
It lives in warm fresh water and soil around the world, and infects people when it enters the body through the nose.
Higher temperatures of up to 115°F (46°C) are conducive to its growth and it can survive for short periods in warm environments.
The amoeba can be found in warm freshwater, such as lakes and rivers, swimming pools, splash pads, surf parks, or other recreational venues that are poorly maintained or minimally chlorinated.
It enters the body through the nose, usually when people are swimming. It then travels up to the brain, where it destroys the brain tissue and causes swelling.
Key facts about Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis
It is a rare brain infection that is caused by Naegleria fowleri.
It is also non-communicable.
Notably, people cannot get infected with Naegleria fowleri from drinking water contaminated with the amoeba.
Symptoms
In the initial stage, the symptoms include headache, fever, nausea and vomiting. Later on, the patient may have a stiff neck and experience confusion, seizures, hallucinations and slip into a state of coma.
Most people with PAM die within 1 to 18 days after symptoms begin. It usually leads to coma and death after 5 days.”
Treatment
Scientists haven’t been able to identify any effective treatments for the disease yet.
At present, doctors treat it with a combination of drugs, including amphotericin B, azithromycin, fluconazole, rifampin, miltefosine, and dexamethasone.
Hence only statement 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/naegleria-fowleri-brain-eating-amoeba-9342534/
4) What is C295 Transport Aircraft?
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling ,VIP transport and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload or as many as 71 troops at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In September 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025 and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Sources: https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/an-overview-of-section-498-a-of-ipc
https://www.international-divorce.com/Indias-Notorious-Section-498A.htm
https://blog.ipleaders.in/section-498a-ipc/
https://lawrato.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/offences-under-ipc-section-498a-bailable-or-not
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-12725-section-498a-ipc-unraveling-misuse-and-relevant-case-laws.html
https://www.lawtendo.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/what-is-section-498a-of-ipc/64bce053c302e71eadbe30d6/
ImageLink: https://airbusus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/C295-3.jpg
The Ujani Dam, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following States?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
Six persons, including two children, drowned after their boat capsized in the Ujani dam backwaters in Maharashtra’s Pune district recently.
About Ujani Dam:
It is located on the Bhima River near Ujjani village in Solapur district of the state of Maharashtra.
It is an earth-fill cum masonry gravity dam.
It was constructed between 1977 and 1980 with the primary objective of providing irrigation water and hydroelectric power to the region.
With a total length of 2,534 m, the Ujani Dam is founded on massive basaltic rock formations and comprises a central portion, which is the spillway dam of 602m in length.
The dam has a height of 63 meters.
With a storage capacity of 117 thousand million cubic feet (TMC), the dam has a live storage of 54 TMC, and 63 TMC is dead storage.
Power Generation Capacity: 12MW
Pollution: The water quality of the Ujani Dam is very bad as it contains hazardous pollutants from Pune and many other small cities located on the banks of the Bhima River or its tributaries.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/pune-news/6-drown-as-boat-capsizes-in-ujani-dam-backwaters-in-pune-5717520
Consider the following:
- Bangladesh
- Sri Lanka
- Maldives
- Myanmar
- Thailand
How many of the above are the member countries of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?
Only four
Explanation :
BIMSTEC will now be open to new members and observers after a historic first charter of the grouping came into force recently.
About BIMSTEC:
It is a multilateral regional organization comprising seven member states lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal, constituting a contiguous regional unity.
Aim: Accelerating shared growth and cooperation between littoral and adjacent countries in the Bay of Bengal region.
Formation:
It was founded as BIST-EC in June 1997, with the adoption of the Bangkok Declaration, with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand as members.
It became BIMST-EC (Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Thailand Economic Cooperation) with the entry of Myanmar in late 1997, and eventually, it was named in its current form, when Nepal and Bhutan became members in 2004.
Current Member States: Five deriving from South Asia, including Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and two from Southeast Asia, including Myanmar and Thailand.
Permanent Secretariat: Dhaka, Bangladesh
Areas of cooperation:
It is a sector-driven cooperative organisation in which, initially, six sectors had been included:
Trade, Technology, Energy, Transport, Tourism, and Fisheries
As of now, BIMSTEC has 14 priority areas of cooperation. Climate change was added as the 14th priority area of cooperation in 2008.
Among these priority areas, a member country chooses which of the 14 priority areas it is willing to take the lead.
India is lead country for Transport & Communication, Tourism, Environment & Disaster Management, Counter-Terrorism & Transnational Crime.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bimstec-acquires-legal-personality-after-charter-comes-into-force/article68204638.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):
- It is a statutory body established to regulate the profession of Chartered Accountancy in the country.
- It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently upheld a rule issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAA) barring chartered accountants from accepting more than the “specified number of tax audit assignments” in a financial year.
About Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI):
It is a statutory body established by an Act of Parliament, viz., the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, for regulating the profession of Chartered Accountancy in the country.
It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Government of India.
Headquarters: New Delhi
It is the second largest professional body of chartered accountants in the world.
The affairs of the ICAI are managed by a Council in accordance with the provisions of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, and the Chartered Accountants Regulations, 1988.
The Council consists of 40 members, of whom 32 are elected by the Chartered Accountants and the remaining 8 are nominated by the Central Government, generally representing the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Securities and Exchange Board of India, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, the Ministry of Finance, and other stakeholders.
Functions of ICAI:
Regulates the profession of Accountancy.
Examination and education of Chartered Accountancy course.
Continuing professional education of members.
Conducting post-qualification courses.
Formulation of accounting standards.
Prescription of standard auditing procedures.
Laying down ethical standards.
Monitoring quality through peer review.
Ensuring standards of performance of members.
Exercise disciplinary jurisdiction.
Financial reporting review.
Input on policy matters to the government.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/supreme-court-upholds-icai-rule-limiting-number-of-tax-audits-by-chartered-accountants-per-yer-declares-it-operative-from-april-1-2024-258166
Consider the following statements with reference to the Foreigners Tribunal (FT):
- At present, only the Central Government can establish FTs in a State.
- The decision of the FTs regarding the nationality of a person will be binding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court (SC) recently halted the deportation of a woman who was declared a foreigner by a Foreigners’ Tribunal in Assam.
About Foreigners Tribunal (FT):
The FTs came into existence through the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, in order to let state administration (District collector/District Magistrate) to make reference about a person suspected to be a foreigner to the Tribunals.
The Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, was enacted by the Central government through the use of powers granted under Section 3 of the Foreigners Act, 1946.
The Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, applies to the whole of India, yet, FTs exist only in Assam as of now.
In other states, if an illegal immigrant is found, he is produced before a local court and dealt with as per the Foreigners Act, 1946.
Prior to the 2019 amendment to the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964, only the Centre was empowered to establish FTs in states, but after this amendment, the power has been granted to states as well.
Need for FT:
The superintendents of police (SPs) and district commissioners were empowered to detect suspected foreigners. References for these “suspected persons” were required to be made before an authority which came into existence through the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order, 1964.
The Election Commission of India (ECI) can also refer cases of D or Doubtful voters to the local SP, who then refers them to a tribunal to verify their citizenship.
The persons excluded from the final draft of the National Register of Citizens (NRC) as released in August 2019 can appeal before the FTs to prove their citizenship.
What is FT supposed to do after receiving a reference against a person?
The Tribunal is supposed to serve upon such person a copy of the main grounds on which he is alleged to be a foreigner, as well as a show cause notice, within 10 days of receipt of reference from the concerned authority.
The notice should clearly indicate that the burden is on the proceedee to prove that he or she is not a foreigner.
The FT is to give the person a reasonable opportunity to make a representation (in person or through a lawyer) and produce evidence in support of his case.
If the proceedee fails to produce any proof in support of his claim of citizenship and also not able to arrange for bail, the FT shall detain him and send him to a detention centre.
The SC held that the decision of the FTs regarding the nationality of a person will be binding. Also, the decision of the tribunal will be given more importance than that of the Government or credentials and the NRC verification authority.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/supreme-court-halts-deportation-cooch-behar-woman-declared-foreigner-tribunal
With reference to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, consider the following statements:
- It does not apply to the crimes committed between Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs).
- It authorizes the respective State Governments to frame rules for carrying out the purpose of the Act.
- An investigation of offence committed under the Act cannot be investigated by an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP).
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Allahabad High Court recently said that an alleged act of intentional insult or intimidation causing humiliation would constitute an offence under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 only if it is committed in public view.
About Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989:
It is an Act to prevent the commission of offences of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) by persons other than SCs and STs.
It provides for punishment for offences of atrocities committed against SCs and STs.
It authorizes the Central Government to frame rules for carrying out the purpose of the Act.
The Act is implemented by the respective State Governments and Union Territory Administrations, which are provided due central assistance under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme for effective implementation of the provisions of the Act.
Offences:
This Act does not apply to crimes committed between SCs and STs or between STs and SCs.
There are 37 offences included in the Act that involve patterns of behaviour inflicting criminal offences and breaking the self-respect and esteem of the SCs and STs community.
Among these are the denial of economic, democratic, and social rights, as well as the exploitation and abuse of the legal system.
Investigation:
All offences listed in the Act are cognizable.
An investigation of offence committed under the Act cannot be investigated by an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP).
The investigation should be completed within 30 days, and the report should be sent directly to the director of the state police.
Special Courts:
The act clearly states about the constitution of special courts for hearing cases on atrocities against SCs and STs.
For the purpose of providing for a speedy trial, the State Government shall with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, establish in each district a Court of Session to be a Special Court exclusively to try the offences under this Act.
The exclusive Special Courts shall try offences under this Act on day-to-day basis.
For every Special Court, the State Government shall specify a Public Prosecutor or appoint an advocate who has been in practice as an advocate for not less than seven years, as a Special Public Prosecutor for the purpose of conducting cases in that Court.
Punishment:
The minimum punishment in most cases is six months of imprisonment, while the maximum is five years sentence and with fine.
In some cases, the minimum is enhanced to one year while the maximum goes up to life imprisonment or even a death sentence.
Section 4 of the act deals with punishment for neglect of duties by a public servant. According to this section if a public servant, who is not a member of the SC or ST, deliberately neglects his duties, which he should perform under the Act, he is liable for punishment with imprisonment up to six months.
According to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Rules, 1995, the District Magistrate or the Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or any other Executive Magistrate shall make arrangements for providing immediate relief in cash or in kind, or both, to the victims of atrocity, their family members, and dependents.
Such immediate relief shall also include food, water, clothing, shelter, medical aid, transport facilities, and other essential items necessary for human beings.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.firstpost.com/india/sc-st-act-violation-requires-public-view-allahabad-hc-asserts-13773978.html
Consider the following statements with reference to Travel & Tourism Development Index:
- It measures the set of factors and policies that enable the sustainable and resilient development of tourism.
- It is published every year with an overall index score of 7.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India has improved its ranking in recently released Travel & Tourism Development Index as compared to previous report.
It is the second edition of an index that evolved from the Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) series, a flagship index of the World Economic Forum that has been in production since 2007.
It is created in collaboration with the University of Surrey and with input from leading Travel & Tourism (T&T) stakeholder organizations, thought leaders and data partners.
It measures the set of factors and policies that enable the sustainable and resilient development of T&T.
India is ranked 39th, the highest in South Asia and among other lower-middle-income economies.
India’s new ranking is a notable improvement from its 54th position in the 2021 index.
On an overall index score of 7, where 1 is the worst, and 7 the best, India scored 4.25. India’s significant leap in the rankings underscores its growing competitiveness in the global tourism landscape.
The biennial index analyzed the travel and tourism sectors of 119 countries, evaluating them on a range of factors and policies that foster tourism development.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/india-ranks-39th-on-the-world-economic-forums-travel-tourism-development/articleshow/110341908.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the electric vertical take-off and landing (eVTOL) aircraft:
- It is a low-altitude urban air mobility aircraft capable of intra and inter city transportation.
- It works based on the distributed electric propulsion technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
An electric vertical take-off and landing (eVTOL) aircraft is one that uses electric power to hover, take off, and land vertically.
It is one of the newer technologies and developments in the aerospace industry.
It is a low-altitude urban air mobility aircraft capable of carrying only a few passengers- six seaters and eight seaters.
Technology used:
Most eVTOLs use distributed electric propulsion technology which means integrating a complex propulsion system with the airframe. There are multiple motors for various functions; to increase efficiency; and to also ensure safety.
This is technology that has grown on account of successes in electric propulsion based on progress in motor, battery, fuel cell and electronic controller technologies and also fuelled by the need for new vehicle technology that ensures urban air mobility (UAM).
Applications: Air Taxi, Delivery, Medical assistance (EMS), Cargo Transport, Recreation.
Significance
In the near future, these eVTOLs will enhance “on-demand” mobility for intra and inter city transportation, improving connectivity between metropolitan city centers and airports.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/science-technology/is-evtol-a-boon-or-bane-it-depends-on-how-we-put-it-to-use-96280
Consider the following statements with reference to the Heatstroke:
- It occurs during the low ambient temperature and the body is unable to sweat to regulate the core temperature
- It impacts balance of salts such as sodium and potassium in the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, famous Indian film actor suffered due to heatstroke in Ahmedabad.
It is the most serious heat-related illness.
When it occurs?
It occurs when the ambient temperature is so high that the body is unable to sweat to regulate the core temperature, which shoots up to 40 degree Celsius.
In such cases, there is a severe imbalance of salts such as sodium and potassium in the body. The high core temperature coupled with salt imbalances disrupts organs, leading to a host of symptoms.
Impacts on human body: It can affect the brain, making a person foggy, drowsy, and in severe cases may also lead to a person going into a coma. It can lead to kidney and liver damage as well. A cascade of such symptoms leads to death due to heat stroke,
Symptoms observed: The one who gets impacted whose body temperature is very high but they are not sweating at all, they are feeling drowsy, they are vomiting, they are not passing urine, and they are not breathing properly.
Prevention: To prevent heat stroke, it is better to avoid stepping out in direct sunlight, especially between noon and 3 pm. You should avoid strenuous activity during this time.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/heatstroke-shah-rukh-khan-hospital-9345618/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Planetary alignments:
- It is the positioning of planets in the solar system which appears to be in a straight line.
- The planets visibility during this rare event is impacted by the moon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Next month, on June 3, there will be planetary alignments that may actually allow people to witness six planets align in the sky.
It is a term used to describe the positioning of planets in the solar system such that they appear to be in a straight line or close to one when viewed from a specific vantage point, for us that’s Earth.
This phenomenon is more an illusion of perspective rather than the planets being in a perfect line in space.
Aligning planets: Mercury, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune will form a near-straight line.
Which Planets will be visible?
While six planets align, not all of them will be visible to the naked eye, due to their vast distance from Earth.
Meanwhile, the Moon will also play a spoilsport as it distorts the visibility.
Mercury, and Jupiter will be tricky to see in the sky due to their proximity to the Sun in their orbit.
However, Mars and Saturn will be visible to the naked eye, though very dim. Meanwhile, keen observers will need telescopes or high-powered binoculars to spot the distant planets Uranus and Neptune.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/parade-of-planets-six-planets-to-line-up-in-the-skies-in-rare-cosmic-alignment-2542320-2024-05-22
With reference to AI agents, consider the following statements:
- They are systems that can engage in real-time, multi-modal interactions with humans.
- They are able to understand and learn from the context of interactions.
- They can perform complex tasks autonomously like coding and data analysis.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Known as ‘AI agents’, GPT-4o and Project Astra have been touted as far superior to conventional voice assistants such as Alexa, Siri, and Google Assistant.
These are sophisticated AI systems that can engage in real-time, multi-modal (text, image, or voice) interactions with humans.
Unlike conventional language models, which solely work on text-based inputs and outputs, AI agents can process and respond to a wide variety of inputs including voice, images, and even input from their surroundings.
These agents perceive their environment via sensors, then process the information using algorithms or AI models, and subsequently, take actions. Currently, they are used in fields such as gaming, robotics, virtual assistants, autonomous vehicles, etc.
How are they different from large language models?
The large language models (LLMs) like GPT-3 and GPT-4 have the ability to only generate human-like text, AI agents make interactions more natural and immersive with the help of voice, vision, and environmental sensors.
Unlike LLMs, AI agents are designed for instantaneous, real-time conversations with responses much similar to humans.
LLMs lack contextual awareness, while AI agents can understand and learn from the context of interactions, allowing them to provide more relevant and personalised responses.
Also, language models do not have any autonomy since they only generate text output. AI agents, however, can perform complex tasks autonomously such as coding, data analysis, etc. When integrated with robotic systems, AI agents can even perform physical actions.
Potential Uses
AI agents can serve as intelligent and highly capable assistants. They are capable of handling an array of tasks, from offering personalised recommendations to scheduling appointments.
These can be ideal for customer service as they can offer seamless natural interactions, and resolve queries instantly without actually the need for human interventions.
In the field of education and training, AI agents can act as personal tutors, customise themselves based on a student’s learning styles, and may even offer a tailored set of instructions.
In healthcare, they could assist medical professionals by providing real-time analysis, diagnostic support, and even monitoring patients.
Hence option c is correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/ai-agent-llm-9344930/
4) What is C295 Transport Aircraft?
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling ,VIP transport and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload or as many as 71 troops at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In September 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025 and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Sources: https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/an-overview-of-section-498-a-of-ipc
https://www.international-divorce.com/Indias-Notorious-Section-498A.htm
https://blog.ipleaders.in/section-498a-ipc/
https://lawrato.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/offences-under-ipc-section-498a-bailable-or-not
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-12725-section-498a-ipc-unraveling-misuse-and-relevant-case-laws.html
https://www.lawtendo.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/what-is-section-498a-of-ipc/64bce053c302e71eadbe30d6/
ImageLink: https://airbusus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/C295-3.jpg
With reference to the Arab League, consider the following:
- It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa.
- It makes decisions on a majority basis.
- India has observer status in the Arab League.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Arab League recently called for UN peacekeeping forces in the Palestinian territories during a summit in Bahrain’s Manama.
About Arab League:
The Arab League, also called the League of Arab States (LAS), is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa.
Formation:
It was formed in Cairo on March 22, 1945.
The league was chartered in response to concerns about postwar colonial divisions of territory as well as strong opposition to the emergence of a Jewish state on Palestinian territory.
Goals:
The overall aim of the league is to promote Arab interests.
Its main goals are to strengthen and coordinate the political, cultural, economic, and social programs of its members and to try to settle disputes among them or between them and third parties.
In 1950, the members also agreed to provide military support to help defend each other.
Headquarters: Cairo, Egypt.
Official language: Arabic
Members:
Currently, it has 22 members. The founding member states of the league are Egypt, Syria, Lebanon, Iraq, Jordan, Saudi Arabia, and Yemen.
Members who joined later are Libya, Sudan, Tunisia, Morocco, Kuwait, Algeria, Bahrain, Oman, Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, Mauritania, Somalia, the Palestine Liberation Organization, Djibouti, and Comoros.
The League regards Palestine as an independent state.
There are four nations that were conferred observer status by the League: Brazil, Eritrea, India, and Venezuela.
Council:
The highest body of the league is the Council, composed of representatives of member states, usually foreign ministers, their representatives, or permanent delegates.
The League makes decisions on a majority basis, but there is no mechanism to compel members to comply with resolutions.
Each member has one vote on the Council, with decisions binding only on those states that have voted for them.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/videos/arab-league-demands-un-peacekeepers-in-palestinian-regions-israel-s-ally-u-s-responds-watch-101715936151860.html
Consider the following statements regarding Air-Sol Medium Range (ASMP/ASMP-A) Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is an air-launched, land-attack supersonic cruise missile that carries a nuclear payload.
- It is a central component of Russia’s nuclear deterrent force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
France has marked a significant milestone in its defence capabilities by successfully testing the updated ASMPA supersonic missile, capable of carrying a nuclear warhead.
About ASMPA Missile:
The Air-Sol Medium Range (ASMP/ASMP-A) is an air-launched land-attacks upersonic cruise missile that carries a nuclear payload.
It is a central component of France’s nuclear deterrent force.
Versions:
The ASMP, originally developed in 1986, had a range between 80 and 300 km, and used the TN 81 warhead of variable yield, between 100 and 300 kilotons of TNT.
ASMP-A, an upgraded version of the ASMP, arrived into French service in 2009. This version had an extended range of up to 500km, and supported a new 300kt thermonuclear warhead.
The ASMPA-R project is a renovated version of the AMSPA intended to add additional range and support another advance in its warhead.
Features:
It is 5.38 m in length, 0.38 m in body diameter, and has a launch weight of 860 kg.
It is an inertial-guided, air-to-surface missile most likely directed by terrain-mapping and a pre-programmed onboard computer.
The motor assembly is comprised of a solid-propellant engine which fires after the missile has been released from the aircraft.
Upon ignition, the missile accelerates to Mach 2.0 in five seconds, after which the booster cartridge is ejected from the ramjet exhaust nozzle.
Then, the liquid (kerosene)–powered ramjet motor takes over and accelerates to a maximum speed of Mach 3.0, depending on the altitude.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.republicworld.com/defence/defence-technology/france-conducts-successful-test-of-asmpa-supersonic-nuclear-missile-amid-global-tensions/?amp=1
Which among the following best describes Ferroptosis?
A form of regulated cell death
Explanation :
A new study by researchers found that ferroptosis is the major cell death mechanism that underlies COVID-19 lung disease.
About Ferroptosis:
Ferroptosis is a form of regulated cell death caused by a toxic buildup of lipid peroxides on cell membranes.
It is different from other forms of cell death, such as apoptosis.
This type of cell death requires iron, which is why it has the name “FERroptosis.”
How does it happen?
Lipid peroxides, which are generated through normal metabolic activities, can lead to oxidative damage to cell membranes.
Ferroptosisis characterized by a reduction in intracellular glutathione (GSH) and decreased activity of glutathione peroxidase, so that lipid peroxides cannot be oxidized, leading to an increase in lipid peroxidation from iron.
Our cells have powerful defense mechanisms to maintain cell survival.
However, when our defense mechanisms become defective, unchecked lipid peroxides accumulate to toxic levels, damage membrane integrity, and kill cells through ferroptosis.
Several studies have linked ferroptosis with many diseases, including ischemia-reperfusion and kidney injuries, nervous system diseases, cancer, and blood diseases.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-05-ferroptosis-cell-death-severe-covid.html
Consider the following statements regarding Preeclampsia:
- It is a serious condition that can happen during the later stages of pregnancy.
- Most people who have preeclampsia have dangerously low blood pressure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
World Preeclampsia Day, observed annually on May 22nd, aims to raise crucial awareness about preeclampsia, a potentially life-threatening pregnancy complication.
About Preeclampsia:
Preeclampsia is a serious condition that can happen after the 20th week of pregnancy or after giving birth (called postpartum preeclampsia).
Most people who have preeclampsia have dangerously high blood pressure and may have problems with their kidneys or liver.
High blood pressure (also called hypertension) can stress the heart and cause problems during pregnancy.
What causes preeclampsia? It is believed to come from a problem with the health of the placenta (the organ that develops in the uterus during pregnancy and is responsible for providing oxygen and nutrients to the fetus).
Symptoms:
Many people with preeclampsia do not have any symptoms.
For those that do, some of the first signs of preeclampsia are high blood pressure, protein in the urine, and retaining water (this can cause weight gain and swelling).
Other signs of preeclampsia include Headaches, Blurry vision or light sensitivity, Dark spots appearing in your vision, Right side abdominal pain, Swelling in your hands and face (edema), and Shortness of breath.
While most people who have preeclampsia have healthy babies, this condition can cause serious problems.
It can also affect other organs in the body and be dangerous for both the mom and her developing fetus.
It can cause preterm delivery and even death.
Treatment:
The only cure for preeclampsia is to give birth.
Even after delivery, symptoms of preeclampsia can last 6 weeks or more.
Treatment, if necessary, is based on how far along the pregnancy is, and may include induced labor or a Caesarean section (C-section).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.telegraphindia.com/india/world-preeclampsia-day-highlights-urgent-need-for-awareness-and-early-detection-to-protect-mothers-and-babies/cid/2021913
With reference to Neanderthals, consider the following:
- They are our closest extinct human relative.
- Their bodies were shorter and stockier than modern humans and were extremely muscular.
- Their brains were much smaller compared to modern humans.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Neanderthals who lived 50,000 years ago were infected with three viruses that still affect modern humans today, researchers have discovered recently.
About Neanderthals:
They were an extinct relative of modern humans once found across Europe, extending into Central and Southwest Asia.
Species: Homo neanderthalensis
They are our closest extinct human relative.
Current evidence from both fossils and DNA suggests that Neanderthal and modern human lineages separated at least 500,000 years ago.
The last populations of Neanderthals are thought to have died out roughly 40,000 years ago, several thousand years or so after a wave of modern humans migrated deeper into Europe.
Although they are long extinct, their genes are still present in modern human DNA.
Features:
Some defining features of their skulls include the large middle part of the face, angled cheek bones, and a huge nose for humidifying and warming cold, dry air.
Their bodies were shorter and stockier than modern humans, another adaptation to living in cold environments.
But their brains were just as large as modern humans and often larger-proportional to their brawnier bodies.
Their bones reveal that they were extremely muscular and strong, but led hard lives, suffering frequent injuries.
Unlike modern humans, Neanderthals didn’t have much of a chin.
Neanderthals made and used a diverse set of sophisticated tools, controlled fire, lived in shelters, made and wore clothing, were skilled hunters of large animals, ate plant foods, and occasionally made symbolic or ornamental objects.
There is evidence that Neanderthals deliberately buried their dead and occasionally even marked their graves with offerings, such as flowers.
No other primates, and no earlier human species, had ever practiced this sophisticated and symbolic behavior.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livescience.com/health/viruses-infections-disease/50000-year-old-neanderthal-bones-harbor-oldest-known-human-viruses
Consider the following statements regarding Project Udbhav:
- It is an initiative by the Indian Army and the United Service Institution of India.
- It aims to bridge the gap between ancient techniques and contemporary military education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Army, under its initiative Project Udbhav, is delving into the epic battles of the Mahabharata and the strategic brilliance of past Indian dynasties, shaping India’s rich military heritage.
It is collaboration between the Indian Army and the United Service Institution of India (USI), a defence services think tank.
The project, named ‘Udbhav’, translates to ‘origin’ or ‘genesis’, recognizing the profound knowledge embedded in our nation’s historical texts spanning centuries.
At its core, the project seeks to amalgamate ancient insights with modern military practices, creating a comprehensive approach to tackle present-day security challenges.
Aim: This initiative aims to bridge the gap between age-old wisdom and contemporary military education.
India’s ancient knowledge system, rooted in a 5000-year-old civilizational legacy, boasts a repository of intellectual texts and manuscripts.
Project Udbhav, as per MoD, aims to facilitate a profound understanding of these systems and their enduring relevance in the modern era.
This project takes inspiration from
Literature like Chanakya’s Arthashastra underscores the importance of strategic partnerships, alliances and diplomacy, aligning with modern military practices such as international cooperation and soft power projection.
Chanakya’s teachings on statecraft and warfare are studied by various institutions the world over.
Similarly, the wisdom of Thirukkural, the classical Tamil text authored by Thiruvalluvar, the Tamil philosopher, advocates ethical conduct in all endeavours, including warfare.
This aligns with modern military codes of ethics of just war and principles of Geneva Convention.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/project-udbhav-indian-army-to-learn-war-tactics-from-vedas-puranas-and-mahabharata/articleshow/110325055.cms?from=mdr
Mount Ibu, recently seen in news, is located in:
Indonesia
Explanation :
Recently, Mount Ibu erupted again, sending ash 4 km high, as streaks of purple lightning flashed around its crater.
The Ibu volcano is an active stratovolcano located along the NW coast of Halmahera Island in Indonesia.
Ibu’s activities follow a series of eruptions of different volcanoes in Indonesia, which sits on the Pacific “Ring of Fire” and has 127 active volcanoes.
What is Stratovolcano?
Stratovolcano is also called a composite volcano.
Characteristics
This volcanic landform is characterized by a conical shape formed by layers of volcanic material deposited during successive volcanic eruptions.
These volcanoes tend to slope gently at the base but rise quickly near the summit to form tall mountain peaks.
They are typically found above subduction zones, and they are often part of large volcanically active regions, such as the Ring of Fire that frames much of the Pacific Ocean.
These are build up on height by layering lava, ash and tephra. By definition, they have alternating layers of pyroclastic and lava.
Examples for Stratovolcano are Nevado del Ruiz Volcano and Ubinas Volcano (Andes Mountains of Colombia).
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/trending/ash-soars-4-km-into-sky-as-indonesian-volcano-erupts-with-dramatic-purple-lightning-101716279328121.html
Consider the following statements regarding GSAP SKILLS Platform:
- It is an initiative of International Union for Conservation of Nature.
- Its development has been principally funded by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the GSAP SKILLS Platform was launched at the Fourth meeting of the Subsidiary Body on Implementation, Convention on Biological Diversity.
Global Species Action Plan (GSAP), the Species Conservation Knowledge, Information, Learning, Leverage and Sharing (SKILLS) platform brings the GSAP’s content online and allows the updating of technical tools and resources in real time.
It aims to facilitate global collaboration and partnership, connecting decision makers, species conservation practitioners and experts at all levels.
The platform provides real-time updates on technical tools and resources, ensuring accessibility and relevance.
Each Global Biodiversity Framework target is accompanied by a brief summary and rationale for species conservation interventions, actions, and sub-actions, actors and technical tools and resources for those actions, facilitating the scaling-up of implementation efforts.
This platform is managed proactively by IUCN to meet the needs from governments and all stakeholders to take actions for species.
The development of the GSAP SKILLS platform has been principally supported by Ministry of Environment, Republic of Korea, with additional resources from the Tech4Nature Initiative launched by IUCN and Huawei in 2020.
What is Global Species Action Plan?
It has been developed to support implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) and to address the increasing biodiversity loss worldwide.
It outlines strategic interventions and actions to conserve and sustainably manage species while ensuring equitable benefits.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.iucn.org/news/202405/iucn-launches-gsap-skills-global-species-action-plan-online-knowledge-platform
Consider the following statements regarding the Advertising Standards Council of India:
- It comes under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- It looks into complaints only related to Print and Television media.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI) has processed complaints against 101 advertisements (ads) featuring celebrities.
It is a voluntary self-regulatory organisation of the advertising industry in India.
It was established in 1985 and is registered as a non-profit company under Section 25 of the Company Act.
It comprises members from marketing, creative, media, and allied companies in India.
It is committed to the cause of self-regulation in advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers.
Purpose of the ASCI code: To control the content of advertisements, not to hamper the sale of products which may be found offensive, for whatever reason, by some people.
Functions
It seeks to ensure that advertisements conform to its Code for Self-Regulation, which requires advertisements to be legal, decent, honest, truthful, and not hazardous or harmful while observing fairness in competition.
It looks into complaints across all media, such as Print, TV, Radio, hoardings, SMS, Emailers, Internet/website, product packaging, brochures, promotional material, and point-of-sale material, etc.
It is a part of the Executive Committee of the International Council on Ad Self-Regulation (ICAS).
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://theprint.in/economy/advertisement-authority-acted-against-101-advertisements-featuring-celebrities/2097994/
With reference to Sweet sorghum, consider the following statements:
- It has ability to withstand low water and nitrogen inputs.
- Its stalk is used for the production of value-added products like ethanol.
- It enters a dormant state during extended periods of dryness and resume growth afterwards.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Sweet sorghum is a hardy, nutritious, biofuel crop that offers solutions in drought-hit southern Africa because of El-Nino phenomenon.
It is the most important millet crop occupying largest area among the cereals next to rice.
One of the key characteristics of sweet sorghum varieties is their drought resistance. It allows them to enter a dormant state during extended periods of dryness and resume growth afterwards.
Required climatic conditions and
The crop does not prefer high rainfall as high soil moisture or continuous heavy rain after flowering may hamper sugar increase.
All soils that have medium depth with good drainage are suited.
Depending on the soil (red, black, laterite and loamy) and its depth water requirement may vary which in turn decide the suitability of the crop.
Unique features of Sorghum
It has ability to withstand low water and nitrogen inputs, as well as its tolerance for salinity and drought stress, makes it an ideal crop for farmers in arid regions.
Research has shown that, under intense water scarcity conditions, sweet sorghum makes use of its stalk juice to supplement its plant needs.
It is used in food industry and its stalk is used for the production of value-added products like ethanol, syrup and jaggery and bioenriched bagasse as a fodder and as a base material for cogeneration.
It can produce grains, animal feed and sugary juice, making it unique among crops.
The grains from sweet sorghum are prepared as steamed bread or porridge malt for traditional beer, as well as in commercial beer production across the continent.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/africa/sweet-sorghum-is-a-hardy-nutritious-biofuel-crop-that-offers-solutions-in-drought-hit-southern-africa-96295
Consider the following statements with reference to Gliese 12b:
- It is a newly discovered, temperate, Earth-sized exoplanet.
- It was discovered using data from India’s CartoSat series of satellites.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Using NASA’s Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS) and many other telescopes, two teams of astronomers have discovered a temperate, Earth-sized exoplanet named Gliese 12b.
About Gliese 12b:
It is a newly discovered temperate, Earth-sized exoplanet orbiting a cool red dwarf called Gliese 12, located in the constellation Pisces.
Red dwarfs have lower luminosity, which means their habitable zones are much closer to the star.
Gliese 12 is about 27% the size of our sun and 60% of its temperature.
Gliese 12 b is located 40 light-years away, which is relatively close in astronomical terms.
Since its star is so much smaller than the sun, Gliese 12b still falls within the habitable zone—the ideal distance away from a star where liquid water can exist—even though it completes its orbit every 12.8 days.
Gliese 12 b is roughly the size of Earth or slightly smaller, making it comparable to Venus.
This similarity in size makes Gliese 12 b an excellent subject for studying rocky planets.
Its mass is approximately 3.87 times that of Earth.
It receives 1.6 times more energy from its star than Earth does from the Sun, and about 85% of what Venus experiences.
The estimated surface temperature of Gliese 12 b is 107°F (42°C), assuming it has no atmosphere.
About Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS):
It is a NASA mission to discover exoplanets around nearby bright stars.
Launch: It was launched on April 18, 2018, aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket out of Cape Canaveral.
Orbit: TESS circles Earth in a unique high Earth orbit of 12 to 15 days, which is inclined in a way that the telescope’s sky view is largely free from obstructions by our bright planet and the Moon.
The prime mission ended on July 4, 2020, and TESS is now on an extended mission.
TESS is finding planets ranging from small, rocky worlds to giant planets, showcasing the diversity of planets in the galaxy.
About CartoSat series of satellite:
The Cartosat satellites are a series of Indian optical earth observation satellites built and operated by ISRO.
This series of satellites are a part of the Indian Remote Sensing Program and are used for Earth’s resource management, defence services, and monitoring.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.sci.news/astronomy/earth-sized-exoplanet-gliese-12b-12960.html
What is the primary objective of the AstroSat mission?
To study celestial sources in multiple spectral bands simultaneously
Explanation :
A team of Indian astrophysicists has used observations from AstroSat to discover the aperiodic modulation of high-energy X-ray photons in Swift J1727.8-1613, a black hole binary source.
About AstroSat Mission:
It is the first dedicated Indian astronomy mission aimed at studying celestial sources in the X-ray, optical, and UV spectral bands simultaneously.
AstroSat, with a lift-off mass of 1515 kg, was launched on September 28, 2015, into a 650 km orbit by PSLV-C30 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
AstroSat carries a total of five scientific payloads enabling imaging, studying the temporal and spectral properties of galactic and extra- galactic cosmic sources in a wide range of wavelengths on a common platform.
One of the unique features of AstroSat mission is that it enables simultaneous multi-wavelength observations of various astronomical objects with a single satellite.
The spacecraft control centre at Mission Operations Complex (MOX) of ISRO Telemetry, Tracking and Command Network (ISTRAC), Bengaluru, manages the satellite during its entire mission life.
The main scientific objectives of AstroSat mission are:
To understand the high energy processes in interacting binary systems with a compact object accreting matter from a companion star.
Study star birth regions and high-energy processes in star systems lying beyond our galaxy.
Detect new transient X-ray sources in the sky.
Perform a limited deep-field survey of the Universe in the Ultraviolet region.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/science/astrosat-observations-unravel-high-energy-x-ray-modulation-in-black-hole-3031115
With reference to Thyroid, consider the following statements:
- It is a small, butterfly-shaped gland located at the base of the neck.
- It is a part of the human endocrine system that releases thyroid hormones.
- Thyroid disorders are very common and mainly occur in women.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
World Thyroid Day is observed annually on May 25th to raise awareness about the thyroid gland and the various conditions that affect it.
About Thyroid:
The thyroid is a small, butterfly-shaped gland located at the base of the neck, just below the Adam’s apple.
It’s a part of your endocrine system and controls many of your body’s important functions by producing and releasing thyroid hormones, like thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).
These hormones affect every cell in the body.
They support the rate at which the body uses fats and carbohydrates.
They help control body temperature.
They have an effect on heart rate.
They help control how much protein the body makes.
What is Thyroid Disease?
It is a general term for a medical condition that keeps your thyroid from making the right amount of hormones.
Thyroid disorders are very common and mainly occur in women, although anybody-men, teenagers, children, and babies, too, can be affected.
The two main types of thyroid disease are
Hypothyroidism (underactive thyroid): Not enough thyroxine is produced for the body’s needs. This is the most common thyroid disorder.
Hyperthyroidism (overactive thyroid): Too much thyroxine is produced for the body’s needs.
What causes a thyroid disorder?
There are many causes of the different thyroid disorders.
Most commonly the cause is due to autoimmune thyroid disease. This is a process in which the body’s immune system attacks the thyroid cells as though they were foreign cells.
In response, the thyroid gland becomes underactive (hypothyroidism) or overactive (hyperthyroidism).
The autoimmune form of hypothyroidism is called Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. The autoimmune form of hyperthyroidism is called Graves’ disease.
Symptoms:
Hypothyroidism: tiredness, feeling cold, weight gain, poor concentration, depression.
Hyperthyroidism: weight loss, heat intolerance, anxiety, and, sometimes, sore and gritty eyes.
Treatment: Thyroid disorder and many of its symptoms can be treated. Most thyroid disorders are treated with daily medication.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatvnews.com/health/world-thyroid-day-2024-know-date-theme-history-significance-and-more-2024-05-25-933278
Consider the following statements with reference to the Taiwan Strait:
- It lies between mainland China and the island of Taiwan.
- It is part of the South China Sea and connects to the Sea of Japan to the north.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The escalating tensions in the Taiwan Strait highlight the ongoing geopolitical complexities in the region, with Taiwan reaffirming its commitment to defending its sovereignty and democratic values in the face of increasing military pressure from China.
About Taiwan Strait:
The Taiwan Strait, or Formosa Strait, is a 180 km-wide strait between mainland China and the island of Taiwan.
It runs between the coast of Fujian (Fukien) Province, China, and the island of Taiwan.
The strait is part of the South China Sea and connects to the East China Sea to the north.
The strait’s seafloor is mostly a continental shelf extending out from the Asian continent, with Taiwan on the outer edge.
It is relatively shallow. It has an average depth of about 490 feet, and a minimum depth of 82 feet.
Islands:
The biggest islands along the Taiwan side include Penghu (or Pescadores), Xiamen, and Pingtan.
The Xiamen and Pingtan Islands are administered by the People’s Republic of China, while the other three islands: Penghu (or Pescadores), Kinmen, and Matsu, are under the administration of the Republic of China (Taiwan).
The strait is a major global shipping corridor, with 44 percent of the world’s container fleet moving through it in 2022.
The chief ports are Amoy in mainland China and Kao-hsiung on Taiwan.
The Strait has been the theatre for several military confrontations between the People’s Republic of China and Taiwan since the last days of the Chinese Civil War in 1949, when the Kuomintang forces led by Chiang Kai-shek retreated across the Strait and relocated its government on its final stronghold of Taiwan.
The median line of the Taiwan Strait:
It is the informal dividing line in the Taiwan Strait between the Chinese mainland and Taiwan.
It came about during the Cold War as a way to try and delineate the two opposing sides and reduce the risk of clashes.
No agreement or treaty ever solidified its status.
It served as a tacit boundary between Taiwan and China until 2019, when sorties by the People’s Liberation Army crossed the line.
Beijing has since sought to further reject the existence of a median line in the strait by more frequently sending warplanes over the line.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.newsx.com/top-news/taiwan-reports-massive-incursion-49-chinese-aircraft-19-vessels-detected-near-its-territory/
With reference to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), consider the following statements:
- It is a quasi-judicial body established by the Government of India on the recommendation of the Bimal Jalan Committee.
- It was incorporated for resolving the civil corporate disputes arising under the Companies Act, 2013.
- It is also an adjudicating authority for the Insolvency resolution process of companies and Limited Liability Partnerships under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has reportedly issued notices to Think and Learn Pvt. Ltd. (TLPL), Byju’s parent company, in three cases of alleged non-payment of dues to operational creditors.
About National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT):
It is a quasi-judicial body established under the Companies Act, 2013 and was constituted on June 1, 2016, by the Government of India.
Committee: The NCLT was formed based on the recommendation of the V. Balakrishna Eradi committee on law relating to the insolvency and winding up of companies.
Functions:
It was incorporated for resolving the civil corporate disputes arising under the Companies Act, 2013.
It is empowered to hear and decide on cases related to mergers and acquisitions, oppression and mismanagement, the winding up of companies, and other matters related to corporate law.
It is also an adjudicating authority for the Insolvency resolution process of companies and Limited Liability Partnerships under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016.
The establishment of NCLT consolidates the corporate jurisdiction of the following authorities:
Company Law Board (CLB)
Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR)
Appellate Authority for Industrial and Financial Reconstruction
All the powers relating to the winding up of a Company
All other provisions vested in High Courts.
Composition: The NCLT shall consist of a President and such number of Judicial and Technical Members as may be required.
Principal Bench: New Delhi
Powers:
It is not limited or bound by the rules laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure and is guided by the principles of natural justice, subject to the other provisions of this Act and any rules that are made by the Central Government.
The NCLT can enforce any order that it gives in the same manner as a court would enforce it.
It has the power to scrutinize its own orders.
It has the power to regulate their own procedure.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/business/national-company-law-tribunal-pulls-up-byjus-for-delay-in-payments-to-operational-creditors/cid/2021768
Consider the following statements with reference to the Food Irradiation:
- It is a technology that improves the safety and extends the shelf life of foods.
- It uses X-rays and electron beams for the process of irradiation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union government is planning to significantly scale up the irradiation of onions this financial year to increase the shelf life of its buffer stock.
It is a technology that improves the safety and extends the shelf life of foods by reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects.
Sources used for irradiation: Gamma rays, X-rays and electron beam.
Irradiation can serve many purposes:
Prevention of Foodborne Illness: To effectively eliminate organisms that cause foodborne illness, such as Salmonella and Escherichia coli (E. coli). These bacteria make millions of people sick and send thousands of people to the hospital each year.
Preservation: To destroy germs that cause spoilage and decomposition and extend the shelf life of foods.
Control of Insects: To destroy insects in or on tropical fruits imported into the United States. Irradiation also decreases the need for other pest-control practices that may harm the fruit.
Delay of Sprouting and Ripening: To inhibit sprouting (e.g., potatoes) and delay ripening of fruit to increase longevity.
Sterilization: Irradiation can be used to sterilize foods, which can then be stored for years without refrigeration. Sterilized foods are useful in hospitals for patients with severely impaired immune systems.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/shelf-life-onion-stock-irradiation-9345790/
Mrugavani National Park, recently seen in news, is located in:
Telangana
Explanation :
The extent of Mrugavani National Park at Chilkur in Moinabad mandal has undergone massive revision on paper, resulting in reduction of 80 hectares.
Location: It is located in Hyderabad, Telangana.
Topography: The topography of Park supports woodlands, grasslands and rocky areas.
Vegetation: Most of the vegetation can be classified as southern tropical dry deciduous forests.
Flora: Teak, Bamboo, Sandal, Picus, Palas, Rela. The plant species include bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Herbs, Shrubs, Climbers and Trees. The vegetative cover presents a mosaic of woodland and grasslands.
Fauna: Indian hare, forest cat, civet, Indian rat snake, Russell’s viper and cheetal etc.
What are tropical dry deciduous forests?
Tropical dry deciduous forests are a type of terrestrial ecosystem found in regions with a distinct wet and dry season, typically within tropical and subtropical regions.
These forests are characterized by trees that shed their leaves during the dry season to conserve water, and they regrow their leaves when the wet season returns.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/eighty-hectares-of-mrugavani-national-park-disappear-into-thin-air/article68207852.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Proboscis monkey:
- It is arboreal primate which is found exclusively in the rainforests of Borneo.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recent study revealed that Male proboscis monkeys’ enhanced noses evolved to attract mates.
It is a medium-sized arboreal primate that is found exclusively in the rainforests of Borneo.
Appearance: The male Proboscis Monkey is not only one of the largest monkeys in Asia but they are also one of the world’s most distinctive mammals, having a long and fleshy nose and a large, swollen stomach.
Habitat: They live in coastal mangroves, peat swamps and riverine forests and have an unusual diet made up mostly of leaves.
Characteristics
It can swim quite well and have webbed fingers and toes. It typically live in harem groups, made up of a single adult male some adult females and their offspring.
Males don’t often get the opportunity to attract a harem until they reach middle age.
It is a diurnal, meaning they are active during the day, and they rely on vocalizations, such as honks and roars, for communication within their dense forest homes.
Threats: The rampant clearing of the region’s rain forests for timber, settlement, and oil palm plantations has depleted huge tracts of their habitat.
Conservation status
IUCN : Endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/wildlife-biodiversity/honk-these-monkeys-have-truly-legendary-noses-now-we-better-understand-why-they-evolved-96321
Consider the following statements with reference to the Shallow Aquifer Management Project:
- It is a sustainable urban water management technique to address issues of groundwater depletion.
- It is part of Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) scheme of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) in a latest intervention has taken up Shallow Aquifer Management (SAM) model on a pilot basis in the city.
It is a sustainable urban water management technique and addresses persistent issues of groundwater depletion, drying up of borewells, and check quick flooding of city streets.
How it is done?
The project’s concept is to drill shallow water injection borewells to a depth of 100-120 feet and pump out water in the shallow aquifers.
This is done so that the layers underneath get recharged whenever there is rainfall, while collecting water from the surrounding watershed and channelling it through recharge pits.
Thus, the underground layers are recharged, and water table rises.
SAM Pilot model in India
It is part of Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) scheme of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Nodal implementing agency: National Institute of Urban Affairs
In 2022, the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) initiated a SAM pilot across 10 cities in nine states: Bengaluru (Karnataka), Chennai (Tamil Nadu), Dhanbad (Jharkhand), Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh), Hyderabad (Telangana), Jaipur (Rajasthan), Kolkata (West Bengal), Pune and Thane (Maharashtra), and Rajkot (Gujarat).
What is an aquifer?
It is a body of porous rock or sediment saturated with groundwater. Groundwater enters an aquifer as precipitation seeps through the soil.
It can move through the aquifer and resurface through springs and wells.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/shallow-aquifer-management-pilot-models-at-habsiguda-and-sainikpuri/article68201060.ece
With reference to World Health Assembly, consider the following statements:
- It the decision-making body of World Health Organisation (WHO).
- It appoints the Director-General of WHO.
- It has adopted the International Health Regulations for the first time in 2019.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organisation’s member states agreed to share outcomes of historic International Health Regulations (IHR), pandemic agreement processes to World Health Assembly.
It is the decision-making body of World Health Organisation.
It is attended by delegations from all WHO Member States and focuses on a specific health agenda prepared by the Executive Board.
Function
The main functions of the World Health Assembly are to determine the policies of the Organization, appoint the Director-General, supervise financial policies, and review and approve the proposed programme budget.
The Health Assembly is held annually in Geneva, Switzerland.
Key facts about International Health Regulations
It was first adopted by the WHA in 1969 and last revised in 2005, were conceived to maximise collective efforts to manage public health events while minimising disruption to travel and trade.
There are 196 State Parties to the IHR, comprising all 194 WHO Member States plus Liechtenstein and the Holy See.
The IHR provides an overarching legal framework that defines countries’ rights and obligations in handling public health events and emergencies that have the potential to cross borders.
They also introduce important safeguards to protect the rights of travellers and other persons in relation to the treatment of personal data, informed consent and non-discrimination in the application of health measures under the Regulations.
It is an instrument of international law that is legally binding on 196 countries.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/world-health-assembly-to-prepare-a-global-toolkit-for-future-pandemics/article68206519.ece
4) What is C295 Transport Aircraft?
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling ,VIP transport and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload or as many as 71 troops at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In September 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025 and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Sources: https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/an-overview-of-section-498-a-of-ipc
https://www.international-divorce.com/Indias-Notorious-Section-498A.htm
https://blog.ipleaders.in/section-498a-ipc/
https://lawrato.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/offences-under-ipc-section-498a-bailable-or-not
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-12725-section-498a-ipc-unraveling-misuse-and-relevant-case-laws.html
https://www.lawtendo.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/what-is-section-498a-of-ipc/64bce053c302e71eadbe30d6/
ImageLink: https://airbusus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/C295-3.jpg
Consider the following countries:
- Saudi Arabia
- Qatar
- Kuwait
- Iraq
How many of the above are members of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)?
Only three
Explanation :
The United States and the Gulf Cooperation Council recently announced a new iteration of defense working groups to be based in Saudi Arabia to ‘advance US-GCC cooperation and multilateral (missile) integration against shared air and maritime threats’
About Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC):
It is a political and economic alliance of six countries in the Arabian Peninsula: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
The GCC was established in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in May 1981.
Objective: To promote economic, security, cultural, and social cooperation between the six states and hold a summit every year to discuss cooperation and regional affairs.
Together, the GCC countries possess almost half of the world’s oil reserves.
Organizational structure:
The Supreme Council:
It is the highest authority of the organization, which meets on an annual basis and consists of GCC heads of state.
Decisions of the Supreme Council are adopted by unanimous approval.
Its presidency rotates periodically among the member states in alphabetical order.
The Ministerial Council:
It is composed of the foreign ministers of all the Member States or other ministers deputizing for them.
It meets every three months to implement the decisions of the Supreme Council and to propose new policy.
The Secretariat General:
It is the administrative arm of the alliance, which monitors policy implementation and arranges meetings.
Its headquarters is in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
India and GCC:
GCC is India’s largest regional-bloc trading partner.
Trade with the GCC comprised 15.8% of India’s total trade in FY2022–23.
The UAE has consistently been India’s principal trading partner within the Gulf and is India’s third-largest trading partner overall.
According to the latest figures, there are approximately 8.9 million Indian expats residing in GCC countries, which is approximately 66% of non-resident Indians.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/videos/international/iran-missile-threat-terrifies-pro-u-s-arabs-u-s-in-talks-with-gcc-countries-over-missile-shield/videoshow/110350037.cms
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is located in which one of the following States?
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu Forest Department recently commenced a three-day-long elephant census at Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve.
About Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve:
Location:
It is located at the junction of the Eastern and Western Ghats in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, in the Erode District of Tamil Nadu.
Its area is contiguous with the Mudumalai Tiger Reserve, Bandipur Tiger Reserve (Karnataka), and Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve and Wildlife Sanctuary (Karnataka).
Together, these reserves—forming the Nilgiris biosphere landscape — have the biggest tiger population in the world, at over 280 tigers.
It was declared a tiger reserve in 2013.
It covers an area of 1,411.6 sq km and forms a vital link between the Eastern and Western Ghats, creating a continuous habitat for tigers and other wildlife.
Terrain: It is hilly and undulated, with an altitude ranging between 750m and 1649m.
Climate:
It is subtropical and dry.
The summers are hot and dry; the monsoons are wet and cooler, with river flooding.
Rivers: Some of the prominent rivers in the region include the Bhavani, Moyar, and Noyyal rivers.
Tribal Communities: It is home to several indigenous tribal communities, including the Irula and Kurumba tribes.
Flora:
The vegetation consists of southern tropical dry thorn forests, mixed deciduous forests, semi-evergreen forests, and Riparian forests.
Around 700 species of flora have been found in the sanctuary, where bamboos are the predominant species of vegetation.
Fauna:
The major species are Elephant, Tiger, Panther, Sloth bear, Gaur, Black Buck, Spotted deer, Wild boar, Black napped hare, Common langur, Striped neck mongoose, and Bonnet macaque.
It is home to some rare and endangered species, such as the grizzled giant squirrel, the Nilgiri tahr, the Nilgiri langur, and the four-horned antelope.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/tamil-nadu/elephant-census-begins-at-sathyamangalam-tiger-reserve-in-tamil-nadu-3035090
Consider the following statements with reference to the Omega-3 Fatty Acids:
- They are saturated fats that perform important functions in the human body.
- Human body cannot produce the required amount of omega-3s a person needs to survive.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A recent study challenges the perceived heart health benefits of fish oil supplements rich in omega-3 fatty acids, raising concerns about their impact on cardiovascular health.
What are Fatty Acids?
Fatty acids are the building blocks of the fat in our bodies and in the food we eat.
During digestion, the body breaks down fats into fatty acids, which can then be absorbed into the blood.
Fatty acid molecules are usually joined together in groups of three, forming a molecule called a triglyceride.
Triglycerides are also made in our bodies from the carbohydrates that we eat.
The two main types of fatty acids are saturated fat and unsaturated fat.
Saturated fats are sometimes known as “bad” or “unhealthy” fats because they increase your risk of certain diseases like heart disease and stroke.
Unsaturated fats (polyunsaturated and monounsaturated) are considered “good” or “healthy” fats because they support your heart health when used in moderation.
About Omega-3 Fatty Acids:
Omega-3 fatty acids (omega-3s) are polyunsaturated fats that perform important functions in your body.
Your body can’t produce the amount of omega-3s you need to survive.
So, omega-3 fatty acids are essential nutrients, meaning you need to get them from the foods you eat.
They are found in foods, such as fish and flaxseed, and in dietary supplements, such as fish oil.
The three main omega-3 fatty acids are alpha-linolenic acid (ALA), eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA), and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA).
ALA is found mainly in plant oils such as flaxseed, soybean, and canola oils. DHA and EPA are found in fish and other seafood.
Omega-3s are important components of the membranes that surround each cell in your body.
DHA levels are especially high in retina (eye), brain, and sperm cells.
Omega-3s also provide calories to give your body energy and have many functions in your heart, blood vessels, lungs, immune system, and endocrine system (the network of hormone-producing glands).
Omega-3s in fish and fish oil supplements may help with symptoms of several autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, and Crohn’s disease.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/new-study-says-fish-oil-supplements-are-harmful-for-heart-but-whats-the-actual-truth/articleshow/110394308.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Periyar River:
- It is the longest river in Tamil Nadu.
- It rises in the Eastern Ghats and empties into the Bay of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A mass fish kill struck the Periyar river in Kerala recently, leaving a path of destruction and sparking outrage.
About Periyar River:
It is the longest river in Kerala.
Course:
It rises in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu and then flows in the north direction to the Periyar National Park into the Periyar Lake, which is a man-made reservoir created in 1895.
The water from here then flows into the Vembanad Lake and, finally, into the Arabian Sea.
A tunnel carries water from the Periyar Lake eastward through the mountains to the Vaigai River in Tamil Nadu, where it is used for irrigation.
It has a total length of 244 kms and drains an area of 5,398 sq km.
It is also called the ‘Lifeline of Kerala’ due to its enormous economic contribution to this state.
The Idukki Dam on the Periyar is the largest dam and hydroelectric project in Kerala. It is also one of the highest arch dams in Asia.
Other dams constructed across the river are Neriyamangalam, Pallivasal, Panniyar, Kundalam, Chenkulam, and Mullaperiyar.
The birthplace of Sankaracharya, the greatest Advaita philosopher, is at Kalady, which is situated on the bank of the Periyar.
Tributaries: The major tributaries of Periyar are the Muthirapuzha River, Mullayar River, Cheruthoni River, Perinjankutti River, and the Edamala River.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/video/water/mass-fish-kill-incident-in-periyar-river-amid-industrial-pollution-96342
With reference to the PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It was introduced for de-dieselisation of the farm sector and enhancing the income of farmers.
- Under the Scheme, the central government provides subsidies for the installation of standalone solar pumps.
- Only individual farmers are eligible beneficiaries under the scheme.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Ministry of Renewable Energy recently issued a warning to farmers on PM-KUSUM website against fake websites and mobile applications that provide fake online application forms and demand registration fees for installing solar water pumps under PM Kusum scheme.
About PM-KUSUM Scheme:
The PM-KUSUM Scheme was launched in 2019 for de-dieselisation of the farm sector and enhancing the income of farmers.
It is aimed at ensuring energy security for farmers in India, along with honouring India’s commitment to increase the share of installed capacity of electric power from non-fossil-fuel sources to 40% by 2030 as part of Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs).
The scheme aims to add Solar capacity of about 34,800 MW by March 2026 with the total Central Financial support of Rs 34,422 crore.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE)
Under the Scheme, a central government subsidy upto 30% or 50% of the total cost is given for the installation of standalone solar pumps and also for the solarization of existing grid-connected agricultural pumps.
Further, farmers can also install grid-connected solar power plants up to 2MW, under the Scheme on their barren/fallow land.
This scheme is being implemented by the designated departments of the State Government.
The Scheme consists of three components
Component A:
10,000 MW of solar capacity through the installation of small Solar Power Plants of individual plants of capacity up to 2 MW.
The solar power plants will be preferably installed within five-kilometre radius of the notified sub-stations in order to avoid high cost of transmission lines and losses.
The power generated will be purchased by the local DISCOM at a pre-fixed tariff determined by the respective State Electricity Regulatory Commission (SERC).
Component B:
Installation of 20 lakhs of standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
Individual farmers will be supported to install standalone solar Agriculture pumps of capacity up to 7.5 HP for the replacement of existing diesel Agriculture pumps / irrigation systems in off-grid areas, where grid supply is not available.
The State Government will give at-least subsidy of 30% and the remaining will be provided by the farmer.
Component C:
For Solarisation of 15 Lakh Grid Connected Agriculture Pumps.
Under this Component, individual farmers having grid connected agriculture pump will be supported to solarise pumps.
The farmer will be able to use the generated solar power to meet the irrigation needs and the excess solar power will be sold to DISCOMs at pre-fixed tariff.
The eligible categories for KUSUM Scheme are:
An individual farmer.
A group of farmers.
FPO or Farmer producer organization.
Panchayat.
Co-operatives.
Water User Associations.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://business.outlookindia.com/personal-finance-news/pm-kusum-solar-pump-yojana-being-scaled-up-govt-warns-about-fraudulent-websites-looting-kusum-applicants
Consider the following statements with reference to the Cost Inflation Index:
- It is notified under the Income-tax Act, 1961 every year.
- It is used to calculate long-term capital gains from house property and land.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the income tax department has notified the Cost Inflation Index for the current fiscal beginning April 2024.
The CII number is used to adjust the purchase price of assets on the basis of inflation.
CII is notified under the Income-tax Act, 1961 every year.
The CII number helps an individual to ascertain the inflation-adjusted current price of an asset.
This helps in calculating capital gains from a transfer or sale of capital assets after taking inflation into account.
Capital gain refers to the profit acquired from the sale/transfer of any capital assets, including land, property, stocks, shares, trademarks, patents, etc.
Normally, an asset is required to be retained for more than 36 months (24 months for immovable property and unlisted shares, 12 months for listed securities) to qualify as ‘long-term capital gains’.
It helps taxpayers offset the impact of inflation as the difference between the purchase and sale price could be substantial due to rising prices.
The application of the Cost Inflation Index for capital gain adjusts the purchase price of assets based on their sale price, resulting in smaller earnings and a lower tax amount.
From FY 2023-24, the indexation benefit on long-term capital gains from non-equity mutual fund schemes has been removed.
A taxpayer will continue to use the CII number to calculate long-term capital gains from house property, land, and building in the event of a sale.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/policy/income-tax-department-notifies-cost-inflation-index-for-current-fiscal/articleshow/110419852.cms?from=mdr
Ashtamudi Lake, a Ramsar site recently seen in news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
A new study has shed light on the extent of microplastic pollution in Ashtamudi Lake, underscoring the need for continuous monitoring and addressing “potential public health concerns.”
It is a Ramsar wetland located in Kollam district of Kerala.
This lake is known for its panoramic beauty and eight channels that connects to one lake. It is because of its eight ‘arms’ or channels, that the lake is named Ashtamudi.
It is the second largest lake in Kerala, which has found its way into the sea through the Neendakara estuary.
Kallada river is the major source of water for Ashtamdui lake.
The historical significance of Ashtamudi lake dates back to the 14th century when the lake surroundings were the important port connecting the ancient city of Quilon to the rest of the world.
Historical records of the Moroccan explorer Ibn Battuta highlights Quilon city, in the banks of Ashtamudi lake as one of the major trading centers in the ancient period.
Different species of marshy mangroves was reported in the region, including two endangered species called Syzygium travancoricum and Calamus rotang.
Key facts about Microplastics
These are tiny plastic particles that result from both commercial product development and the breakdown of larger plastics. Officially, they are defined as plastics less than five millimeters (0.2 inches) in diameter.
They are present in a variety of products, from cosmetics to synthetic clothing to plastic bags and bottles. Many of these products readily enter the environment as waste.
They consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms bound together in polymer chains. Other chemicals, such as phthalates, polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs), and tetrabromobisphenol A (TBBPA), are typically also present in microplastics
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-study-reveals-extent-of-microplastic-pollution-in-ashtamudi-lake/article68207546.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process:
- It is an alternate and speedier resolution mechanism for micro, medium and small enterprises which are in financial distress.
- The pre-packaged insolvency process is initiated voluntarily by the debtor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution Process (PPIRP) has resulted in the full settlement of operational creditors’ claims in five cases.
It was introduced in April 2021 in the wake of Covid pandemic, to deal with stress of small and mid-sized companies.
The idea was that resolution of distressed MSMEs requires different treatment due to the unique nature of their businesses.
Pre-packaged insolvency process is an alternate and speedier resolution mechanism for micro, medium and small enterprises in financial distress.
Process
It involves the debtor and its creditors negotiating and agreeing on a resolution plan before initiating the formal insolvency process.
Once approved by the creditors, the pre-packaged resolution plan is submitted to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for approval. It is similar to an out-of-court settlement process.
The debtor and creditor work on a draft resolution plan before formally initiating the insolvency process.
Once finalised and approved by the required majority of creditors, the plan is submitted to NCLT.
The pre-packaged insolvency process is initiated voluntarily by the debtor.
Significance: Since the resolution plan is negotiated and finalised before filing with NCLT, it reduces the time taken for resolution compared to the corporate insolvency resolution process, with minimal disruptions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/pre-pack-insolvency-a-success-for-five-companies/articleshow/110373627.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements with reference to the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO):
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations.
- It aims to lead the development of a balanced and effective international intellectual property (IP) system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Treaty on Intellectual Property, Genetic Resources and Associated Traditional Knowledge was adopted at the Diplomatic Conference held under the aegis of the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) at its headquarters in Geneva.
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations, located in Geneva, Switzerland.
It was established by the WIPO Convention in 1967
Mission: Its mission is to lead the development of a balanced and effective international intellectual property (IP) system that enables innovation and creativity for the benefit of all.
Members: WIPO currently has 193 member states.
It provides a global policy forum, where governments, intergovernmental organizations, industry groups and civil society come together to address evolving IP issues.
Its member states and observers meet regularly in a variety of standing committees and working groups.
In these bodies, members negotiate the changes and new rules needed to ensure that the international IP system keeps pace with the changing world, and continues to serve its fundamental purpose of encouraging innovation and creativity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/wipo-concludes-new-treaty-to-protect-genetic-resources-traditional-knowledge-india-plays-key-role/article68214956.ece
With reference to Graphite, consider the following statements:
- It is a naturally occurring form of crystalline carbon.
- It cleaves with very high pressure and has a very high specific gravity.
- Sri Lankan graphite is the purest in the world with more than 98% carbon content.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India is in talks with Sri Lanka to acquire a graphite mine block in the island nation, pushing ahead with its plan to forge global alliances to secure critical mineral supplies.
It is an opaque, non-metallic carbon polymorph that is blackish silver in colour and metallic to dull in sheen.
Since it resembles metal lead, it is also known colloquially as black lead or plumbago.
Formation: It is formed by the metamorphosis of sediments containing carbonaceous material.
Molecular structure
It consists of a ring of six carbon atoms closely bonded together hexagonally in widely spaced layers.
The bonds within the layers are strong, but the bonds between the layers are less in number and therefore weaker.
Properties:
It is a naturally occurring form of crystalline carbon and is a stable form of carbon.
It is extremely soft, cleaves with very light pressure, and has a very low specific gravity.
In contrast, it is extremely resistant to heat and nearly inert in contact with almost any other material. These extreme properties give it a wide range of uses in metallurgy and manufacturing.
Applications: It is used in pencils, lubricants, crucibles, foundry facings, polishes, arc lamps, batteries, brushes for electric motors, and cores of nuclear reactors.
Globally it is mined extensively in China, India, Brazil, North Korea, and Canada.
Why Sri Lankan Graphite? Sri Lankan graphite is considered among the purest in the world with more than 98% carbon content.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/indl-goods/svs/metals-mining/india-in-talks-with-sri-lanka-to-acquire-graphite-mine-block/articleshow/110342648.cms?from=mdr
4) What is C295 Transport Aircraft?
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling ,VIP transport and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload or as many as 71 troops at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In September 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025 and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Sources: https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/an-overview-of-section-498-a-of-ipc
https://www.international-divorce.com/Indias-Notorious-Section-498A.htm
https://blog.ipleaders.in/section-498a-ipc/
https://lawrato.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/offences-under-ipc-section-498a-bailable-or-not
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-12725-section-498a-ipc-unraveling-misuse-and-relevant-case-laws.html
https://www.lawtendo.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/what-is-section-498a-of-ipc/64bce053c302e71eadbe30d6/
ImageLink: https://airbusus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/C295-3.jpg
With reference to India’s trade statistics, consider the following statements:
- China emerged as India’s largest trading partner in 2023-24.
- India’s total trade deficit in 2023-24 decreased when compared to the previous fiscal.
- India’s has a trade deficit with the United States of America in 2023-24.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India has recorded a trade deficit, the difference between imports and exports, with nine of its top 10 trading partners in 2023-24, according to official data.
About India’s Top Trading Partners:
China has emerged as India’s largest trading partner with $118.4 billion of two-way commerce in 2023-24, surpassing the US.
The bilateral trade between India and the US stood at $118.28 billion in 2023-24. Washington was the top trading partner of New Delhi during 2021-22 and 2022-23.
In 2023-24, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), with USD 83.6 billion, was the third largest trading partner of India. It was followed by Russia ($65.7 billion), Saudi Arabia ($43.4 billion), and Singapore ($35.6 billion).
India’s total trade deficit in the last fiscal narrowed to $238.3 billion as against $ 264.9 billion in the previous fiscal.
The trade deficit with China rose to $85 billion, Russia to $57.2 billion, Korea to $14.71 billion, and Hong Kong to $12.2 billion in 2023-24 against $83.2 billion, $43 billion, $14.57 billion, and $8.38 billion, respectively, in 2022-23.
India has a trade surplus of $ 36.74 billion with the US in 2023-24. America is one of the few countrieswith which India has a trade surplus.
After the US, the Netherlands offers a surplus of $17.3 billion on the back of being a hub of India’s petroleum trade with Europe.
Other countries with which there is a trade surplus are the UK ($4.5 billion), Italy ($ 2.9 billion), France ($902 million), and Belgium ($598 million).
India has a free trade agreement with four of its top trading partners - Singapore, the UAE, Korea, and Indonesia (as part of the Asian bloc).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/india-in-trade-deficit-with-nine-of-top-10-trading-partners-in-2023-24/article68217875.ece
Nyishi Tribe is the largest ethnic group of which one of the following States?
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
Mountaineer and cricketer Kabak Yano etched her name in history recently by becoming the fifth woman from Arunachal Pradesh and the first woman from the Nyishi tribe to scale Mt. Everest.
About Nyishi Tribe:
The Nyishi are the largest ethnic group in Arunachal Pradesh.
In Nishi, their traditional language, Nyi refers to “a man” and the word shi denotes “a being”, which combined together refers to a civilized human being.
The Nyishi language belongs to the Sino-Tibetan family; however, its origin is disputed.
Geographical Distribution:
They are concentrated in eight districts of Arunachal Pradesh, East Kameng, Pakke Kesang, Papum Pare, Lower Subansiri, Kamle, Kra Daadi, Kurung Kumey, and Upper Subansiri.
They also live in Sonitpur and the North Lakhimpur district of Assam.
Their population of around 300,000 makes them the most populous tribe in Arunachal Pradesh, closely followed by the combined tribes of the Adis and the Galos, who were the most populous in the 2001 census.
The Nyishi support themselves with slash-and-burn agriculture and hunting and fishing.
Along with agriculture and allied activities, the Nyishis are experts in handicraftssuch as weaving, cane and bamboo works, pottery, blacksmith, wood carving, carpentry, etc.
Religion:
According to the 2011 Census, Nyishi follows Christian (31%), Hinduism (29%), and many still follow the indigenous Donyi Polo.
Donyi means the Sun, and Polo means the Moon, which are revered as the Ayu Donyi (Great Mother Sun) and Atu Polu (Great Father Moon).
Festivals:
The Nyishi celebrates three major festivals, namely, Boori-Boot (February), Nyokum (February), and Longte (April).
They celebrate and pleases the gods and goddesses for a good harvest, health, wealth, and prosperity.
Polygyny is prevalent among the Nyishi.
They trace their descent patrilineally and are divided into several clans.
One striking feature of Nyishi society is that it is neither based on a caste system nor stratified into classes, except for a loose type of social distinction which is not determined by birth or occupation.
Nyishis consider womenthesource of peace, progress and prosperity. According to them, the importance status of women increases and binds through an established ‘reciprocal marital exchange’ system in the society.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/first-woman-from-arunachals-nyishi-tribe-scales-everest/articleshow/110316442.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to Zero Debris Charter:
- It is an initiative of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) with the goal of creating no more space debris by 2030.
- It is a non-legally binding agreement, but it fosters a community of proactive actors working collectively towards jointly defined targets for 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Twelve nations have signed the Zero Debris Charter at the ESA/EU Space Council recently, solidifying their commitment to the long-term sustainability of human activities in Earth orbit.
About Zero Debris Charter:
It is an initiative of the European Space Agency (ESA) unveiled at the ESA Space Summit in Seville meeting in November 2023.
The Charter comes after ESA Member States encouraged the Agency to implement “a Zero Debris approach for its missions and to encourage partners and other actors to pursue similar paths”.
It is the first initiative of its kind to bring together the largest array and variety of space actors around the world with the joint goal of creating no more debris by 2030 and making possible the long-term sustainability of space activities.
It aims to combine far-reaching guiding principles and highly ambitious yet realistic technical targets on which to build an ambitious Zero Debris roadmap, driving global space debris mitigation and remediation efforts.
The charter is a non-legally binding agreement, but it fosters a community of proactive actors working collectively towards jointly defined targets for 2030.
The charter sets out a number of targets, including that a mission’s probability of generating space debris should remain below 1 in 1,000 per object.
It also sets a target of 99% success for post-mission disposal, including through external means when necessary.
It encourages transparent information sharing and space traffic coordination.
To implement the Charter, the ESA will focus on developing ground-breaking technologies for satellite end-of-life disposal, in-orbit servicing, and active debris removal.
In addition, ESA will work hand-in-hand with institutions in charge of regulatory aspects.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-05-twelve-countries-debris-charter.html#google_vignette
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Green Hydrogen Mission:
- It aims to make India a Global Hub for the production, utilization and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
- The Ministry of Power, Government of India, will be responsible for the overall coordination and implementation of the mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
State-run GAIL (India) Ltd. recently inaugurated its first 10 MW Green Hydrogen Plant under the National Green Hydrogen Mission in Madhya Pradesh’s Vijaipur.
About National Green Hydrogen Mission:
It was approved by the Union Cabinet on January 4, 2022.
Aim: To make India a Global Hub for the production, utilization, and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
Components:
Under the Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), two distinct financial incentive mechanisms
Incentive for manufacturing of electrolysers
Incentive for production of green hydrogen.
The Mission will also support pilot projectsin emerging end-use sectors and production pathways.
Regions capable of supporting large-scale production and/or utilization of Hydrogen will be identified and developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs.
An enabling policy framework will be developed to support the establishment of a Green Hydrogen ecosystem.
A robust Standards and Regulations framework will be also developed.
Further, a public-private partnership framework for R&D (Strategic Hydrogen Innovation Partnership–SHIP) will be facilitated under the Mission.
A coordinated skill development programme will be undertaken under the Mission.
The mission outcomes projected by 2030 are:
Development of green hydrogen production capacityof at least 5 MMT (Million Metric Tonnes) per annum with an associated renewable energy capacity addition of about 125 GW in the country;
Over Rs. Eight lakh crores in total investments;
Creation of over Six lakh jobs;
Cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports over Rs. One lakh crore;
Abatementof nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions;
The initial outlay for the Mission will be Rs.19,744 crore, including an outlay of Rs.17,490 crore for the SIGHTprogramme, Rs.1,466 crore for pilot projects, Rs.400 crore for R&D, and Rs. 388 crores towards other Mission components.
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy will be responsible for the overall coordination and implementation of the Mission.
Henceonly statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.cnbctv18.com/market/gail-share-price-commissions-green-hydrogen-plant-madhya-pradesh-fuel-captive-capacity-19417863.htm
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mundra Port:
- It is the largest private port and the largest container port in India.
- It is located on the north shores of the Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Adani Group’s Mundra Port recently saw the largest ever container ship to dock at an Indian port when the almost 400-metre-long MSC Anna came visiting.
About Mundra Port:
It is the largest private port and the largest container port in India.
Location: It is located on the north shores of the Gulf of Kutch, near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat.
It is a deep-draft, all-weather port.
It is also a special economic zone (SEZ).
As much as 33 percent of India’s container traffic flows through the port.
Ownership: It is run by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ), which is India’s largest commercial ports operator and accounts for nearly one-fourth of the country’s cargo movement.
Handling Capacity:
With a capacity of 260 MMT, the port handles over 155 MMT (FY 2022-23), which constitutes nearly 11% of India’s maritime cargo.
The port has 26 berths and two single-point moorings, which allow it to accommodate a wide range of vessels.
The port handles a wide variety of cargo, including containers, dry bulk, break bulk, liquid cargo, and automobiles.
It also has the country’s largest coal import terminal, which facilitates faster cargo evacuation with minimal turnaround time.
Mundra Port’s rail is connected to the national rail network, and cargo can be handled for any location in India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/adanis-mundra-port-welcomes-largest-ever-container-ship-to-dock-in-india/articleshow/110443007.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the human eye:
- The rod and cone cells receive information in the light that strikes the eye.
- It has three types of cone cells which are sensitive to light of a different wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
As the human understanding of colour has improved and its knowledge has also broadened our sense of our place in this world.
It is a type of information our eyes receive and process based on electromagnetic radiation.
An object is said to have a colour based on frequencies of visible-light radiation it absorbs, reflects, and/or scatters, we can perceive the object to have a particular colour.
How human eyes identify colours?
In the human eye, the rod and the cone cells receive information in the light that strikes the eye: the rod cells record brightness while the cone cells record the wavelengths, which the human brain interprets as colour.
Human beings have three types of cone cells. Each type is sensitive to light of a different wavelength, and they work together to input colour information to the brain.
The possession of three types of cone cells is why humans are called trichromats.
Similarly, while human vision is restricted to wavelengths from 400 nm to 700 nm (visible light), honeybees can also ‘see’ ultraviolet light and mosquitoes and some beetles can access information in some wavelengths of infrared radiation.
How are colours rendered?
There are two broad ways to render colours:
Additive colouring: In this, light of different wavelengths is ‘mixed’ to yield light of one combined colour. The colours on your smartphone screens and television sets are produced in this way.
Subtractive colouring: In subtractive colouring, a colour is rendered by passing white light through a medium that absorbs, or takes away, specific wavelengths of light, leaving the rest to render a particular colour.
The typical examples include dyes, pigments, and inks.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-are-colours-and-how-do-people-understand-them-explained/article68218179.ece
Stellaria mcclintockiae, recently seen in news, is a:
plant species
Explanation :
Recently, a new plant species found on the high, muddy slopes of the Nelliyampathy hills in Kerala’s Palakkad district has been named as Stellaria mcclintockiae.
It is the new species belongs to the genus Stellaria (family Caryophyllaceae).
Features
This is an annual herb growing up to 15 cm in height. Known to be found only in the Nelliyampathy hills as of now, and that too at an elevation of 1,250-1,400 metres.
It differs from other species of this genus with respect to the features of its petals, pollen morphology, bracts, sepals, and seed architecture.
This is the first species of the genus Stellaria reported from south India.
The researchers have recommended that Stellaria mcclintockiae be classified as critically endangered under the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) criteria.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-plant-species-from-keralas-nelliyampathy-named-after-nobel-laureate-barbara-mcclintock/article68218141.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the AI Krish and AI Bhoomi:
- These are Artificial Intelligence anchors launched by the Door Darshan Kisan TV.
- They provide information related to agriculture to school going students.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, DD Kisan deployed two Artificial Intelligence anchors as part of the initiative to present the television channel in a new avatar.
The anchors have been named as ‘AI Krish’ and ‘AI Bhoomi’, and can speak in 50 Indian and foreign languages.
These news anchors are a computer, which are exactly like a human, or rather, these can work like a human. They can read news 24 hours and 365 days without stopping or getting tired.
The farmer viewers will be able to see these anchors in all the States of the country.
These AI anchors will provide every necessary information about agricultural research happening in the country and at the global level, trends in agriculture mandis, changes in the weather, or any other information of government schemes.
Key facts about DD Kisan
It is the only TV channel in the country, which has been established by the Government of India and dedicated to the farmers. This channel was established on 26 May 2015.
The objective of establishing DD Kisan Channel
To always keep the farmers informed about the changes in weather, global and local markets etc., so that farmers can make appropriate plans in advance and take right decisions on time.
It is also working to bring forward the efforts of progressive farmers to all the people, with the aim of serving the agricultural and rural community in the country and working towards creating an environment of holistic development by educating them.
DD Kisan channel is strengthening the three-dimensional concept of agriculture which includes balanced farming, animal husbandry and plantation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/dd-kisan-deploys-two-ai-anchors-ai-krish-ai-bhoomi/article68218458.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Kumaon Himalayas:
- It lies between the Sutlej River and Kali River.
- Nanda Devi and Kamet mountains are located in this region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Supreme court halts the 90 acres project in ecologically fragile and seismic-prone lower Himalayan ranges in the Kumaon hills of Uttarakhand.
It is the west-central section of the Himalayas in northern India.
Geographical boundary: It lies between the Sutlej River in the west and the Kali River in the East.
It comprises part of the Siwalik Range in the south and part of the Great Himalayas in the north, lies largely within the state of Uttarakhand, northwest of Nepal.
Highest peaks of this region: Nanda Devi and Kamet.
Lakes of this region: Naini Lake, Sattal, Bhimtal, Naukuchiya Tal
It is home to some of the major hill stations such as Nainital, Ranikhet, and Almora.
It is also the melting pot of tribal/indigenous people – Tharus, Bhutiyas, Jaunsaris, Buksas, and Rajis whose.
Concern: It is ecologically fragile and seismic-prone area.
Key facts about Shiwalik Range
Shivalik Hills are a sub-Himalayan Mountain Range running 1,600 km long from the Teesta River, Sikkim, through Nepal and India, into northern Pakistan.
The range runs parallel with the Himalayan system from Haridwar on the Ganges to the banks of the Beas River. The hills have an average height of 900 to 1,200 m.
They are chiefly composed of low sandstone and conglomerate hills, the solidified and up-heaved detritus of the great range in their rear, the intermediate valley lying between the outer hills and the Mussoorie.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sc-halts-90-acre-project-in-kumaon-himalayas-on-a-plea-challenging-single-window-clearances/article68201001.ece
With reference to Small Island Developing States, consider the following statements:
- They are located only in the Pacific Ocean region.
- For SIDs, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is greater than the country’s land mass.
- They were recognized in United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Fourth International Conference on Small Island Developing States (SIDS-4) will be convened from May 27-30, 2024.
These are a distinct group of 39 States and 18 Associate Members of United Nations regional commissions that face unique social, economic and environmental vulnerabilities.
The three geographical regions in which SIDS are located are: the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, Indian Ocean and South China Sea (AIS).
SIDS were recognized as a special case both for their environment and development at the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
For SIDS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)—the ocean under their control—is, on average, 28 times the country’s land mass.
Issues: They are highly vulnerable developing countries as they suffer from low economic diversification, often characterised by high dependence on tourism and remittances, volatility due to fluctuations in private income flows and the prices of raw materials, and debt stress situations.
For many SIDS, the majority of the natural resources they have access to come from the ocean.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thegef.org/events/gef-fourth-international-conference-small-island-developing-states-sids-4
Consider the following statements with reference to the Strain Rate:
- It is the rate of deformation caused by strain in a material within a corresponding time.
- The unit of strain rate is Meter per Second (m/s).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers has reported in a study that when pure copper is heated and also subjected to an extreme strain rate, it behaves like a much harder material would.
About Strain Rate:
Strain is how much a material deformswhen stress is applied. It is a measure of the change in shape or size of an object relative to its original shape or size.
It has units of meters divided by meters, so it ends up without physical units.
Strain rate is the rate of deformationcaused by strain in a material within a corresponding time.
It is a measure of how quickly a material is deformed over time.
It involves both the rate wherein a certain material expands and shears.
Strain Rate = Change in Strain / Change in Time
The unit of strain rate is per second.
Importance:
It is an important factor in materials science and engineering because it influences the mechanical properties and behavior of materials.
It can be highly beneficial in the field of metallurgy and corrosion engineering.
Since materials may undergo deformation in various rates and directions, learning how to gauge strain rate with respect to certain elements like time, velocity, and others is vital in determiningthe material strength and the point at which corrosion, specifically stress corrosion cracking, could take place.
The use of low strain rates is now a widely used technique in evaluating the response of materials against stress.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/copper-becomes-unexpectedly-hard-under-extreme-strain-rate/article68211503.ece
With reference to Eucalyptus tree, consider the following statements:
- It is a large genus of tall trees native to South America and nearby islands.
- Eucalyptus wood is tough and durable.
- Some eucalyptus leaves contain an oil that is widely used for its medicinal properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Kerala government recently issued an order allowing the Kerala Forest Development Corporation (KFDC) to plant eucalyptus trees for its financial sustenance in 2024-2025.
About Eucalyptus:
It is a large genus of more than 660 species of shrubs and tall trees of the myrtle family (Myrtaceae).
Some of the tallest trees in the world are eucalypti.
It is native to Australia, Tasmania, and nearby islands.
In Australia, the eucalypti are commonly known as gum trees or stringybark trees.
Many species are cultivated widely in many areas of the world as shade trees or in forestry plantations.
Features:
It has a gum-infused bark, long stems, and circular leaves that are hard to digest if eaten whole.
Small flowers grow on eucalyptus trees. They come in many colors, including white, yellow, and shades of red.
Eucalypti also have small woody capsules. Inside the capsules are seeds.
Uses:
It is widely used for its medicinal properties.
Some eucalyptus leaves contain an oil that has a strong smell.
It is useful to treat a variety of common diseases and also works amazingly when applied topically in diluted form.
The main compound of eucalyptus oil is cineole, also known as eucalyptol. The oil also contains flavonoids and tannins, which acts as anti-inflammatory and antioxidants.
It is known for its ability to relieve congestion and ease breathing in colds.
It is also used as a pain reliever for sore and overextended muscles.
It is an excellent topical remedy for aching jointsand rheumatism. It helps improve blood circulation.
Eucalyptus wood is tough and durable. It is used to build things such as furniture and fences.
Eucalyptus Plantations in India:
Eucalyptus tereticornis and Eucalyptus hybrid are the two most widely planted eucalypts in India.
It is widely grown in Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Gujrat, Haryana, Mysore, Kerala, and in the Nilgiri Hill.
It grows well in deep, fertile, well-drained loamy soil with adequate moisture.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/the-controversy-over-eucalyptus-planting-in-kerala-explained/article68222800.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Virupaksha Temple:
- It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- It is located in Srirangam, Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A portion of the Virupaksha temple in Karnataka collapsed following torrential rains recently.
About Virupaksha Temple:
It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Lord Shiva.
Location:
It is located in Hampi, in the Vijayanagara district of Karnataka.
It is part of the Group of Monuments at Hampi, designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
It is situated on the southern bankofthe Tungabhadra River.
According to history, this temple has been functioning uninterruptedly ever since itsinception in the 7th century AD and is one of India’s oldest functioning temples.
Originally a small, humble shrine,it was expandedto its present magnificence during the reign of the Vijayanagara kings, though additions to its temple were also made by the Chalukyan and Hoysala eras.
Architecture:
It is built in South Indian architecture style.
Hampi’s only continuously functioning temple, it includes a sanctum sanctorum,pillared halls–the most elaborate one consisting of 100 pillars–antechambers, grand gopurams, and a number of smaller shrines, along with a temple kitchen and administrative offices.
It has three gopurams; the eastern gopuram is the largest (nine storeys and 50 meters tall); the other two are the smaller gopurams on the inner east and inner northern sides of the temple complex.
Beautiful sculptures of many Hindu Gods adorn the outer faces of the gopurams.
Apart from these, builders utilizedphysics principles such as Rectilinear Light Theory and the pinhole camera effect, along with mathematical concepts like fractals, geometry, complex mathematics, and the Fibonacci number sequence, to construct the temple.
The most interesting part of the structure is the inverted pinhole imageof its tower present on the inner wall.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/hampi-virupaksha-temple-collapse-history-9352962/
Campi Flegrei, recently seen in the news, is an active volcanic area located in which one of the following countries?
Italy
Explanation :
The strongest earthquake to hit Italy’s Campi Flegrei supervolcano region in decades struck recently.
About Campi Flegrei:
Campi Flegrei (known as Phlegrean Fields in English) is an active volcanic area located in the vicinity of Naples, Italy.
Unlike the nearby Mount Vesuvius, Campi Flegrei is not characterised by a single volcano.
It is more of a volcanic system, withseveral centres situated within a caldera (the depression created when emptying magma chambers causes the roof of a volcano to collapse).
The Campi Flegrei caldera has a diameter of about 12-15 km (7.5-9.3 miles).
It was formed 39,000 years ago after an eruption emptied it of magma. According to a new hypothesis, this eruption could have been the beginning of the end of the Neanderthal.
One third of it lies under the Tyrrhenian Sea, between the Italian mainland and the country’s island of Sardinia.
It is the largest active caldera in Europe. It is much larger than the cone-shaped Vesuvius, which destroyed the ancient Roman city of Pompeii in AD79, and is much more active.
Campi Flegrei has been in a restless state since 1950. It is a result of a phenomenon known as bradyseism, which scientists understand to be the gradual movement of part of Earth’s surfacecaused by the filling or emptying of an underground magma chamber or hydrothermal activity.
It last erupted in 1538, after an interval of about 3000 years. This eruption, although minor in comparison, formed Monte Nuovo, a new mountain.
Scientists consider Campi Flegrei to be a supervolcano whose eruptions can have worldwide effects.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://au.news.yahoo.com/campi-flegrei-volcanic-crater-near-084538559.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Election Petitions in India:
- The Constitution of India empowers the High Courts to hear and decide election petitions.
- A decision in such petitions can be challenged in the Supreme Court (SC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Election Commission of India (ECI) recently invoked Article 329(b) of the Constitution, which prohibits judicial intervention in the working of the commission in the middle of the election process.
About Article 329(b):
Enshrined in Part XV of the Constitution, Articles 324-329 specifically discuss elections.
While Article 324 gives the poll panel powers to direct and control elections, Article 329, which has two clauses, concerns itself with the role of the judiciary in electoral matters.
Article 329(a) says the “judiciary is not allowed to challenge the constitutionality of laws relating to the boundaries of electoral districts or the allocation of seats.
Article 329(b) as amended by the Constitution (19th Amendment) Act, 1966, provides that notwithstanding anything in the Constitution, no election to either House of Parliament or the Legislature of a State shall be called into questionexcept by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as may be provided for by or under any lawmade by the appropriate Legislature.
It stipulates that election-related inquiries are exclusively addressed through election petitions presented to the authority designated by that law.
The Representation of the People Act, 1951, furthers this clause as it empowers the High courts to hear and decide election petitions.
A decision in such petitions can be challenged in the Supreme Court (SC).
SC Rulings:
In the 1952 Ponnuswamy judgment (Ponnuswami v. Returning Officer Namakkal), the SC held that the word “election” in Article 329(b) connotes the entire electoral process commencing with the issue of the notification calling the election and culminating in the declaration of result, and that the electoral process once started could not be interfered with at any intermediary stage by courts.
The SC in K. Venkatachalam vs. A.Swamickan (1999) determined that Article 329(b) is inapplicable if the matter pertains to Articles 191 and 193, which deal with disqualifications and penalties related to parliamentary and legislative assembly membership, respectively.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://theprint.in/judiciary/whats-article-329b-invoked-by-ec-in-sc-that-restricts-judicial-intervention-in-poll-process/2103281/
Consider the following statements with reference to the ZiG currency:
- It is a new gold backed currency launched by the Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe.
- It is launched with an aim to prevent currency devaluation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, to address its long-standing economic instability, the Reserve Bank of Zimbabwe (RBZ) has launched a new gold-backed currency called the ZiG.
About ZiG:
The Zimbabwe Gold (ZiG) is a new gold-backed currency launched by Zimbabwe.
The ZiG, now the sixth currency used by Zimbabwe, has been in circulation since April 5, 2024.
Key features of ZiG
The ZiG stands out as a new currency backed by gold reserves, ensuring its value is supported by the physical gold held by the government.
ZiG notes and coins will be available and issued in denominations: 1ZiG, 2ZiG, 5ZiG, 10ZiG, 20Zig, 50ZiG, 100ZiG, and 200ZiG, with the gold backing aims to provide stability and prevent currency devaluation.
Reasons for launching new currency
Zimbabwe has grappled with high inflation, with rates surpassing 500% in recent years.
Consequently, the Zimbabwean dollar, introduced in 1980, lost its value due to hyperinflation. Following this, the country relied on various currencies, primarily the US dollar, leading to limited control over its economy.
The collapse of the Zimbabwean dollar in 2009, with hyperinflation peaking at 5 billion per cent, marked one of the most severe currency crashes in history.
Banks in Zimbabwe have been converting the previous national currency, the Zimbabwe dollar, into ZiGs, aiming to promote simplicity, certainty, and predictability in monetary and financial matters.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/what-is/the-zig-all-about-zimbabwes-new-gold-backed-currency-9354398/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Astronomical transient:
- It is a phenomenon in celestial object whose brightness changes in short spans of time.
- It can be seen when Fast Radio Burst occurs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian-American astronomer Shrinivas Kulkarni was awarded the Shaw Prize for Astronomy in 2024 for his work on the physics of astronomical transients.
In astronomy, a ‘transient’ is any celestial object whose brightness changes in short spans of time.
There are many kinds of astronomical transients, all of them united by phenomena that are violent in some measure.
Astronomers study transients to understand where their violence comes from and what that can tell us about non-transient event.
Examples of transients
Supernovae: When the outer layers of large stars blow up while their cores implode because the stars have run out of elements to fuse. Many a supernova has been known to become so bright that it emits light more intensely than the stars in the rest of its host galaxy combined.
Active Galactic nucleus (AGN): The centres of massive galaxies host supermassive black holes. Sometimes, these black holes actively feast on matter in their orbit. Interactions between the black holes and the matter in this process cause the latter to acquire energy and glow with a changing brightness.
Fast Radio Burst (FRB): It was discovered in 2007 and it can emit more than 10-times as much energy as the Sun in a few milliseconds.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/shrinivas-kulkarni-shaw-prize-astronomical-transients/article68217965.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) initiative:
- It is a mandatory disclosure mechanism for top 1000 listed companies to report their performance on environmental, social and governance.
- It is an initiative of the World Bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Delhi-based think tank Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) welcomed the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) initiative by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
It is a mandatory disclosure mechanism for top 1000 listed companies or businesses to report their performance on environmental, social and governance (ESG) aspects and demonstrate their commitment to responsible business practices.
It was introduced in May 2021 by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
This initiative was intended to provide policymakers and investors with robust data to make informed decisions.
The disclosure requirements are grouped into nine core categories, based on the principles of the National Guidelines for Responsible Business Conduct introduced by SEBI:
Environmental protection: Key performance indicators cover electricity consumption, water usage and air emissions.
Human rights: Focus on human rights violations and minimum and fair wages.
Integrity: Performance indicators include anti-corruption, anti-bribery and conflicts of interest policies.
Employee well-being: Metrics focused on parental benefits, employee accessibility and the percentage of unionized workers.
Inclusive growth: Policies favoring vulnerable and marginalized groups.
Sustainable goods and services: Information on investments in social and environmental impacts.
Responsible consumer engagement: KPIs encompass handling consumer complaints and feedback, product recall procedures and cybersecurity and data privacy policies.
Stakeholder responsiveness: Describing engagement with vulnerable and marginalized groups.
Responsible public policy engagement: Listing trade and industry affiliations and detailing issues relating to anticompetitive conduct.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/sebi-s-green-reporting-mechanism-vital-but-needs-to-be-more-consistent-rigorous-cse-suggests-steps-to-enhance-system-96337
INS Kiltan, recently seen in news, belongs to:
Kamorta-class
Explanation :
Indian Naval Ship Kiltan arrived at Muara, Brunei and was accorded a warm welcome by the Royal Brunei Navy.
It is an indigenously-built anti-submarine warfare stealth corvette.
This is the third of the four Kamorta-class corvettes being built under Project 28.
The ship derives its name from one of the islands in Aminidivi group of the strategically located Lakshadweep and Minicoy group of islands.
Designed by the Indian Navy’s in-house organisation Directorate of Naval Design and built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers (GRSE) in Kolkata
Features
It is India’s first major warship to have a superstructure of carbon fibre composite material resulting in improved stealth features, lower top weight and maintenance costs.
The ship hosts a predominantly indigenous cutting-edge weapons and sensors suite which includes heavyweight torpedoes, ASW rockets, 76 mm caliber Medium Range gun and two multi-barrel 30 mm guns as close-in-weapon system (CIWS) with dedicated fire control systems, missile decoy rockets (Chaff), advanced ESM (Electronic Support Measure) system, most advanced bow mounted sonar and air surveillance radar.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-naval-ships-complete-deployment-to-south-china-sea/article68215394.ece
Oedocladium sahyadricum, recently seen in news, is a/an:
algae
Explanation :
A group of phycologists from the Department of Botany at Catholicate College in Pathanamthitta has discovered a new algal species in the Western Ghats.
It is a new algal species and it is named as Oedocladium sahyadricum.
The name ‘sahyadricum’ refers to the Western Ghats, also known as Sahyadri, which is rich in plant diversity and provides ideal conditions for the growth of terrestrial microalgae.
Features
It is dioecious and terrestrial, having a superior operculum, and possessing ellipsoid oogonium and oospore.
The alga was found as a thin mat of elongated strands on damp soil.
The species, which looks like moss protonema, is velvety green but turns yellowish-green as it matures. Rainy weather is likely needed for its abundant growth.
This is the first time a species in the Oedocladium category has been recorded in Kerala.
Species of Oedocladium have potential practical applications
In medicine, agriculture, and in the production of a natural pigment, astaxanthin which is well-documented for its unique biological activities and health benefits.
Algae play a significant role in ecosystems and have enormous economic importance in the world market, from high-value products to wastewater treatment.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-algal-species-discovered-in-western-ghats/article68221778.ece#
In India, women got universal suffrage rights from the
A. Act of 1858 passed by the British Parliament B. Enactment of Government of India Act 1935 C. 61st Constitutional Amendment, 1989
None of the above
Explanation :
In India, women got universal suffrage rights with the enactment of Constitution of India in 1950. Before Independence, the voting rights were confined to certain eligibility criteria like property ownership, land ownership, payment of income and municipal tax.
The `Fraternity’ mentioned in the Preamble refers to the common brotherhood of all citizens. The constitution promotes fraternity through which of the following?
- Single citizenship
- Fundamental Rights
- Fundamental Duties
- Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single citizenship. Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities. So, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things– the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. The word ‘integrity’ has been added to the preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976).
According to K.M. Munshi, a member of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly, the phrase ‘dignity of the individual’ signifies that the Constitution not only ensures material betterment and maintain a democratic set-up, but that it also recognises that the personality of every individual is sacred. This is highlighted through some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy, which ensure the dignity of individuals. So, statements 2 and 4 are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Socialism in the Preamble:
- The Indian National Congress adopted a resolution to establish a socialistic pattern of society in its Karachi session.
- The original Constitution did not include Socialistic principles, but they were later incorporated by the 42nd Amendment.
- The Indian version of socialism promotes the dominance of state-owned firms, often known as state socialism.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Congress party itself adopted a resolution to establish a socialistic pattern of society in its Avadi session in 1955. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The word socialist was inserted in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment in 1976. Even before the term was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1946, the Constitution had a socialist content in certain Directive Principles of State Policy. So, statement 2 is not correct.
It is to be noted that the socialism envisaged by the Indian Constitution is not the usual scheme of state socialism which involves nationalisation of all means of production and the abolition of private property. Instead, India adopted Democratic socialism, which holds faith in the mixed economy. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Preamble to the Constitution of India:
- The Constituent Assembly adopted the Preamble as presented by the Drafting Committee without any amendments.
- The Preamble was enacted before other provisions of the Constitution were enacted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Constitution of India begins with a Preamble. The Preamble contains the ideals, objectives and basic principles of the Constitution. The salient features of the Constitution have evolved directly and indirectly from these objectives, which flow from the Preamble
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22 January 1947.
The Constituent Assembly debated the Preamble on 17th October 1949. The debates around the Preamble revolved around the name of India and the inclusion of ‘God’ and ‘Gandhi’. The amendments moved by the members were rejected. The Assembly adopted the Preamble as presented by the Drafting Committee. So, statement 1 is correct.
The motion on Draft Constitution was declared as passed on November 26, 1949, and received the signatures of the members and the president. This is also the date mentioned in the Preamble as the date on which the people of India in the Constituent Assembly adopted, enacted and gave to themselves this Constitution. The Constitution, as adopted on November 26, 1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. The Preamble was enacted after the entire Constitution was already enacted. So, statement 2 is not correct
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble to the Constitution of India:
- The idea of the Preamble has been borrowed from American Constitution.
- The language used in the Preamble has been borrowed from the Australian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The American Constitution was the first, to begin with a Preamble. Many countries, including India, followed this practice. The term ‘preamble’ refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the summary or essence of the Constitution.
The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the Constitutions of various other countries as well as from the Government of India Act 1935.
Features borrowed from American Constitution: Written Constitution, Impeachment of the President, Supreme Court, Provision of States Functions of President and Vice-President, Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges, Fundamental Rights, Judicial review, Independence of Judiciary, Preamble of the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
Features borrowed from Australian Constitution: Concurrent List, Freedom of trade, Commerce and intercourse, Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament, the language used in the Preamble. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble to the Constitution of India:
- In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution.
- The Preamble is outside the amending power of the Parliament.
- The provisions of the Preamble are justiciable.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. The court also held that The Preamble is not the supreme power or source of any restriction or prohibition but it plays an important role in the interpretation of statutes and provisions of the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
Since Preamble is a part of the Constitution, the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case held that Preamble can be amended, subject to the condition that no amendment is done to the ‘basic features. In other words, the court held that the basic elements or the fundamental features of the Constitution as contained in the Preamble cannot be altered by an amendment under Article 368. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Hence, the current opinion held by the Supreme Court is that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and can be amended without affecting the basic structure of the Constitution. However, two things to be noted:
The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature.
It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Federal system in India’:
- Having a single and rigid Constitution is considered to be a unitary feature of the Indian federal setup.
- In the Kesavananda Bharathi case (1973), the Supreme Court characterized Federalism as a ‘Basic feature’ of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions related to the federal structure can be amended only by the joint action of the central and state government; therefore it is a federal feature not unitary, whereas a Single constitution for both Centre and state is considered as unitary feature since usually in a federation, the states have the right to frame their own constitution. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It is in S.R. Bommai case (1994), the Supreme Court laid down that the constitution is federal and characterized federalism as its ‘basic feature’. Wherein Supreme Court observed that under the scheme of constitution greater power is conferred upon the Centre vis-à-vis the state, does not mean that the state are mere appendages of the Centre. The state have an independent constitutional existence. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Unlike India, Canada is a constitutional monarchy having the Queen of the United Kingdom as the constitutional head.
- In India, residuary legislative powers are vested with the Union Government, whereas in Canada, they are vested with the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Canada is a constitutional monarchy, in that its executive authority is vested formally in the Queen of the United Kingdom through the Constitution. Every act of government is carried out in the name of the Crown, but the authority for those acts flows from the Canadian people. On the other hand, India is a republic and has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years. So, statement 1 is correct.
In India, as well as in Canada, residuary legislative powers are vested with the Union government which indicates towards the strong centre hold over the Indian federal polity. In fact, the Indian constitution has borrowed this feature of a Strong centre with weak states from the Canadian Constitution. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following best defines ‘Socialism’?
A system in which private property and the distribution of income are subject to social control.
Explanation :
Under communism, all property is communally owned; private property doesn’t exist. Under socialism, individuals can still own private property. Also, Marx predicted that a violent worker uprising against the middle and upper classes would bring about the communist state, whereas socialists tend to seek change and reform without overthrowing the prevailing social and political structure. So, option a is not correct.
Socialism is a populist economic and political system based on public ownership of the means of production. Those means include the machinery, tools, and factories used to produce goods that aim to directly satisfy human needs. Under socialism, the distribution of resources takes place based on the needs of each individual. It follows the rule of “from each according to ability, to each according to need.” So, option b is not correct.
Socialism does not promote a market economy. Unlike socialism, market economies rely on the separate actions of self-determining individuals to determine production, distribution, and consumption. Decisions about what, when, and how to produce are made privately and coordinated through a spontaneously developed price system, and prices are determined by the laws of demand and supply. Proponents say that freely floating market prices direct resources towards their most efficient ends. Profits are encouraged and drive future production. So, option c is not correct.
Socialism is an economic and political system based on public ownership of the means of production. All legal production and distribution decisions are made by the government in a socialist system. The government also determines all output and pricing levels and supplies its citizens with everything from food to healthcare. Proponents of socialism believe that it leads to a more equal distribution of goods and services and a more equitable society. So, option d is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of ‘a sovereign nation’?
A supreme legal authority in both internal and external spheres
Explanation :
Sovereign nation is a state which possesses the following qualifications: i) a permanent population; ii) a defined territory; iii) government; and iv) capacity to enter into relations with the other states. Sovereignty refers to supreme legal authority and unchallengeable political power. Therefore, a sovereign nation is a supreme legal authority in both internal and external spheres.
It is not necessary that all those countries which are sovereign have membership in the United Nations. For example, Kosovo.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to aspects of Liberty:
- Negative liberty seeks to define and defend a sacred area in which no external authority can interfere.
- Positive liberty recognizes that one can be free only outside society, not inside and thus enables individual development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
‘Negative liberty’ seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual would be inviolable, in which he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’. This is an area in which no external authority can interfere. It is a minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever the individual does, is not to be interfered with. The existence of the ‘minimum area of non-interference’ is the recognition that human nature and human dignity need an area where the person can act unobstructed by others. So, statement 1 is correct.
Positive liberty recognises that one can be free only in society (not outside it) and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual whereas negative liberty is only concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference and not with the conditions in society, outside this area, as such. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Positive liberty recognises that one can be free only in society (not outside it) and hence tries to make that society such that it enables the development of the individual whereas negative liberty is only concerned with the inviolable area of non-interference and not with the conditions in society, outside this area, as such.
For Example, a person living in New Delhi. He’d like to go to Maharashtra to visit his family. Under a negative conception of liberty, he is free to go to Maharashtra if nobody is actively preventing him from doing so. Thus his negative liberty would be violated if his neighbor locked him in the basement, or if someone stole his car.
But what if the person is so poor that he can’t afford a car or a plane or a train ticket or if he is sick and so not physically up to the trip, then in these instances, no person prevents him from going to his home state, Maharashtra. So, his negative liberty remains intact. Yet he lacks the capacity to fulfill his desire and so, from a positive liberty standpoint, he is unfree.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer
Consider the following:
- Seventh Schedule
- Involvement of State Legislature in certain constitutional amendments
- Financial Emergency
- All India Services
Which of the above can be considered as federal features of the Indian Constitution?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. This is a federal feature. So, point 1 is correct.
The Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure (i.e., Centre-state relations and judicial organization) can be amended only by the joint action of the Central and state governments. Such provisions require for their amendment a special majority of the Parliament and also the approval of half of the State Legislatures. This can be considered a federal feature. So, point 2 is correct.
The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies–national, state and financial. During an emergency, the Central government becomes all-powerful and the states go into total control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. So, point 3 is not correct.
In India, the Centre and the states have their separate public services. But, in addition, there are all-India services (IAS, IPS, and IFS) which are common to both the Centre and the states. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Centre which also possesses ultimate control over them. Thus, these services violate the principle of federalism under the Constitution. So, point 4 is not correct.
The federal features of the Indian Constitution include
Written Constitution
Supremacy of the Constitution
Rigid Constitution
Division of Powers
Independent Judiciary
Bicameral Legislature
Dual Polity
Consider the following:
- Seventh Schedule
- Involvement of State Legislature in certain constitutional amendments
- Financial Emergency
- All India Services
Which of the above can be considered as federal features of the Indian Constitution?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. This is a federal feature. So, point 1 is correct.
The Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are concerned with the federal structure (i.e., Centre-state relations and judicial organization) can be amended only by the joint action of the Central and state governments. Such provisions require for their amendment a special majority of the Parliament and also the approval of half of the State Legislatures. This can be considered a federal feature. So, point 2 is correct.
The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies–national, state and financial. During an emergency, the Central government becomes all-powerful and the states go into total control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution. So, point 3 is not correct.
In India, the Centre and the states have their separate public services. But, in addition, there are all-India services (IAS, IPS, and IFS) which are common to both the Centre and the states. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Centre which also possesses ultimate control over them. Thus, these services violate the principle of federalism under the Constitution. So, point 4 is not correct.
The federal features of the Indian Constitution include
Written Constitution
Supremacy of the Constitution
Rigid Constitution
Division of Powers
Independent Judiciary
Bicameral Legislature
Dual Polity
For which one of the following reasons, the rights listed under Part III of the Constitution are called as ‘Fundamental Rights’?
These rights are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution.
Explanation :
The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy. They prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, and protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the State. They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. In short, they aim at establishing ‘a government of laws and not of men’.
The Fundamental Rights are named so because they are guaranteed and protected by the Constitution, which is the fundamental law of the land. They are ‘fundamental’ also in the sense that they are most essential for the all-round development (material, intellectual, moral and spiritual) of the individuals.
In the context of Indian polity, which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of ‘Freedom’?
Liberty with reasonable restrain
Explanation :
Freedom is said to exist when external constraints on the individual are absent. In terms of this definition an individual could be considered free if he/she is not subject to external controls or coercion and is able to make independent decisions and act in an autonomous way. However, absence of constraints is only one dimension of freedom. Freedom is also about expanding the ability of people to freely express themselves and develop their potential. Freedom in this sense is the condition in which people can develop their creativity and capabilities. Both these aspects of freedom — the absence of external constraints as well as the existence of conditions in which people can develop their talents — are important. A free society would be one which enables all its members to develop their potential with the minimum of social constraints.
No individual living in society can hope to enjoy total absence of any kind of constraints or restrictions. It becomes necessary then to determine which social constraints are justified and which are not, which are acceptable and which should be removed. To be free means to reduce or minimise social constraints that limit our ability to make choices freely. However, this is only one aspect of freedom. In the constitutional discussions in India, the term used for such justifiable constraints is ‘reasonable restrictions’. The restrictions may be there but they must be reasonable, i.e., capable of being defended by reason, not excessive, not out of proportion to the action being restricted, since then it would impinge on the general condition of freedom in society. We must not develop a habit of imposing restrictions since such a habit is detrimental to freedom.
Freedom, in this sense, allows the full development of the individual’s creativity, sensibilities and capabilities: be it in sports, science, art, music or exploration.
Which one of the following best defines the term ‘law’?
Rules made by the designated political authority having legitimacy to do so
Explanation :
Law means rules made by the superior political or judicial authority (comprising human beings) having legitimate power to make the rules for the guidance of the conduct of other human beings.
These are the norms not established by the society, but legitimate authority (either political or judicial). The law tries to establish norms in the society to regulate human behaviour. The norms may be social, political, economic or environmental. Norms established by law are coercive in nature.
For which one of the following reasons India adopted Fundamental Rights with exceptions and not in absolute terms?
Absolute Fundamental Rights could have an adverse effect on the larger group.
Explanation :
The most criticized part of the Draft Constitution is that which relates to Fundamental Rights. It is said that Article 13 which defines fundamental rights is riddled with so many exceptions that the exceptions have eaten up the rights altogether. In the opinion of the critics, fundamental rights are not fundamental rights unless they are also absolute rights. The critics rely on the Constitution of the United States and the Bill of Rights embodied in the first ten Amendments to that Constitution in support of their contention. It is said that the fundamental rights in the American Bill of Rights are real because they are not subjected to limitations or exceptions.
To answer this, the Draft committee replied ‘The whole of the criticism about fundamental rights is based upon a misconception. In the first place, the criticism in so far as it seeks to distinguish fundamental rights from non-fundamental rights is not sound. It is incorrect to say that fundamental rights are absolute while non-fundamental rights are not absolute. The real distinction between the two is that non-fundamental rights are created by agreement between parties while fundamental rights are the gift of the law. Because fundamental rights are the gift of the State it does not follow that the State cannot qualify them.
The Constitution helps to protect us against certain decisions that we might take that could have an adverse effect on the larger principles that the country believes in. For example, it is possible that many people who live in a democracy might come to strongly feel that party politics has become so acrimonious that we need a strong dictator to set this right. Swept by this emotion, they may not realise that in the long run, dictatorial rule goes against all their interests. A good Constitution does not allow these whims to change its basic structure. It does not allow for the easy overthrow of provisions that guarantee rights of citizens and protect their freedom.
Therefore, What the Indian Constitution has done is that instead of formulating fundamental rights in absolute terms and depending upon our Supreme Court to come to the rescue of Parliament by inventing the doctrine of police power, it permits the State directly to impose limitations upon the fundamental rights. There is really no difference in the result. What one does directly the other does indirectly. In both cases, the fundamental rights are not absolute.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- Both India and the USA have an integrated judicial system to help establish a strong federation.
- The age of retirement of the Judges in both the American and Indian Supreme Court is the same.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Unlike the American Constitution, the Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the high courts below it. Under a high court (and below the state level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts. This single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935, enforces both Central laws as well as state laws. On the other hand America doesn’t have an integrated judicial system. The United States is a federal system, with a central federal government and individual governments for each of the fifty states. As with the other branches of government, each of the states has their own complete judicial system (state courts) as does the United States itself (federal courts). Each judicial system has a number of courts of original jurisdiction, in which cases are originally filed and tried. The jurisdiction of these trial courts can be both geographically and subject matter based. Each system also has a smaller number of intermediate appellate courts. These courts hear appeals from the trial courts. An appeal is a claim by the losing party that the lower court has made a mistake of law. Usually, a losing party is entitled to one appeal as a matter of right. Each court system also has a supreme court, which hears appeals from the appellate courts. Appeals to the Supreme Court are usually discretionary, that is the court may choose whether or not to hear the appeal. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The United States of America is unique in the democratic world with respect to its tenure of judges of the Federal court who enjoy lifelong tenures. Judges of the American Supreme Court do not have a fixed tenure and continue in office for life. The Indian Supreme Court Justices, on the other hand, retire at the age of 65 years. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
“This refers to a system of governance that is under military control. The military chiefs assume the control of the state, although they do not impose rules on the citizens. In these states, the Government and the military are constitutionally the same entity. The military’s state role is supported by the constitution and the citizenry.” This is the most likely description of:
Stratocracy
Explanation :
Timocracy refers to a governance system in which only property owners can participate in government and state activities. According to Socrates, timocracy is a government run by individuals who love honor and are allocated state responsibilities according to the degree of honor they command in the society.
Stratocracy refers to a system of governance that is under military control. The military chiefs assume the control of the state, although they do not impose rules on the citizens. It is different from military junta or military dictatorship where the military imposes laws in disregard of the constitution. In stratocratic states, the government and the military are constitutionally the same entity. The military’s state role is supported by the constitution and the citizenry. From 1997 to 2011, Myanmar was a stratocratic state.
Plutocracy or plutarchy is a form of oligarchy in which society is ruled and controlled by a few wealthy citizens. It advocates for the control of the society by the wealthy at the expense of democracy and equality.
Meritocracy is a system of governance where particular sectors of the economy are left to the experts in the sector. This political philosophy is based on the ideology that people are more productive if they engage in what they like and possess knowledge about. State leadership is left to people who excel in their field.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is/are not defined in the Constitution of India?
- Religious Minority
- Anglo Indian
- Untouchability
- Martial Law
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Constitution of India mentions various terms but has not defined them thus leaving it up to the courts to interpret the meaning of those terms. Article 29 and 30 of the Constitution of India provide special rights to linguistic and religious minorities. However, the word minority has not been defined anywhere by the Constitution. The Government of India has declared Muslims, Jains, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians as the religious minorities in India. But there is no clarity on the definition of the word “minority”. So, point 1 is correct.
The term Anglo Indian has been defined by the Constitution under Article 366(2) to mean a person whose father or any male progenitors is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory. So, point 2 is not correct.
Article 17 prohibits untouchability. There is no definition of the meaning of Untouchability either in the Constitution nor is it mentioned in the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955. So, point 3 is correct.
Article 34 of the Constitution of India gives Parliament the power to indemnify, by law, any person in service of Union or State or any other person with respect to acts done during operation of martial law in an area. Martial law has not been defined in the Constitution. Moreover, there is no provision in the Constitution authorising proclamation of martial law. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Padma Awards:
- Padma Awards are not awarded posthumously.
- The Padma Awards Committee is constituted by the President.
- Self-nomination can be made for this award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honours of India announced on the eve of Republic Day, annually. Padma Awards constitute – Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. Padma awards can be awarded posthumously. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Every year, the Prime Minister constitutes a Padma Awards Committee to recommend names for the awards. The committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary. The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the Prime Minister and the President for approval. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
According to B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following forms a union of trinity and is related to social democracy?
Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
Explanation :
The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
This dimension was stressed by Dr. Ambedkar in his concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly on November 25, 1949, in the following way: “Political democracy cannot last unless there lies at the base of it social democracy. What does social democracy mean? It means a way of life which recognises liberty, equality and fraternity. The principles of liberty, equality and fraternity are not to be treated as separate items in a trinity. They form a union of trinity in the sense that to divorce one from the other is to defeat the very purpose of democracy. Liberty cannot be divorced from equality, equality cannot be divorced from liberty. Nor can liberty and equality be divorced from fraternity. Without equality, liberty would produce the supremacy of the few over the many. Equality without liberty, would kill individual initiative”.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Like Entitlements, rights include money, material items, or services.
Explanation :
Rights are the common claims of people which every cultured society recognizes as essential claims for their development, and which are therefore enforced by the state. According to Harold Laski, “Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek in general, to be himself at his best.”
T. H. Green, for his part, explained that “Rights are powers necessary for the fulfilment of man’s vocation as a moral being.”
Examples of rights in contemporary world include those set forth in the Indian Constitution, such the freedom of speech, religion, and assembly, etc. Rights do not include money, material items, or services. Therefore, you do not have a right to forcibly take these things from others or authorize the government to perform this kind of confiscation for you.
Entitlements, on the other hand, are established by governments via elected representatives or direct votes by the people. They include money, material items, services, and various forms of aid and assistance. Entitlements can be initiated or revoked at any time. Entitlements can be fully or partially earned. However, many entitlements are completely unearned. Examples of these would be welfare schemes, medical aid etc.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
With reference to the resignation of an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer, consider the following statements:
- An officer who is on central deputation is required to submit her/his resignation to the Cabinet Secretary.
- The Central Government may permit an officer to withdraw her/his resignation in the public interest.
- No retirement benefits may be granted to a person who has resigned from the Service.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
A resignation is a formal intimation in writing by an officer of his/her intention or a proposal to leave the IAS, either immediately or at a specified date in the future.
Resignation from service is entirely different from accepting the government’s Voluntary Retirement Scheme (VRS). Those who take VRS are entitled to pension, whereas those who resign are not. Rule 5 of the DCRB Rules say, “No retirement benefits may be granted to a person who has been dismissed or removed from the Service or who has resigned from the Service.” So, statement 3 is correct.
An officer serving in a cadre (state) must submit his/her resignation to the chief secretary of the state. An officer who is on central deputation is required to submit his/her resignation to the secretary of the concerned Ministry or Department. The Ministry/Department then forwards the officer’s resignation to the concerned state cadre, along with its comments or recommendations. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The central government may permit an officer to withdraw his/her resignation “in the public interest”. An amendment in the Rules in 2011 states “that the period of absence from duty between the date on which the resignation became effective and the date on which the member is allowed to resume duty as a result of permission to withdraw the resignation is not more than ninety days”. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to the term ‘fraternity’ in the Constitution, which of the following statements is not correct?
The ‘Objectives Resolution’ included the word fraternity in its text.
Explanation :
Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. The Constitution instils this feeling of fraternity by the system of single citizenship.
The Objective Resolution declared: “All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental freedoms — of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action…” While these words bear a clear resemblance to the Preamble to come, they do not include the word “fraternity”.
The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble of the Constitution of India are borrowed from the French Constitution. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things– the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
The Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
The Pravaah portal, recently seen in the news aims to:
seek authorisation or regulatory approval on any reference made to the Reserve Bank of India
Explanation :
RBI Governor recently unveiled three major initiatives of the Reserve Bank, namely the Pravaah portal, the Retail Direct Mobile App and a FinTech Repository.
About Pravaah Portal:
Pravaah (Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation, and Authorisation) is a secure and centralised web-based portal for any individual or entity to seek authorisation, license, or regulatory approval on any reference
made by it to the RBI.
The following are some of the key features available in the portal:
Submit the application online on the portal.
Track and monitor the status of the application/reference.
Respond to any clarification/query sought by the RBI in connection with the application/reference; and
Receive a decision from the RBI in a time-bound manner
This portal will also enhance the efficiency of various processes related to the granting of regulatory approvals and clearances by the RBI.
At present, 60 application forms covering different regulatory and supervisory departments of RBI have been made available on the portal.
This also includes a general-purpose form for applicants to submit their requests, which are not included in any other application form.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-unveils-pravaah-portal-retail-direct-mobile-app-and-fintech-repository/article68225543.ece#:~:text=Reserve%20Bank%20of%20India%20(RBI,App%20and%20a%20FinTech%20Repository
With reference to the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), consider the following statements:
- It is India’s premier nuclear research facility, headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
- It was established by Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha for a multidisciplinary research program essential for the ambitious nuclear program of India.
- It operates under the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
State-run Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd. (BHEL) recently entered into a Technology Transfer Agreement (TTA) with the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) for a 50-kW alkaline electrolyser system for Hydrogen production.
About Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC):
It is India’s premier nuclear research facility.
It is headquartered in Trombay, Mumbai, Maharashtra.
It operates under the Department of Atomic Energy, which is directly overseen by the Prime Minister of India.
It is a multi-disciplinary research centre with extensive infrastructure for advanced research and development covering the entire spectrum nuclear science and engineering and related areas.
BARC is the research backbone of the Nuclear Power Corporation of India (NPCIL), which currently operates all nuclear power reactors in India.
History:
Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha conceived the nuclear program in India.
Dr. Bhabha established the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) to carry out nuclear science research in 1945.
To intensify the effort to exploit nuclear energy for the benefit of the nation, Dr. Bhabha established the Atomic Energy Establishment, Trombay (AEET), in January 1954 for a multidisciplinary research program essential for the ambitious nuclear program of India.
After the death of Bhabha in 1966, AEET was renamed Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC).
Functions:
It is engaged in research with the objective of generating knowledge and techniques for nuclear power production, the advancement of nuclear science, the use of radioisotopes in industry, health, and agriculture, and research in frontier areas of science and technology.
It is responsible for the design and development of nuclear reactors, fuel cycle technologies, radiation protection, and safety systems.
BARC also plays an important role in nuclear education and training. It offers various training programs for scientists, engineers, and technicians in the areas of nuclear science and technology.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/market/bhel-share-price-collaboration-with-barc-electrolyser-green-hydrogen-production-19418721.htm
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sharavathi River:
- It flows entirely within the state of Maharashtra.
- It forms the Jog Falls, one of the highest waterfalls in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) recently directed the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA) and mines and geology department to stop any unlawful/illegal sand mining in Sharavathi river coastal zone.
About Sharavathi River:
It is a river in western Karnataka state.
It is one of the few westward-flowing rivers in India and a major part of the river basin lies in the Western Ghats.
Course:
Rising in the Western Ghats, it flows in a northwesterly direction to the Arabian Sea at Honavar in Uttara Kannada District.
The length of the river is 128 km, and the river basin covers 2,985 sq km.
On its way, the Sharavathi forms the Jog Falls, one of the highest waterfalls in India, where the river falls from a height of 253 m.
Diverse geological features mark the river’s course, including rocky outcrops, fertile plains, and deep gorges.
Major Tributaries: Nandihole, Haridravathi, Mavinahole, Hilkunji, Yennehole, Hurlihole, and Nagodihole.
It is a vital source of hydroelectric power in Karnataka. Currently, the river generates a significant portion (40 percent or 1,469.2 megawatts) of the state’s hydropower using seven existing dams and five tunnels.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/curb-illegal-sand-mining-in-sharavathi-river-ngt-tells-govt-3042382
Consider the following statements with reference to the Vivekananda Rock Memorial:
- It is built on a small island off Tamil Nadu in honour of Swami Vivekananda.
- It is surrounded by the Laccadive Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Prime Minister will be visiting the Vivekananda Rock Memorial in Kanyakumari to meditate for 48 hours and mark the culmination of the 2024 Lok Sabha polls.
About Vivekananda Rock Memorial:
It is located on a small island off Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu.
The memorial stands on one of the two rocks located about 500 meters off the mainland of Vavathurai.
The rock is surrounded by the Laccadive Sea, where the Bay of Bengal, the Indian Ocean, and the Arabian Sea form a confluence.
It was built in 1970 in honour of Swami Vivekananda, who is said to have attained enlightenment on the rock.
It comprises of the ‘Shripada Mandapam’ and the ‘Vivekananda Mandapam’.
There is also a life-sized bronze statue of Swami Vivekananda on the premises.
It is also a memorial for which all State Governments and the Central Government contributed.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/elections/lok-sabha/pm-modi-to-meditate-at-tamil-nadus-vivekananda-rock-memorial-to-mark-culmination-of-lok-sabha-campaign/article68224840.ece
What was the primary objective of NASA’s Magellan Mission, recently seen in the news?
To map the surface of Venus
Explanation :
After analyzing the archived data from NASA’s Magellan mission, scientists say they observed new lava flows on Venus, suggesting that the planet was volcanically active between 1990 and 1992.
About Magellan Mission:
It was a deep space mission launched by NASA on May 4, 1989, to explore the planet Venus.
It was launched from Cape Canaveral aboard the space shuttle Atlantis. It was the first interplanetary mission launched from the Space Shuttle and the first spacecraft to use the Inertial Upper Stage booster.
It was named after the Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan, who was the first to circumnavigate the earth.
The primary goal of the Magellan mission was to map the surface of Venus using radar imaging, as the thick atmosphere of the planet made visual observation difficult.
The Magellan spacecraft, which arrived at Venus in 1990, made the first global map of the surface of Venus as well as global maps of the planet’s gravity field.
The mission produced surprising findings about Venus, including a relatively young planetary surface possibly formed by lava flows from planet-wide volcanic eruptions.
In October 1994, the Magellan spacecraft intentionally plunged to the surface of Venus to gather data on the planet’s atmosphere before it ceased operations.
It marked the first time an operating planetary spacecraft had been intentionally crashed.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/nasas-magellan-radar-suggests-volcanoes-on-venus-are-still-active-9356242/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Himalayan Serow:
- It is mainly found in the Trans Himalayan region.
- It is categorized as vulnerable species under IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, a Himalayan serow was spotted in the central part of Nameri National Park and Tiger Reserve. It resembles as a cross between a goat, a donkey, a cow, and a pig.
Types
There are several species of serows, and all of them are found in Asia.
The Himalayan serow, or Capricornis sumatraensis thar, is restricted to the Himalayan region. Taxonomically, it is a subspecies of the mainland serow (Capricornis sumatraensis).
Diet: These are herbivore species.
Distribution: These are typically found at altitudes between 2,000 metres and 4,000 metres (6,500 to 13,000 feet). They are known to be found in eastern, central, and western Himalayas, but not in the Trans Himalayan region.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
Key facts about Nameri Tiger Reserve
It is situated in the northern part of the Sonitpur district of Assam, along the foothills of Arunachal Pradesh.
The Nameri National Park constitutes the core of NTR, which is bound by rivers, viz. Jia-Bhoreli in the west and Bor-Dikorai in the east.
The Pakke Tiger Reserve of Arunachal Pradesh is on the North and the habitat is contiguous.
Flora: It is made up of tropical evergreen, semi-evergreen, moist deciduous forests with cane brakes and narrow strips of open grassland along rivers.
Fauna:
The habitat is biologically rich and is famous for the white winged wood duck,
Even Leopard cat, common otter, Black giant squirrel, Indian mongoose, Large clawed shrew, Indian flying fox, slow loris, Assameese macaque, Rhesus macaque are also found here.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/himalayan-serow-spotted-in-nameri/articleshow/110478493.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the evacuation slide:
- It is used during emergency condition to safely exit from the flight.
- It is made from carbon fibres and a nylon material coated with urethane for fire resistance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, soon after a Varanasi-bound Indigo flight received a bomb threat at the Indira Gandhi International Airport in Delhi, the 176 passengers onboard the flight were quickly evacuated with the help of ‘evacuation slides’.
It is an inflatable slide which allows passengers to safely exit the flight during an emergency, especially when the flight door is high above the ground.
There are four types of evacuation slides:
Inflatable slide: The inflatable slide helps passengers descend to the ground from an aircraft exit door. In case they cannot use the doors, they can try to reach either of the aircraft wings. From there, they can use the slide to reach the ground.
Inflatable slide/raft: It does the same job as the slide, but it can also be used as a life raft in case the aircraft has to land on water.
Inflatable exit ramp: The inflatable exit ramp is installed to help passengers move from certain overwing exits (or aircraft emergency exits) to the wings, if that path looks better for reaching the ground.
Inflatable exit ramp/slide: The inflatable exit ramp/slide is there to assist in descending from an overwing exit or aeroplane wing to the ground. It is a combination ramp and wing-to-ground device.
These are typically made from carbon fibres and a nylon material coated with urethane for fire resistance. Strong fibres are used to build these slides so that passengers are not able to tear them while descending.
Slides are generally packed and installed within a cabin door or into an external fuselage compartment.
They are inflated with the help of high-pressure gas carbon dioxide or nitrogen gas containers and ambient air through suction machines.
What are the protocols for deploying evacuation slides?
An evacuation slide must be deployed when the distance between the ground and the flight exit door is six feet or more.
The European Union Aviation Safety Agency’s guidelines say that a slide should be automatically deployed, once the door is opened. The slide must be inflated between six and 10 seconds, depending on its location.
It should be properly deployable in all weather conditions — as cold as -40 degree Celsius and as hot as 71 degree Celsius.
The slide should be able to sustain a rainfall of up to one inch an hour and winds up to the speed of 46 km/hr which would be coming 45 degree angles around the aeroplane.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/evacuation-slides-types-9357581/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Golden Rice:
- It contains beta carotene which gives golden color to this grain.
- It requires special cultivation practices for greater yield.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, a court in the Philippines recently revoked biosafety permits for commercial propagation of genetically modified golden rice and Bt eggplant.
It is a new type of rice that contains beta carotene (provitamin A, a plant pigment that the body converts into vitamin A as needed). This compound is what gives this grain its yellow-orange or golden color.
It is developed through genetic engineering.
While ordinary rice does produce beta carotene, it is not found in the grain. Thus, scientists used genetic engineering to add the compound to the grain - a minor tweak that improved the grain’s nutritive value.
The beta carotene in Golden Rice, which was made possible by the addition of two new enzymes, is identical to the beta-carotene found in green leafy and yellow-colored vegetables, orange-colored fruit, and even in many vitamin supplements and food ingredients.
Like ordinary rice, Golden Rice does not require any special cultivation practices, and generally has the same yield and agronomic performance.
This rice is expected to cost and taste the same as regular rice, its beta carotene content makes it a valuable asset in the battle against Vitamin A deficiency (VAD).
Vitamin A is an essential micronutrient for growth, development, and keeping the body’s visual and immune systems healthy.
VAD weakens the body’s resistance to diseases and infections, causes blindness, and may even result in death if left untreated.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/what-is-golden-rice-and-why-has-a-philippine-court-put-a-stop-to-its-commercial-production–96387
Consider the following statements with reference to the Anopheles stephensi:
- It is a mosquito species native to the African continent.
- It rapidly adapts to changes in the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The spread of the mosquito species Anopheles stephensi across Africa poses a significant problem to a continent already heavily burdened by malaria.
It is a malaria vector native to South Asia.
It transmits both Plasmodium falciparum and P. vivax. It rapidly adapts to changes in the environment and is found in both rural and urban areas.
This is different from African malaria vectors, which are typically found in rural areas.
This species can thrive in urban areas and likes being near humans.
They lay their eggs in any available water source – such as water containers, abandoned tyres and flowerpots – and their eggs can survive being dry for a long period of time.
In addition, An. stephensi feeds on its vertebrate host both indoors and outdoors. This reduces the impact of commonly used vector control methods such as insecticide-treated nets and indoor residual spraying.
Concerns:
Anopheles stephensi as well as of Aedes mosquitoes, which carry many dreaded diseases including dengue, yellow fever, chikungunya and Zika.
The invasion of this urban mosquito into Africa threatens the malaria elimination aspirations of the continent, particularly as 42.5% of Africa’s population now live in urban area.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/mosquito-species-from-asia-pose-growing-risk-to-africas-anti-malaria-efforts/article68224412.ece
Consider the following:
- Honey
- Kendu leaf
- Cocoons
- Timber
How many of the above are included as Minor Forest produce under the Scheduled Tribe and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
Only three
Explanation :
Tribal people in Odisha are struggling for approvals from the forest department to sell Kendu leaf which is a minor forest produce.
The Scheduled Tribe and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, or Forest Rights Act (FRA), defines ‘minor forest produce’ as any non-timber forest product of plant origin.
This includes various items such as bamboo, brush wood, stumps, cane, tussar, cocoons, honey, wax, lac, kendu leaves, medicinal plants, herbs, roots, tubers and similar items. In simple terms, it encompasses all other forest products, excluding timber.
What is Kendu Leaf?
It is called the green gold of Odisha. It is a nationalized product like Bamboo and Sal seed.
It is one of the most important non-wood forest products of Odisha.
It is also referred to as tendu leaf in some parts of the country and is used to roll tobacco into bidis (local cigarettes).
Production:
The states producing kendu leaves in India comprise mainly Madhya Pradesh, Chhatisgarh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Gujarat, and Maharastra.
Odisha is the third-largest producer of kendu leaf after Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/forests/odisha-tribals-await-forest-department-nod-to-sell-kendu-leaf-worth-rs-34-lakh-96364
4) What is C295 Transport Aircraft?
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling ,VIP transport and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload or as many as 71 troops at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In September 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025 and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Sources: https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/an-overview-of-section-498-a-of-ipc
https://www.international-divorce.com/Indias-Notorious-Section-498A.htm
https://blog.ipleaders.in/section-498a-ipc/
https://lawrato.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/offences-under-ipc-section-498a-bailable-or-not
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-12725-section-498a-ipc-unraveling-misuse-and-relevant-case-laws.html
https://www.lawtendo.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/what-is-section-498a-of-ipc/64bce053c302e71eadbe30d6/
ImageLink: https://airbusus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/C295-3.jpg
‘K-9 Vajra’,recently seen in the new is a/an:
self-propelled artillery system
Explanation :
Several key ‘Made in India’ defence projects, including proposals for acquiring more K-9 Vajra self-propelled howitzers and fighter aircraft engines, are awaiting final approval by the Centre after the elections.
About K-9 Vajra:
It is a 155 mm, 52-caliber tracked self-propelled artillery system.
It can fire shells at great elevation angles to hit targets far away.
It is built by Larsen & Toubro with technology transferred from South Korean defence major Hanwha Défense based on its K9 Thunder platform.
It can perform a variety of missions due to its capacity to fire a wide range of artillery ammunition, including high explosive, smoke, and illumination shells.
Features:
It has all-welded steel armour up to 19mm thick.
The main weapon is the 155mm / 52 calibre gun.
The gun weighs 50 tonnes and can fire 47kg bombs.
It has a burst rate of fire of three rounds per 15 seconds and a maximum rate of fire of six to eight rounds per minute for three minutes.
It can strike enemy targets at around 50 kilometres.
It can also turn around at zero radius, basically at the same place where they are standing.
The K9 uses a digital fire control system, by which it can fire multiple rounds that can impact a given area at the same time.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/indias-make-in-india-defence-projects-include-k-9-vajra-howitzers-and-fighter-jet-engines-await-post-election-approval/articleshow/110538509.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In), consider the following statements:
- It is the nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur.
- It is a functional organisation of the Ministry of Science and Technology, Government of India.
- It provides services to organizations in the government and private sectors.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
India’s Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) recently issued a warning for a high-severity vulnerability reported in Google Chrome for desktops.
About CERT-In:
It is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur.
It is a functional organisation of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India, with the objective of securing Indian cyberspace.
CERT-In has been operational since January 2004.
The constituency of CERT-In is the Indian cyber community and Indian cyberspace.
The Information Technology (Amendment) Act 2008, designated CERT-In to serve as the national agency to perform the following functions in the area of cybersecurity:
Collection, analysis, and dissemination of information on cyber incidents.
Forecasts and alerts of cyber security incidents
Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents
Coordination of cyber incident response activities.
Issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes, and whitepapers relating to information security practices, procedures, prevention, response, and reporting of cyber incidents.
Such other functions relating to cyber security as may be prescribed.
To perform these functions, CERT-In is empowered to call for information and issue directions to service providers, intermediaries, data centres, body corporates, and any other person.
CERT-In provides services to organizations in the Government, Public, and Private sectors. In addition, CERT-In provides services to individuals and home users as well.
Disclosure of information will be followed in accordance with Indian Constitutional laws.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/cert-in-alert-high-severity-vulnerability-google-chrome-browser/article68224602.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the system to identify scam calls launched by Department of Telecom(DoT):
- The DoT has allocated a dedicated 16-digit numbering series for service and transactional calls made by the government, regulators and financial entities.
- The numbering series will include additional information about calling entities as well as the telecom operator and the place from which the call originated.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Department of Telecom (DoT) recently introduced a new tool to identify genuine calls from those made by fraudsters.
About New System to Identify Scam/Fraud Calls:
Dedicated Phone Number Series: The DoT has allocated a dedicated 10-digit numbering series starting with 160 for service and transactional calls made by the government, regulators, and financial entities.
These 10-digit numbers will include additional information to help you recognize the caller.
The 10-digit number series has been designed by the DoT in such a manner that citizens will get an idea about calling entities as well as the telecom operator and the place from where it has originated.
This new system aims to give you more information about incoming calls, empowering you to identify potential scams.
Incoming calls from banks, government departments to display 160 Prefix:
The 10-digit number will have a 160 prefix and will be issued in 1600ABCXXX format for government, financial institutions, and telecom regulators.
The AB will show the code of the telecom circle, like 11 for Delhi and 22 for Mumbai.
While the digit at C place will show the code of the telecom operator.
The XXX will be digits between 000-999.
Numbers for financial institutions to be issued in 1601ABCXXX format:
For financial entities regulated by the RBI, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), PFRDA (Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority), and Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA), the 10-digit number will be issued in 1601ABCXXX format.
Verification and Transparency:
Telecom service providers (TSPs) are responsible for verifying each entity requesting a 160 series number.
They will also obtain a commitment that the number will only be used for legitimate service and transactional calls.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/technology-science/telecom-industry-introduces-new-system-to-identify-scam/fraud-calls-heres-how-it-works-article-110528303
With reference to the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body formed for the overall supervision and development of the insurance sector in India.
- It is responsible for registering and/or licensing insurance, reinsurance companies and intermediaries according to the regulations.
- It sets the eligibility criteria, qualifications and capital requirements for obtaining licenses in the insurance business.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) recently made some major changes in the regulatory norms for health insurance policies.
About IRDAI:
It is a statutory body formed under an Act of Parliament, i.e., the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (IRDAI Act 1999), for the overall supervision and development of the insurance sector in India.
Objectives:
To protect the interests and fair treatment of the policyholder.
To regulate the insurance industry in fairness and ensure the financial soundness of the industry.
To regularly frame regulations to ensure the industry operates without any ambiguity.
Head Office: Hyderabad
It is responsible for registering and/or licensing insurance, reinsurance companies, and intermediaries according to the regulations.
It sets the eligibility criteria, qualifications, and capital requirements for obtaining licenses in the insurance business.
Entities regulated by IRDAI:
Life Insurance Companies: Both public and private sector companies
General Insurance Companies: Both public and private sector Companies. Among them, there are some standalone Health Insurance Companies which offer health insurance policies.
Re-Insurance Companies
Agency Channel
Intermediaries, which include the following:
Corporate Agents
Brokers
Third-party Administrators
Surveyors and Loss Assessors.
Composition: It is a 10-member body- a chairman, five full-time members, and four part-time members appointed by the Government of India.
To protect the interests of policyholders, the IRDAI was granted significant responsibilities, including
Efficiently conducting the insurance business and protecting the interests of the policyholders in matters concerning assigning of policy, nomination by policyholders, insurable interest, settlement of insurance claims, surrender value of the policy, and other terms and conditions of contracts of insurance.
Approving product terms and conditions offered by various insurers.
Regulating the investment of funds by insurance companies and maintaining a margin of solvency.
Specifying the financial reporting norms of insurance companies.
Specify code of conduct, qualifications, and training for intermediary or insurance agents.
Undertaking inspection, calling for information, and investigations, including an audit of insurance companies, intermediaries, and other organizations associated with the insurance business.
Ensuring insurance coverage is provided in rural areas and also to the vulnerable sections of society.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/personal-finance/insurance/story/health-insurance-irdai-sets-3-hour-time-limit-for-insurers-to-clear-cashless-claims-details-here-431354-2024-05-29
Consider the following statements with reference to the Eurasian Whimbrel:
- It is a wading bird endemic to the western margins of Europe.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
For the first time, a long-distance migratory bird, the Eurasian or common whimbrel, tagged with a Global Positioning System (GPS) transmitter, was captured on camera in the state of Chhattisgarh.
About Eurasian Whimbrel:
It is a wading bird in the large family Scolopacidae.
Scientific Name: Numenius phaeopus
Distribution:
They have an extensive range that spans across five continents: North America, South America, Asia, Africa, and Europe.
They breed in the subarctic regions of Siberia and Alaska during the summer months before migrating south to wintering grounds in southern USA, Central America, South America, Africa, and South Asia, including Nepal.
Habitat: Winters mainly along the coastline, coastal wetlands, mangroves, marshes, and larger rivers.
Features:
A fairly large greyish-brown bird with a long, decurved bill with a kink.
It has a distinct head pattern with dark eye-stripes and crown-sides.
It is mottled dark brown above, pale below, with much brown streaking on the throat and breast.
Generally solitary when nesting, the Whimbrel tends to become gregarious outside of the breeding season.
Whimbrels are known for their high-pitched call consisting of a repetitive series of seven notes.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/May/27/chhattisgarh-gets-a-rare-sighting-of-gps-tagged-long-distance-migratory-bird-whimbrel
Consider the following statements with reference to the Dag Hammarskjold medal:
- It is the highest honour awarded to United Nations peacekeepers.
- It is a posthumous award given every year on UN Peacekeeper’s Day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Naik Dhananjay Kumar Singh will be honoured posthumously with the Dag Hammarskjold medal during a solemn ceremony when the UN commemorates the International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers.
It was established in 1997 and it is the highest honour awarded to UN peacekeepers.
It is a posthumous award given to members of peacekeeping operations who lost their lives during service with a peacekeeping operation under the operational control and authority of the United Nations.
Each year on Peacekeeper’s Day, this medal is awarded to any Member State who has lost one or more military or police peacekeepers at a ceremony at United Nation’s headquarters.
It is named after the second Secretary-General of the United Nations, Dag Hammarskjold.
Other UN Awards
Captain Mbaye Diagne Medal for Exceptional Courage : It is awarded to those military, police, civilian United Nations personnel and associated personnel who demonstrate exceptional courage, in the face of extreme danger, while fulfilling the mandate of their missions or their functions, in the service of humanity and the United Nations.
UN Military Gender Advocate of the Year Award: It was started in 2016 to recognises the dedication and effort of an individual peacekeeper in promoting the principles within the United Nations Security Council Resolution 1325.
India and UN Peacekeeping
India is the second largest contributor of uniformed personnel to UN Peacekeeping.
It currently deploys more than 6,000 military and police personnel to the UN operations in Abyei, the Central African Republic, Cyprus, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Lebanon, the Middle East, Somalia, South Sudan, and Western Sahara.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/indian-peacekeeper-to-be-honoured-posthumously-with-prestigious-un-medal-for-sacrifice-in-line-of-duty/article68224972.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the RudraM-II missile:
- It is an indigenously developed solid-propelled air-launched missile system.
- It has a strike range of almost 3500-km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully flight-tested the RudraM-II from Su-30 MK-I platform of the Indian Air Force (IAF) off the coast of Odisha.
It is an indigenously-developed solid-propelled air-launched missile system.
It is meant for Air-to-Surface role to neutralise many types of enemy assets.
It is designed to have a strike range of almost 350-km, from a Sukhoi-30MKI fighter of the IAF.
It involves a number of state-of-the-art indigenous technologies developed by various DRDO laboratories have been incorporated in the missile system.
RudraM series missiles
These are being developed by the DRDO as new-generation anti-radiation missiles (NGARMs) for destroying a variety of enemy surveillance, communication, radars, and command and control centers on the ground.
The 150-km range RudraM-I missile, with INS-GPS navigation with a passive homing head for the final attack, was first tested in Oct 2020.
The missiles are meant for suppression of enemy air defences (SEAD) from long stand-off ranges, which in turn will enable IAF strike aircraft to carry out bombing missions without hindrance.
What is an anti-radiation missile?
These are designed to detect, track and neutralise the adversary’s radar, communication assets and other radio frequency sources, which are generally part of their air defence systems.
Such a missile’s navigation mechanism comprises
Inertial navigation system: A computerised mechanism that uses changes in the object’s own position — coupled with GPS, which is satellite-based.
Passive homing head: A system that can detect, classify and engage targets (radio frequency sources in this case) over a wide band of frequencies as programmed.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2022076
Consider the following statements with reference to the eMigrate Project:
- It aims to assist students who are going abroad for study purposes.
- The eMigrate portal is integrated to Common Service Centre to facilitate registration of applicants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) is entered into between Ministry External Affairs (MEA), Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and Common Service Centre eGovernance Services India Limited to create a synergy between CSC SPV & MEA to provide the eMigrate services through CSCs in the country.
It is undertaken to assist mainly the blue-collar workers going to Emigration Check Required (ECR) countries.
The project was conceptualized to address issues faced by the migrant workers by making emigration process online seamless and also to bring foreign employers and registered recruitment agents and insurance companies on one common platform aimed at promoting safe and legal migration.
Under this MoU, eMigrate Portal of MEA would be integrated with CSC’s portal, to provide following eMigrate services to the citizens through CSCs
Facilitate registration of applicants on eMigrate portal through CSCs.
Facilitation of uploading and processing the required documents for the applicants on eMigrate portal through CSCs.
Facilitate and supporting booking for medical and other services required by migrant workers or applicants registered on eMigrate portal through CSC.
Creating awareness about eMigrate services amongst citizens across India.
Key facts about Common Service Centre
These are an integral part of the Digital India mission.
The CSCs are frontend services delivery points for the delivery of digital services to the citizens, especially in the rural and remote areas across the country.
This helps in contributing towards the fulfilment of the vision of Digital India and the Government’s mandate for a digitally and financially inclusive society.
Apart from delivering essential government and public utility services, CSCs also deliver a range of social welfare schemes, financial services, educational courses, skill development courses, healthcare, agriculture services, digital literacy, etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2022065
Consider the following statements with reference to the Microcephaly:
- It is a rare neurological condition which is mainly found in infants.
- It can be caused by maternal exposure to toxic chemicals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a study revealed that a gene called SASS6 and its variants have been implicated in a developmental process that causes microcephaly.
It is a rare neurological condition in which an infant’s head is much smaller than the heads of other children of the same age and sex.
Sometimes detected at birth, microcephaly often occurs when there is a problem with brain development in the womb or when the brain stops growing after birth.
It can be caused by a variety of genetic and environmental factors. Children with microcephaly often have developmental issues.
Most children with microcephaly also have a small brain, poor motor function, poor speech, and abnormal facial features, and are intellectually disabled.
The most common causes include:
Infections during pregnancy: toxoplasmosis (caused by a parasite found in undercooked meat), Campylobacter pylori, rubella, herpes, syphilis, cytomegalovirus, HIV and Zika;
Exposure to toxic chemicals: Maternal exposure to heavy metals like arsenic and mercury, alcohol, radiation, and smoking;
Pre- and perinatal injuries to the developing brain (hypoxia-ischemia, trauma);
Genetic abnormalities such as Down syndrome; and severe malnutrition during fetal life.
Symptoms: Many babies born with microcephaly may demonstrate no other symptoms at birth but go on to develop epilepsy, cerebral palsy, learning disabilities, hearing loss and vision problems.
Treatment: There is no specific treatment for microcephaly.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/how-an-altered-protein-and-fussy-neurons-conspire-to-cause-microcephaly/article68224798.ece
PRAGATI- 2024, is an initiative recently launched by:
Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences
Explanation :
The Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS), an autonomous body under the Union Ministry of Ayush, launced “PRAGATI- 2024”.
About PRAGATI-2024:
Pharma Research in AyurGyan And Techno Innovation (PRAGATI) aims to explore research opportunities and foster collaboration between CCRAS and the Ayurveda drug industry.
Key facts about Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences
It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of AYUSH, Govt. of India.
It is an apex body in India for undertaking, coordinating, formulating, developing, and promoting research on scientific lines in Ayurvedic sciences.
The research activities of the Council include Medicinal Plant Research (Medico-Ethno Botanical Survey, Pharmacognosy, and Tissue Culture), Drug Standardization, Pharmacological Research, Clinical Research, Literary Research & Documentation and Tribal Health Care Research Programme.
It also does formulation, coordination, development and promotion of research on scientific lines in Ayurveda and Sowa-Rigpa system of medicine.
Headquarter: New Delhi
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2021953
4) What is C295 Transport Aircraft?
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling ,VIP transport and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload or as many as 71 troops at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In September 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025 and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Sources: https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/an-overview-of-section-498-a-of-ipc
https://www.international-divorce.com/Indias-Notorious-Section-498A.htm
https://blog.ipleaders.in/section-498a-ipc/
https://lawrato.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/offences-under-ipc-section-498a-bailable-or-not
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-12725-section-498a-ipc-unraveling-misuse-and-relevant-case-laws.html
https://www.lawtendo.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/what-is-section-498a-of-ipc/64bce053c302e71eadbe30d6/
ImageLink: https://airbusus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/C295-3.jpg
With reference to Framework for Recognising Self-Regulatory Organisation for the FinTech Sector (SRO-FT), consider the following statements:
- An SRO-FT should be set up as a not-for-profit company with no entity holding 10% or more of its paid-up share capital.
- An SRO-FT can open branches or offices outside India and FinTechs domiciled outside India cannot become members of an SRO.
- SRO-FT should have adequate powers to investigate and take disciplinary action against its members for non-adherence to codes / standards / rules.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) recently issued the Framework for Recognising Self-Regulatory Organisation for the FinTech Sector (SRO-FT) for better self-governance and compliance by firms in this space.
About SRO-FT Framework:
The framework defines fintech as entities providing technological solutions for delivery of financial products and services to businesses and consumers or encompassing regulatory and supervisory compliance in partnership with traditional financial institutions or otherwise.
The SRO-FT would be industry-led and will be responsible for establishing and enforcing regulatory standards, promoting ethical conduct, ensuring market integrity, resolving disputes, and fostering transparency and accountability among its members.
The applicant should be set up as a not-for-profit company, and its shareholding should be sufficiently diversified, with no entity holding 10% or more of its paid-up share capital, either singly or acting in concert.
Applicants will need to have a minimum net worth of ₹2 crore within one year after recognition as an SRO-FT or before commencement of operations, whichever is earlier.
At least one-third of members on the board, including the chairperson, should be independent and without any active association with a fintech entity.
Further, the majority of non-independent directors are to be representatives of FinTechs that are currently not directly regulated.
Applicants should demonstrate the capability of establishing the necessary infrastructure to act as an SRO-FT effectively and consistently.
It will also need to put in place systems for managing ‘user harm’ instances, which may include fraud, mis-selling, unfair practices, unauthorised transactions, or any other form of misconduct.
While the SRO can’t open branches or offices outside India, FinTechs domiciled outside India can become members of an SRO.
The number of SRO-FTs to be recognised would depend on the number and nature of the applicants received, and the RBI reserves the right not to grant recognition to any such application.
If deemed necessary, RBI can nominate or depute observers on the SRO-FT’s board.
Responsibilities:
An SRO-FT should operate objectively under the oversight of RBI, and strive towards healthy and sustainable development of the sector.
A fintech SRO should frame a code of conduct for members, set industry benchmarks and baseline technology standards for transparency, disclosure, and data privacy, set standardised documents for specific requirements, set up a mechanism for accreditation in the fintech ecosystem, and a code of conduct for responsible advertisements and market standards.
The SRO-FT should have adequate powers to investigate and take disciplinary action against its members for non-adherence to codes / standards / rules.
Responsibilities towards RBI would include relaying sector-specific insights, addressing regulatory concerns, collaborate on development of the sector, foster co-operation, provide policy commensurate to the dynamic nature of the sector, act as the collective voice of its members, provide regular updates on sector developments, and collect and share relevant data.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader
Consider the following statements with reference to the Red Flag 24 Exercise, recently seen in the news:
- It is an advanced aerial combat training exercise between members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO).
- It is designed to replicate a realistic and challenging environment, bringing together aircrew and equipment from different nations and services.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
An Indian Air Force (IAF) contingent recently arrived at the Eielson Air Force Base in Alaska to participate in the prestigious multi-national exercise, Red Flag 24.
About Red Flag 24:
It is a two-week advanced aerial combat training exercise aimed at integrating aircrew in a multinational environment.
It is designed to replicate a realistic and challenging environment, bringing together aircrew and equipment from different nations and services.
Approximately 3100 service members are expected to fly, maintain, and support more than 100 aircraft during the exercise.
The IAF deployed Rafale fighter jets for the Red Flag 24 exercise.
The exercises can be adapted to integrate various forces into a realistic threat environment using the more than 77,000 square miles of airspace in the Joint Pacific Alaska Range Complex, which is the largest combat training range in the world.
Since its inception in 1975, Red Flag exercises are designed to create a comprehensive learning environment by simulating realistic combat scenarios.
There are two distinct Red Flag exercise locations: Nellis Air Force Base in Nevada and Eielson Air Force Base in Alaska.
The Nevada exercise is organized by the United States Air Force Warfare Center (USAFWC), while the Alaska exercise is managed by the Pacific Air Forces (PACAF), the air component command of the United States’ Indo-Pacific Command (USINDOPACOM).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.indianewsnetwork.com/en/20240530/indian-air-force-contingent-reaches-alaska-for-multi-national-exercise-red-flag-24
Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Cryonics’, recently seen in the news?
The practice of preserving an individual who has died, with the objective of reviving them in the future.
Explanation :
A cryonics company has frozen its first client in Australia in the hope of bringing him back to life in the future.
About Cryonics:
Cryonics, the practice of freezing an individual who has died, with the object of reviving the individual sometime in the future.
The word cryonics is derived from the Greek krýos, meaning “icy cold.”
It is an effort to save lives by using temperatures so cold that a person beyond help by today’s medicine can be preserved for decades or centuries until a future medical technology can restore that person to full health.
A person that is held in such a state is called a “cryopreserved patient”, because Cryonicists (the advocates of cryonics) do not regard the cryopreserved person as really dead.
Cryonic preservation can be performed only after an individual has been declared legally dead.
The process is initiated shortly after death, with the body being packed in ice and shipped to a cryonics facility.
There, the blood is drained from the body and replaced with antifreeze and organ-preserving compounds known as cryoprotective agents.
In this vitrified state, the body is placed in a chamber filled with liquid nitrogen, where it will theoretically stay preserved at -196 °C until scientists are able to find a way to resuscitate the body in the future.
Currently, there are a few hundred bodies that have been frozen through cryonics.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/australian-cryonics-firm-freezes-first-client-in-hopes-of-bringing-him-back-to-life-in-future-5764708
With reference to External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs), consider the following statements:
- They refer to the borrowing of funds by Indian companies from foreign sources in the form of loans, bonds, or other financial instruments.
- They can be obtained from a variety of sources, including foreign banks, international financial institutions and foreign subsidiaries of Indian companies.
- They can be in the form of rupee-denominated loans, which are repaid in Indian rupees, or foreign currency-denominated loans, which are repaid in a foreign currency.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Registrations by Indian companies for external commercial borrowings (ECBs) almost doubled to $49.2 billion in the financial year 2023-24 (FY24) from $26.6 billion in FY23, according to data from the RBI.
About External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs):
ECBs refer to the borrowing of funds by Indian companies from foreign sources in the form of loans, bonds, or other financial instruments.
Purpose: It can be used to finance a variety of purposes, including the expansion of business, the acquisition of assets, and the repayment of existing debt.
Source of ECBs: ECBs can be obtained from a variety of sources, including foreign banks, international financial institutions and foreign subsidiaries of Indian companies.
ECB can be in the form of rupee-denominated loans, which are repaid in Indian rupees, or foreign currency-denominated loans, which are repaid in a foreign currency.
Regulation: ECB is subject to regulatory oversight by the RBI, which sets limits on the amount of ECB that Indian companies can obtain and the purposes for which it can be used.
The ECBs fall under the umbrella of RBI regulations as postulated under the Master Direction - External Commercial Borrowings, Trade Credits, and Structured Obligations (Master Direction), and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA).
ECBs should adhere to criteria like minimum maturity period, maximum all-in-cost ceiling, permitted and non-permitted end-uses, etc.
As of today, there are two paths to raise funds by employing ECBs: the approval route and the automatic route.
There are a variety of eligibility regulations created by the government for availing of finance under the automatic route.
These regulations are in relation to amounts, industry, the end-use of the funds, etc. Companies that desire to raise finance via ECB must necessarily meet these eligibility criteria; thereafter, funds can be raised without the need for approval.
The approval route, on the other hand, mandates that companies which fall under certain pre-specified sectors must obtain the RBI’s or the government’s explicit permission, prior to raising funds through ECB.
As per RBI guidelines, all entities except a Limited Liability Partnership are allowed to raise ECBs.
Benefits:
ECBs provide an opportunity to borrow large volumes of funds.
The funds are available for a relatively long term.
Interest rates are also lower compared to domestic funds.
ECBs are in the form of foreign currencies. Hence, they enable the corporate to have foreign currency to meet the import of machineries etc.
Risks:
Exchange rate risk: Fluctuations in the value of the Indian rupee against foreign currencies can affect the cost of repaying the loan.
Sovereign risk: The ability of a foreign government to repay its debt can affect the creditworthiness of foreign lenders.
Credit risk: Foreign lenders may not have the same level of protection as domestic lenders in the event of default.
Regulatory risk: Changes to government regulations or policies related to the ECB can affect the availability and cost of borrowing.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/ecb-registrations-double-to-49-2-bn-in-fy24-net-inflows-touch-9-5-bn-124052301462_1.html
Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following States?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
A 32-year-old woman was killed by a tiger in the buffer zone of the Tadoba Andhari Tiger Reserve (TATR) in Maharashtra’s Chandrapur district recently.
About Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the Chandrapur district of Maharashtra.
It includes Tadoba National Park and Andhari Wildlife Sanctuary.
It is the largest and oldest Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra.
The total area of the reserve is 625.4 sq. km.
The origin of the name “Tadoba” lies with the name of the god “Tadoba” or “Taru”, worshipped by the tribes that live in the dense forests of the Tadoba and Andhari regions. “Andhari” refers to the Andhari River that meanders through the forest.
Corridor: The reserve has corridor linkages with Nagzira-Navegaon and Pench Tiger Reserves within the State.
Biogeographically, the reserve falls in the Central Plateau province of the Deccan Peninsula.
Vegetation: Southern Tropical Dry Deciduous
There are two lakes and one waterway in the reserve, Tadoba Lake, Kolsa Lake, and the Tadoba River.
Flora: Bamboo, Teak, Ain, Bija, Dhauda, Haldu, Salai, Semal, and Tendu. Bamboo and Teak dominate the reserve.
Fauna:
The notable faunal species include the tiger, leopard, sloth bear, wild dog, gaur, chital, and sambar.
As many as 280 species of birds are found, apart from reptiles (54 species), amphibians (11 species), and fishes (84 species).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/woman-32-mauled-to-death-by-tiger-in-buffer-zone-of-maharashtra-reserve-5774374
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Food Policy Research Institute:
- It is a United Nations affiliated organization which provides research-based policy solutions to sustainably reduce poverty.
- It releases the Global food policy report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, Global food policy report 2024: Food systems for healthy diets and nutrition was released by International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)
Key highlights of Global food policy report 2024:
It mentions that at least 38 per cent of the Indian population ate unhealthy foods, while only 28 per cent ate all five recommended food groups, which include at least one starchy staple food, one vegetable, one fruit, one pulse, nut or seed and one animal-source food.
The consumption of such calorie-dense and nutrient-poor foods was not only high but was also increasing, while the consumption of vegetables and other micronutrient-rich foods was low.
In India and other South Asian countries, consumption of processed foods is on the rise. After cereals and milk, snacks and prepared foods accounted for the majority of Indian food budgets.
In India, the proportion of the population suffering from malnutrition increased from 15.4% in 2011 to 16.6% by 2021.
The prevalence of overweight in adults increased from 12.9% in 2006 to 16.4% in 2016.
Similarly, the share of packaged (highly processed and calorie-dense) foods in household food budgets nearly doubled during this period, to 12 per cent from 6.5 per cent.
In the South Asian region, the report highlighted that micronutrient-rich foods were expensive, whereas cereals, fats and oils, sugar, and sugary and salty snacks were relatively inexpensive.
Key facts about the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI)
It was established in 1975 and provides research-based policy solutions to sustainably reduce poverty and end hunger and malnutrition in developing countries.
It is a research centre of CGIAR, which is the world’s largest agricultural innovation network.
It is not a UN affiliated organization.
Its research focuses on five strategic research areas:
Fostering Climate-Resilient and Sustainable Food Supply
Promoting Healthy Diets and Nutrition for Al
Building Inclusive and Efficient Markets, Trade Systems, and Food Industry
Transforming Agricultural and Rural Economies
Strengthening Institutions and Governance
Headquarters: Washington, D.C
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/food/38-indians-consume-fried-snacks-and-processed-foods-only-28-consume-healthy-food-96435
Consider the following statements with reference to the LignoSat:
- It is developed by European space agency and NASA.
- It is a wooden satellite that will be sent to the International Space Station.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
In a world-first, Japanese researchers have built a tiny wooden satellite named LignoSat that will be launched into space in September.
LignoSat”, a fusion of “ligno” (the Latin word for wood) and “satellite”,.
It is developed by the collaborative research and development by a team comprising members from Kyoto University and Sumitomo Forestry Co.
Objective: Their objective is to leverage the eco-friendliness and cost-effectiveness of wood in space exploration.
It is constructed from magnolia wood, chosen for its durability and adaptability.
Why wood is used? : Wooden satellites are viewed as more environmentally friendly upon reentering the Earth’s atmosphere at the conclusion of their mission. Unlike metal satellites, which pose air pollution risks due to the generation of metal particles during reentry, wooden satellites mitigate these concerns.
It will first be sent to the International Space Station (ISS) aboard a SpaceX rocket from the Kennedy Space Center.
Once it reaches the ISS, it will be released from the Japanese experiment module to test its durability and strength.
Researchers will receive data from the satellite to monitor its performance, including signs of strain and its ability to withstand extreme temperature changes.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/science/lignosat-japan-launches-worlds-first-wooden-satellite-in-fight-against-space-debris-5776864
Consider the following statements with reference to the Recombinant Proteins:
- It is a manipulated form of native protein, which is generated in various ways to increase production of proteins.
- It is used to produce protein-based polymers for drug delivery.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers at the Department of Biochemistry, Indian Institute of Science, have developed a novel method for the production of recombinant proteins.
These are proteins encoded by recombinant DNA that has been cloned in an expression vector that supports expression of the gene and translation of messenger RNA.
Modification of the gene by recombinant DNA technology can lead to expression of a mutant protein.
It is a manipulated form of native protein, which is generated in various ways in order to increase production of proteins, modify gene sequences, and manufacture useful commercial products.
It is created by fusing sequences that may not be normally present in an organism.
Recombinant proteins, such as vaccine antigens, insulin and monoclonal antibodies, are mass-produced by growing modified bacterial, viral or mammalian cells in large bioreactors. The most widely used organism is the yeast Pichia pastoris (now called Komagataella phaffii).
Application of Recombinant Proteins
It used in biomedical research to understand health and disease.
It is used in biotherapeutics.
It is used to produce protein-based polymers for drug delivery, antibodies and enzymes for disease treatment, protein scaffolds for tissue engineering etc.
What is protein?
It is the workhorse in biological systems facilitating most of biological processes in a cell, including gene expression, cell growth, proliferation, nutrient uptake, intercellular communication and apoptosis.
The blue print for protein synthesis is stored in DNA, which serves as a template for highly regulated transcriptional processes to produce messenger RNA (mRNA).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iisc-researchers-develop-novel-method-for-mass-production-of-recombinant-proteins/article68232324.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Diadromous fish:
- It is a fish species that migrates between saltwater and freshwater environments.
- European eel and Allis shad are examples of Diadromous fish.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The study, published in the British Ecological Society’s Journal of Applied Ecology, found that MPAs designated to protect diadromous fish species did not align with their core habitats.
These are those fish species which migrate between saltwater and freshwater environments.
Some of the examples for diadromous fish: the allis shad (Alosa alosa), twait shad (Alosa fal- lax), Mediterranean twaite shad (Alosa agone) and the European eel (Anguilla anguilla) etc.
In order to better understand these movements, scientists have classified these migrations into several categories.
Anadromous fish: These are born in freshwater, then migrate to the ocean as juveniles where they grow into adults before migrating back into freshwater to spawn.
Catadromous fish: These are born in saltwater, then migrate into freshwater as juveniles where they grow into adults before migrating back into the ocean to spawn.
Amphidromous fish: These are born in freshwater/estuaries, then drift into the ocean as larvae before migrating back into freshwater to grow into adults and spawn.
Potamodromous fish: These are born in upstream freshwater habitats, then migrate downstream (still in freshwater) as juveniles to grow into adults before migrating back upstream to spawn.
Threats: Diadromous fish are sensitive to anthropogenic pressures. They are subjected to terrestrial, freshwater, and marine pressures such as agricultural and pollutant runoffs, habitat destruction, barriers to migration, fishing, bycatch, and climate change.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/wildlife-biodiversity/fish-moving-between-marine-freshwater-ecosystems-have-designated-protected-areas-but-no-protection-in-them-study-96402
KAZA region, recently in news, is located between:
Okavango and Zambezi river basins
Explanation :
More than 400 delegates are gathered in Livingstone, a Zambian resort town on the northern side of the Victoria Falls, for the inaugural Kavango-Zambezi (KAZA) Trans-Frontier Conservation Area (TFCA) summit.
About KAZA Summit:
Objectives
To assess the progress made in establishing and developing the KAZA-TFCA since its inception.
To review and track the progress of the Memorandum of Understanding done in 2016 and the implementation of the KAZA Treaty done in 2011.
Seeks to get renewed commitment from the current leaders of the member countries.
Theme of the summit: “Leveraging KAZA’s natural capital and cultural heritage resources as catalysts for inclusive socio-economic development of the eco-region.”
Key facts about KAZA Region
The Kavango-Zambezi Trans-Frontier Conservation Area (KAZA-TFCA) is a 520,000-square kilometre wildlife sanctuary straddling five southern African nations that share common borders along the Okavango and Zambezi river basins.
These nations — Angola, Botswana, Namibia, Zambia and Zimbabwe — together with South Africa, are home to more than two-thirds of the African elephant population.
It is home to a high concentration of wildlife species, including the largest elephant population.
About 70 per cent of KAZA land is under conversation made up of 103 wildlife management areas and 85 forest reserves.
Within it are also three World Heritage sites namely the Victoria Falls on the Zambezi river which makes the border between Zambia and Zimbabwe and the Okavango Delta and the Tsodilo Hills both in Botswana.
The KAZA states signed a Memorandum of Understanding in 2006 resulting in the KAZA Treaty of 2011 followed by its immediate implementation
The KAZA-FTCA area is a partnership centred around “a common vision to conserve biodiversity at scale through promoting integrated transboundary management and to market the landscape biodiversity using nature-based tourism as the engine for rural economic growth and development.”
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/africa/kaza-summit-2024-delegates-renew-calls-to-leave-cites-96429
4) What is C295 Transport Aircraft?
The Indian Air Force (IAF) recently received delivery of the second of the 56 C295 aircraft.
About C295 Transport Aircraft:
It is a new-generation tactical airlifter in the light and medium segment.
It was designed and built by Airbus, a European multinational aerospace corporation.
It is reliable and highly versatile tactical transport that is tailored for missions that range from carrying troops and cargo, maritime patrol, airborne warning, surveillance and reconnaissance to signals intelligence, armed close air support, medical evacuation, Air-to-Air refuelling ,VIP transport and airborne firefighting.
Features:
The aircraft, with a flight endurance of up to 13 hours can function under all weather conditions.
It is capable of carrying up to nine tonnes of payload or as many as 71 troops at a maximum cruise speed of 260 kts.
The C295 is designed to provide outstanding low-level flight characteristics for tactical missions, flying at speeds as slow as 110 knots.
The aircraft has a rear ramp door for quick reaction and paradropping of troops and cargo.
It is powered by two turboprop engines.
It has short take-off and landing (STOL) characteristics and the ability to use unprepared airstrips.
In September 2021, India formalised the acquisition of 56 C295 aircraft to replace the legacy Avro fleet of the IAF at a cost of Rs 21,935 crore.
Under the deal, Airbus will deliver the first 16 aircraft in ‘fly-away’ condition from its final assembly line in Seville by 2025 and the subsequent 40 aircraft will be manufactured and assembled by Tata Advanced Systems (TASL) in India as part of an industrial partnership between the two companies.
News: https://www.barandbench.com/news/section-498a-ipc-copied-verbatim-new-criminal-law-make-changes-supreme-court-centre
Sources: https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/an-overview-of-section-498-a-of-ipc
https://www.international-divorce.com/Indias-Notorious-Section-498A.htm
https://blog.ipleaders.in/section-498a-ipc/
https://lawrato.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://www.ezylegal.in/blogs/offences-under-ipc-section-498a-bailable-or-not
https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-12725-section-498a-ipc-unraveling-misuse-and-relevant-case-laws.html
https://www.lawtendo.com/indian-kanoon/ipc/section-498a
https://vajiramias.com/current-affairs/what-is-section-498a-of-ipc/64bce053c302e71eadbe30d6/
ImageLink: https://airbusus.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/06/C295-3.jpg
Consider the following statements regarding the Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS):
- TTS is a rare but serious condition characterized by blood clot formation accompanied by a low platelet count.
- It has been primarily associated with certain COVID-19 vaccines, particularly adenovirus vector vaccines.
- Exclusive Symptoms of TTS may include severe headache, abdominal pain, shortness of breath, and swelling or redness in the arms or legs.
- Treatment for TTS typically involves anticoagulation therapy to prevent further clot formation and platelet transfusions to all the affected patients.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
AstraZeneca, the company that makes the Covishield vaccine for Covid-19 pandemic, has admitted the inoculation has potential side effects.
The company’s admission, conveys that the Covid vaccine can in extremely rare cases induce Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS).
TTS is a rare condition characterized by the formation of blood clots (thrombosis) in blood vessels and a low number of blood platelets (thrombocytopenia). So, statement 1 is correct.
It has been observed as an extremely rare adverse effect associated with certain COVID-19 vaccines, notably those that use adenovirus vectors, like the Covishield. So, statement 2 is correct.
While symptoms of TTS may include severe headache, abdominal pain, shortness of breath and swelling or redness in the arms or legs, these are not exclusive to TTS and may occur with other conditions as well. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Treatment for TTS typically involves prompt recognition and management of the condition, which may include discontinuation of the triggering agent (such as the vaccine), supportive care, and specific treatments based on individual patient factors. Anticoagulation therapy and platelet transfusions may be considered in some cases, but the management approach is tailored to each patient’s clinical presentation and needs. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF):
- CISF is a Central Armed Police Force (CAPF) responsible for providing security to various vital installations, including airports, seaports, nuclear power plants and critical infrastructure.
- CISF operates exclusively within the borders of India and does not have any international jurisdiction or mandate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) personnel has replaced the 150 personnel of the Delhi Police, including 54 women personnel, who were deployed for the security of Parliament.
CISF is one of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) established under an Act of Parliament, “Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968.
It has been established in 1969 for providing security to various vital installations, including airports, seaports, nuclear power plants and critical infrastructure across India. So, statement 1 is correct.
While CISF primarily operates within the borders of India, it may be deployed abroad for specific security assignments, such as protecting Indian embassies and consulates in foreign countries. Therefore, CISF does have limited international jurisdiction and mandate. CISF has contingents deployed at United Nations Stabilizations Mission in Haiti (MINUSTAH). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the torpedo:
- It is a self-propelled underwater projectile designed to be launched from submarines, surface ships, or aircraft, primarily for attacking enemy vessels.
- It can be equipped with various warheads, including high-explosive, nuclear, or anti-ship payloads, depending on their intended use.
- It is exclusively used for offensive purposes and has no defensive applications in naval warfare.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
DRDO has successfully tested a long-range Supersonic Missile Assisted Torpedo (SMART).
It is aimed at boosting the Navy’s anti-submarine warfare capabilities.
A torpedo is a self-propelled underwater projectile designed for attacking enemy vessels. It can be launched from submarines, surface ships, or aircraft, and it serves primarily offensive purposes in naval warfare. So, statement 1 is correct.
Torpedoes can be equipped with various warheads, including high-explosive, nuclear, or anti-ship payloads, depending on their intended use and mission objectives. So, statement 2 is correct.
While torpedoes are primarily used for offensive purposes, they can also have defensive applications, such as in anti-submarine warfare or protecting naval assets from enemy vessels. Therefore, they serve both offensive and defensive roles in naval operations. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following farming practices best exemplifies balanced fertilization?
Farmer B conducts regular soil tests and adjusts fertilizer application based on specific nutrient deficiencies identified in each field.
Explanation :
The fiscal ended March 2024 saw urea consumption hit a record 35.8 million tonnes (mt), 16.9% higher than the 30.6 mt in 2013-14.
Hence, it is expected that balanced fertilisation is likely to be a key policy goal for the government taking over after the Lok Sabha elections.
Balanced fertilization is ensured by conducting soil tests to identify nutrient deficiencies and adjusting fertilizer application accordingly, ensuring that crops receive the nutrients they need for optimal growth while minimizing environmental impact.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
What does Article 361 of the Indian Constitution primarily address?
Safeguards against legal action for Governors of Indian states during their tenure.
Explanation :
An employee at the Raj Bhavan in Kolkata has alleged that she was sexually harassed by West Bengal Governor C.V. Ananda Bose.
Article 361 of the Constitution that deals with immunity to the President and the Governors.
Art 361(1) states that they shall not be answerable:
to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office; or
for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
Art 361(2): No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the impact of interest rates decided by the US Federal Reserve on the global economy?
Changes in US interest rates influence capital flows and exchange rates, affecting borrowing costs and economic conditions in other countries.
Explanation :
The US Federal Reserve announced that it is keeping its benchmark rate unchanged due to an uptick in inflation. It said that agency would continue to watch incoming price data before taking a call on when to cut rates.
This is significant as at the start of this year, most analysts had predicted a rate cut by the Fed at its May 1 meeting and a total of three rate cuts in 2024.
Lower interest rates in the US tend to encourage borrowing and investment, leading to increased capital flows to other countries in search of higher returns.
This can result in currency appreciation, lower borrowing costs, and increased economic activity in other countries. Conversely, higher US interest rates may attract capital back to the US, leading to currency depreciation, higher borrowing costs, and slower economic growth in other parts of the world.
Therefore, changes in US interest rates have a substantial impact on global financial markets, exchange rates, and economic conditions.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements best describes the term “brain death”?
It is a condition where the brain ceases to function permanently, leading to the irreversible loss of all brain functions, including consciousness and brainstem reflexes.
Explanation :
As per the Union Health Ministry, poor identification and certification of brain stem death or brain death cases is keeping the rate of organ donations at low levels in India, despite the availability of many potential cases.
Brain death is a legal and medical determination of death where there is the irreversible loss of all functions of the brain, including the brainstem.
It is distinct from a coma or persistent vegetative state, where some brain functions may still persist.
In brain death, there is no possibility of recovery and the individual is considered legally and clinically dead, even if other bodily functions, such as heartbeat and respiration, may be maintained artificially through life support measures.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Eta Aquariid meteor shower & Halley’s Comet:
- The Eta Aquariid meteor shower occurs when the Earth passes through the debris trail left behind by Halley’s Comet during its orbit around the Sun.
- Halley’s Comet, orbits the Sun approximately every 76 years and was last observed in the inner Solar System in 1986.
- The Eta Aquariid meteor shower is named after the constellation Aquarius because the meteors appear to radiate from a point in the sky near the star Eta Aquarii.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Eta Aquariid meteor shower, which has been active since April 15, peaked on May 5 and 6.
Comprising burning space debris moving at speeds of around 66 km per second (2.37 lakh kmph) into Earth’s atmosphere, these showers are seen in May every year. These are best visible to countries such as Indonesia and Australia in the Southern Hemisphere.
The Eta Aquariid meteor shower occurs when the Earth passes through the debris trail left behind by Halley’s Comet during its orbit around the Sun. The dust and debris shed by the comet interact with the Earth’s atmosphere, producing a meteor shower. So, statement 1 is correct.
Halley’s Comet orbits the Sun approximately every 76 years, but its last observed perihelion passage (closest approach to the Sun) occurred in 1986. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Eta Aquariid meteor shower is named after the constellation Aquarius because the meteors appear to radiate from a point in the sky near the star Eta Aquarii, which is located in the constellation Aquarius. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
What is the culinary category classification of an onion?
Root vegetable
Explanation :
The Centre has lifted the prohibition on onion exports imposed nearly six months ago. However, restrained the free flow of outbound shipments by stipulating a minimum export price of $550 per tonne as well as a 40% export duty.
Root vegetable, in cuisine and nutrition, a part of a plant grown underground and eaten as food. Root vegetables are a diverse group of foods, including culinary staples such as potatoes, onions and carrots.
Because “root vegetable” is a culinary category rather than a botanical one, it is composed not only of true roots but also bulbs, corms, rhizomes, tubers, and other underground plant structures.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
A 16-year-old individual is apprehended by law enforcement for shoplifting. Which of the following actions would be consistent with principles of the juvenile justice system?
The individual is referred to a juvenile court, where they are provided with legal representation and afforded the opportunity for rehabilitation through community-based programs.
Explanation :
Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud said that juvenile justice systems need to change by working together internationally and sharing the best ways to deal with increasing digital crimes involving minors.
The juvenile justice system is based on the principle of treating juvenile offenders differently from adult offenders, taking into account their age, developmental stage, and potential for rehabilitation.
In this scenario, referring the 16-year-old individual to a juvenile court and providing opportunities for rehabilitation aligns with the objectives of the juvenile justice system, which focuses on the welfare and rehabilitation of juvenile offenders rather than punitive measures.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Artificial General Intelligence (AGI):
- AGI is a term used to describe machines that exhibit human-level intelligence and are capable of understanding, learning and reasoning across a wide range of tasks.
- AGI is synonymous with Artificial Narrow Intelligence (ANI), both referring to AI systems designed for general-purpose computing tasks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Sam Altman, CEO of OpenAI, expressed his commitment to invest billions of dollars towards the development of Artificial General Intelligence (AGI).
Artificial General Intelligence (AGI) refers to the hypothetical ability of AI systems to understand, learn, and apply knowledge in a manner comparable to human intelligence across a broad spectrum of tasks and domains. So, statement 1 is correct.
Unlike specialized AI systems that excel in specific tasks but lack general cognitive abilities, AGI aims to replicate the versatility and adaptability of human intelligence.
On the other hand, Artificial Narrow Intelligence (ANI) focuses on narrow, specialized tasks rather than general intelligence. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Carbon Farming:
- It refers to agricultural practices aimed at increasing the sequestration of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere into soils and vegetation.
- Common techniques include agroforestry, cover cropping and rotational grazing, which enhance soil organic matter and promote carbon storage.
- It has no impact on agricultural productivity and is solely focused on carbon sequestration.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Carbon is found in all living organisms and many minerals. It is fundamental to life on earth and plays a crucial role in various processes, including photosynthesis, respiration, and the carbon cycle.
Farming is the practice of cultivating land, raising crops, and/or livestock for food, fibre, fuel, or other resources. It encompasses a wide range of activities, from planting and harvesting crops to managing livestock and maintaining agricultural infrastructure.
Carbon farming combines these two concepts. It does so by implementing regenerative agricultural practices that restore ecosystem health while improving agricultural productivity and soil health, and mitigating climate change by enhancing carbon storage in agricultural landscapes and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
Carbon farming involves agricultural practices that aim to enhance the capture and storage of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere in soils and vegetation, thereby mitigating climate change. So, statement 1 is correct.
Carbon farming techniques such as agroforestry, cover cropping, and rotational grazing are designed to increase soil organic matter and carbon content, leading to improved soil health and carbon sequestration. So, statement 2 is correct.
While carbon farming primarily focuses on carbon sequestration, many practices also have co-benefits such as improved soil fertility, water retention, and biodiversity, which can enhance agricultural productivity. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) or e-Rupee:
- It is a digital form of fiat currency issued by a central bank and circulated electronically, providing a secure and efficient means of payment for transactions.
- It aims to enhance financial inclusion which depends on various factors, including accessibility, affordability, and acceptance by the population.
- e-Rupee is a specific implementation of CBDC introduced by the RBI, designed to facilitate digital payments in India and reduce reliance on cash transactions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das said that permanent deletion of transactions can make the e-rupee or central bank digital currency (CBDC) become anonymous and make it at par with paper currency.
CBDC is a digital form of fiat currency issued by a central bank and circulated electronically, providing a secure and efficient means of payment for transactions. So, statement 1 is correct.
CBDC has the potential to enhance financial inclusion by providing access to digital payment services. However, its implementation and impact on financial inclusion depend on various factors, including accessibility, affordability and acceptance by the population. So, statement 2 is correct.
e-Rupee is a specific implementation of CBDC introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to facilitate digital payments in India and reduce reliance on cash transactions, especially in remote and underserved areas. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the deepfake technology:
- It can create highly realistic videos that are indistinguishable from genuine recordings, making it difficult to detect misinformation.
- It is exclusively used for entertainment purposes, such as creating humorous videos or impersonations of celebrities.
- It poses minimal risks to society, as it is easily recognizable and debunked by experts.
- It has the potential to spread misinformation and manipulate public opinion by creating false narratives using manipulated videos.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Explanation:
In its first formal response to the use of deepfakes in this election season, the Election Commission of India (ECI) has told political parties not to share deepfake content on social media. If they find any, they must remove it within three hours and warn the person who shared it.
Deepfake technology utilizes artificial intelligence (AI) algorithms to create highly realistic, but fake videos by superimposing the likeness of one person onto another. So, statement 1 is correct.
While deepfake technology has been primarily used for entertainment purposes, such as creating parody videos or inserting famous actors into movies, the implications of its misuse are far-reaching. So, statement 2 is not correct
This poses significant risks to society as it can be used to spread misinformation, manipulate public opinion, and damage the reputation of individuals or institutions. So, statement 3 is not correct.
In the scenario described, the discovery of the deepfake highlights the potential dangers of this technology in spreading false narratives and undermining trust in media and public figures. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
What is the primary function of the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT)?
SWIFT facilitates secure communication and messaging between financial institutions for conducting international transactions.
Explanation :
The RBI has allowed Russian entities to invest their rupee balance in various options like government securities, bonds, equity, and loans. This may soon end Russia’s struggles with payments to India.
SWIFT is a cooperative society headquartered in Belgium that operates a messaging network used by banks and other financial institutions worldwide to securely transmit information and instructions pertaining to financial transactions.
This network facilitates cross-border payments, trade finance, securities transactions, and other types of financial messaging between banks and financial institutions globally.
SWIFT does not regulate the banking industry, manage currency exchange rates, or serve as a regulator for cryptocurrency transactions.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the observation made about India in the Global Electricity Review 2024:
- India surpassed China to become the world’s largest producer of renewable energy, with a substantial increase in solar and wind power capacity.
- India claim the title of the world’s third-largest solar power generator in 2023.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Global Electricity Review 2024 was published by global energy think tank Ember.
The report offers a comprehensive examination of the global power landscape in 2023, drawing on data from individual countries.
As per the Global Electricity Review 2024, India surpassed Japan to claim the title of the world’s third-largest solar power generator in 2023 as it has climbed from ninth ranking in 2015. China and USA are two major producers ahead of India in 2023. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Article 131 of the Constitution of India:
- It grants the Supreme Court exclusive jurisdiction over disputes between the Government of India and one or more States or between States.
- It empowers the President of India to refer any dispute of a federal nature to the Supreme Court for adjudication.
- It provides for the resolution of disputes between the Union and States through alternative dispute resolution mechanisms, such as arbitration or mediation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Supreme Court has reserved its verdict on the West Bengal government’s suit alleging that the CBI is pressing ahead with investigation into post-poll violence cases in the state, without securing its prior nod as per the law.
Earlier, the Centre had told SC that West Bengal’s original suit under Article 131 of the Constitution against it to not allow probe by the agency in the state was not maintainable and is an abuse of legal process.
Article 131 of the Constitution of India gives the Supreme Court (SC) the power to exclusively decide disputes between different units of the Indian Federation.
These disputes include:
Between the Government of India and one or more states
Between the Government of India and any state(s) on one side and one or more states on the other
Between two or more states, if the dispute involves a question of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends provided that the said jurisdiction shall not extend to a dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, named or other similar instrument which, having been entered into or executed before the commencement of this Constitution, continues in operation after such commencement, or which provides that the said jurisdiction shall not extend to such a dispute. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 131 does not empower the President of India to refer disputes to the Supreme Court. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Article 131 does not provide for alternative dispute resolution mechanisms such as arbitration or mediation for resolving disputes between the Union and States. It establishes the Supreme Court as the ultimate authority for adjudicating such disputes, ensuring uniform interpretation and enforcement of constitutional provisions. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Blue Corner Notice by Interpol:
- It is issued when the case is related to missing persons.
- Also called an enquiry notice, it is sent for additional information from member States about a person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Amid a political storm in Karnataka over grave allegations of sexual abuse against Prajwal Revanna, Interpol has issued a Blue Corner notice against the absconding politician.
Interpol issues different types of notices which have different objectives. Types of notices issued – Red, Blue, Yellow, Black, Orange, Purple, Green etc.
Red Notice - A notification that a member state would like someone arrested.
A ‘Blue Corner’ notice is issued when the case is related to missing persons. So, statement 1 is correct.
Also called an enquiry notice, such an alert is sent for additional information from member States about a person, to verify their identity, location, or criminal record concerning a criminal investigation. So, statement 2 is correct.
So, option (c) is the correct answer.
A group of hikers embarks on a trek in a desert region during the peak of summer. While hiking, one of the members begins to exhibit symptoms such as confusion, rapid heartbeat and fainting. What is the most appropriate action to take in this situation?
Immediately move the individual to a shaded area, remove excess clothing and cool their body using water and fan.
Explanation :
The Union Health Ministry has issued standardised guidelines for confirming heatstroke and heat-related deaths in the country.
Heatstroke is a severe heat-related illness characterized by a high body temperature (often exceeding 104°F or 40°C) and central nervous system dysfunction, which can lead to confusion, rapid heartbeat, and fainting.
In such situations, it is crucial to take immediate action to prevent further complications.
Moving the individual to a shaded area and cooling their body using water and a fan helps lower their body temperature and mitigate the effects of heatstroke.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following types of bail in India:
- Regular Bail
- Anticipatory Bail
- Interim Bail
- Permanent Bail
How many of the above types of bail are available in the Indian legal system?
Only three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court (SC) granted interim bail to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal. The Delhi CM was arrested by the Enforcement Directorate (ED), due to his alleged connection to the Delhi excise policy case.
Bail refers to the provisional release of the accused in a criminal case in which the court is yet to announce the judgment. Depending upon the stage of the criminal matter, there are commonly three types of bail in India:
Regular Bail:
A regular bail is generally granted to a person who has been arrested or is in police custody.
A bail application can be filed for the regular bail under section 437 and 439 of CrPC. So, point 1 is correct.
Interim Bail:
This type of bail is granted for a short period of time and it is granted before the hearing for the grant of regular bail or anticipatory bail. So, point 3 is correct.
Anticipatory Bail:
Anticipatory bail is granted under section 438 of CrPC either by session court or High Court.
An application for the grant of anticipatory bail can be filed by the person who discerns that he may be arrested by the police for a non- bailable offence. So, point 2 is correct.
There is no concept of permanent bail in Indian legal system. So, point 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO):
- It is responsible for the regulation and control of the manufacture, distribution, and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India.
- It works under the administrative control of Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
CDSCO is indeed responsible for the regulation and control of the manufacture, distribution, and sale of drugs and cosmetics in India. It ensures that these products meet quality, safety, and efficacy standards. So, statement 1 is correct.
CDSCO works under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following Indian states share boundaries with China?
A.
Himachal Pradesh
B.
Sikkim
C.
Uttarakhand
All of the above
Explanation :
China has emerged as the largest trading partner of India with USD 118.4 billion two-way commerce in 2023-24, narrowly overtaking the US (India-US two-way trade came in at $118.3 billion in FY24). This has been revealed by the data released by the think tank Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI).
The US was India’s top trading partner during FY22 and FY23 after China was the top bilateral trading partner in FY21.
India shares 3488 km of border with China that runs along Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and Arunachal Pradesh.
Also, the Tibet Autonomous region of China touched border with India. We also know that there are some disputes between both the states related to the boundaries.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the theaterisation of armed forces:
- It involves the integration of different branches of the armed forces into unified operational commands based on geographical theaters of operation.
- It seeks to help in optimizing resources and enhancing coordination in military operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Theaterisation involves the integration of different branches of the armed forces into unified operational commands based on geographical theaters of operation. This helps in optimizing resources and enhancing coordination in military operations. So, statement 1 and 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
While traveling on a ship from Mumbai to Chabahar Port, which water bodies and ports will one encounter along the route?
Arabian Sea, Gulf of Oman, Strait of Hormuz, Bandar Abbas Port
Explanation :
Explanation:
India and Iran signed a long-term agreement covering Indian operations at the Chabahar port, eight years after concluding the general framework of cooperation for the port in Iran.
Traveling from Mumbai to Chabahar Port involves navigating through several water bodies and ports.
The route passes through the Arabian Sea, then enters the Gulf of Oman before reaching the critical maritime chokepoint, the Strait of Hormuz.
Finally, upon entering the Persian Gulf, one arrives at Bandar Abbas Port, a major Iranian port city located close to Chabahar Port.
This route is significant for maritime trade and connectivity between India and Iran, as well as other countries in the region.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI);
- It is an international organization that promotes and strengthens national human rights institutions (NHRIs) around the world.
- Its primary objective is to enforce compliance with international human rights treaties and conventions.
- Its membership is open only to government appointed national human rights institutions and excludes civil society organizations and other non-state actors.
How many of the above statement(s) is/ are correct?
Only One
Explanation :
The Geneva-based, United Nations-linked Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) deferred the accreditation of the National Human Rights Commission-India (NHRC) for the second year in a row.
This is the first time India’s status has been suspended for two years in a row, in 2023 and in 2024.
GANHRI is an international organization that works to promote and strengthen national human rights institutions (NHRIs) worldwide. It provides a platform for NHRIs to exchange knowledge, share best practices, and collaborate on human rights issues. So, statement 1 is correct.
Membership in GANHRI is open to all NHRIs, regardless of whether they are government-appointed or independent institutions. Additionally, GANHRI welcomes participation from civil society organizations, human rights defenders, and other stakeholders in its activities and initiatives. So, statement 3 is not correct.
While GANHRI supports NHRIs in their efforts to promote and protect human rights, its primary objective is not to monitor and enforce compliance with international human rights treaties and conventions. Instead, it focuses on capacity-building, advocacy, and networking activities. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
In which of the following scenarios could GPT-4o be most beneficially applied?
Enhancing customer service experiences by providing personalized recommendations and responses in online chatbots.
Consider the following statements:
- Section 70 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002 deals with offences by companies.
- Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 empowers the EC to register a party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has informed the Delhi high court that it will name the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) an accused in the ongoing money laundering investigation related to alleged irregularities in the Delhi excise policy scam.
ED said that it is planning to invoke Section 70 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act to probe the role of AAP in this regard.
Main allegation of the ED is that AAP was the recipient of the proceeds of crime in the excise scam.
Section 70 of the PMLA 2002 deals with offences by companies. It states that if a company commits a contravention of any provision of the Act, every person who was in charge of the company’s business at the time of the contravention is also liable. So, statement 1 is correct.
Section 29A of The Representation of the People Act, 1951, empowers the EC to register a party. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) in India?
It provides for the prevention of unlawful activities that threaten the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Explanation :
Invalidating his arrest in a terror case, the Supreme Court ordered the release of Newsclick founder-editor. The court ruled that the Delhi Police had failed to inform Purkayastha of the grounds for his arrest before taking him into custody.
The founder-editor was arrested in October 2023 under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act following allegations that the portal had received funds for promoting pro-China propaganda.
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) is a legislation enacted in India to prevent unlawful activities that pose a threat to the sovereignty and integrity of the nation.
It aims to combat terrorism, insurgency, and other forms of unlawful activities that endanger national security.
The UAPA provides law enforcement agencies with enhanced powers to investigate, prosecute, and prevent such activities, including the designation of individuals or organizations as “terrorists” and the imposition of stringent penalties for their involvement in unlawful acts.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following options highlight the condition(s) of bail under Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002?
Both a and b
Explanation :
In a landmark judgment, the Supreme Court of India ruled that the Enforcement Directorate cannot arrest someone under Section 19 of the PMLA after the Special Court has taken cognizance of the complaint.
Section 45 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) speaks about the conditions set for bail.
It states that no accused person shall be granted bail unless:
the Public Prosecutor has been given an opportunity to oppose the application for such release; and
where the Public Prosecutor opposes the application, the Court is satisfied that:
there are reasonable grounds for believing that he is not guilty of such offence and
that he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.
Stringent norms
The twin conditions of bail under Section 45 of the PMLA pose stringent thresholds for an accused.
The burden of proof is entirely on the incarcerated accused, who would be often handicapped to fight the might of the state.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
How does the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme benefit industries in India?
By incentivizing eligible manufacturing companies for increasing production and enhancing competitiveness in global markets.
Explanation :
Recently, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said that Indian manufacturing needs to develop greater sophistication in its products and the government will assess how to provide policy support in this endeavour.
The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme is designed to boost manufacturing activities and enhance the competitiveness of Indian industries in global markets.
Under this scheme, eligible manufacturing companies are incentivized based on their incremental production.
By encouraging increased production and investments in key sectors, the PLI Scheme aims to attract domestic and foreign investment, promote innovation, create employment opportunities, and strengthen India’s position as a global manufacturing hub.
This application-based question highlights the practical implications and benefits of the PLI Scheme for industries in India.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between cervical cancer and human papillomavirus (HPV)?
HPV infection is the cause of cervical cancer, with certain high-risk HPV types, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, being strongly associated with the disease.
Explanation :
The Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine is reducing cases of cervical cancer. This reduction is happening across all socio-economic groups. Most cases are being prevented in more deprived groups. This information comes from a major study funded by Cancer Research UK.
The researchers at the Queen Mary University of London carried out the longest follow-up on the effectiveness of the HPV vaccination programme in England.
Persistent infection with high-risk HPV types, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, is a necessary cause of cervical cancer.
These oncogenic HPV types can lead to the development of precancerous lesions in the cervix, which, if left untreated, may progress to invasive cervical cancer over time.
HPV vaccination, targeting these high-risk HPV types, plays a crucial role in preventing HPV infection and reducing the risk of cervical cancer.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following scenarios accurately depicts the jurisdiction and role of the National Investigation Agency (NIA) in India?
NIA has jurisdiction over cases involving terrorist activities, including attacks, conspiracies and funding, irrespective of geographical boundaries within India and abroad.
Consider the following statements regarding the Green Credit Programme (GCP):
- The GCP aims to promote sustainable lifestyles and environmental conservation.
- It introduces a market-based approach to incentivise 8 identified environmental activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Centre has approved 12 greening projects under the Green Credit Program (GCP) and estimates of 24 plans submitted by different state forest departments are under consideration.
This program, introduced last year, is a market-based mechanism. It aims to encourage voluntary environmental actions across various sectors.
Background
Green Credit Initiative was launched by the Indian PM on the side-lines of COP 28 (held in 2023 at Dubai, United Arab Emirates).
It is an initiative within the government’s Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) movement.
The concept of LiFE was introduced by the Indian PM at COP26 (Glasgow) in 2021, to drive an international mass movement towards “mindful and deliberate utilisation” to protect and preserve the environment.
About
The GCP introduces a market-based approach to incentivise 8 identified environmental activities. So, statement 2 is correct.
The main objective was to establish a mechanism where participants could earn incentives in the form of ‘Green Credits’.
It encourages voluntary environmental actions by individuals, organizations, and companies.
Aim
The GCP aims to promote sustainable lifestyles and environmental conservation. So, statement 1 is correct.
Its goal is to lay an emphasis on sustainability, reduce waste and improve the natural environment.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Graduate Route Visa (GRV) scheme introduced by the United Kingdom:
- The scheme allows international students who have completed their degree in the UK to stay in the country for up to two years after graduation.
- Under the scheme, eligible graduates are permitted to work in any role or industry, regardless of their field of study or academic background.
- The scheme is exclusively available to postgraduate students who have completed a master’s or doctoral degree in the UK.
- To be eligible for the scheme, international students must secure a job offer from a UK employer before graduating from their academic program.
How many of the above statement(s) is/ are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Graduate Route Visa (GRV) scheme allows international students who have completed their degree in the UK to stay and work in the country for up to two years after graduation. So, statement 1 is correct.
Under the GRV scheme, eligible graduates are permitted to work in any role or industry, regardless of their field of study or academic background. So, statement 2 is correct.
The GRV scheme is not exclusively available to postgraduate students, and securing a job offer before graduating is not a requirement for eligibility under the scheme. So, statements 3 and 4 are not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes malaria?
It is caused by the Plasmodium parasite.
Explanation :
Pune-based Serum Institute of India (SII), announced that it has shipped its first batch of malaria vaccines— R21/Matrix-M— to Africa.
Malaria is a parasitic disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite. The parasite is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Once inside the body, the parasites multiply in the liver and then infect red blood cells, leading to the characteristic symptoms of malaria.
Patients diagnosed with malaria can be effectively treated with oral antimalarials/ intravenous antimalarial therapy.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC):
- ICC is a permanent international tribunal established to prosecute individuals for genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the crime of aggression.
- The ICC has jurisdiction over crimes committed within the territory of its member states and crimes committed by nationals of member states, regardless of the location of the crime.
- The Rome Statute, adopted in 1998, serves as the founding treaty of the ICC.
- The ICC can prosecute individuals who are nationals of non-member states if the crimes were committed on the territory of a member state or if the United Nations Security Council refers the situation to the court.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
The Prosecutor of the International Criminal Court (ICC) requested arrest warrants against leaders of Hamas and Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu of Israel.
The International Criminal Court is a permanent court to prosecute serious international crimes committed by individuals. It tries crimes such as genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity, and aggression. So, statement 1 is correct.
The ICC has jurisdiction over crimes committed within the territory of its member states and crimes committed by nationals of member states, regardless of the location of the crime. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Rome Statute, adopted in 1998, serves as the founding treaty of the ICC. However, it does not outline the court’s jurisdiction, structure, and functions. So, statement 3 is correct.
The ICC can prosecute individuals who are nationals of non-member states if the crimes were committed on the territory of a member state or if the United Nations Security Council refers the situation to the court. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD):
- UNCCD is an international treaty aimed at addressing the global issue of land degradation in arid and semi-arid only.
- The objective of the UNCCD is to prevent, combat, and mitigate the effects of desertification and drought through effective land management practices, sustainable land use, and enhanced resilience of ecosystems.
- The UNCCD focuses solely on addressing desertification and drought issues in developing countries, excluding developed nations from its scope of implementation.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Explanation:
Recently, the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) has released the Global Land Outlook Thematic Report on Rangelands and Pastoralists. As per the report, up to 50% of rangelands are degraded.
The UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) addresses land degradation not only in arid, semi-arid, and dry sub-humid areas but also in other regions affected by desertification and drought. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The objective of the UNCCD is to prevent, combat, and mitigate the effects of desertification and drought through effective land management practices, sustainable land use, and enhanced resilience of ecosystems. So, statement 2 is correct.
The UNCCD is a global treaty that involves both developed and developing countries in addressing desertification and drought issues. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)?
BIMSTEC is a regional organization comprising 7 member states, aimed at promoting economic cooperation and integration among member countries.
Explanation :
The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) can now accept new members and observers. This follows after the first charter of BIMSTEC came into force on May 20.
BIMSTEC is a regional organization comprising 7 member states - Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand - bordering Bay of Bengal.
The primary objective of BIMSTEC is to promote economic cooperation and integration among member countries through various sectors such as trade, investment, technology, energy, and tourism.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes rangelands?
Rangelands are vast expanses of land characterized by low rainfall and sparse vegetation, suitable for grazing livestock and wildlife.
Explanation :
Rangelands are extensive areas of land with limited rainfall and vegetation cover, making them suitable for grazing livestock and wildlife.
These ecosystems often consist of grasslands, shrublands, and semi-arid or arid landscapes.
Rangelands play a crucial role in supporting livestock production, biodiversity conservation, and ecosystem services such as water filtration and soil stabilization.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM)?
PAM is a rare but often fatal infection of the brain caused by the Naegleria fowleri amoeba, typically acquired through nasal exposure to warm freshwater.
Explanation :
A five-year-old girl receiving treatment for a rare brain infection called primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM), caused by the “brain-eating amoeba” Naegleria fowleri, has died at the Government Medical College Hospital in Kozhikode.
PAM is a rare but severe infection of the brain caused by the Naegleria fowleri amoeba.
The amoeba enters the body through the nasal passages, usually during activities such as swimming in warm freshwater lakes, rivers or hot springs.
Once inside the body, the amoeba travels to the brain, causing inflammation and destruction of brain tissue, which can lead to severe neurological symptoms and death.
An advertising agency uses the image of a well-known celebrity without their permission in a promotional campaign for a product. Which of the following legal concepts is most relevant to the celebrity’s potential claim against the advertising agency?
Violation of personality rights
Explanation :
Recently, Hollywood Actress Scarlett Johansson claimed that the GPT-4o’s voice, sounds very similar to her own. She has accused OpenAI of using her voice without permission despite previously declining licensing requests from CEO Sam Altman.
Personality rights refer to the legal right of individuals to control the commercial use of their name, image, likeness, or other aspects of their identity.
Unauthorized use of a celebrity’s image in advertising without their permission violates their personality rights, even if no false information is presented.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Landfall of Cyclones:
- It refers to the point at which the center of the cyclone’s circulation crosses the coastline and moves from the ocean to the land.
- The destructive winds and heavy rainfall associated with the cyclone impact coastal areas, resulting in storm surges, flooding, and infrastructure damage.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Landfall of a cyclone occurs when the center of the cyclone’s circulation crosses the coastline, transitioning from the ocean to the land. So, statement 1 is correct.
During landfall, the destructive winds, heavy rainfall, storm surges, and flooding associated with the cyclone impact coastal areas, causing significant damage to infrastructure and posing risks to life and property. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes AI agents?
AI agents are software programs or algorithms designed to perceive their environment, make decisions and take actions to achieve specific goals.
Explanation :
OpenAI’s GPT-4o and Google’s Project Astra are new AI models that can process real-world audio and visual inputs for intelligent, real-time conversations.
These “AI agents” are more advanced than traditional voice assistants like Alexa and Siri, marking a shift from chatbots to interactive AI agents.
AI agents are software programs or algorithms that operate within an environment, receiving inputs, processing information, and taking actions to achieve desired objectives or goals.
They can range from simple rule-based systems to complex machine learning models capable of learning from data and adapting their behavior over time.
A publicly listed company is facing allegations of financial misconduct by its top executives, including fraudulent reporting of financial statements to inflate company profits. Which aspect of corporate governance is most relevant to address this issue?
Board Oversight and Accountability
Explanation :
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) has a master circular on corporate governance for insurers.
Board oversight and accountability are crucial aspects of corporate governance that involve the responsibility of the board of directors to oversee the management of the company’s affairs, including monitoring financial reporting practices and ensuring compliance with laws and regulations.
In cases of financial misconduct or fraud, the board is responsible for investigating the allegations, holding accountable those involved and implementing corrective measures to restore trust and integrity in the company’s operations.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the Council of Europe (COE)?
The Council of Europe is an intergovernmental organization founded in 1949, dedicated to upholding human rights, democracy and the rule of law across its member states.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the nature of Ethylene Oxide (ETO)?
Exposure to Ethylene Oxide (ETO) has been classified by the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) as a Group 2A carcinogen, indicating that it is probably carcinogenic to humans.
Explanation :
Last month, Hong Kong and Singapore recalled certain spice mix products from MDH and Everest Group due to higher than prescribed levels of the sterilizing agent Ethylene Oxide (ETO).
In response, Indian authorities have initiated several measures to ensure that Indian spices comply with the food safety standards of importing countries.
The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) has classified ETO as a Group 2A carcinogen, indicating that there is limited evidence of its carcinogenicity in humans and sufficient evidence of its carcinogenicity in animal studies.
Occupational exposure to ETO, particularly in industrial settings where it is used as a sterilant for medical equipment and as a fumigant for certain products, has been associated with an increased risk of certain cancers, including leukemia and lymphoma.
During a heatwave, urban areas experience significantly higher temperatures compared to surrounding rural areas. Which of the following explains this phenomenon in the context of the Urban Heat Island (UHI) effect?
A.
Urbanization leads to the replacement of natural vegetation with impervious surfaces like asphalt and concrete, which absorb and re-radiate solar energy, increasing temperatures.
B.
The use of air conditioning systems in urban buildings generates excess heat, contributing to the warming of urban environments.
Both a and b
Explanation :
According to a study by Delhi-based Centre for Science and Environment, India’s megacities of Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Bengaluru, Kolkata and Hyderabad are experiencing worsening heat stress. This is due to a trend of rising relative humidity over the past two decades.
The study also pointed out that these cities are also experiencing warmer nights due to urban heat island effect.
About UHI
UHI effect refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience significantly higher temperatures than their rural surroundings.
This temperature difference is primarily due to human activities and the specific characteristics of urban environments.
Causes of UHI
Surface Characteristics
Urban areas have more asphalt, concrete, and buildings that absorb and retain heat, unlike rural areas with vegetation that provide cooling through evapotranspiration.
Heat Generated by Human Activities
Industrial processes, vehicles, air conditioning units, and other machinery generate heat.
Reduced Vegetation
Less green space and fewer trees mean less shading and cooling from plants.
Building Density
Tall buildings and narrow streets can trap heat and reduce airflow, limiting cooling.
Waste Heat
Energy consumption for lighting, heating, and cooling buildings releases additional heat.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes far-infrared radiation?
Far-infrared radiation is a form of electromagnetic radiation with wavelengths between 15 μm to 1 mm, often associated with heat transfer and thermal imaging applications.
Explanation :
Recently, NASA launched one of the two climate satellites, which would study heat emissions at Earth’s poles. The second satellite will be launched in the following days.
The mission to study the poles has been named PREFIRE (Polar Radiant Energy in the Far-InfraRed Experiment).
Far-infrared radiation falls within the electromagnetic spectrum with wavelengths ranging between 15 μm to 1 mm.
It is commonly associated with heat transfer processes and finds applications in thermal imaging, infrared heating, and other thermal technologies.
During a period of heavy rainfall, a hilly region experiences a significant increase in landslides, leading to property damage and loss of life. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to the occurrence of landslides in this scenario?
Steep slopes in the hilly terrain, combined with the saturation of soil due to prolonged rainfall, increasing the likelihood of slope failure and landslides.
Explanation :
Six people were killed in West Bengal in incidents triggered by cyclone Remal that struck the coastline recently.
In Northeast, heavy rain caused by the cyclone triggered landslides in several places in Meghalaya, Mizoram, Assam, and Nagaland, which have resulted in the deaths of at least 30 people so far.
Almost the entire region, including Sikkim and northern West Bengal, is landslide prone.
Steep slopes, common in hilly terrain, coupled with prolonged rainfall, lead to saturation of the soil, reducing its stability and increasing the risk of slope failure and landslides.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT):
- AMRUT was launched in 2015 to provide basic civic amenities like water supply, sewerage, urban transport etc.
- The focus of the Mission is on infrastructure creation that has a direct link to provision of better services to the citizens.
- It covered 500 cities that includes all cities and towns with a population of over one lakh with notified Municipalities.
- One of the objectives of AMRUT is to reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-motorized transport.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
All four
Explanation :
Explanation:
Around 36% of India’s population is living in cities and by 2047 it will be more than 50%. The World Bank estimates that around $840 billion is required to fund the bare minimum urban infrastructure over the next 15 years.
Against this backdrop, the AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) scheme was launched in June 2015, with its 2.0 version launched on October 1, 2021.
AMRUT was launched in 2015 to provide basic civic amenities like water supply, sewerage, urban transport, parks as to improve the quality of life for all especially the poor and the disadvantaged. So, statement 1 is correct.
The focus of the Mission is on infrastructure creation that has a direct link to provision of better services to the citizens. So, statement 2 is correct.
The objective of the mission is to:
ensure that every household has access to a tap with assured supply of water and a sewerage connection
increase the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and well-maintained open spaces e.g., parks and
reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-motorized transport e.g., walking and cycling. So, statement 4 is correct.
The Mission covers covering 500 cities that includes all cities and towns with a population of over one lakh with notified Municipalities. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements accurately describes 3D printing?
3D printing enables the creation of complex geometries and customized parts by building up layers of material based on digital 3D models.
Explanation :
AgniKul Cosmos, a start-up incubated at IIT Madras, has launched the world’s first single-piece 3D printed rocket engine, designed and built indigenously in the country.
With assistance from ISRO, the startup successfully carried out a sub-orbital test-flight of its home-built rocket — Agnibaan —from Sriharikota.
3D printing, also known as additive manufacturing, is a process of creating three-dimensional objects from digital models by adding material layer by layer.
It is an additive process, in which layers of a material like plastic, composites or bio-materials are built up to construct objects that range in shape, size, rigidity and colour.
This process allows for more efficient and customized production compared to traditional subtractive manufacturing methods.
Basically, 3D printing is an additive manufacturing process where objects are created by building up layers of material based on digital 3D models. This method allows for the production of complex shapes and customized parts with precision.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), consider the following statements:
- SAARC Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
- Maldives is a permanent member-country of the SAARC.
- SAARC has eight member countries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu, Nepal on 16th January 1987. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Maldives is a permanent member-country of the SAARC. So, statement 2 is correct.
SAARC has eight member countries (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri-Lanka). So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following curve in economics show the relationship between inflation and unemployment?
Philips Curve
Explanation :
The Phillips Curve is a graph that shows the relationship between inflation and unemployment.
It shows that when inflation is high, unemployment is low, and vice-versa.
It is used to develop economic forecasts and set monetary policies.
Therefore, Option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body.
- Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is the nodal ministry
- It has its headquarters at Bengaluru.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India is a statutory body under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. So, statement 1 is correct.
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is the nodal ministry for the FSSAI. So, statement 2 is correct.
The FSSAI has its headquarters at New Delhi. The authority also has 6 regional offices located in Delhi, Guwahati, Mumbai, Kolkata, Cochin, and Chennai. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
