May Flashcards
Which of the following States of India are known for ‘Patachitra painting’?
Odisha and West Bengal
Explanation :
The first-generation women patachitra artists of West Bengal’s village of Naya sell their work online and are recognised the world over, encouraging future generations to stay in the profession.
About Patachitra Painting:
Patachitra, or Pattachitra, is a general term for traditional, cloth-based scroll painting based in the eastern Indian States of Odisha and West Bengal.
It is believed to have originated as early as the 12th century.
In the Sanskrit language, “Patta” literally means “cloth” and “Chitra” means “picture”.
It is known for its intricate details as well as the mythological narratives and folktales inscribed in it.
Most of these paintings depict stories of Hindu deities.
Pattachitra is one of the ancient artworks of Odisha, originally created for ritual use and as souvenirs for pilgrims to Puri, as well as other temples in Odisha.
Patachitras are a component of ancient Bengali narrative art, originally serving as a visual device during the performance of a song.
Making:
Pattachitra paintings are made on a special canvas where cotton sarees are layered with tamarind paste and then coated with clay powder.
Traditionally, cotton canvas was used; now, both cotton and silk canvas are used for paintings.
Once the canvas becomes sturdy, colours are filled in directly without any initial sketches. It is a tradition to complete the borders of the painting first.
All colours are obtained from natural sources like lamp soot and powdered conch shells.
Each painting can take up to weeks or months to be prepared.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/governance/naya-s-women-patuas-are-preserving-a-traditional-artform-while-also-securing-a-livelihood-identity-95897
Consider the following statements with reference to Look Out Circulars (LOCs):
- It is an instrument issued by the government as a directive to its immigration authorities to restrict and regulate the physical movement of a person.
- It is issued by law enforcement agencies in India under the Passports Act, 1967.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Bombay High Court recently held that public sector banks (PSBs) cannot recommend or request the issuance of Look Out Circulars (LOCs) against loan defaulters.
About Look Out Circulars (LOCs):
A LOC is an instrument issued by the government as a directive to its immigration authorities to restrict and regulate the physical movement of a person.
The immigration department is tasked to stop any such individual against whom such a notice exists from leaving or entering the country.
Law enforcement agencies often use LOCs as a coercive measure to stop any individual wanted or under suspicion by the police or an investigating agency from leaving or entering the country through designated land, air, and sea ports.
LOCs are usually issued by the police, intelligence agencies, or other government agencies authorised by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA).
LOC does not have express statutory backing in legislation, the power to issue LOCs and their regulation stems from the executive in the form of an Office Memorandum issued by the MHA in 2021, which provides consolidated guidelines for opening LOCs against Indian citizens or foreigners.
Guidelines:
The guidelines categorically provide that LOCs can only be opened in criminal or penal cases, and the reason for the LOC must be indicated with the issue of the circular.
If there is no criminal or penal case pending, the LOC cannot be issued, and agencies can only request that they be informed of departure or arrival.
However, the guidelines provide that in exceptional cases, an LOC may be issued against an individual even when the case is not a criminal case. This is in specified circumstances, such as when it is detrimental to the “sovereignty, or security, or integrity of India”, the “bilateral relations with any State”, or to the “strategic and economic interests of India”.
LOCs are also permitted in cases where the individual is likely to engage in terrorism or offences against the State or when such departure would not be “in the larger public interest”.
LOCs cannot be issued unless basic details — including name/parentage, passport number, and date of birth — are available, and such requests must be constantly monitored.
It is the responsibility of the originator to constantly review the LOC requests and proactively provide additional parameters to minimise harassment to genuine passengers.
It is also required that any LOC issued must be reviewed on a quarterly and annual basis by agencies that request such restrictions, and the result of the review must be informed to the MHA.
MHA has categorically transferred the legal consequences of issuing an LOC to the originating agency, even though such OMs are issued by the Bureau of Immigration.
The power to issue such OMs and LOCs is sourced from The Passports Act, 1967, the key legislation for the grant of passports, travel documents, and “endorsements” to travellers at the time of emigration or immigration.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/high-court-banks-debtors-abroad-9299608/
In context of financial markets, the term ‘front-running’ refers to:
using non-public information concerning a significant transaction to execute trades
Explanation :
The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) recently approved changes in mutual fund regulations to prevent front-running in asset management companies (AMCs).
About Front-running:
Front-running is when a broker or an investor joins a trade because they have pre-existing non-public information concerning a significant transaction that may change the asset’s price, equity, or derivative to obtain economic benefits.
It is also known as forward-trading or tailgating.
It is illegal in India.
Front-running can occur in various forms and contexts, including the stock market, commodities market, and other financial markets.
The strategies commonly used to front-run trades are the Buy-Buy-Sell (BBS) trading pattern and the Sell-Sell-Buy (SSB) trading pattern.
What is Buy-Buy-Sell (BBS) trading pattern?
In this trade pattern, the alleged front-runner, by using the non-public information regarding an impending buy order of the big client, places his buy order before the big client’s buy order.
As and when the big client places a buy order, the price of the security rises, and the alleged front-runner sells the securities bought earlier.
In this way, at the raised price, the alleged front-runner makes a profit.
What is the Sell-Sell-Buy (SSB) trading pattern?
In this trading pattern, the alleged front-runner by using the non-public information regarding an impending sell order of the big client, places his sell orders before the big client’s sell order.
When the big client places a sell order the price of the security falls which allows the alleged front-runner to buy back the securities at a lower price to meet his obligations which he had created earlier by selling securities.
Difference Between Front Running and Insider Trading:
Insider trading involves trading securities based on material, non-public information about a company. Insiders, such as company executives, employees, or individuals with access to confidential information, use this privileged information to make trades for personal gain.
On the other hand, Front Running involves trading securities based on knowledge of pending orders or anticipated market movements. It typically occurs when a broker or trader exploits their position or advanced expertise to prioritize their trades over their clients or the general public.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/business/sebi-tweaks-mutual-fund-regulations-to-stop-front-running-in-asset-management-companies/cid/2016944
How do Lynx spiders, recently seen in the news, capture their prey?
By pouncing upon them
Explanation :
Daryapur-based arachnologist recently identified a green lynx spider, named Peucetia chhaparajnirvin, which was never discovered earlier.
About Peucetia chhaparajnirvin:
It is a new species of green lynx spider.
The spider was found in Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary in Churu district of Rajasthan.
The spider species has been named Peucetia chhaparajnirvin after the area in Rajasthan, Tal Chhapar, where it was discovered.
This spider is found on the green leaves of the Vachellia nilotica (babul) tree.
Their green hue aids in blending with their surroundings and ambushing prey, while their long legs allow them to move quickly.
This spider is nocturnal and feeds on small insects.
What are Lynx Spiders?
Lynx spiders, (family Oxyopidae) are any of several groups of active spiders (order Araneida) that do not build a nest or web but capture their prey by pouncing upon them.
They are among the major predators of insects occurring in low shrubs and herbaceous vegetation.
The eyes are arranged in a hexagon, and the abdomen usually tapers to a point.
Many Lynx spider species have colorfully striped abdomens and spiky legs.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-evm-vvpat-case-judgment-is-disappointing/article68122171.ece
With reference to Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014, consider the following statements:
- It was enacted in order to legalise the vending rights of Street Vendors (SVs).
- It commits to accommodating all ‘existing’ vendors in vending zones and issuing Vending Certificates (VCs).
- It establishes a participatory governance structure through Town Vending Committees (TVCs).
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A decade has passed since the Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act came into effect on May 1, 2014.
About Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014:
It was enacted in order to legalise the vending rights of street vendors (SVs).
It aimed to protect and regulate street vending in cities, with State-level rules and schemes, and execution by Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) through by-laws, planning, and regulation.
The Act clearly delineates the roles and responsibilities of both vendors and various levels of government.
It commits to accommodating all ‘existing’ vendors in vending zones and issuing vending certificates (VCs).
The Act establishes a participatory governance structure through Town Vending Committees (TVCs).
It mandates that street vendor representatives must constitute 40% of TVC members, with a sub-representation of 33% of women SVs.
These committees are tasked with ensuring the inclusion of all existing vendors in vending zones.
Additionally, the Act outlines mechanisms for addressing grievances and disputes, proposing the establishment of a Grievance Redressal Committee chaired by a civil judge or judicial magistrate.
It provides that the States/ULBs conduct a survey to identify SVs at least once every five years.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/the-problems-with-the-street-vendors-act/article68124512.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Goldman Environmental Prize:
- It is awarded to individuals for sustained and significant efforts to enhance the natural environment.
- It is only awarded to people from European continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Alok Shukla, convenor of the Chhattisgarh Bachao Andolan and founding member of the Hasdeo Aranya Bachao Sangharsh Samiti, has been awarded the 2024 Goldman Prize from Asia.
The Prize recognizes individuals for sustained and significant efforts to protect and enhance the natural environment, often at great personal risk.
It is also known as the Green Nobel.
It recognizes grassroots environmental heroes from roughly the world’s six inhabited continental regions: Africa, Asia, Europe, Islands & Island Nations, North America and South & Central America
The Goldman Prize views “grassroots” leaders as those involved in local efforts, where positive change is created through community or citizen participation.
The first Goldman Environmental Prize ceremony took place on April 16, 1990. It was timed to coincide with Earth Day.
Key facts about Hasdeo Aranya region
It is a sprawling forest in the northern part of Chhattisgarh which is known for its biodiversity and also its coal deposits.
The forest falls under Korba, Surajpur and Sarguja districts with sizeable tribal population.
The Hasdeo River, a tributary of Mahanadi, flows through it.
It is the largest un-fragmented forests in Central India consisting of pristine Sal (Shorea robusta) and teak forests.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indian-forest-activist-alok-shukla-awarded-the-goldman-environmental-prize/article68124978.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Eggshell Skull Rule:
- It is common law principle applied in civil litigation.
- It states that all victims should be partially compensated for their losses due to preexisting injury.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Underlining that the state and central consumer courts incorrectly applied the ‘eggshell skull’ legal principle, the Supreme Court restored the compensation of Rs 5 lakhs awarded by the district consumer forum in a medical negligence case.
It is a common law principle applied in civil litigation.
It states that all victims should be fully compensated for their losses, even in situations where the victim was more-susceptible to injury due to a predisposing condition or preexisting injury.
This rule ensures that a defendant (the person being sued) cannot escape liability for exacerbating a pre-existing condition due to their negligence.
The eggshell skull doctrine is named after a hypothetical situation where a person with a fragile skull, akin to an eggshell, suffers a head injury.
If the victim’s skull fractures more easily than the average person, the defendant is still fully liable for all resulting damages, despite the victim’s unusual vulnerability.
Despite its name, the eggshell skull rule applies to all types of injuries, including physical, emotional, and psychological harm.
The rule is applied for claiming an enhanced compensation — for damage that is more than what could have been ordinarily anticipated to be caused by the defendant.
The eggshell skull rule has consequently also been referred to as the ‘thin skull rule’ in many of the cases
Origin: The origins of the eggshell skull rule are most often traced back to an 1891 Vosburg v. Putney case in Wisconsin, US.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/eggshell-skull-rule-9299405/
Consider the following statements regarding Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome:
- It is characterized by blood clots combined with low levels of platelets in human body.
- It is more common among younger age groups.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, AstraZeneca (AZ) has admitted its Covid vaccine may cause Thrombosis with Thrombocytopenia Syndrome (TTS).
It is characterized by blood clots (thrombosis) combined with low levels of platelets (thrombocytopenia), which are necessary for blood clotting.
It often involves unusual blood clot locations, such as in the brain (cerebral venous sinus thrombosis) or abdomen.
Symptoms of TTS: Severe or persistent headaches, blurred vision, Shortness of breath, Chest pain, Leg swelling, Persistent abdominal pain and Easy bruising or tiny blood spots under the skin beyond the injection site etc.
It is classified into two tiers based on the location of the blood clot and the severity of the symptoms.
Tier 1:
Uncommon site of thrombosis (like the brain-cerebral venous sinus thrombosis or the gut such as splanchnic vein, associated with bowel ischaemia and surgery, portal vein or other rare venous and arterial thromboses)
Thrombosis in more common locations (deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism)
Platelet count is less than 1,50,000 per microlitre
A positive anti-PF4 ELISA result is supportive, but not required for diagnosis.
Tier 2:
Common sites of thrombosis include leg or lungs (venous thromboembolism, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism)
Platelet count is less than 1,50,000 per microlitre
A positive anti-PF4 ELISA result is required.
Tier 1 TTS carries a higher risk of mortality and morbidity than Tier 2. Tier 1 could be more common among younger age groups.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/lifestyle/health/understanding-covishields-rare-side-effect-what-is-thrombosis-with-thrombocytopenia-syndrome-know-symptoms-treatment-101714480699996.html
La Cumbre volcano, recently in news, is located in:
Galápagos Islands
Explanation :
Recent lava spewing from La Cumbre volcano on Galápagos Islands destroying habitat of rare land iguanas.
It is located on Fernandina Island – the third largest island in the Galápagos Islands.
It lies directly atop the mantle plume, or hot spot, that produced all of the Galápagos Island.
It is located around 1,125 kilometres off mainland Ecuador and erupted for the first time since 2020.
The volcano has a large crater, or caldera, at its summit that harbors a permanent crater lake.
This lake attracts a wide variety of animals including tens of thousands of Galápagos land iguanas (Conolophus subcristatus) that lay their eggs in nests within the caldera.
Key facts about Galápagos land iguana
It is one of three species of land iguana endemic to the Galapagos Islands (the others being the Santa Fe land iguana and the Galapagos pink land iguana).
It is a very large species of lizard in the family Iguanidae. It is primarily an herbivores species.
This large cold-blooded reptile has a mutualistic relationship with finches, which can often be seen sitting on their backs, picking ticks from between their scales.
It is active during the day spending their time foraging or basking on rocks; at night they sleep in burrows.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/la-cumbre-volcano-continues-to-spew-lava-affecting-habitat-of-rare-land-iguanas-in-galapagos-islands-716430
Consider the following:
- Bacillus Calmette-Guérin
- Human Papilloma Virus
- COVID-19
How many of the above diseases are covered under Essential Programme on Immunization of World Health Organisation?
All three
Explanation :
The year 2024 commemorates 50 years since the launch of the Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1974 which is now known as Essential Programme on Immunization.
It was launched as the Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI) by World Health Organisation in 1974 to ensure that all children, in all countries, benefited from life-saving vaccines.
This programme has evolved into what is now commonly known as the Essential Programme on Immunization.
Disease covered (Total 13)
Initially this programme focused on protection against six childhood vaccine-preventable diseases namely Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG), diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles.
Later on, WHO added 7 more disease under this initiative Haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), Hepatitis B (HepB), rubella, pneumococcal disease (PNC), rotavirus (Rota), Human Papilloma Virus (HPV), and COVID-19 (for adults).
India’s Universal Immunization Programme (UIP)
India launched the EPI in 1978, which was later renamed as the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) in 1985.
Objectives:
To rapidly increase immunization coverage.
To improve the quality of services.
To establish a reliable cold chain system to the health facility level.
Monitoring of performance.
To achieve self-sufficiency in vaccine production.
Eligibility:
All beneficiaries’ namely pregnant women and children can get themselves vaccinated at the nearest Government/Private health facility or at an immunization session site (Anganwadicentres/ other identified sites) near to their village/urban locality on fixed days.
The UIP covers all sections of the society across the country with the same high quality vaccines.
Under UIP, immunization is providing free of cost against 12 vaccine preventable diseases
Nationally against 9 diseases - Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Measles, Rubella, severe form of Childhood Tuberculosis, Hepatitis B and Meningitis & Pneumonia caused by Hemophilus Influenza type B
Sub-nationally against 3 diseases - Rotavirus diarrhoea, Pneumococcal Pneumonia and Japanese Encephalitis; of which Rotavirus vaccine and Pneumococcal Conjugate vaccine are in process of expansion while JE vaccine is provided only in endemic districts.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/make-epi-an-essential-programme-on-immunisation/article68126088.ece
Which among the following best describes Antares, recently seen in the news?
A red supergiant star
Explanation :
The Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) has filmed the passing of the moon in front of Antares, a bright red star.
About Antares:
Antares, also known as Alpha Scorpii, is the alpha, or brightest, star in the constellation Scorpius, and the 15th-brightest star in the whole night sky.
It is a massive red supergiant star.
It is 10,000 times brighter than our Sun.
It is one of the largest known stars, 700 times the Sun’s diameter, large enough to engulf the orbit of Mars if the solar system were centered on it.
It lies about 600 light-years from the Earth.
Despite its size, the overall density of Antares is less than one-millionth that of the Sun.
Antares is also relatively cool as stars go. Its surface temperature is about 6,100 degrees F (3,400 degrees C). That’s in contrast to our sun’s surface temperature of about 10,000 degrees F (5,500 degrees C).
The star’s low-temperature accounts for its ruddy color.
What is a Red Supergiant star?
They are very large stars that are approaching the later stages of their stellar life.
They have a radius that is several hundred to 1500 times that of the Sun.
Though they are great in size, the red color indicates that stars of this type have a relatively low surface temperature.
They are highly luminous.
Most red supergiants are variable stars. This means, their degree of brightness changes and fluctuates as seen on Earth.
Also, these stars are actively losing mass. Nebulae have been seen around them as they expel material.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/indian-institute-of-astrophysics-releases-video-of-moon-occulting-antares-hiding-occultation/article68128228.ece
The Space Applications Centre (SAC) of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is located in which one of the following cities?
Ahmedabad
Explanation :
A study carried out by the scientists at the Space Applications Centre suggests that the extent of water ice in the northern polar region is twice that in the southern polar region of the Moon.
About Space Applications Centre (SAC):
It is a major research and development centre of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Located in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, SAC is spread across two campuses with multi-disciplinary activities.
Genesis:
The genesis of the centre dates back to 1966, with the establishment of the Experimental Satellite Communication Earth Station (ESCES) by the late Dr. Vikram Sarabhai in Ahmedabad.
Later in 1972, the different units of ISRO in Ahmedabad pursuing research in applications of space technology were merged to form SAC.
The core competence of the centre lies in the development of space borne and air borne instruments/payloads and their applications for national development and societal benefits.
These applications are in diverse areas and primarily meet the communication, navigation, and remote sensing needs of the country.
Besides these, the centre also contributes significantly to scientific and planetary missions of ISRO like Chandrayan-1, the Mars Orbiter Mission, etc.
The communication transponders developed at this Centre for Indian National Satellite (INSAT) and Geo Synchronous Satellite (GSAT) series of satellites are used by the government and private sector for VSAT, DTH, Internet, broadcasting, telephones, etc.
This centre also designs and develops the optical and microwave sensors for the satellites, signal and image processing software, GIS software, and many applications for the Earth Observation (EO) programme of ISRO.
These applications are in diverse areas of Geosciences, Agriculture, Environment and Climate Change, Physical Oceanography, Biological Oceanography, Atmosphere, Cryosphere, Hydrosphere, etc.
Facilities: The facilities at SAC include highly sophisticated payload integration laboratories, electronic and mechanical fabrication facilities, environmental test facilities, systems reliability / assurance group, image processing and analysis facilities, project management support group, and a well-stocked library.
SAC is a host institution for the training programmes for students from the Asia Pacific region under the aegis of the Centre for Space Science and Technology Education in Asia and the Pacific (CSSTE-AP) in satellite meteorology and communication.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.firstpost.com/world/moon-may-have-more-hidden-water-ice-to-exploit-than-previously-known-isro-13766082.html
With reference to adsorption, consider the following statements:
- It refers to a process in which a substance diffuses into a liquid or solid to form a solution.
- It is operative in most natural physical, biological and chemical systems.
- It is used in industrial applications and for the purification of waters and wastewaters.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientists have conducted research on a nano-material-based adsorption process to efficiently remove uranium wastewater extracted from actual radioactive-contaminated soil.
About Adsorption:
It refers to the adhesion of atoms, ions, or molecules from a gas, liquid, or dissolved solid to the surface of a material.
It is considered a surface phenomenon that creates a film of the adsorbate on the surface of the adsorbent (a solid material, for instance).
Materials that are used to adsorb gases or dissolved substances are called adsorbents; the adsorbed molecules are usually referred to collectively as the adsorbate.
How Adsorption Works?
Adsorption depends on surface energy.
The surface atoms of the adsorbent are partially exposed, so they can attract the adsorbate molecules.
Adsorption may result from electrostatic attraction, chemisorption, or physisorption.
Characteristics of Adsorbents:
Typically, adsorbents have small pore diameters so that there is a high surface area to facilitate adsorption.
The pore size usually ranges between 0.25 and 5 mm.
Industrial adsorbents have high thermal stability and resistance to abrasion.
Depending on the application, the surface may be hydrophobic or hydrophilic.
The adsorbents come in many shapes, including rods, pellets, and molded shapes.
Examples of adsorbents include Silica gel, Alumina,Activated carbon or charcoal, Zeolites, Adsorption chillers used with refrigerants, Biomaterials that adsorb proteins, etc.
Adsorption is a different process from absorption, in which a substance diffuses into a liquid or solid to form a solution.
Adsorption phenomena are operative in most natural physical, biological and chemical systems, and adsorption operations employing solids such as activated carbon and synthetic resins are widely used in industrial applications and for the purification of waters and wastewaters.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://phys.org/news/2024-04-discovery-uranium-contaminated-soil-purification.html
With reference to Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, consider the following statements:
- The definition of Hindu under the Act includes Buddhist, Jain and Sikh.
- Registration of a Hindu marriage is subject to laws applicable in particular States.
- Unlike any other matrimonial laws in India, the Act contains provisions for restitution of conjugal rights.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently said mere registration of marriage in absence of a proper ceremony would not be valid under the Hindu Marriage Act.
About Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (HMA Act):
It codifies the law relating to marriage among Hindus.
It not only provides for the ceremonies and registration for Hindu marriage but also lays down rules regarding divorce.
Salient Features:
A Hindu by birth or by conversion is the subject of HMA Act.
The definition of Hindu under the HMA Act includes Buddhist, Jain, and Sikh as well.
Marriageable age:
The bridegroom must be at least 21 years old, and the bride must be at least 18 years old when they get married.
Marriage among minors is punishable with imprisonment upto 3 years and/or fine upto Rs 1 lakh.
Significance of ceremonies:
Customary practices (customs/ long-term usages (Reeti-Riwaz)) are well respected under the HMA Act.
Saptapadi, i.e., steps taken by the bride and groom before holy fire, is a necessary ritual for marriage among Hindus.
However, marriage ceremonies are subject to customs and accepted accordingly.
Forbidding bigamy:
It also brought an end to the customary practice of bigamy, polygamy, or polyandry, i.e, multiple marriages.
Section 5 of the Act specifies that it is illegal to have two living wives at once, which is known as bigamy.
If one spouse is alive and the person remarries, such marriage is not only void, but the person is also punishable under Sections 494 and 495 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Focus on mental stability:
A marriage is considered null and void if anyone one or both the people get married being mentally unfit.
In such cases, the couple must get legal consent before getting married.
Registration:
Registration of a Hindu marriage is subject to laws applicable in particular States.
However, a marriage is not invalid or illegal due to lack of an official certificate.
Divorce:
The Act also allows divorce through mutual consent.
Although parties are legally not allowed to seek divorce within 1 year of marriage, they can go for judicial separation.
However, divorce may be granted before completion of 1 year in special circumstances of exceptional hardship.
It provides for the various grounds on the basis of which, divorce can be granted to one of the spouses if another does not agree to separate.
There are special grounds which specifically allow the wife to seek divorce from her husband.
Restitution of conjugal rights:
Unlike any other matrimonial laws in India, the HMA Act also contains provisions for restitution of conjugal rights.
So, if one of the spouses leaves the other without any reasonable excuse, the other spouse may reach the court to restore their matrimonial relations and bring back the spouse.
Legal Procedures:
Matters of Hindu marriages and divorce follow procedure in family court in India.
Matters under the Act are taken up by the courts of territorial jurisdiction (city/ town) where the marriage was celebrated, where one of the parties resides, or where the husband and wife last resided together.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/supreme-court-says-mere-registration-in-absence-of-ceremony-not-a-valid-marriage-under-hindu-marriage-act-3002652
Which event marked the origins of International Labour Day?
Haymarket Affair incident
Explanation :
The International Labour Day was recently observed to honour the contribution of workers across the world.
About International Labour Day:
International Labour Day, also known as Workers Day or May Day, is a global event that takes place annually on May 1st.
It is a day dedicated to honouring the efforts and achievements of workers and the labour movement.
Over 80 countries, including India, Cuba, and China, mark International Labour Day.
On this day, people all over the world march to advocate working-class rights and protect them from exploitation.
History:
The origins of International Labour Day can be traced back to the late 19th-century labour movement in the United States.
In 1886, a large demonstration happened in America where the labours demanded eight hours of work on a daily basis.
However, soon the demonstration went out of hand, and in Chicago, a lot of people got hurt. This incident came to be known as the Haymarket Affair.
The Haymarket Affair incident marked the start of International Labour Day.
In 1889, a lot of socialist parties in Europe came together and decided to celebrate May 1 as International Labour Day.
Since then, the special day has been observed every year on the same day.
In India, the first May Day was celebrated in Chennai (then Madras) in 1923 by the Labour Kisan Party of Hindustan.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsonair.gov.in/international-labour-day-observes-today/
Consider the following statements with reference to Project ISHAN:
- It aims to streamline and enhance air traffic management.
- It unifies four Flight Information Regions to single continuous airspace in Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India has kickstarted the process of unifying its four airspace regions into one spanning the entire nation under Project ISHAN.
The Indian Single Sky Harmonized Air Traffic Management (ISHAN) initiative aims to streamline and enhance air traffic management.
India is planning a major move to unify its four Flight Information Regions (FIRs) in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai into one continuous airspace in Nagpur and have harmonized Air Traffic Management from Nagpur.
The Airports Authority of India (AAI), the public entity invited expressions of interest (EoI) for the preparation of a detailed project report.
What’s the arrangement at present?
Currently, Indian airspace is divided into four flight information regions (FIRs) in Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai, and a sub-FIR in Guwahati each managed separately.
Significance: It is expected to streamline operations, enhance capacity, and alleviate congestion, benefiting both airlines and passengers.
Key facts about AAI
It is a statutory body under the Directorate General of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India.
It was constituted by an Act of Parliament and came into being on 1st April 1995, by merging the erstwhile National Airports Authority and the International Airports Authority of India.
It is entrusted with the responsibility of creating, upgrading, maintaining, and managing civil aviation infrastructure both on the ground and in air space in the country.
It also provides Air Traffic Management Services (ATMS) over the entire Indian Air Space and adjoining oceanic areas, with ground installations at all airports, and 25 other locations to ensure the safety of aircraft operations.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/india-news/one-nation-one-airspace-indias-mission-ishan-to-benefit-airlines-and-passengers-both-714250
Consider the following statements regarding the Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) System:
- It is developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
- It consists of two-stage solid propulsion and precision inertial navigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) tested a next-generation torpedo release system.
Supersonic Missile-Assisted Release of Torpedo (SMART) System has been designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation.
It was launched from a ground mobile launcher from the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the Odisha coast.
Features
This missile-based mechanism to launch lightweight torpedoes can target submarines hundreds of kilometres away — far beyond the conventional range of lightweight torpedoes.
It will be particularly employed in the absence of other assets for immediate action when an enemy submarine is detected.
It is the canister-based missile system comprises several advanced subsystems including two-stage solid propulsion and precision inertial navigation.
It carries an advanced lightweight torpedo missile as a payload along with a parachute-based release mechanism.
Several state-of-the-art mechanisms, such as symmetric separation, ejection and velocity control, have been validated with this test.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/drdo-successfully-tests-missile-assisted-torpedo-release-system-9302427/
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Kutch Ajrakh:
- It is a textile craft created on cotton cloth with intricate designs.
- It was introduced in India by the Mughal empire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks (CGPDTM) has bestowed the Geographical Indication (GI) certificate upon the traditional artisans of ‘Kutch Ajrakh,’ hailing from the vibrant region of Kutch in Gujarat.
The Ajrakh is a textile craft, holds deep roots in the cultural tapestry of Gujarat, particularly in the regions of Sindh, Barmer, and Kutch, where its legacy spans millennia.
The art of Ajrakh entails a meticulous process of hand-block printing on treated cotton cloth, culminating in intricate designs infused with rich symbolism and history.
Ajrak’s nomenclature originates from ‘Azrak’, meaning indigo, a well-known substance most often employed as a powerful dye to achieve a bluish effect.
Ajrakh prints have traditionally consisted of three colors: blue which signifies the sky, red which signifies the land and the fire, and white which signifies the stars.
Textiles are treated with vegetable and mineral colours and the fabric goes through a washing cycle about eight times.
This craft was introduced to this region over 400 years back by the Sind Muslims.
Nomadic pastoralist and agricultural communities like the Rabaris, Maldharis, and Ahirs wear Ajrakh printed cloth as turbans, lungis, or stoles.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/fashion/buzz/ajrakh-from-kutch-gets-gi-tag/articleshow/109698796.cms
Red Colobus Conservation Action Plan is an initiative of:
International Union for Conservation of Nature
Explanation :
A new study by an international team of scientists stated conserving Red colobus could hold the keys to protecting tropical forests.
These are a rare group of imperilled monkeys spread across Africa. They are primary indicators of biodiversity.
Red colobus monkeys are one of two major simian groups globally.
Colobines are primarily leaf-eaters, as compared to the cercopithecines, which are omnivores and thus include animals in their diet as well.
Colobines also include the langurs of south and southeast Asia besides Africa’s colobus (olive and black-and-white besides red) monkeys.
Distribution: Ranging from forests in Senegal to the Zanzibar Archipelago.
Most red colobus are facing extinction, making them the most threatened group of non-ape primates in mainland Africa.
More than half of the 18 distinct forms of red colobus monkeys (scientists are unclear about how many species there are) are classified as Endangered or Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Threats
Hunting for trade and local subsistence
Habitat loss, degradation and fragmentation due to logging, mining, charcoal production, infrastructure development and conversion of forest to farms and agriculture plantations.
Initiative to conserve Red Colobus
The Red Colobus Conservation Action Plan, initiated by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Species Survival Commission Primate Specialist Group and the African Primatological Society.
The action plan aims to make red colobus a priority conservation target, which will help to secure Africa’s tropical forests and reduce unsustainable hunting for wild meat.
A Red Colobus Working Group (RCWG) has been formed to guide implementation of the action plan and a Red Colobus Conservation Network (RCCN) has been created to promote communication, capacity-building and monitoring of red colobus conservation efforts.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/world/red-colobus-conserving-these-old-world-primates-could-help-save-africa-s-tropical-forests-says-study-95900
With reference to Navratna Public Sector Undertakings (PSU), consider the following statements:
- They can invest up to Rs 1,000 crore without seeking approval from the Central Government.
- They can enter into technology joint ventures with other companies.
- They have autonomy to incur capital expenditure on purchase of new items.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency public sector undertaking company was granted ‘Navratna status’ from the department of public enterprises.
The government categorises all Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) into three categories, namely Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna.
The Government had introduced the ‘Navratna’ scheme in 1997.
Criteria for Navratna status
A PSU should be a Miniratna-I, Schedule ‘A’ company, should have obtained an ‘excellent’ or ‘very good’ MoU rating in three of the last five years, and must have a composite score of 60 in six performance indicators.
It must report a net profit of more than Rs 5,000 crore for three consecutive years, and maintain an average annual turnover of Rs 25,000 crore for three years, or have an annual average net worth of over Rs 15,000 crore for three years.
Benefits
Financial Independence: They invest up to ₹1,000 crore without seeking approval from the Central Government.
Navratna companies are also allowed to invest up to 15% of their net worth on a single project, or 30% of their net worth in a given year, subject to a cap of ₹1,000 crore.
To incur capital expenditure on purchase of new items or for replacement, without any monetary ceiling.
To enter into technology joint ventures or strategic alliances.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/market/stock-market-news/ireda-share-price-jumps-over-10-as-it-attains-navratna-status-11714362891328.html
Which one of the following major infrastructure projects is linked to the Shaksgam Valley?
Karakoram Highway
Explanation :
India has lodged a strong protest with China for carrying out construction activities in the Shaksgam valley, in an “illegal” attempt to alter the situation on the ground.
About Shaksgam Valley:
The Shaksgam Valley, or Trans Karakoram Tract, is part of the Hunza-Gilgit region of Pakistan-Occupied Kashmir (POK) and is a disputed territory claimed by India but controlled by Pakistan.
It borders Xinjiang Province of the People’s Republic of China (PRC) to the north, the Northern Areas of POK to the south and west, and the Siachen Glacier region to the east.
It was ceded to China by Pakistan in 1963, when both countries signed a boundary agreement to settle their border differences.
However, Article 6 of the agreement clearly stated that “the two parties have agreed that after the settlement of the Kashmir dispute between Pakistan and India, the sovereign authority concerned will reopen negotiations with the Government of the People’s Republic of China, on the boundary as described in Article Two of the present agreement, so as to sign a formal Boundary Treaty to replace the present agreement.”
The agreement laid the foundation of Karakoram highway, which was built jointly by Chinese and Pakistani engineers in the 1970s.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-protest-china-infra-development-shaksgam-valley-9303777/
With reference to Garo Hills, consider the following statements:
- It forms the western part of Meghalaya State.
- It is part of the Patkai hill range, which extends across the Indo-Myanmar border.
- It is one of the wettest places in the world and is drained by tributaries of the Brahmaputra River.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Geological Survey of India (GSI) explorers recently made a breakthrough, uncovering ancient fossils, estimated to be around 35-40 million years old, in Tolegre, South Garo Hills of Meghalaya.
About Garo Hills:
The Garo Hills form the western part of Meghalaya State.
The range is part of the Meghalaya subtropical forests eco-region.
Situated close to the Indo-Bangladesh border, the Garo hills are part of the Patkai hill range, which extends across the Indo-Myanmar border.
It is one of the wettest places in the world.
The region is drained by various tributaries of the Brahmaputra River.
Garo Hills comprises 5 districts; North Garo Hills, East Garo Hills, West Garo Hills, South Garo Hills, and South-West Garo Hills.
The Garo Hills are mostly dominated by the tribes known as Garos. The Garos call themselves Achik-mande.
Garos form the second largest tribe in the state of Meghalaya.
They are one of the last remaining matrilineal tribes in the world.
Their main festival is the Wangala festival, a harvest festival, which is predominantly celebrated by the Songsareks (those following the traditional religion of animism).
Two mountain ranges, the Arabella range and the Tura range, passthrough the Garo Hills, forming the great Balpakram valley in between.
Balpakram area is considered sacred for the Garo community due to their belief that the spirits of the dead sojourn here.
The highest point in the Garo Hills is Nokrek Peak, with an elevation of 1412 m, which is covered by a thick film of lush forest.
The region is home to the esteemed Nokrek National Park, protects a highly diverse plant and animal diversity. In 2009, the park was designated a biosphere reserve by UNESCO.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/meghalaya/story/meghalaya-gsi-unearths-40-million-year-old-fossils-in-south-garo-hills-996981-2024-05-02
High Mobility Artillery Rocket Systems (HIMARS), recently seen in the news, is developed by which one of the following countries?
USA
Explanation :
Russia’s government recently published new footage claiming to show the targeting of two Ukrainian High Mobility Artillery Rocket Systems (HIMARS) shortly after the U.S. authorized a significant new chunk of military aid for Ukraine.
About High Mobility Artillery Rocket Systems (HIMARS):
It is a light, multiple rocket launcher.
It is manufactured by Lockheed Martin Corporation, a US-based security and aerospace company.
HIMARS is intended to engage and defeat artillery, air defence concentrations, trucks, light armour, and personnel carriers, as well as support troop and supply concentrations.
Features:
It is an air-transportable wheeled launcher mounted on a 5-ton Family of Medium Tactical Vehicles (FMTV).
It can carry either a launcher pod of six rockets or one MGM-140Army Tactical Missile System (ATACMS), which have a range of 300 km (186 miles).
The HIMARS requires less than 20 seconds to be prepared for firing, and a full launcher load of six rockets can be fired within 45 seconds.
The system launches its weapons and moves away from the area at high speed before enemy forces locate the launch site.
The HIMARS is equipped with the Increased Crew Protection cabin, which is designed to protect the three-man operating crew against plume gases, rocket launch debris, and small arms.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsweek.com/russia-himars-video-ukraine-1896512
Consider the following statements with reference to the Standard Essential Patents (SEP):
- It is a patent granted for a technological invention which is essential for the working of a standard.
- Lack of any competing technology grants the SEP holder a monopolistic right over the SEP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
There is a possible crisis brewing in India over the manner in which certain technology companies are wielding ‘standard essential patents’ (SEP) against the telecom manufacturing sector in India.
About Standard Essential Patents (SEP):
A SEP is a patent granted for a technological invention which is essential for the implementation and working of a standard.
What is a Standard?
A ‘standard’ is a set of technical requirements or agreed technical descriptions which cover ideas, products, or services and make sure that technologies interact and work together.
Standards can be adopted worldwide, regionally or even nationally.
It is usually in the interest of industrial players to create products that comply with standards.
One example of a widely used standard is the A4 size for sheets of paper.
Patents which are essential to a standard and have been adopted by a Standard Setting Organization (SSO) are known as SEPs.
SSOs are either governmental, quasi-governmental, or a private group of independently governed industry associations.
SSOs set, develop, coordinate, interpret, and maintain standards.
Industry participants can collaborate on a single technical solution because of such standards.
When a patent is acknowledged by the SSO and designated as a SEP, manufacturers can only produce their goods in the market after first acquiring a license under the SEP.
From an antitrust standpoint, the lack of any competing technology grants the SEP holder a monopolistic right over the SEP.
Consequently, it is impossible to produce products that comply with standards without using technologies that are covered by one or more SEPs.
SEPs are common in the mobile telephony and telecommunications industry, a sector which is highly standardised due mainly to the need for interoperability between mobile devices.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-judiciarys-shadow-over-standard-essential-patents/article68132782.ece