February 2025 Flashcards
Consider the following statements regarding Rusty-Spotted Cat, recently seen in the news:
- It is endemic to Western Ghats of India.
- It is classified as ‘endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
For the first time ever, the elusive rusty-spotted cat was found frolicking in the jungles of West Bengal’s Purulia district recently.
About Rusty-Spotted Cat:
It is the world’s smallest and lightest known cat.
Scientific Name: Prionailurus rubiginosus
Distribution:
The species has been recorded in dry deciduous and semi-deciduous forests in northern and central India, Western Ghats, Kachchh and Rajasthan, and peninsular India, besides Nepal and Sri Lanka.
India holds 80 percent of the cat’s total population.
Features:
It weighs less than 1.5 kilograms, about half the size of a domestic cat.
They have a fawn-grey coloured coat with their eponymous rusty spots on their back and flanks.
Their head is short, rounded, and marked with two white streaks on the inner edges of the eyes.
The eyes are fairly large with irises of greyish brown to amber. Its large eyes may be an adaptation to its nocturnal behaviour.
Their legs are relatively short, and their feet have black soles.
The tail is moderately long, more rusty coloured than the body, and unmarked.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://theprint.in/environment/researchers-tracking-pangolin-poachers-stunned-by-rare-sight-a-rusty-spotted-cat-in-purulia-forest/2470543/
Consider the following statements regarding Financialisation:
- It refers to the increasing influence of financial motives, markets, instruments, and institutions in the economy.
- It can increase income inequality and contribute to wage stagnation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Economic Survey 2024-25 has warned that excessive financialisation can harm the economy, with potentially severe consequences for a low-middle-income country like India.
About Financialisation:
Financialization refers to the increasing influence of financial motives, markets, instruments, actors, and institutions in both domestic and international economies.
It involves the growing dominance of finance tools in firm management, the impact of financial markets on decision-making, and the significance of the global financial system in capital distribution worldwide.
It represents the shift from traditional industrial or productive activities (like manufacturing) to financial activities that involve the trading, management, and speculation of financial assets.
Financialization transforms the functioning of the economic system at both the macro and micro levels.
Its principal impacts are
Elevate the significance of the financial sector relative to the real sector;
Transfer income from the real sector to the financial sector;
Increase income inequality and contribute to wage stagnation.
It operates through three different conduits: changes in the structure and operation of financial markets, changes in the behavior of non-financial corporations, and changes in economic policy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/india-guard-against-excessive-financialisation-economic-survey-9809942/
Which of the following is not a common characteristic of Ultra-Processed Foods (UPFs)?
Rich in essential vitamins and fiber.
Explanation :
The Economic Survey 2024-25 has called for stringent front-of-the-pack labelling rules to be enforced, adding that consumption of ultra-processed foods is a big factor in undermining physical and mental health.
About Ultra-Processed Foods (UPFs):
UPFs refer to food products that have been significantly altered from their original form through various industrial processes.
These foods typically contain numerous ingredients that are not commonly used in home cooking, such as artificial flavors, colors, preservatives, sweeteners, emulsifiers, and other additives designed to enhance flavor, texture, and shelf life.
Consuming high amounts of UPF has been linked to chronic health conditions—cardiovascular disease, obesity, colorectal cancer, among others.
Characteristics of UPFS:
High levels of added sugar, fat, and salt: These ingredients are often added to enhance taste and appeal, but they can contribute to various health issues, including obesity, heart disease, and diabetes.
Low nutritional value: Despite being calorie-dense, UPFs generally lack essential nutrients, such as vitamins, minerals, and fiber.
Extensive use of additives: These foods often contain synthetic ingredients that are not typically found in traditional or minimally processed foods.
Highly palatable and convenient: They are designed to be easy to consume and highly appealing, which can lead to overconsumption.
List of Foods Classified as UPF:
According to the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), UPFs include commercially produced bread, breakfast cereals, cakes, chips, biscuits, fries, jams, sauces, mayonnaise, commercially produced ice cream, protein packs powders, peanut butter, soy chunks, tofu, frozen foods with additives, commercially produced cheese, butter, paneer with additives, meats, plant-based meats, refined flours of cereals, millets and legumes, energy drinks, health drinks added to milk, beverages, and fruit juices.
The group also includes many culinary ingredients such as cooking oils, refined sugars, salt and spices, since cosmetic food additives such as artificial colours and emulsifiers are often used in their processing.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/ultra-processed-foods-economic-survey-calls-for-stringent-front-of-the-pack-labelling-rules/article69164450.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Microplastics:
- Primary microplastics are particles that result from the breakdown of larger plastic items.
- Once in the environment, microplastics do not biodegrade and tend to accumulate and persist.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A first-of-its-kind study commissioned by the Delhi government has detected microplastics in groundwater samples across the Capital.
About Microplastics:
Microplastics are small pieces of plastics, usually smaller than 5 mm.
They are persistent, very mobile and hard to remove from nature.
There are two categories of microplastics: primary and secondary.
Primary microplastics are tiny particles designed for commercial use, such as cosmetics, as well as microfibers shed from clothing and other textiles, such as fishing nets.
They enter the environment directly through any of various channels—for example, product use, unintentional loss from spills during manufacturing or transport, or abrasion during washing.
Secondary microplastics are particles that result from the breakdown of larger plastic items, such as water bottles.
This breakdown is caused by exposure to environmental factors, mainly the sun’s radiation and ocean waves.
Impacts:
Once in the environment, microplastics do not biodegrade and tend to accumulate and persist.
They can be ingested by marine organisms, leading to potential harm to aquatic life and bioaccumulation along the food chain.
They can also carry toxic chemicals and pollutants, posing additional risks to organisms and ecosystems.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/study-finds-microplastics-in-delhis-groundwater/article69165906.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Geo-Economic Fragmentation, recently seen in the news:
- It is the policy-driven reversal of global economic integration often guided by strategic considerations.
- Trade is the main channel through which fragmentation is reshaping the global economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Economic Survey 2024-25 stated that global economic integration is backsliding, with geo-economic fragmentation replacing globalization, leading to a significant rise in trade restrictions.
About Geo-Economic Fragmentation:
‘Geo-economic fragmentation’ can be defined as a policy-driven reversal of global economic integration often guided by strategic considerations.
It is characterized by countries forming trade and financial partnerships based on geopolitical alignments.
This process encompasses different channels, including trade, capital, and migration flows.
This trend, marked by a retreat from multilateralism, has made geography less relevant than geopolitics in trade and investment decisions.
Such fragmentation would result in permanent losses to global GDP.
Based on IMF estimates, the costs of geo-economic fragmentation can range from 0.2 percent to up to 7 percent of GDP in some economies.
These losses can emanate from technological decoupling, trade restrictions, reduced capital movements owing to higher risk aversion, and a decline in international cooperation in the provision of global public goods among economies.
Trade is the main channel through which fragmentation is reshaping the global economy.
The impact of geo-conomic fragmentation is seen in global FDI flows, which are increasingly concentrated among geo-politically aligned countries, particularly in strategic sectors.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/business/2025/Jan/31/economic-survey-time-to-reinforce-internal-growth-engines-as-global-trade-barriers-surge
Indosticta deccanensis, recently in news, is a:
damselfly
Explanation :
Recently, two naturalists have spotted the saffron reedtail damselfly for the first time in Karnataka along the Netravati River.
About Saffron Reedtail Damselfly:
It is referred to as Indosticta deccanensis and commonly called saffron reedtail because of the saffron bodies.
This particular species belongs to the family Platystictidae, commonly referred to as shadow damselflies.
Appearance: They are slender and delicate insects.
It is a rare species of damselfly endemic to the Western Ghats of India.
Habitat: They are seen in streams surrounded by thick vegetation and usually found near slow-moving forest streams where they rely on pristine water quality for their lifecycle.
Prior to this discovery, the distribution of these damselflies was documented in the southern parts of the Western Ghats (In Kerala and Tamil Nadu)
Significance: The presence of them is an indicator of a healthy ecosystem, as they are highly sensitive to environmental changes and pollution.
What are Damselflies?
They are group of predatory, aerial insects that are in the order Odonata.
Habitat: Damselflies are found mainly near shallow, freshwater habitats and are graceful fliers with slender bodies and long, filmy, net-veined wings.
They are generally smaller, more delicate, and fly weakly in comparison with dragonflies.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/saffron-reedtail-damselfly-endemic-to-western-ghats-spotted-for-first-time-in-karnataka-in-madhugundi-of-chikkamagaluru/article69160322.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Ocean Coordination Mechanism:
- It aims to coordinate and streamline actions addressing critical marine issues in the Caribbean region.
- It has received funding from the Global Environment Facility.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO (UNESCO-IOC) announced the signature of a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) enabling the creation of the Ocean Coordination Mechanism (OCM).
It was conceived under the 10-year CLME+ Strategic Action Program (CLME+ SAP), endorsed by countries in the Wider Caribbean in 2014.
Its purpose is to establish a collaborative governance framework for the sustainable management of marine resources.
Aim: To coordinate and streamline actions addressing critical marine issues such as sustainable fisheries, ecosystem restoration, pollution control, blue carbon development, marine spatial planning, and the establishment of marine protected areas.
It solidifies a transformative effort to enhance integrated ocean governance in the Wider Caribbean region, including the North Brazil Shelf Large Marine Ecosystem.
It is designed to foster collaboration among countries, intergovernmental organizations (IGOs), and key stakeholders.
Funding: It will receive funding from the Global Environment Facility (GEF) through the $15 million UNDP/GEF PROCARIBE+ Project for the period 2024–2028.
Significance: The OCM is pivotal in addressing the Ocean-Climate-Biodiversity nexus by facilitating cross-country and cross-institutional collaboration. It ensures the sustainable development of the blue economy while prioritizing the needs of the most vulnerable communities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/ocean-coordination-mechanism-latest-initiative-to-conserve-caribbean-and-north-brazil-shelf
With reference to Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal, consider the following:
- It was established by amending the TRAI Act of 1997.
- It consists of a Chairperson and two members appointed by the Central Government.
- It exercises jurisdiction over only Telecom and Broadcasting sector in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Telecom Disputes Settlement & Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) has stayed the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India’s (TRAI) levy of financial penalties on private firms for not being able to curb spam.
It was established by amending the TRAI Act of 1997 in the year 2000.
It was set up to adjudicate disputes and dispose of appeals with a view to protect the interests of service providers and consumers of the telecom sector and to promote and ensure orderly growth of the telecom sector.
Composition of TDSAT
It consists of a Chairperson and two Members appointed by the Central Government.
Eligibility:
Chairperson: The Chairperson should be or should have been a Judge of the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High Court.
Other member: They should have held the post of Secretary to the Government of India or any equivalent post in the Central Government or the State Government for a period of not less than two years or a person who is well versed in the field of technology, telecommunication, industry, commerce or administration.
Tenure of office: The Chairperson of the tribunal shall hold office for a term of maximum four years or till the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.
Other members hold office for four years or till the age sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
Powers and Jurisdiction of TDSAT
It exercises jurisdiction over Telecom, Broadcasting, IT and Airport tariff matters under the TRAI Act, 1997, the Information Technology Act, 2008 and the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008.
It exercises original as well as appellate jurisdiction in regard to Telecom, Broadcasting and Airport tariff matters.
In regard to Cyber matters the Tribunal exercises only the appellate jurisdiction.
In January 2004, the Government included broadcasting and cable services also within the purview of TRAI Act. After coming into force of the relevant provisions of the Finance Act 2017, the jurisdiction of TDSAT stands extended to matters that lay before the Cyber Appellate Tribunal and also the Airport Economic Regulatory Authority Appellate Tribunal.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/telecom/telecom-policy/telecom-disputes-settlement-appellate-tribunal-stays-trai-penalties-on-telcos-over-spam-menace/articleshow/117753387.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Kurdistan Region:
- It is region spread over large parts of eastern Turkey and northern Iraq.
- India does not have a consulate in this region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India has sent a shipment of medical supplies to support the residents of the Kurdistan region in Iraq.
It is broadly defined geographic region traditionally inhabited mainly by Kurds.
It consists of an extensive plateau and mountain area, spread over large parts of what are now eastern Turkey, northern Iraq, and western Iran and smaller parts of northern Syria and Armenia.
Governorates: Erbil, Sulaymaniyah, Dohuk, Halabja.
Geographical Features
Mountains: It includes the mountain systems of the Zagros and the eastern extension of the Taurus.
Rivers: Tigris and Greater Zab Rivers flows through this region and support agriculture and settlements.
Capital: Erbil
India and Kurdistan region
India established a consulate in Erbil, the capital of the Kurdistan region, in August 2016 to enhance economic and commercial ties with Iraq.
Several Indian businesses have participated in trade fairs and exhibitions in Erbil and Sulaymaniyah in recent years.
The Kurdistan region, comprising Erbil, Sulaymaniyah, and Dohuk, has seen a steady increase in Indian workers employed in sectors such as steel mills, oil companies, and construction projects. Workers from India are appreciated for their roles in these industries
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/india-sends-humanitarian-aid-to-kurdistan-region-of-iraq/
Consider the following statements regarding Devi Ahilyabai Holkar:
- She made a landmark decision of removing traditional law of confiscating the property of childless widows.
- She built the famous Kashi Vishwanath Temple in 1780.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA), in collaboration with the Lokmata Ahilyabai Trishatabdi Samaroh Samiti, organized a special lecture on the life and legacy of Devi Ahilyabai Holkar.
Maharani Ahilyabai Holkar (31 May 1725 – 13 August 1795) was the Holkar Queen of the Maratha Malwa kingdom, India.
Under her rule Malwa enjoyed relative peace, prosperity, and stability, and her capital, Maheshwar, was turned into an oasis of literary, musical, artistic, and industrial pursuits.
Military contribution
She was military-trained under her father-in-law Malhar Rao Holkar and personally led armies into battle.
She appointed Tukojirao Holkar as the Chief of Army.
Administration
She held daily public audiences to help redress the problems of the common man.
She earned a reputation for administering justice fairly during her rule, without partiality or partisanship. Ex: She sentenced her only son, found guilty of a capital offense, to death by being crushed by an elephant.
She also made some landmark decisions during her reign, including the removal of traditional law confiscating the property of childless widows.
Promotion of craft: She established a textile industry in Maheshwar, which today is very famous for its Maheshwari sarees.
Cultural contribution
She welcomed stalwarts such as Marathi poet Moropant, Shahir Ananta Gandhi, and Sanskrit scholar Khushali Ram into her capital.
She was a great pioneer and builder of Hindu temples.
She built hundreds of temples and Dharmashalas throughout India.
Her most notable contribution was the renovation and repair of the famous Kashi Vishwanath Temple in 1780.
She passed away on August 13, 1795, at the age of seventy.
Titles: John Keay, the British historian, gave the queen the title of ‘The Philosopher Queen’.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2097732
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhanya Krishi Yojana, recently seen in the news, consider the following:
- Enhance agricultural productivity
- Improve irrigation facilities
- Improve credit availability
- To adopt crop diversification
- To augment post-harvest storage
How many of the given above are key focus areas of Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhanya Krishi Yojana?
All five
Explanation :
The Finance Minister recently announced the Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhanya Krishi Yojana, or the developing agri-districts programme, in her record 8th Union Budget presentation.
About Pradhan Mantri Dhan Dhanya Krishi Yojana:
It is a new initiative aimed at supporting farmers in 100 regions facing challenges in agriculture.
These areas have low crop yields, and farmers often struggle to access financial assistance.
The scheme, in collaboration with the state government, aims to cover 100 districts in the country, and around 1.7 crore farmers will benefit from it.
The scheme aims to generate opportunities in rural areas so that migration is an option and not a necessity.
The scheme focuses on five key areas including:
Enhance agricultural productivity
Improve irrigation facilities
Improve credit availability
To adopt crop diversification and sustainable agriculture practices
To augment post-harvest storage at Panchayat and block levels.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/government-picks-three-new-members-to-join-rbis-monetary-policy-committee/article68706640.ece
What is the primary aim of the Bharatiya Bhasha Pustak Scheme, recently seen in the news?
To offer digital textbooks and study materials in various Indian languages.
Explanation :
The Union Budget 2025-26 has announced Bharatiya Bhasha Pustak Scheme to provide digital-form Indian language books for students.
About Bharatiya Bhasha Pustak Scheme:
It is a new initiative aimed at making learning more accessible by offering digital textbooks and study materials in various Indian languages.
Under the Bharatiya Bhasha Pustak Scheme, students in schools and universities will be able to access textbooks and learning resources in digital formats.
The scheme is designed to benefit students from different linguistic backgrounds by providing study materials in regional languages.
The initiative aims to bridge the gap in educational resources for students from diverse linguistic groups.
This initiative also complements the government’s previous steps to enhance educational infrastructure, such as the ASMITA (Augmenting Study Materials in Indian Languages through Translation and Academic Writing) initiative.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/budget/union-budget-2025-education-gets-better-budget-allocation-more-money-for-iits-central-universities/article69169651.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID), recently seen in the news:
- It is a specialized Development Finance Institution in India aimed at supporting the country’s infrastructure sector.
- It is regulated and supervised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Finance Minister recently said the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) will set up a partial credit enhancement facility for corporate bonds in the infrastructure sector.
About National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID):
It is a specialized Development Finance Institution in India aimed at supporting the country’s infrastructure sector, which can significantly gain from an enabling credit flow by means of attractive instruments and channelized investment.
NaBFID was set up in 2021, by an Act of the Parliament (The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development Act, 2021),
Objectives: Addressing the gaps in long-term non-recourse finance for infrastructure development, strengthening the development of bonds and derivatives markets in India, and sustainably boosting the country’s economy.
Regulated by: It shall be regulated and supervised by RBI as an All-India Financial Institution (AIFI).
The principal idea behind the setup of NaBFID is to provide a dedicated and specialized institution focused on addressing the long-term financing needs of the infrastructure sector in India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/budget/news/budget-2025-nabfid-s-partial-credit-guarantee-to-boost-corporate-bond-mkt-125020101435_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Composite material:
- A composite material is made up of two or more materials with different chemical and physical properties.
- Concrete is an example of composite material.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
DRDO Chairman recently said that developments in composite materials will play a key role in indigenous development of the strategically significant fifth-generation aircraft, hypersonic missiles and bulletproof jackets, among other things.
About Composite Material:
A composite material is made up of two or more materials with different chemical and physical properties.
A composite material is used to enhance the properties of its base materials.
The materials which form the composite are also called constituents or constituent materials.
The material properties achieved by purposeful material combinations can give composites advantages that cannot be achieved by conventional single engineering materials.
Composite materials offer a high strength-to-weight ratio, corrosion resistance, durability, design flexibility, thermal and electrical insulation, chemical resistance, and customizable properties, making them ideal for various industries.
Examples of Composites: Fiberglass, Carbon Fiber Reinforced Polymer (CFRP), Concrete, Plywood, etc.
They are used in a wide range of applications, from aerospace structures, to boat hulls to sporting goods.
For example, composite materials enable us to fly further and develop more fuel-efficient automobiles (vehicle weight reduction), harvest energy more efficiently (lighter and larger wind turbine blades), prevent injury (safety equipment like motorcycle helmets), and enjoy recreational activities (sporting equipment).
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/development-materials-5th-generation-fighters-hypersonic-missiles-drdo-chief-9808426/
South Georgia Island, recently seen in the news, lies in which ocean?
Atlantic Ocean
Explanation :
The world’s largest iceberg, A23a, is drifting toward South Georgia Island, a remote and ecologically vital wildlife haven, after having been freed from the Filchner Ice Shelf in Antarctica.
About South Georgia Island:
It is a mountainous, barren island in the South Atlantic Ocean.
It is part of the British overseas territory of South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands.
It has an area of 3,756 sq.km.
Over 160 glaciers and high peaks like Mount Paget (2,935 m / 9,629 ft) dominate the landscape.
Climate: Subantarctic climate with cold, wet, and windy conditions year-round, though it is slightly milder than Antarctica.
It has no native or permanent human residents, only temporary researchers, government officials, and visitors.
Biodiversity:
The island’s bleak Antarctic climate, with perpetual snow covering three-fourths of the island, supports only hardy grasses and other tundra plants.
It is home to millions of seabirds, including king penguins, albatrosses, and petrels, as well as large populations of seals (fur seals, elephant seals) and whales.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/us/worlds-largest-iceberg-a23a-to-strike-south-georgia-island-soon-details-here/articleshow/117750110.cms?from=mdr
Inland mangrove of Guneri, recently in news, is located in:
Gujarat
Explanation :
Recently, the Gujarat government declared the inland mangrove in Kutch district’s Guneri village as the first Biodiversity Heritage Site of Gujarat.
Guneri Mangrove
It is a natural inland mangrove site located in Kutch district of Gujarat.
It is located at a distance of 45 km from the Arabian Sea and four km from the Kori Creek, where seawater never approaches.
It is also devoid of any sludge, and is spread over a flat piece of land like a forest.
It is the last remains of inland mangrove in India.
This inland mangrove is a rare and has been reported from only eight locations across the globe till date.
They are assumed to have originated either after the marine transgression which occurred in the area during the Miocene period or on the bank of the lost river (the Saraswati River) in the Great Rann of Kachchh.
Studies elsewhere have reported that the inland mangroves survive in areas having limestone deposition which connects with the sea bed.
The limestone provides a continuous flow of groundwater to the mangrove ecosystem/vegetation. The Western Kutch and areas surrounding the Guneri mangroves have records of limestone depositions.
The announcement has been done under the provisions of The Biodiversity Act, 2002. The Act empowers the state government to notify an area as a BHS after consulting concerned local bodies.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/gujar
Consider the following statements regarding the Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary:
- It is a unique mosaic wetland ecosystem located in the State of Kerala.
- It has recently received Ramsar site designation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, four more wetlands from India have got an international tag of Ramsar Convention sites.
Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary
Location: Tamil Nadu
It is a unique mosaic wetland ecosystem located close to Gulf of Mannar on the Central Asian flyway, a regular route for the migratory birds that comes from Iran, Afghanistan and Pakistan.
This wetland acts as a breeding ground for several Resident/Resident-Migrant species of waterfowl.
Therthangal Bird Sanctuary
Location: Tamil Nadu
It lies along the Central Asian Flyway and are critical breeding and foraging grounds for waterbirds, including the Spot-billed Pelican, Black-headed Ibis, and Oriental Darter.
It plays a crucial role in climate regulation, recharging of groundwater, and irrigation.
The sanctuary is home for many important endemic and near threatened species including the Painted stork, Black-headed ibis, Spot-billed pelican, Oriental darter and Pallied harrier among others
Udhwa Lake
Location: Jharkhand
It is named after saint Uddhava of Mahabharat times, a friend of Lord Krishna.
It falls within the Gangetic Plains bio-geographic zone.
The Sanctuary has two water bodies i.e. Patauran (155 ha) and Berhale (410 ha), interconnected by a water channel. Patauran is a comparatively clean water body.
It is the first Ramsar designated wetland from Jharkhand.
Khecheopalri Lake
Location: Sikkim
It is a sacred gem revered by both Buddhists and Hindus.
It is known as a wish-fulfilling lake, its tranquil waters are believed to be blessed by Guru Padmasambhava and the Goddess Tara.
It is surrounded by lush forests and the mystical aura of ancient legends, this enchanting lake, part of the revered Demazong valley.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/4-more-wetlands-in-india-get-ramsar-tag-jharkhand-and-sikkim-get-their-first-ones-in-the-list/articleshow/117798408.cms
With reference to Onchocerciasis, consider the following:
- It is commonly known as “river blindness” which is a neglected tropical disease.
- It is caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus.
- It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected mosquito.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) congratulates Niger for having met the criteria for onchocerciasis elimination.
Onchocerciasis
It is commonly known as “river blindness” which is a neglected tropical disease (NTD).
It is caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus.
Symptoms: Symptoms include severe itching, disfiguring skin conditions, and visual impairment, including permanent blindness.
Transmission: It is transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected blackfly of the genus Simulium, which breeds in fast-flowing rivers and streams.
The disease primarily affects rural populations in sub-Saharan Africa, and Yemen, with smaller endemic areas foci found in parts of Latin America.
Treatment: Population-based treatment with ivermectin (also known as mass drug administration or MDA) is the current core strategy to eliminate onchocerciasis, with a minimum requirement of 80% therapeutic coverage.
Five countries have been verified by WHO as free of onchocerciasis: Colombia (2013), Ecuador (2014), Mexico (2015) and Guatemala (2016), and one in Africa: Niger (2025).
What are Neglected Tropical Diseases?
These are a diverse group of tropical infections which are common in low-income populations in developing regions of Africa, Asia, and the Americas.
They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa and parasitic worms (helminths).
There are a diverse group of 20 diseases that are affecting more than 1 billion people who live in impoverished communities.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.who.int/news/item/30-01-2025-who-verifies-niger-as-the-first-country-in-the-african-region-to-eliminate-onchocerciasis
Consider the following statements regarding the National Manufacturing Mission:
- It will lay emphasis on future ready workforce for in-demand jobs.
- It aims to enhance domestic value addition and build a robust ecosystem for solar PV cells.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Finance announced the National Manufacturing Mission while presenting the Union Budget 2025-26 in Parliament.
It covers small, medium and large industries for furthering “Make in India”.
It will lay emphasis on five focal areas i.e.
Ease and cost of doing business; future ready workforce for in-demand jobs; a vibrant and dynamic MSME sector; availability of technology; and quality products.
Under this Mission, the government will provide policy assistance, implementation roadmaps, and governance and monitoring structures for central ministries and states.
It aims to enhance domestic value addition and build a robust ecosystem for solar PV cells, electric vehicle (EV) batteries, motors and controllers, electrolysis, wind turbines, high-voltage transmission equipment, and grid-scale batteries.
The Mission will also support Clean Tech manufacturing.
It will support design capacity, component manufacturing, and machinery required for production of non-leather quality footwear, besides the support for leather footwear and products.
In addition to the mission, the credit guarantee cover is to be enhanced for MSMEs to Rs 10 crore from Rs 5 crore and investment and turnover limit for classification of all MSMEs will be enhanced to 2.5 and 2 times.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2098392
Consider the following statements regarding the National Geospatial Mission:
- It is aimed at modernising land records and enhancing urban planning across India.
- It will leverage the existing PM Gati Shakti framework to develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Finance Minister announced the launch of a National Geospatial Mission in the Budget 2025-26.
It will be aimed at modernising land records and enhancing urban planning across India.
This initiative will leverage the existing PM Gati Shakti framework to develop foundational geospatial infrastructure and data, facilitating improved design and execution of infrastructure projects.
The initiative also aims to address challenges related to land disputes and inefficient land use, which have long hindered growth in various regions.
Geospatial refers to data or information that is associated with a specific location on the Earth’s surface.
By creating a robust geospatial database, the government aims to streamline processes involved in land reforms, making them more efficient and transparent.
This move is anticipated to benefit not only government agencies but also private stakeholders, including geospatial and drone companies, which will likely see increased demand for their services.
Significance: The National Geospatial Mission is expected to significantly impact various sectors, particularly in urban development and land management.
The focus on geospatial technology is seen as a critical component in achieving the government’s broader goals of improving efficiency and accountability in public services.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/budget-2025-national-geospatial-mission-announced-to-modernise-land-records-2673253-2025-02-01
Deepor Beel, a perennial freshwater lake, is located in which one of the following states?
Assam
Explanation :
The recently conducted third annual Deepor Beel Winter Birding Festival 2025 saw an increase in the number of both migratory and residential birds compared to the count done in 2024.
About Deepor Beel:
It is a perennial freshwater lake located on the outskirts of Guwahati, Assam.
It lies in a former channel of the Brahmaputra River.
It covers an area of 4.1 sq.km.
It is the only major stormwater storage basin for the city of Guwahati.
The lake’s outflow is the Khandajan rivulet, which joins the Brahmaputra.
It was recognised as a Ramsar Site in 2002 and as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA) in 2004. It is the only Ramsar site in the state of Assam.
This lake is a staging site on migratory flyways, and some of the largest concentrations of aquatic birds in Assam can be seen, especially in winter.
Some globally threatened birds are supported, including Spot-billed Pelican, Lesser Greater Adjutant Stork, and Baer’s Pochard.
About 50 fish species and aquatic resources provide livelihood support to about 1,200 households residing in about 12 villages on the fringes of the wetland.
The Rani and Garbhanga hills, the habitat of the Asiatic elephants on the southern side of the beel, are part of this ecosystem.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/bird-fest-see-rise-in-migratory-residential-birds/articleshow/117865761.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):
- They are small nuclear reactors with a maximum output of 1000 Megawatt electric (MWe).
- They use nuclear fusion to generate heat to produce energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Finance Minister recently announced a ₹20,000 crore ‘Nuclear Energy Mission’ to develop indigenous Small Modular Reactors (SMR).
About Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):
SMRs are defined as small nuclear reactors with a maximum output of 300 Megawatt electric (MWe) and can produce 7.2 million kWh per day.
By comparison, large-size nuclear power plants have an output of over 1,000 MWe and can produce 24 million kWh per day.
SMRs, which can produce a large amount of low-carbon electricity, are:
Small – physically a fraction of the size of a conventional nuclear power reactor.
Modular – making it possible for systems and components to be factory-assembled and transported as a unit to a location for installation.
Reactors – harnessing nuclear fission to generate heat to produce energy.
Advantages:
Relatively small physical footprints;
Reduced capital investment;
Can be factory-built, unlike the conventional nuclear reactors that are built on-site;
Ability to be sited in locations not possible for larger nuclear plants;
Provisions for incremental power additions;
It also offers distinct safeguards, security, and non-proliferation advantages.
They are well suited to be integrated into energy hubs in combination with other sources of energy.
They are adapted to supply electricity and additionally capable of supplying heat for industrial applications, district heating, as well as for the production of hydrogen.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/budget/union-budget-2025-finance-minister-announces-20000-crore-nuclear-energy-mission-for-small-modular-reactors/article69168594.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Henipaviruses:
- They are zoonotic viruses with fruit bats as their natural hosts.
- They often cause severe respiratory illness and encephalitis and are associated with high case fatality rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Camp Hill virus, a henipavirus related to Nipah, has been recently detected in North America, raising concerns of a potential outbreak.
About Henipavirus:
Henipaviruses (family Paramyxoviridae) are zoonotic, negative-sense RNA viruses.
Fruit bats (Pteropus species, also called ‘flying foxes’) are the natural hosts of Henipaviruses.
Henipaviruses can cross species barriers, infecting various mammals, including humans.
They often cause severe respiratory illness and encephalitis and are associated with high case fatality rates.
The two most notable henipaviruses are Hendra virus and Nipah virus.
Hendra virus, first identified in Australia, has caused outbreaks with mortality rates up to 70%.
The Nipah virus has been linked with numerous outbreaks in Southeast Asia, particularly in Malaysia and Bangladesh, with case-fatality rates estimated at 40%–75% depending on surveillance and clinical management.
Transmission:
Direct contact with infected animals (e.g., bats, horses, pigs).
Consumption of contaminated food or water.
Human-to-human transmission through bodily fluids, close contact, or respiratory droplets.
Symptoms:
Common symptoms include dizziness, headache, fever, and myalgias.
However, fatality often occurs when the disease progresses to severe encephalitis and symptoms like confusion, abnormal reflexes, seizures, and coma occur.
Why are henipaviruses so deadly?
It lies in their ability to encode several proteins which block the innate immune response in infected animals and humans.
These inhibit the cell’s response to viral infection, and allow viral replication.
Treatment: Treatment is symptomatic, and no vaccine or antiviral drug has been developed so far to treat the disease.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.news18.com/world/camp-hill-virus-close-relative-of-nipah-discovered-in-alabama-shrews-in-us-sparking-pandemic-concerns-9211415.html
Etemad and Ghadr-380 missiles, recently seen in the news, are developed by which one of the following countries?
Iran
Explanation :
Iran recently unveiled two missiles, named Etemad and Ghadr-380.
About Etemad Missile:
It is a new ballistic missile built by the Iranian defence ministry.
Dubbed Etemad, or “trust” in Persian, it has a maximum range of 1,700 kilometres (1,056 miles).
With a length of 16 meters and a diameter of 1.25 meters, the missile is equipped with a precision-guided warhead.
About Ghadr-380:
It is an anti-warship cruise missile developed by Iran.
It has a range of over 1,000 kilometers.
It has anti-jamming capability.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/videos/international/irans-new-etemad-ghadr-380-missiles-send-shockwaves-in-u-s-israel-hell-for-enemy-warships/videoshow/117860616.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana (PM-SYM):
- It is a Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- All unorganized workers above 18 years of age are eligible for social security under the PM-SYM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The budget 2025-26 allocation under the PM Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana increased by 37% compared to last year.
About Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana (PM-SYM):
It is a government scheme meant for the old-age protection and social security of unorganized workers.
It is a Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment and implemented through Life Insurance Corporation of India and CSC eGovernance Services India Limited (CSC SPV).
LIC will be the Pension Fund Manager and responsible for pension pay out.
The amount collected under the PM-SYM shall be invested as per the investment pattern specified by the Government of India.Eligibility:
Should be an Indian Citizen
Unorganised Workers (working as street vendors, agriculture-related work, construction site workers, workers in industries of leather, handloom, mid-day meal, rickshaw or auto wheelers, rag picking, carpenters, fishermen, etc.
Age group of 18-40 years
Monthly income is below Rs. 15000 and not a member of EPFO/ESIC/NPS (Govt. funded).
Features:
It is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme.
Minimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber under the PM-SYM shall receive minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
Contribution by the Subscriber:
The subscriber’s contributions to PM-SYM shall be made through ‘auto-debit’ facility from his/ her savings bank account/Jan- Dhan account.
The subscriber is required to contribute the prescribed contribution amount from the age of joining PM-SYM till the age of 60 years.
Matching contribution by the Central Government: It is a pension scheme on a 50:50 basis where prescribed age-specific contributions shall be made by the beneficiary and the matching contribution by the Central Government.
Family Pension:
During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension received by the beneficiary as a family pension. Family pension is applicable only to spouse.
If a beneficiary has given regular contributions and died due to any cause (before age 60 years), his/her spouse will be entitled to join and continue the scheme subsequently by payment of regular contributions or exit the scheme as per provisions of exit and withdrawal.
Exit:
Even if the subscriber wants to opt out of the scheme before 10 years, the share of the subscriber will be given back along with the interest amount accrued.
If the subscriber opts out after 10 years but before 60 years of age, the share of the subscriber contribution, adding the accumulated interest will be given back to the candidate.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/118353/OPS/G2RDUIE83.1+GT2DUJP67.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the World Wetlands Day:
- It is celebrated annually on February 2.
- It aims to spread awareness about conserving wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) organised the World Wetlands Day 2025 celebrations at the Parvati Arga Ramsar Site.
It is celebrated annually on February 2.
It aims to spread awareness about conserving one of the most critical ecosystems on the planet.
This date marks the adoption of the Ramsar Convention in 1971.
Theme of 2025: This year, the theme was “Protecting Wetlands for Our Common Future”.
India has been a party to the Convention since 1982, designating 89 Ramsar sites.
What are wetlands?
Wetlands are regions covered by water either perennially or seasonally, such as marshes and lakes.
Significance of Wetlands:
They are vital reservoirs of biodiversity, aid water conservation and provide habitat for numerous migratory birds, aquatic species, and plant life. They also help recharge groundwater, control floods and support fisheries and local communities.
From the point of view of climate change mitigation, wetlands are important carbon sinks, meaning they absorb more carbon from the atmosphere
The major threats to wetlands, in general, are due to man-made factors, leading to habitat degradation and declining biodiversity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2098981®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding the RBI’s Digital Payments Index:
- It is constructed to measure the extent of digitisation of payments across the country.
- It has been constructed with March 2020 as the base year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) digital payments index (DPI) rose to 465.33 as of September 2024, compared to 445.5 in March 2024, reflecting the rapid adoption of digital payments in the country.
It has been constructed by the RBI to measure the extent of digitisation of payments across the country.
It is based on multiple parameters and reflects the expansion of various digital payment modes accurately.
It is a first-of-its kind index to measure the spread of digital payments across the country.
It was first launched in January 2021.
The DPI index indicates the extent of digitisation of payments across the country.
Base Year: It has been constructed with March 2018 as the base period, i.e., the DPI score for March 2018 is set at 100.
The DPI index comprises five broad parameters that enable the measurement of deepening and penetration of digital payments in the country over different time periods. The parameters include:
Payment enablers (25 percent weightage in the index)
Demand-side and supply-side payment infrastructure factors (10 per cent each)
Payment performance (45 per cent)
Consumer centricity (5 percent)
Each of the parameters has sub-parameters, which, in turn, consist of various measurable indicators.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/rbi-s-digital-payments-index-rises-to-465-33-as-of-september-2024-125012901401_1.html#:~:text=The%20Reserve%20Bank%20of%20India’s,digital%20payments%20in%20the%20country
With reference to Very Short-Range Air Defence System, consider the following statements:
- It is a Man Portable Air Defence system.
- It is short-range, lightweight and portable surface-to-air missile.
- It is designed and developed indigenously.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO) has successfully conducted three successive flight-trials of the Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) from Chandipur off the coast of Odisha.
About Very Short-Range Air Defence System:
It is a Man Portable Air Defence system.
Features
It is short-range, lightweight and portable surface-to-air missiles that can be fired by individuals or small groups to destroy aircraft or helicopters.
Range: They have a maximum range of 8 kilometres and can engage targets at altitudes of 4.5 km.
The missile incorporates many novel technologies including a miniaturized Reaction Control System (RCS) and integrated avionics, which have been successfully proven during the tests.
The RCS is responsible for attitude control and steering by the use of thrusters and is also capable of providing small amounts of thrust in any desired direction or combination of directions.
It is designed and developed indigenously by the Research Center Imarat in collaboration with other DRDO laboratories and Development cum Production Partners.
The missile system has the capability to meet the needs of all the three branches of the Armed Forces, viz. Indian Army, Navy and Air Force.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2098784
Consider the following statements regarding Golden-headed Cisticola:
- It is an omnivorous bird usually found in grasslands in the mountain ranges.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Golden-headed Cisticola bird was discovered for the first time in the Mathikettan Shola National Park, Idukki in the southern Western Ghats after an extensive gap.
Scientific Name: Cisticola exilis
It is also known as the bright-capped cisticola, is a species of warbler in the family Cisticolidae.
It is omnivorous, primarily eating invertebrates such as insects and small slugs, but also eating grass seeds.
Habitat: It is usually found in grasslands in the mountain ranges.
Distribution: It is found in Australia and Asian countries. In India it has been observed in parts of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and northern Kerala.
Appearance: Male birds have distinct golden-orange plumage on their head, neck, and chest during breeding. They also have pinkish beaks and black streaks on their backs. They can be easily identified by their distinctive call.
The bird was previously spotted in the grasslands of Banasura Hills in Wayanad.
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least Concern
Mathikettan Shola National Park
It is located in the southern part of the Palakkad Gap in the Western Ghats of Kerala.
Vegetation: It houses evergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, shola grasslands and semi-evergreens.
Three streams namely Uchillkuthi Puzha, Mathikettan Puzha, and Njandar being the tributaries of Panniyar, originate from the hill ranges of Mathikettan.
Highest Point: Kattumala is located in the eastern border of the park adjoining Tamil Nadu.
Muthavan tribes are situated about the northeastern borders of Mathikettan Shola.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/golden-headed-cisticola-found-in-mathikettan-shola-national-park/article69173117.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the SwaRail Application:
- It integrates various railway services by eliminating the need for multiple applications.
- It is developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Railways has introduced the SuperApp ‘SwaRail’, a one-stop solution for seamless railway services.
It integrates various railway services, eliminating the need for multiple applications and reducing space consumption on user devices.
A key focus of the App is enhancing user experience with a seamless and clean user interface (UI).
The App caters to a wide range of user needs, including: reserved and unreserved ticket bookings, parcel and Freight Enquiries, train and PNR status enquiries, food Orders on Trains, rail madad for Complaint Management.
It is developed by the Centre for Railway Information Systems (CRIS) the SuperApp integrates all public-facing applications of Indian Railways into a single platform.
What is the Centre for Railway Information Systems?
It is an organization under the Ministry of Railways.
It is a unique combination of competent IT professionals and experienced Railway personnel enabling it to successfully deliver complex Railway IT systems in core areas.
It is developing/maintaining softwares for the following key functional areas of the Indian Railways.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2098305
Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
‘Chhota Bheem’, one of the most famous tigers of Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve, died while undergoing treatment for multiple fractures at Bhopal’s Van Vihar recently.
About Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve:
It is nestled in the Satpura and Vindhya Mountain ranges in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh.
The name “Bandhavgarh” is derived from the ancient Bandhavgarh Fort, which sits atop a hill in the park.
According to legend, the fort was gifted by Lord Rama to his brother Lakshmana, hence the name “Bandhavgarh” (Brother’s Fort).
It is spread over 1536 sq. km., which includes the 716 sq. km. core zone and 820 sq. km. of the buffer zone.
It is known to have one of the highest densities of tigers in the world.
The habitat is characterized by valleys, hills, and plains, with the Bandhavgarh fort prominently seen as a major landmark.
Flora: The flora of the region comprises majorly evergreen Sal forests, mixed forests, and grasslands.
Fauna: Apart from tigers, the park is home to other significant species such as leopards, sloth bears, Indian bison (gaur), Asiatic elephants, and a variety of deer species, including sambar and chital.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!state/bandhavgarh-tiger-reserve-tiger-chhota-bheem-dies-in-bhopals-van-vihar-enn25020302169
With reference to the World Health Organization (WHO), consider the following statements:
- It is the United Nations specialized agency for health.
- It has its administrative headquarters in Paris, France.
- It is funded entirely by contributions from United Nations member states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The World Health Organization chief recently asked global leaders to lean on Washington to reverse President Donald Trump’s decision to withdraw from the U.N. health agency.
About World Health Organization (WHO):
It is the United Nations specialized agency for health.
It was established in 1948 with the objective of the attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health.
Health, as defined in the WHO Constitution, is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.
WHO is responsible for providing leadership on global health matters, shaping the health research agenda, setting norms and standards, articulating evidence-based policy options, providing technical support to countries and monitoring and assessing health trends.
It has 193 member countries and two associate members.
It has its administrative headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
Structure:
The governance of WHO operates through the World Health Assembly, which meets annually as the general policy-making body, and through an Executive Board of health specialists elected for three-year terms by the assembly.
The agency is led by a director general nominated by the Executive Board and appointed by the World Health Assembly.
Funding:
Roughly 16 percent of the budget comes from mandatory dues paid by members; the rest is made up of voluntary donations from governments and private partners.
In recent years, the top voluntary contributors have included the United States, Germany, the United Kingdom, and the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
Each year WHO celebrates its date of establishment, April 7, 1948, as World Health Day.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/who-chief-asks-countries-to-push-washington-to-reconsider-its-withdrawal/article69175186.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Kolleru Lake:
- It is a large, natural, shallow, freshwater lake.
- It lies between the Krishna and Godavari deltas in Andhra Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Southern Zonal Bench of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) recently restrained the Andhra Pradesh Government from proceeding with the six infrastructure projects in Kolleru wetland area.
About Kolleru Lake:
It is a large, natural, shallow, freshwater lake located in northeastern Andhra Pradesh.
It lies between the Krishna and Godavari deltas near the city of Eluru.
It is the largest shallow freshwater lake in Asia.
It covers an area of 308 sq.km.
The lake serves as a natural flood-balancing reservoir for these two rivers.
The lake drains into the Bay of Bengal through the Upputeru River. Occasionally, small amounts of salt water enter the otherwise freshwater lake through this river.
It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in November 1999 and a Ramsar Site in November 2002.
It serves as a habitat for migratory birds. It regularly supports more than 50,000 waterfowl, due to which it was selected as an Important Bird Area (IBA).
Kolleru Lake falls on the migratory route called the Central Asian Flyway (CAF).
Major bird species found here include Siberian cranes, pelicans, and painted storks.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/ngt-restrains-andhra-pradesh-government-from-undertaking-six-infra-projects-in-kolleru-wetland/article69158314.ece
What is the primary objective of the Gyan Bharatam Mission, recently seen in the news?
To conserve India’s manuscript heritage.
Explanation :
The Union Budget 2025-26 announced the Gyan Bharatam Mission, under which one crore manuscripts will be conserved and documented.
About Gyan Bharatam Mission:
It is a special mission for the survey, documentation, and conservation of India’s manuscript heritage lying with academic institutions, museums, libraries and private collectors.
It intends to cover more than one crore manuscripts.
A key component of the Gyan Bharatam Mission is the national digital repository of the Indian knowledge system.
It will serve as a platform for knowledge sharing.
This storehouse will help in digitising and centralising India’s traditional knowledge.
It will be accessible to researchers, students, and institutions worldwide.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/budget/new-mission-for-manuscripts-announced-in-union-budget/article69168643.ece
With reference to the North Sea, consider the following:
- Germany
- United Kingdom
- France
- Russia
- Iceland
How many of the above countries border the North Sea?
Only three
Explanation :
Researchers have discovered huge landforms deep beneath the North Sea that suggest the region was swallowed by a giant ice sheet toward the middle of the last ice age.
About North Sea:
It is a relatively shallow and enclosed sea located in Northwestern Europe.
It is considered to be a marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean.
The North Sea connects to the Atlantic Ocean via the Norwegian Sea in the north and the English Channel in the south.
It connects to the Baltic Sea in the east via the Kattegat and Skagerrak straits.
Bordering Countries: United Kingdom, Norway, Denmark, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium and France.
It covers an area of approximately 570,000 sq.km.
Rivers: Major rivers that drain into the North Sea include the Forth, Elbe, the Weser, the Ems, the Rhine and Meuse, the Scheldt, the Thames, and the Humber.
It also hosts two of the world’s largest ports (Hamburg and Rotterdam).
It is one of the most important fishing grounds globally.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.space.com/the-universe/earth/giant-ice-age-landforms-discovered-deep-beneath-north-sea-revealed-in-amazing-detail
Consider the following statements regarding Black Kite:
- It is mainly found in a wide variety of habitats such as wetlands and river edges.
- It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
An article recently revealed that black kites have been found to nest in a tower structure located in Chennai.
It is a medium-sized bird of prey in the family Accipitridae,
Unlike others in the group, Black kites are opportunistic hunters and spend much time soaring and gliding in thermals in search of food.
Appearance:
These are medium-sized raptors. Their dorsal coloration is mostly brown, which fades to a darker brown towards the tips of the wings and tail.
They have small, bead-like dark brown eyes and a large black, hook-shaped beak for tearing flesh and consuming their prey.
Habitat: They live in a wide variety of habitats from wetlands, river edges, coasts, grassland, open savannas, shrubland, and woodlands.
Distribution: They are mainly found in tropical portions of Australasia, Eurasia, and Africa.
They are monogamous and form strong pair bonds that may last for life.
Diet: It is an extremely versatile feeder, it takes carrion as well as live birds, mammals, fish, lizards, amphibians and invertebrates, and is even known to forage on vegetable matter such as palm oil fruits
Conservation Status
IUCN: Least Concern
Wild Life Protection Act, 1972: Schedule-II
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/nesting-activity-by-black-kites-at-pylons-in-perumbakkam/article69174740.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Extra Long Staple Cotton:
- It is commonly hailed as the gold standard in textile manufacturing.
- It is only grown in China and Peru region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the union finance minister announced a five-year mission to “facilitate significant improvements in productivity and sustainability of cotton farming, and promote extra-long staple (ELS) cotton varieties”.
It is commonly hailed as the gold standard in textile manufacturing and holds a coveted position in the world of high-quality fabrics.
Most ELS cotton comes from the species Gossypium barbadense, commonly known as Egyptian or Pima cotton.
ELS varieties boast fibre lengths of 30 mm and above.
Origin and distribution:
It originated in South America and today it is mainly grown in China, Egypt, Australia and Peru.
In India, some ELS cotton is grown along rain-fed parts of Atpadi taluka in Maharashtra’s Sangli district, and around Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu.
The warm temperatures and rich soil contribute to the growth of cotton fibres that are not only long but also uniform, resulting in stronger and finer yarns.
It does not require intense finishing processes, which helps preserve these innate qualities.
Issues of Extra Long Staple Cotton in India
Yield: It gives lower than average per acre yields, experts say. While the medium staple variety yields between 10 and 12 quintals per acre, ELS cotton has a yield of only 7-8 quintals.
Marketing issue: Farmers growing ELS cotton are often unable to market their premium produce at premium prices.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/what-is-els-cotton-why-doesnt-india-grow-more-of-this-premium-variety-9816056/
With reference to Cardamom, consider the following:
- It is native to the evergreen rain forests.
- It requires forest loamy soil for its growth.
- It is mainly cultivated in the northeastern states of India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
An international team of researchers have identified six species that are close cousins to Elettaria cardamomum, better known as green cardamom.
It belongs to the Zingiberaceae family and is popularly known as Queen of Spices.
It is native to the evergreen rain forests of Western Ghats in South India.
It is cultivated mainly in the Southern States viz; Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
Required climatic conditions
Soil: It is grown in forest loamy soils which are usually acidic in nature with a pH range of 5.0 – 6.5
This crop can be grown at an elevation from 600 to 1500 m.
Temperature: 10 to 35 degree C
Rainfall: 1500 to 4000 mm
Growth of cardamom is enhanced when planted in humus-rich soils with low to medium available phosphorus and medium to high available potassium.
It is used as a flavoring agent and drug in traditional medicine.
Newly Identified Cardamom species
Of the six, four were previously placed in a separate genus, Alpinia, while the remaining two have been newly identified and described from Kerala’s Western Ghats regions.
Following the reclassification, the genus Elettaria now has seven species, including Elettaria cardamomum. E. ensal, E. floribunda, E. involucrata and E. rufescens were earlier placed in the genus Alpinia.
The remaining two are new species, Elettaria facifera and Elettaria tulipifera, the former described from Kerala’s Periyar Tiger Reserve in Idukki district and the latter from the Agasthyamalai hills in Thiruvananthapuram district and Munnar
Seed capsules of Elettaria cardamomum provide commercial green cardamom.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/green-cardamoms-new-relatives-include-two-species-from-kerala/article69172775.ece
Consider the following statements regarding GARBH-INi-DRISHTI:
- It is a data dashboard that provides a comprehensive overview of one of South Asia’s largest pregnancy cohort datasets.
- It will help researchers to conduct research which is aimed at improving maternal and neonatal health outcomes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India’s commitment to cutting-edge biomedical research and innovation took a significant leap forward with the dedication of the nation’s first Ferret Research Facility, the launch of the GARBH-INi-DRISHTI data repository, and the execution of a key technology transfer agreement.
It is a data dashboard that provides a comprehensive overview of one of South Asia’s largest pregnancy cohort datasets.
This groundbreaking platform, developed under the GARBH-INi program, provides access to an unprecedented wealth of clinical data, images, and biospecimens collected from over 12,000 pregnant women, newborns and postpartum mothers.
It will empower researchers worldwide to conduct transformative research aimed at improving maternal and neonatal health outcomes.
It serves as a gateway for researchers to explore the depth and diversity of the data, enabling a deeper understanding of the cohort.
The platform also provides clear guidance on accessing the dataset for approved research purposes, fostering collaboration and impactful discoveries.
What is GARBH-INi program?
It promotes Maternal and Child Health and develops prediction tools for preterm birth.
It is an initiative under the Department of Biotechnology of the Union Ministry of Science and Technology as a collaborative interdisciplinary programme.
This program is led by the Translational Health Science and Technology Institute (THSTI), NCR Biotech cluster, Faridabad.
It is part of the Atal JaiAnusandhan Biotech Mission - Undertaking Nationally Relevant Technology Innovation (UNaTI).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2099214
Consider the following statements regarding Ambergris:
- It is a waxy substance which is produced by sperm whales.
- Its sale and trade are strictly prohibited under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Ambergris one of the nature’s most bizarre occurrences which originates from sperm whales, indirectly promotes the exploitation of these marine mammals.
It is a waxy substance often called whale vomit which is produced by sperm whales.
How it is formed?
Scientists believe that ambergris is formed in the intestines of sperm whales.
The substance is created when the whale consumes indigestible materials, such as squid beaks, and forms ambergris to help expel these foreign objects.
Once expelled, the ambergris floats in the ocean, and if you’re lucky enough to find it, you could be looking at a valuable treasure.
Its rarity and desirability make ambergris one of the most expensive substances in the world
Appearance:
It is soft and has a waxy, greasy consistency. Over time, as it floats in the ocean and is exposed to sunlight, saltwater, and air, it hardens and develops a rock-like appearance.
The outer layers become crusty and rough, resembling a stone, while the inside may retain a softer, waxier texture.
It is highly sought after in the perfume industry, as it helps make fragrances last longer.
There is a ban on the possession and trade of ambergris in countries like the USA, Australia and India.
In India, the sale and trade of ambergris are strictly prohibited under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/children/why-is-whale-vomit-worth-millions/article69122968.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to Tsunami:
- These are the waves generated by the tremors and not an earthquake in itself.
- 80 percent of the tsunamis happen within the Indian Ocean.
- When these waves enter shallower water they slow down and begin to grow in energy and height.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
A tsunami is a series of ocean waves that sends surges of water, sometimes reaching heights of over 100 feet (30.5 meters), onto land. These walls of water can cause widespread destruction when they crash ashore.
The effect of tsunami would occur only if the epicentre of the tremor is below oceanic waters and the magnitude is sufficiently high. Tsunamis are waves generated by the tremors and not an earthquake in itself. Though the actual quake activity lasts for a few seconds, its effects are devastating provided the magnitude of the quake is more than 5 on the Richter scale. So, statement 1 is correct.
Most tsunamis–about 80 percent–happen within the Pacific Ocean’s “Ring of Fire,” a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make volcanoes and earthquakes common. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In deep ocean, tsunami waves may appear only a foot or so high. But as they approach shoreline and enter shallower water they slow down and begin to grow in energy and height. The tops of the waves move faster than their bottoms do, which causes them to rise precipitously. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Earthquake Swarms:
1.Earthquake swarms is a sequence of mostly small earthquakes with no identifiable mainshock.
2.Earthquakes caused by volcanic activity haven’t ever happened in swarms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Earthquake swarm is a sequence of mostly small earthquakes with no identifiable mainshock. Swarms are usually short-lived, but they can continue for days, weeks, or sometimes even months. They often recur at the same locations. Most swarms are associated with geothermal activity. So, statement 1 is correct.
Earthquakes associated with volcanic activity often occur in swarms, though swarms also have been observed in many nonvolcanic regions. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following can be caused by an Earthquake?
- Volcanic eruption
- Lahars
- Landslide
- Liquefaction
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Earthquakes are one of the most devastating and frightening natural disasters a person can experience. They happen without warning in areas all around the world. Earthquakes can cause major damage and fatalities in populated areas, but the earthquake itself is not always to blame. Other natural disasters can be caused by earthquakes and these can be equally, and sometimes more, destructive.
Earthquakes may trigger volcanic eruptions. Most earthquakes occur on or near the edges of tectonic plates. Similarly, a volcano is the result of the interaction of these plates. Scientists believe that seismic waves coming from earthquakes cause disturbances in the molten rock beneath volcanoes, making them active. So, point 1 is correct.
The deadliest types of mudslides are called lahars. These are almost always associated with a volcano and can be incredibly destructive. Lahars occur in most cases when volcanic activity causes a dramatic and sudden melting of snow and ice around a volcano. The lahar will gain the consistency of concrete and be very powerful, annihilating everything in its path and then finally covering whatever area it ends up at too great depths. So, point 2 is correct.
When the Earth moves during an earthquake, a landslide or avalanche can occur. Any area that has the right conditions, including moisture and the angle of the slope, can potentially experience these natural disasters. When the Earth shakes, debris, soil or snow on a hilltop or mountainside has the potential of sliding. So, point 3 is correct.
Liquefaction can happen following an earthquake. It is the mixing of sand or soil and groundwater (water underground) during the shaking of a moderate or strong earthquake. The ground turns into a quicksand consistency when water is mixed with it. If a building is built upon this type of ground, it can tip, fall over and even sink. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the earthquake waves:
- P waves can travel through gaseous, liquid and solid surface and create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass.
- S waves can travel only through solid surface and creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at the surface. These are also called primary waves. The P-waves are similar to sound waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials. P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the material in the direction of the propagation. As a result, it creates density differences in the material leading to stretching and squeezing of the material. Toughs and crests are created by S waves and not the P waves. So, statement 1 is not correct.
S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves. The S-waves can travel only through solid materials. They create troughs and crests in the material through which they pass. S waves are transverse waves, meaning that the direction of particle motion of a S wave is perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, and the main restoring force comes from shear stress. Therefore, S waves cannot propagate in liquids with zero (or very low) viscosity; however, they may propagate in liquids with high viscosity. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Pampero: A west or southwest wind in Southern Argentina. This wind (often violently) picks up during the passage of a cold front of an active low passing by. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Elephanta: A strong southerly or southeasterly wind that blows on the Malabar coast of India during the months of September and October and marks the end of the southwest monsoon. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Santa Ana: A strong, hot, dry wind blowing out into San Pedro Channel from the southern California desert through Santa Ana Pass. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Zonda: A warm dry wind blowing in Argentina, where it blows from the west across the Andes Mountains. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Galwan valley is situated to the:
South-East of Siachen
The valley refers to the land that sits between steep mountains that buffet the Galwan River. The river has its source in Aksai Chin, on China’s side of the LAC, and it flows from the east to Ladakh, where it meets the Shyok river on India’s side of the LAC.
The valley is strategically located between Ladakh in the west and Aksai Chin in the east, which is currently controlled by China as part of its Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region. At its western end are the Shyok river and the Darbuk-Shyok-Daulet Beg Oldie (DSDBO) road.
Pangong Tso or Pangong Lake is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet situated at an elevation of 4,225 m. It is divided into five sublakes, called Pangong Tso, Tso Nyak, Rum Tso and Nyak Tso. It is located to the south of Galwan valley.
Kargil situated roughly at equal distance(200KM) from Srinagar, Leh , Padum Zanskar and Skardo Baltistan. It is located to the west of Galwan valley.
The Siachen Glacier is a glacier located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas. Galwan valley is located to the south-east of Siachen Glacier. It is the Second-Longest glacier in the World’s Non-Polar areas.
The Kalapani territory is an area under Indian administration as part of Pithoragarh district in the Kumaon Division of the Uttarakhand state, but it is also claimed by Nepal since 1997.
Which of the following are the possible factors that bring cold waves to north/northwest India?
- Movement of cold air masses brought by upper-level winds.
- Build-up of an extended area of relatively high pressure over northwest Asia.
- Formation of an anticyclone in lower and mid-tropospheric levels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
A cold wave is described qualitatively by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) as “a condition of air temperature which becomes fatal to the human body when exposed.” Cold waves quite commonly occur from mid-December to the end of February. A cold wave is described as one when the minimum temperature is likely to fall by 2 to 4 degrees Celsius.
According to the IMD, the factors that bring cold waves to India include the movement of cold air masses brought about by upper-level winds. Strong westerly winds approaching northwest India can transport cold air towards the southeast direction. Consistent winds are required to trigger a fall in temperature. A build-up of an extended area of relatively high pressure over northwest Asia can also bring cold waves. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
The formation of an anti-cyclone in lower and mid-tropospheric levels can also be a driver of cold waves. Such an anti-cyclone gives rise to sinking motion over the Indo-Gangetic plain leading to falling in minimum temperatures. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the various marine zones:
- Territorial Seas are under exclusive jurisdiction of the coastal states with no right of passage of any other States.
- The Contiguous Zone gives a State jurisdiction over the ocean’s surface and floor.
- Coastal states have the right to explore both living and non-living resources in the Exclusive Economic Zone.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) 1982 divides marine areas into the following five zones:
Internal Waters
Territorial Sea
Contiguous Zone
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
High Seas
Territorial Sea
Everything from the baseline to a limit not exceeding twelve miles is considered the State’s territorial sea. While territorial seas are subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of the coastal States, the coastal States’ rights are limited by the passage rights of other States, including innocent passage through the territorial sea and transit passage through international straits. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Contiguous zone
States may also establish a contiguous zone from the outer edge of the territorial seas to a maximum of 24 nautical miles from the baseline. Unlike the territorial sea, the contiguous zone only gives jurisdiction to a State on the ocean’s surface and floor. It does not provide air and space rights. So, statement 2 is correct.
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) defines an Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) as generally extending 200 nautical miles from shore, within which the coastal state has the right to explore and exploit, and the responsibility to conserve and manage, both living and non-living resources. Some proposals would calibrate certain disciplines depending on whether the subsidized fishing activity takes place within or beyond a member’s EEZ. So, statement 3 is correct.
The general movement of a mass of oceanic water in a definite direction is called Ocean Current. Which of the following are the factors affecting the ocean currents?
- Amount of precipitation
- Planetary winds
- Configuration of the Coastal lines
- Revolution of the earth
- Ocean bottom Reliefs
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Explanation :
Seawater level becomes relatively higher in areas of low evaporation and higher rainfall because of lower salinity and hence lesser density. Thus ocean current is generated from areas of high water level to lower water level. So, point 1 is correct.
Planetary winds affect the ocean current. The wind blowing on the water surface also moves the water in the direction of prevailing winds. So, point 2 is correct.
The disposition of coastal lines perpendicular to the natural flow direction of ocean currents obstructs them with the result of the ocean currents starting flowing parallel to the coastline. So, point 3 is correct.
The rotation of the earth, not the revolution, affects the ocean currents. The rotation of the earth on its axis from west to east results in the genesis of deflective force or Coriolis force. This reflects the current in the northern hemisphere to its right and the current in the southern hemisphere to its left. The rotational force causes the movement of water in the opposite direction of earth movements known as Equatorial current. So, point 4 is not correct.
The submarine ridges usually deflect the course of currents. Generally, the ocean currents while crossing over a submarine ridge are deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere. So, point 5 is correct.
With reference to the temperature-depth profile of the ocean water, consider the following statements:
- The top layer of ocean represents cool oceanic water with temperatures ranging between 5° and 10° C.
- The top layer of cool oceanic water is present throughout the year within the tropical region as well as in the mid-latitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Explanation:
The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with the increasing depth. The profile shows a boundary region between the surface waters of the ocean and the deeper layers. The boundary usually begins around 100 - 400 m below the sea surface and extends several hundred meters downward. This boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease of temperature, is called the thermocline. About 90 per cent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in the deep ocean. In this zone, temperatures approach 0° C.
The temperature structure of oceans over middle and low latitudes can be described as a three-layer system from surface to the bottom. The first layer represents the top layer of warm oceanic water and it is about 500m thick with temperatures ranging between 20° and 25° C. So, statement 1 is not correct.
This top layer, within the tropical region, is present throughout the year but in mid latitudes, it develops only during summer. So, statement 2 is not correct.
With the reference to lightning, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Cumulonimbus clouds are the only clouds that do not produce lightning.
- Copper is used in lighting conductors installed in buildings.
- Lightning in the atmosphere results in nitrogen fixation in the soil.
Select the code from the options given below:
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Cumulonimbus clouds are a type of cloud associated with thunderstorms and heavy precipitation. They are formed beneath 20,000 ft. and are relatively close to the ground and so contain high moisture. They are the only clouds that produce lightning and thunderstorms. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Copper is a good conductor of electricity. Hence, it is used in lightning conductors installed in buildings. So, statement 2 is correct.
Lightning in the atmosphere breaks apart nitrogen molecules and allows them to combine with oxygen to form nitrogen oxides. The rain dissolves these into nitrates, then carries them to Earth and into the soil, thus resulting in nitrogen fixation. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Flash Drought:
- It is more predominant in soils that have high moisture content.
- It can happen more frequently during monsoon than in non-monsoon seasons.
- It can be developed by the formation of Anticyclonic conditions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Flash drought is simply the rapid onset or intensification of drought. It is set in motion by lower-than-normal rates of precipitation, accompanied by abnormally high temperatures, winds, and radiation. Higher temperature increases evapotranspiration—the process by which water is transferred from the land to the atmosphere by evaporation from the soil and by transpiration from plants—and further lowers soil moisture, which decreases rapidly as drought conditions continue. Hence Flash droughts are more common in less moisture soil. So, statement 1 is not correct.
India could experience more flash droughts during the monsoon season than the non-monsoon season. During monsoon season though soil moisture is replenished during the summer monsoon, a break in the monsoon along with high temperatures can quickly deplete the soil moisture. This rapid depletion of soil moisture results in flash droughts during the monsoon season. So, statement 2 is correct.
Anticyclones are also an important contributor to flash drought development. Through subsidence and the associated suppression of rainfall, upper-level ridges can limit the potential for soil moisture replenishment. Concurrently, less cloud cover-age and warmer surface temperatures increase the evaporative demand of moisture from the land surface. As such, anticyclones have a dual impact on increasing evaporative stress by limiting moisture availability for evapotranspiration and increasing potential evapotranspiration. Examples of blocking highs contributing to flash drought development include the 2012 central US flash drought, where a lack of rainfall and increased evaporative demand associated with a blocking high set the foundation for rapid drought development. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Both India and the USA have an integrated judicial system to help establish a strong federation.
- The age of retirement of the Judges in both the American and Indian Supreme Court is the same.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Unlike the American Constitution, the Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the high courts below it. Under a high court (and below the state level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts. This single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935, enforces both Central laws as well as state laws. On the other hand America doesn’t have an integrated judicial system. The United States is a federal system, with a central federal government and individual governments for each of the fifty states. As with the other branches of government, each of the states has their own complete judicial system (state courts) as does the United States itself (federal courts). Each judicial system has a number of courts of original jurisdiction, in which cases are originally filed and tried. The jurisdiction of these trial courts can be both geographically and subject matter based. Each system also has a smaller number of intermediate appellate courts. These courts hear appeals from the trial courts. An appeal is a claim by the losing party that the lower court has made a mistake of law. Usually, a losing party is entitled to one appeal as a matter of right. Each court system also has a supreme court, which hears appeals from the appellate courts. Appeals to the Supreme Court are usually discretionary, that is the court may choose whether or not to hear the appeal. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The United States of America is unique in the democratic world with respect to its tenure of judges of the Federal court who enjoy lifelong tenures. Judges of the American Supreme Court do not have a fixed tenure and continue in office for life. The Indian Supreme Court Justices, on the other hand, retire at the age of 65 years. So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the ‘writs’ under the constitution, consider the following statements:
- The writ jurisdiction of a high court is wider than that of the supreme court of India.
- The writ of Prohibition is not available against legislative bodies but can be issued against the administrative authorities.
- The writ of Certiorari can be issued only by the supreme court to prevent an excess of jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The writ jurisdiction of supreme court (under Article 32) is limited to the enforcement of fundamental rights while the high court (under article 226) can issue writs not only for the enforcement of fundamental rights but also ‘for any other purpose, thus has a wider jurisdiction. So, statement 1 is correct.
The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to prohibit lower courts, tribunals and other quasi-judicial authorities from exceeding their jurisdiction. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies and private individuals or bodies. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Writ of Certiorari is issued by the Supreme Court or High Court to some inferior court or tribunal to transfer the matter to it or to some other superior authority for proper consideration. It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction, absence of jurisdiction and violation of natural justice. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which among the following features of the Indian Constitution are not amendable under Article 368?
- Parliamentary system.
- Welfare state.
- Effective access to justice.
- Limited power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution.
- Federalism.
- Rule of Law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
Explanation :
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court recognised the power of the Parliament to amend any or all provisions of the Constitution provided such an act did not destroy its basic structure. However, the Supreme Court is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. From the various judgements, the following have emerged as ‘basic features of the Constitution or elements of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution:
Supremacy of the Constitution
Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
Secular character of the Constitution
Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
Federal character of the Constitution
Unity and integrity of the nation
Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
Judicial review
Freedom and dignity of the individual
Parliamentary system
Rule of law
Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and
Directive Principles
Principle of equality
Free and fair elections
Independence of Judiciary
Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
Effective access to justice
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to ‘sovereignty of Parliament’?
- Parliament can make constitutional laws by the same procedure as ordinary laws.
- There is no system of judicial review to invalidate the laws passed by parliament.
- A written Constitution is a necessary feature of Parliamentary sovereignty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The doctrine of ‘sovereignty of Parliament’ means the supreme lies with the Parliament. There are no ‘legal’ restrictions on its authority and jurisdiction. The Parliament can make, amend, substitute or repeal any law.
When the parliament is sovereign, then it can make constitutional laws by the same procedure as ordinary laws. In other words, there is no legal distinction between the constituent authority and the legislative authority of the Parliament. So, statement 1 is correct.
Also, the Parliamentary laws cannot be declared invalid by the Judiciary as being unconstitutional. In other words, there is no system of judicial review. So, statement 2 is correct.
Sovereignty of Parliament is curtailed by various legal restrictions on its authority and jurisdiction. Written Constitution is one of them, as it defines the authority and jurisdiction of all the three organs of the Union government and the nature of the interrelationship between them. Hence, the Parliament has to operate within the limits prescribed by the Constitution. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Right to Counsel is a Constitutional Right incorporated under Part III of the Indian Constitution.
- An accused is entitled to meet an advocate of his choice throughout investigation and not only during interrogation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Right to Counsel is a right available to a person while she/he is in custody of an investigating agency to prevent him or her from being forced into giving self-incriminating statements through means including torture. It is a right of the arrested person to talk to a lawyer for advice before being questioned.
In India, the safeguards available to a person in such circumstances are enshrined in the Constitution. Article 20 (3) states: “No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself” and Article 22 states that a person cannot be denied the right to consult and to be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice. This includes provisions that grant an accused the “right to consult” a lawyer. So, statement 1 is correct.
Section 41D of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) states that an accused is entitled to “meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation, though not throughout interrogation”. Unlike in some countries, lawyers in India are not allowed to be with an accused throughout their investigation. Apart from the provisions of Section 41D of the CrPC, courts also rely on the Supreme Court judgment in the D K Basu case of 1997 that considered the guiding principles to be followed by investigating agencies in cases of arrest or detention. The judgment states that “an arrestee may be permitted to meet his lawyer during interrogation, though not throughout the interrogation”. The Supreme Court stressed the safeguards for accused, but also spoke of “difficulties in detection of crimes”, especially in cases of “hard core criminals”, and ruled that a lawyer cannot be permitted to remain present throughout the interrogation. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following Cultural and Educational rights are guaranteed by the Indian Constitution for the protection of minorities?
- Right to have a distinct language, script or culture of their own
- Right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice
- Right to impart education to their children in their own language
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script, or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. Article 29 grants protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. So, point 1 is correct.
Article 30 grants the following rights to minorities, whether religious or linguistic: All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any property of a minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed to them. In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a minority. So, point 2 is correct.
The right under Article 30 also includes the right of a minority to impart education to its children in its own language. So, point 3 is correct.
With reference to Phone Tapping in India, consider the following statements:
- Telephone tapping infringes on both the Right to Privacy as well as the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression.
- Both the Central Government and the State Governments have the authority to intercept telephone calls.
- The conditionality for an order of interception is purely based on the interest of public safety.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
3 only
Explanation :
The act of telephone tapping affects the right to privacy as well as right to freedom of speech and expression, both are Fundamental Rights under the Constitution. Art 21 of the Constitution, which gives protection to life and liberty, can allow only such legislature-made law which meets the constitutional requirements and applies a procedure which is just, fair and reasonable. Further, violation of the right of freedom of speech and expression is not permissible except what Art. 19 of the Constitution provides. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Central Government as well as the State Governments, both of them are provided with the right to intercept telephones under Section 5(2) of Indian Telegraphic Act, 1885. There are instances when an investigating authority/agency needs to record the phone conversations of the person who is under suspicion. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Delhi High Court has held that permitting illegally intercepted messages or audio conversations as evidence would lead to manifest arbitrariness and promote scant regard to the fundamental rights of the citizens. The high court said as per the provisions of the Telegraph Act, an order for interception can be issued on either the occurrence of any public emergency or in the interest of public safety as per the law laid down by the Supreme Court. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following are not federal features of the Constitution of India?
- Integrated judiciary
- Supremacy of the Constitution
- The Office of the Governor of a state
- Single citizenship
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the state high courts below it. This single system of courts enforces both the Central laws. However, it is a unitary feature of the Constitution. So, point 1 is correct.
The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must conform to its provisions. Otherwise, they can be declared invalid by the Supreme Court or the high courts through their power of judicial review. This helps to maintain the federal characteristic of the country. So, point 2 is not correct.
The Governor, who is the head of the state, is appointed by the President. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. He also acts as an agent of the Centre. Through him, the Centre exercises control over the states. Thus, it is a unitary feature which makes the Central government strong in India. So, point 3 is correct.
States not indestructible: unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right of territorial integrity. Thus, it is a unitary feature of the constitution. So, point 4 is correct.
With reference to ‘Preventive detention’, consider the following statements:
- Grounds of detention should be communicated to a detenu.
- The Parliament has exclusive power to make any law on the matter.
- The period of detention cannot exceed three months.
- It can be invoked in all cases where there is a threat to law and order.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Detention is of two types, namely, punitive and preventive. Punitive detention is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after trial and conviction in a court. Preventive detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. Thus, preventive detention is only a precautionary measure and based on suspicion.
Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens and includes the following: (i) The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court. (ii) The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed. (iii) The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has reduced the period of detention without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board from three to two months. However, this provision has not yet been brought into force, hence, the original period of three months still continues. So, statement 3 is correct.
The Supreme Court ruled in a recent judgment that to invoke a public detention law against someone, it is not enough that his/her actions pose a threat to law and order, but must affect the public order. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option(c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the co-operative societies in India:
- The term “co-operative societies” is a subject enumerated in the Concurrent List of the seventh schedule of the Constitution.
- Only the Parliament has the authority to enact legislation governing multi-state cooperative societies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the constitution:
It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-B).
It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
The “co-operative societies” is a subject enumerated in Entry 32 of the state list of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution and the state legislatures have accordingly enacted legislations on co-operative societies. So, statement 1 is not correct.
According to Article 243ZR of the Constitution, multi-State cooperative societies i.e., co-operative societies working in more than one State, are exclusively within the jurisdiction of Parliament. Accordingly, the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 1984 was enacted by Parliament under Schedule VII List I Entry 44 of the Constitution. So, statement 2 is correct.
The number and terms of the Members of Board of co-operative society are decided by the state legislatures. However, the maximum number of directors of a co-operative society shall not exceed twenty-one.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, consider the following statements:
- A Gram Sabha consists of all individuals who are aged 18 years and above.
- The Chairpersons of the Panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels are elected from amongst the elected members.
- It bars the interference by courts in the electoral matters of panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 provides for a Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system. It is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a Panchayat. So, statement 1 is not correct.
All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. Further, the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be elected indirectly—by and from amongst the elected members thereof. However, the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the state legislature determines.
The Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide and a Panchayat at the intermediate level or district level shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members thereof. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Act bars the interference by courts in the electoral matters of panchayats. It declares that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies cannot be questioned in any court. It further lays down that no election to any panchayat is to be questioned except by an election petition presented to such authority and in such manner as provided by the state legislature. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Indian Constitution:
- Article 3 allows admission of new states that are not part of the Union of India.
- The First Schedule has names of States and Union Territories as well as their territorial extent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution addresses the topic of ‘Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States’. It says that Parliament may by law form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State. It is Article 2 which relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The First Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
1. Name of the State and their territorial Jurisdiction
- Names of the Union territory and their extent. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) works under the control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- The National Investigation Agency (NIA) can investigate offences committed outside India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India, which enforces the following laws: -
Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA)
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA). So, statement 1 is not correct.
National Investigation Agency (NIA) is functioning as the Central Counter-Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in the country. The NIA has been constituted after the Mumbai terror attack in November 2008 mainly for the investigation of incidents of terrorist attacks, funding of terrorism and other terror-related crime. The National Investigation Agency (Amendment) Act, 2019, empowered the agency to investigate offences committed outside India, subject to international treaties and domestic laws of other countries. The 2019 amendment also allowed the central government to designate Sessions Courts as Special Courts for the trial of scheduled offences under the Act. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Where is the Indrayani River located?
Maharashtra
Explanation :
About Indrayani River:
It is a river located in the state of Maharashtra.
Course:
It originates from the Western Ghats, near the hill station of Lonavala.
It is a rain-fed river and flows through Pune district before merging into the Bhima River, which is a tributary of the Krishna River.
It is 103.5 kilometres long.
The river has great religious importance, and the two sacred towns, Alandi and Dehu, are situated on its banks.
Dehu is known to be a sacred place for being the hometown of the poet Saint Tukaram, who was a popular saint of Maharashtra, and Alandi holds the samadhi of the poet Dnyaneshwar.
The Indrayani also passes through the industrial town of Pimpri-Chinchwad and plays a role in irrigation and local agriculture.
Valvan Dam at Kamshet, situated on the Indrayani River, is a hydroelectric generating station.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.freepressjournal.in/pune/video-shocking-toxic-foam-covers-indrayani-river-as-water-contamination-worsens-amid-rising-gbs-cases-in-pune
The phrase “Satyameva Jayate” is derived from which of the following texts?
Mundaka Upanishad
Explanation :
The Union Home Ministry recently asked State governments to prevent the misuse and improper depiction of the State Emblem of India, emphasising that the Lion Capital logo is incomplete without the motto—Satyameva Jayate—in Devanagari script.
About State Emblem of India:
It is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath.
In the original, there are four lions, mounted back to back, on a circular abacus, which itself rests on a bell-shaped lotus.
The frieze of the abacus has sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull, and a lion separated by intervening Dharma Chakras.
In the State emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible, the fourth being hidden from view.
The wheel appears in relief in the centre of the abacus with a bull on the right and a horse on the left and the outlines of other wheels on the extreme right and left.
The bell-shaped lotus has been omitted.
Below the representation of the Lion Capital, the words Satyameva Jayate are written in Devnagari Script, which is also the National Motto of India.
The words are a quote from the Mundaka Upanishad, the last and most philosophical of the four Vedas, and is translated as ‘Truth alone triumphs’.
The use of the State Emblem of India is restricted to the authorities/purposes specified in the State Emblem of India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, 2005, and the State Emblem of India (Regulation of Use) Rules, 2007.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/home-ministry-asks-state-governments-to-prevent-misuse-of-state-emblem-of-india/article69181321.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Gaia Mission, recently seen in the news:
- It is NASA’s astronomical observatory mission.
- It aims to create the largest, most precise three-dimensional map of the Milky Way galaxy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Astronomers have recently discovered a gigantic black hole named Gaia BH3 hiding close to the earth, the third of its kind using the European Space Agency’s Gaia telescope.
About Gaia Mission:
Gaia, the Global Astrometric Interferometer for Astrophysics, is a European Space Agency (ESA) astronomical observatory mission.
Its goal is to create the largest, most precise three-dimensional map of the Milky Way by surveying about 1% of the galaxy’s 100 billion stars.
It was launched in 2013.
Nestled in the Lagrange Point 2, some 930,000 (1.5 million kilometers) miles away from Earth, Gaia orbits the sun in sync with our planet.
Shielded by Earth from the sun’s glare but also free from the distorting effects of Earth’s atmosphere, which plague ground-based telescopes’ observations, the flying-saucer-like spacecraft scans the whole sky every two months.
The 7.5-foot-wide (2.3 meters) Gaia satellite is attached to a 33-foot-wide (10 m) circular sunshield and is fitted with two telescopes that sit 106 degrees apart.
Gaia will provide unprecedented positional and radial velocity measurements with the accuracies needed to produce a stereoscopic and kinematic census of about one billion stars in our Galaxy and throughout the Local Group.
With its all-sky survey of the position, brightness, and motion of over one billion stars in our Milky Way galaxy, Gaia will provide a large dataset to search for exoplanets.
These will be uncovered by monitoring tiny changes in a star’s position and motion caused by the gravitational pull of one or more planets around it, and by looking for dips in the stellar light caused by a planet transiting in front of its parent star.
Gaia will also map thousands of Solar System objects, primarily main belt asteroids circling the Sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.
With its ability to detect faint and fast-moving objects, it is expected that Gaia will also detect several thousand Near-Earth Objects (NEOs).
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/118641/OPS/G1IDURCMD.1+GU0DURDDV.1.html
With reference to the National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD) 2021, consider the following statements:
- Financial support of up to Rs. 2 crore per patient is provided for the treatment of rare diseases.
- GST and Basic Customs Duty are exempted on drugs imported for rare diseases for individual use.
- It has provisions for the promotion of research and development for diagnosis and treatment of rare diseases.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Several rare disease patients across India, including many children, are facing a life-or-death struggle due to delays in implementing the National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD) 2021, patient advocacy groups said recently.
About National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD) 2021:
The Ministry of Health & Family Welfare launched the National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD) in March 2021.
Currently, 63 rare diseases are included under the National Policy for Rare Diseases on the recommendation of the Central Technical Committee for Rare Diseases (CTCRD).
The key features of NPRD, 2021, are as under:
The rare diseases have been identified and categorized into 3 groups.
Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment.
Group 2: Diseases requiring long-term/lifelong treatment with relatively lower cost of treatment.
Group 3: Diseases for which definitive treatment is available but challenges are to make optimal patient selection for benefit, very high cost, and lifelong therapy.
Financial support of up to Rs. 50 lakhs per patient is provided for the treatment at the notified Centres of Excellence (CoEs) for Rare Diseases.
12 Centres of Excellence (CoEs) have been identified so far, which are premier Government tertiary hospitals with facilities for diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of rare diseases.
In order to receive financial assistance for treatment of rare disease, the patient may approach a nearby or any CoE to get registered.
Treatment of patients starts immediately after registration with the CoEs.
Nidan Kendras have been set up for genetic testing and counselling services.
The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has obtained exemption from the Department of Expenditure on Goods & Services Tax (GST) and Basic Customs Duty on drugs imported for Rare Diseases for individual use and through CoE.
As envisaged in the policy, the Department of Health Research has established the National Consortium for Research and Development on Therapeutics for Rare Diseases (NCRDTRD) for streamlining the research activities for rare diseases.
It has provisions for the promotion of research and development for diagnosis and treatment of rare diseases; promotion of local development and manufacture of drugs; and creation of a conducive environment for indigenous manufacturing of drugs for rare diseases at affordable prices.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/rare-disease-patients-crisis-delays-stall-national-policy-implementation-2672197-2025-01-30
Consider the following statements regarding the Extremely Large Telescope (ELT), recently seen in the news:
- It will be the world’s largest optical telescope.
- It is being built by the European Southern Observatory (ESO) in Chile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Lurking in the barren Atacama Desert, the Extremely Large Telescope (ELT), a colossal machine nears completion.
About Extremely Large Telescope (ELT):
It will be the world’s largest optical telescope, with a primary mirror that measures 128 feet (39 meters) across.
It is being built by the European Southern Observatory (ESO) in Chile at a cost of 1.3 billion euros (around $1.4 billion).
It will be capable of detecting—and possibly even imaging—terrestrial planets in the habitable zones of other stars.
The ELT is under construction atop Cerro Armazones, which is a mountaintop in Chile’s Atacama Desert.
The giant ELT dome will house the telescope and its interior structure, providing protection from the extreme environment of Chile’s Atacama Desert.
The main structure of the telescope will hold its five mirrors and optics, including the enormous 39-metre primary mirror.
The primary mirror, rather than being a single slab of glass, is made up of 798 hexagonal segments, each of which is 5 feet (1.5 m) across and 2 inches (5 cm) thick.
Key Facts about European Southern Observatory (ESO):
It is the preeminent intergovernmental science and technology organisation in astronomy.
It is supported by 16 countries: Austria, Belgium, Brazil, the Czech Republic, Denmark, France, Finland, Germany, Ireland, Italy, the Netherlands, Portugal, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, and the United Kingdom.
It carries out an ambitious programme focused on the design, construction, and operation of powerful ground-based observing facilities for astronomy to enable important scientific discoveries.
ESO also plays a leading role in promoting and organising cooperation in astronomical research.
ESO operates three unique, world-class observing sites in Chile: La Silla, Paranal, and Chajnantor.
Headquarters: Garching, Germany
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/visualstories/news/a-1-5-billion-eye-a-rival-to-james-webb-is-being-quietly-tested-in-a-barren-desert-205904-30-01-2025
Gambusia Affinis, recently in news, is a:
Fish
Explanation :
Recently, the National Green Tribunal has asked a response from the Central government on the use of Gambusia Affinis (Mosquitofish) and Poecilia Reticulata (Guppy) as biological mosquito control agents.
It is known as mosquito fish, and is widely used as a biological agent for controlling mosquito larvae.
It is native to the waters of the south-eastern United States.
It has been a part of mosquito-control strategies for over a century in various parts of the world, including India.
Also, it has been part of various malaria control strategies in India since 1928, including the Urban Malaria Scheme.
The International Union for Conservation of Nature declared Gambusia one of the 100 worst invasive alien species in the world.
The states which stored and released Mosquitofish were Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Punjab and Andhra Pradesh.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/ngt-issues-notice-to-centre-on-use-of-invasive-fish-species-for-mosquito-control-3385365
Consider the following statements regarding the National Youth Parliament Scheme 2.0:
- It will strengthen the roots of democracy and tolerance of the views of others.
- Under this scheme only individuals can participate in the Youth Parliament programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of State in the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs provided information about the National Youth Parliament Scheme 2.0 to the Rajya Sabha.
Objective: To strengthen the roots of democracy, inculcate healthy habits of discipline, and tolerance of the views of others and to enable the student community to know about practices and procedures of the Parliament and to enhance their knowledge of the functioning of the Government, Constitutional values and for living their life in a democratic way.
The web-portal of NYPS 2.0 enables all the citizens of the country to participate in the Youth Parliament programme through 3 different ways:
Institution Participation: All educational institution can participate in this category by organizing the Youth Parliament sittings as per the guidelines available on the portal.
The students from classes VI to XII may be selected for the “Kishore Sabha” sub-category and Under Graduate and Post Graduate level students may be selected for the “Tarun Sabha” sub-category.
Group Participation: A group of citizens can participate in this category by organizing the Youth Parliament sittings as per the guidelines available on the portal.
Individual Participation: An individual citizen can participate in this category by attempting a quiz on the theme of ‘Bhartiya Democracy in Action’.
The e-training material viz. Literature on Youth Parliament, Model Debate, Model Questions, Model List of Business, Model Scripts, Video Tutorials, etc. are available as training resources on the web-portal of NYPS 2.0.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2099503
With reference to Dhimsa Dance, consider the following:
- It is a popular tribal dance performed in Andhra Pradesh.
- It is accompanied by wind and percussion instruments.
- It is only performed by the men.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, tribal families from Neelabandha, a hillptop hamlet in Anakapalli district of Andhra Pradesh received electricity for the first time after Independence and performed ‘Dhimsa’ in excitement.
It is a popular tribal dance performed by tribes, including Bagata, Valmiki, Poraja, Khond, Gadaba, Kondadora, Mukadora, Kotia in Andhra Pradesh.
It is performed during festivals, weddings and at the time of the “hunting festival” in April when men and women dance for hours together.
There are 12 varieties of Dhimsa and Origin can be traced to the Koraput Area the home to Ghond Tribe.
It is accompanied by wind and percussion instruments, the dance changes by the music, and a troupe comprises 20.
Themes of dance: Various themes of the Dimsa, are woven around their mythologies, folktales, ethos, mores, economic activities and their kinship and marital life etc.
Instruments used: Musical instruments like dappu, tudumu, mori, kidgi, gilka, and jodukommulu are used.
Performance: Dhimsa dance is done in a circle with each other’s arms closed at each other’s back. This dance is mainly a movement of hands and legs. Dancers form small or big circles and perform together as a team.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/tribal-families-in-neelabandha-hamlet-of-anakapalli-district-celebrate-first-time-electricity-with-dhimsa-dance/article69176612.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Rheumatoid Arthritis:
- It is an autoimmune and inflammatory disease.
- It damage joint tissues of human.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, researchers have developed an innovative “self-actuating” drug delivery system that could revolutionize the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) by targeting inflammation directly within the joints so that therapeutic agents are released only when needed.
It is an autoimmune and inflammatory disease, wherein your immune system attacks healthy cells in your body by mistake, and causing inflammation in the affected parts of the body.
It mainly attacks the joints, usually many joints at once. RA commonly affects joints in the hands, wrists, and knees.
Symptoms: In a joint with RA, the lining of the joint becomes inflamed, causing damage to joint tissue. This tissue damage can cause long-lasting or chronic pain, unsteadiness (lack of balance), and deformity (misshapenness).
It can also affect other tissues throughout the body and cause problems in organs such as the lungs, heart, and eyes.
Cause: It is the result of an immune response in which the body’s immune system attacks its own healthy cells. The specific causes of RA are unknown.
Treatment: Its treatment usually includes the use of medications that slow disease and prevent joint deformity, called disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2099618®=3&lang=1
Consider the following statements regarding the International Big Cat Alliance:
- It was launched by India during the event ‘Commemorating 50 years of Project Tiger’.
- It aims to conserve seven big cats namely -Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar and Puma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, in a major development, the Framework Agreement on establishment of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) has officially come into force.
It was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 9th April 2023, during the event ‘Commemorating 50 years of Project Tiger’.
It was launched with the aim of conservation of seven big cats - Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Cheetah, Jaguar and Puma.
Present Member countries: Nicaragua, Eswatini, India, Somalia and Liberia - have deposited the instruments of ratification under the Article VIII (1) of the Framework Agreement.
The IBCA was established by Government of India, through the nodal organisation viz., National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEFCC).
Membership: It is open to 97 ‘range’ countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organizations, etc.
Objective:
To facilitate collaboration and synergy among stakeholders, consolidating successful conservation practices and expertise to achieve a common goal of conservation of big cats at global level.
This unified approach, bolstered by financial support, aims to bolster the conservation agenda, halt the decline in big cat populations, and reverse current trends.
Governance Structure:
A General Assembly consisting of all member countries.
A Council of at least seven but not more than 15 member countries elected by the General Assembly for a term of 5 years, and a Secretariat.
Upon the recommendation of the Council, the General Assembly will appoint the IBCA Secretary General for a specific term.
Funding: It has secured Government of India’s initial support of Rs. 150 crore for five years (2023-24 to 2027-28).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2099279
Santorini Island, recently seen in the news, is part of which country?
Greece
Explanation :
Thousands of residents have fled the island of Santorini after a swarm of earthquakes shook the Greek islands in the Aegean Sea on Tuesday morning.
About Santorini Island:
Santorini, or Thera, as it is also known, is a volcanic crater island that is located in the southern part of the Aegean Sea in southeastern Greece.
It is the southernmost island in the Cyclades island group.
It is located approximately 128 nautical miles southeast of the Greek mainland and about 63 nautical miles north of Crete, the largest Greek island.
Santorini is the remaining portion of an exploded volcano and forms the most active volcanic center of the South Aegean Volcanic Arc.
Santorini’s volcano is one of the few active volcanoes on Greek and European land.
It is well known for its sea-filled volcanic caldera that is surrounded by high colorful cliffs on its three sides.
It is also known for its pristine whitewashed houses spread across jagged cliffs, astonishing blue waters, dramatic views, fabulous sunsets, and the ancient settlement of Thira.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/thousands-flee-santorini-as-dozens-of-earthquakes-rattle-greeces-instagram-island-7636828
Consider the following statements regarding Iskander-M, recently seen in the news:
- It is a road-mobile short-range ballistic missile system.
- It was developed by Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Russian Federation is reportedly about to start the production of Iskander-M tactical ballistic missiles in large numbers.
About Iskander-M:
The Iskander (Western reporting name: SS-26 Stone) is a road-mobile short-range ballistic missile system developed by Russia.
It entered Russian service in 2006. It was first used by the Russians in 2008 against Georgia.
It is designed for tactical strikes on small, high-value land targets.
This system can use different types of missiles.
Features:
It is 7.3 meters long, 0.92 meters in diameter, and has a launch weight of 3,750 kilograms.
The missiles possess a maximum range of 500 km and carry payloads between 480 and 700 kg.
It can carry conventional and nuclear warheads.
Its missiles can travel at up to seven times the speed of sound (Mach 7) and can reach an altitude of more than 30 miles.
It employs a maneuverable reentry vehicle (MaRV) and decoys to defeat theater missile defense systems.
It is also equipped with various systems for in-flight correction and self-targeting, allowing the missile to overcome missile defense systems.
Variants:
Iskander-E: Export version, range: 280 km.
Iskander-K: New version, unveiled in 2007, with a new cruise missile R-500, range: 280 km max.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.india.com/news/world/missile-made-by-this-friend-of-india-can-damage-us-production-is-going-on-in-full-swing-know-all-about-the-destructive-plan-here-7594038/
Consider the following statements regarding Ranikhet disease, recently seen in the news:
- It is a highly contagious bacterial disease that affects birds.
- Currently, there is no effective treatment for Ranikhet disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Suspected highly virulent Ranikhet disease is said to have caused the death of nearly 1.5 lakh chickens in Eluru, Guntur, Prakasam, and the twin Godavari districts in Andhra Pradesh recently.
About Ranikhet Disease:
It is a highly contagious viral disease that affects birds, particularly poultry such as chickens, turkeys, and ducks.
It is caused by infections with virulent avian avulavirus 1, commonly known as Newcastle disease virus (NDV) and designated as avian paramyxovirus-1 (APMV-1).
It attacks the respiratory, nervous, and digestive systems of birds.
It causes production drops/fertility problems.
Morbidity is usually high, and mortality varies from 50 to 100 percent.
It is a minor zoonosis (disease of animals that can also infect humans) and can cause conjunctivitis in humans, but the condition is generally very mild and self-limiting.
Transmission:
Direct contact with secretions, especially faeces, from infected birds
Contaminated feed, water, implements, premises, human clothing, etc.
ND viruses can survive for several weeks in the environment, especially in cool weather.
Symptoms:
The symptoms vary according to the age of the affected birds.
The first symptoms usually observed in young birds are sneezing, gasping, and often droopiness. It is in this stage of the disease that the manifestations rather closely resemble those of infections bronchitis.
Within a short time after the appearance of respiratory symptoms, deaths occur in a flock in quick succession and in increasing numbers from day to day.
Treatment:
At present there is no effective treatment of any value.
Proper housing and general good care are indicated in an effort to shorten the duration and severity of the infection.
Hence statement 2 is correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chandigarh/ranikhet-disease-suspected-experts-take-samples-again/articleshow/80122439.cms
Fort William, built by the British, is located in which Indian city?
Kolkata
Explanation :
Fort William in Kolkata, the headquarters of the Eastern Army Command, has been renamed Vijay Durg recently.
About Fort William:
Fort William was built by the British in 1773 and was named after King William III of England.
It is located on the eastern bank of the river Hooghly in Kolkata, West Bengal.
Today, Fort William is the property of the Indian Army. It also serves as the headquarters of the Eastern Command.
History:
The original fort was built by the English East India Company in 1696.
Initially, it comprised wings and an inner bastion where prisoners were hauled, which is why it was known as ‘the black hole of Calcutta’.
In 1756, Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal, attacked the fort and captured Calcutta.
After the fall of Siraj-ud-Daulah in the Battle of Plassey, the fort was demolished, after which, Robert Clive began constructing a new fort.
The fort was completed in 1773 and stands as present-day Fort William.
Architecture:
The fort is octagonal in shape and has an imposing structure made out of brick and mortar.
It is spread over 70.9 acres and is embellished with hundreds of arched windows that overlook lush green gardens.
Meticulous stonework adorns the surface of the building.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/fort-william-armys-eastern-hq-renamed-vijay-durg/article69184172.ece
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Stryker’, that was in the news recently?
Infantry combat vehicle
Explanation :
Amid the upcoming visit of Indian Prime Minister to Washington DC, several defence deals in the pipeline are in focus, among them the deal for co-production of Stryker infantry combat vehicles.
About Stryker Infantry Combat Vehicles:
Stryker is a family of eight-wheel-drive combat vehicles built for the US Army.
It was jointly developed by General Dynamics Land Systems (GDLS) Canada and the General Dynamics Land Systems Division in the United States.
It was the first new military vehicle inducted into US Army service since the Abrams tank in the 1980s.
The Stryker family includes various configurations such as Infantry Carrier Vehicle (ICV), Mobile Gun System (MGS), medical evacuation vehicle, fire support vehicle, anti-tank guided missile carrier, and reconnaissance vehicle, among others.
These vehicles are valued for their speed and flexibility, particularly in urban warfare and quick response scenarios.
Stryker can be transported on the ground using trucks or by air on C-17 and C-130 aircraft already in the Indian Air Force fleet.
Key Features:
Armament: Equipped with a 30 mm cannon and a 105 mm mobile gun.
Hull Construction: V-hull made of high-hardness steel with an additional layer of ceramic tile armor for enhanced protection.
Crew and Capacity: Operated by a two-person crew and can carry a nine-man infantry squad.
Range: 483 kilometers
Top Speed: Approximately 100 km/h.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/stryker-infantry-vehicle-deal-with-us-progresses-javelin-missile-to-be-demonstrated-again/article69184833.ece
Bryospilus bharaticus, recently in news, is a:
Water flea
Explanation :
Recently, a new species of water flea was discovered from moss growth found on walls of Korigad Fort near Pune and named it as Bryospilus (Indobryospilus) bharaticus n. sp.
About Bryospilus bharaticus:
It is a species of water flea belongs to Bryospilus genus.
This recent discovery from western India is the first for the whole of Tropical Asia.
Features
It uses antennae as ‘supports’ to crawl through thick, debris-filled water films on moss.
The antennae have big spines that assist sideways and forward movement.
The fleas’ main eye is absent because they live in reduced light and don’t require colour distinction for foraging.
Distribution: It has been found in semi-terrestrial habitats in rainforests of West Africa, South and Central America, and New Zealand.
Habitat: The distant relatives of this species are found in open waters, while many are found in littoral (vegetated) regions of different water bodies.
The genus Bryospilus is a unique animal with characteristic adaptations suited for living in “semi-terrestrial” environments, such as water film found on mosses.
Ancestors of this species were potentially present on the Indian subcontinent before the breakup of Gondwanaland started approximately 200 million years ago.
What are Water fleas?
These are small aquatic animals belonging to crustacea group that feed on small algae by filtering them from water.
Habitat: These are usually found in rivers, ponds, and pools.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/pune/new-species-of-tiny-crustacean-found-in-western-ghats-near-pune/articleshow/117926427.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Mount Taranaki:
- It is a stratovolcano located in New Zealand.
- It has been recently bestowed with a legal person status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Mount Taranaki, now known by its Maori name Taranaki Maunga, in New Zealand has achieved a legal person status.
It has two official names Mount Egmont or Mount Taranaki.
It is located in Egmont National Park.
Features
It is a stratovolcano (also called a composite cone) - and is made up of alternating layers of ash and lava flow.
It is one of the most symmetrical volcanic cones in the world.
There is a circular ring plain of volcanic material formed from lahars and landslides.
It was created by subduction of the Pacific Plate below the Australian Plate. The magma is probably coming from deeper than the Taupo Volcanic Zone volcanoes as the subducting slab is deeper.
It is a snow-capped dormant volcano and the second highest mountain (8,261 feet) located in North Island of New Zealand.
Mount Taranaki has become the third natural feature in New Zealand to be bestowed with an individual status, after Te Urewera National Park and Whanganui River.
The Indigenous Maori people of New Zealand respect the snow-covered Taranaki Maunga as a sacred ancestor.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.nbcnews.com/news/world/new-zealand-mount-taranaki-legal-person-rcna190124
With reference to Brucellosis Disease, consider the following:
- It is a bacterial disease which mainly infects cattle, swine, goats, sheep and dogs.
- It is caused in humans by ingesting unpasteurised milk from infected goats or sheep.
- It affects only aged people across the globe.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, an eight-year-old girl from Kottakkal in Malappuram district of Kerala died after undergoing around two months of treatment for brucellosis.
It is a bacterial disease caused by various Brucella species, which mainly infect cattle, swine, goats, sheep and dogs.
Humans acquire it through direct contact with infected animals, by eating or drinking contaminated animal products or by inhaling airborne agents.
Most cases are caused by ingesting unpasteurised milk or cheese from infected goats or sheep.
Human-to-human transmission is very rare, says the WHO.
Symptoms of Brucellosis Disease
Fever, weakness, weight loss, and general a feeling of discomfort are some of the common symptoms.
In many patients, they can be mild and may not get diagnosed at all. The incubation period can vary from one week to two months, but it usually lasts between two and four weeks.
Who are at risk?
It affects people of all ages.
The WHO says that people who work with animals and are in contact with their blood, placenta, foetuses and uterine secretions have an increased risk of contracting the disease.
This method of transmission primarily affects farmers, butchers, hunters, veterinarians and laboratory personnel.
Treatment: It is usually treated with antibiotics.
Prevention: Vaccination of cattle, goats and sheep is among the prevention options. Pasteurisation of milk for direct consumption and for creating derivatives such as cheese is an important step to prevent its transmission from animals to humans.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/what-is-brucellosis/article69179883.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the PRASHAD scheme:
- It is aimed at transforming the cultural preservation and spiritual travelling across identified pilgrimage destinations across India.
- It was launched by the Union Ministry of Tourism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a Parliamentary committee has asked the government to develop a “clear-cut Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)” and obtain prior clearances and approvals from relevant authorities for timely completion of projects in the Spiritual Tourism Circuits under the PRASHAD scheme.
Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spirituality Augmentation Drive (PRASAD) scheme was launched by the Ministry of Tourism in 2014.
It is an initiative that aimed at transforming the cultural preservation and spiritual travelling across identified pilgrimage destinations across India.
Objectives
Upgrading and maintaining the strength of the infrastructure of pilgrimage destinations that includes the roads, water supply, sanitation and waste management system.
Improving the travel conditions for the travellers by improving the connectivity through road, rail and airways.
Starting conservation projects that help in preserving and conserving the pilgrimage sites of cultural and spiritual significance.
It advocates the cultural, religious and spiritual significance of pilgrimage sites attracting domestic and international tourists.
Creating opportunities for the local communities through skill development and livelihood generation programmes that relate with pilgrimage tourism.
Adopting sustainable development practices that promote eco-friendly tourism.
Key Components
Infrastructure Development
Upgrading roads
Connectivity Enhancement:
Pilgrim Experience Augmentation
Funding: It is funded on a 100% public funding model for eligible project components. Additionally, the scheme incorporates voluntary contributions through Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiatives and Public-Private Partnerships (PPP).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/house-panel-asks-tourism-ministry-to-formulate-sops-for-timely-completion-of-projects/article69184121.ece
Exercise Ekuverin, recently in news, is conducted between India and:
Maldives
Explanation :
Recently, the 13th edition of joint military exercise ‘Ekuverin’ between the Indian Army and the Maldives National Defence Force has commenced.
Ekuverin meaning ‘Friends’ in Dhivehi language started in the year 2009.
It is a bilateral military annual exercise conducted alternatively in India and Maldives.
Aim: It is aimed at enhancing interoperability in counter insurgency and counter terrorism operations, and carry out joint humanitarian assistance and disaster relief operations.
It is being conducted in Maldives this year. In 2023, it was conducted at Chaubatia in Uttarakhand.
Both nations have very close and friendly relations in economic, cultural and military cooperation.
‘Ex Ekuverin’ will assist in further bolstering these ties between the two nations.
Other exercise between India and Maldives
Exercise Ekatha: It is an annual exercise conducted between the navies of India and Maldives.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/india-maldives-joint-military-exercise-begins/articleshow/117892867.cms?from=mdr
Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?
Himachal Pradesh
Explanation :
The 2025 annual bird count at Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary recorded an unprecedented surge in waterfowl, with a total of 1,53,719 birds of 97 species, according to officials.
About Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary:
Pong Dam Lake (also known as Maharana Pratap Sagar) is a manmade reservoir formed due to the construction of Pong Dam on Beas River in the wetland zone of Shivalik hills in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.
It is one of the largest man-made wetlands in Northern India. It covers an area of almost 307 sq km.
It was designated a Ramsar site in 2002.
Flora: Consists of submerged vegetation, grasslands, and forests, including species like eucalyptus, acacia, and shisham.
Fauna:
Given the site’s location on the trans-Himalayan flyway, more than 220 bird species have been identified, with 54 species of waterfowl.
Avifauna include Bar-headed geese, Pintails, common pochards, coots, Grebes, Cormorants, Herons, Storks, , angle fowls, peafowl, Grey partridges, etc.
It is also home to animals like Sambar, Barking Deer, Wild Bear, Nilgai, Clawless Otter, and Leopards.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/migratory-birds-himachal-pradesh-pong-dam-lake-9813147/
Consider the following statements regarding Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC):
1.It is a satellite-based navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
- It provides service to users in India as well as the region extending about 5000 km beyond the Indian landmass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
ISRO recently faced a setback in its mission to position the NVS-02 satellite in the desired orbit due to thruster failure, but is working on alternative strategies to utilise the satellite in its current elliptical orbit for the NavIC navigation system.
About Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC):
NavIC is India’s independent regional navigation satellite system designed to provide accurate Position, Velocity, and Timing (PVT) service to users in India as well as the region extending about 1500 km beyond the Indian landmass, which is its primary service area.
It is a satellite-based navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
The first NavIC satellite was launched in July of 2013.
As of 2022, the NavIC system consists of eight satellites, three of them in geostationary orbits and five in inclined geosynchronous orbits, with plans to expand to 12 satellites. Currently, 7 satellites are active.
NavIC offers two services:
Standard Position Service (SPS) for civilian users.
Restricted Service (RS) for strategic users.
The system provides positioning accuracy of better than 10 metres (10.9 yards) throughout India and better than 20 m (21.9 yards) for the area surrounding India by 1,500 km (932 miles).
NavIC SPS signals are interoperable with the other global navigation satellite system (GNSS) signals namely GPS, Glonass, Galileo and BeiDou.
Applications:
Transportation (terrestrial, aerial and marine)
Location -based services
Personal mobility
Resource monitoring
Surveying and geodesy
Scientific research
Time dissemination and synchronisation
Safety-of-life alert dissemination
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/isros-navigation-satellite-mission-nvs-02-faces-setback-navic-orbit-adjustment-2673727-2025-02-03
Consider the following statements regarding Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS):
- It is an indirect area fire artillery weapon system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It was first used during the 1965 Indo-Pak War.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Defence Ministry recently signed contracts worth ₹10,147 crore for a variety of ammunition for the Army’s Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS).
About Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS):
It is a battle-proven, all-weather, indirect area fire Artillery Weapon System.
It was developed by DRDO’s Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE).
It was first used during the Kargil War, where it successfully neutralised Pakistan Army positions on the mountain tops.
Features:
The quick response and relatively high pointing accuracy of the launcher enable it to deliver a large volume of fire against critical and time-sensitive enemy targets, within a very short time.
Each launcher carries 12 rockets, and a battery consists of six launchers (72 rockets total).
It delivers a variety of warheads, including high-explosive and submunitions.
It has a range of 60 to 75 kilometers.
Initially unguided, but the Pinaka-Guided version uses INS/GPS navigation for precision strikes.
The system is mounted on a Tatra truck for mobility.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/defence-ministry-signs-contracts-worth-10147-crore-for-pinaka-ammunition/article69188072.ece
In which regions are the Kanjar tribe primarily found?
North India and Pakistan
Explanation :
A teenage member of Kanjar nomadic tribe was beaten to death by his fellow tribe members near Chainpur Bazaar in East Champaran district, Bihar, recently.
About Kanjar Tribe:
The Kanjar are a nomadic tribe or group of people of North India and Pakistan.
They are most concentrated in the fertile and more densely populated areas of the Indus River valley and the Punjab.
They were labeled a “criminal tribe” during colonial rule. The tribe was decriminalised after Independence.
Demography:
There are about 5,000 Kanjar in Pakistan and considerably more in north India.
Unfortunately, there is no accurate demographic or other census information on Kanjar in either nation.
Kanjar owns no land or permanent shelters. They survive by traveling from community to community through diverse regions, transporting their physical possessions on mule-drawn carts (rehra) or donkeys.
Occupation: They have historically been associated with occupations like hunting, fishing, basket weaving, and entertainment.
Linguistic Affiliation:
Kanjar are fluent in several languages and many regional dialects of Hindi, Urdu, Punjabi, and Sindhi.
Their own language, Kanjari, has affinities with Indo-Aryan Prakrits and Romani.
Chakri is one of the most popular folk dances of the Kanjar tribe.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/patna/teenager-from-nomadic-tribe-beaten-to-death/articleshow/117981945.cms
With reference to the International Criminal Court (ICC), consider the following statements:
- It is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
- It was established by the Rome Statute.
- India is a member of the ICC.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
U.S. President Donald Trump recently signed an executive order imposing sanctions on the International Criminal Court over investigations of Israel, a close U.S. ally.
About International Criminal Court (ICC):
It was established in 2002 to hold to account those guilty of some of the world’s worst crimes.
It is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
It was established by an international agreement, the Rome Statute, on 17 July 1998.
The Rome Statute sets out the Court’s jurisdiction, structures, and functions.
The Statute entered into force on 1 July 2002.
Mandate: ICC investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression.
As a court of last resort, it seeks to complement, not replace, national Courts.
Members: There are 125 member countries, but dozens of governments are not ICC parties, including China, India, Israel, Russia, and the United States.
Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from the States Parties and by voluntary contributions from Governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
Composition:
Judges: The court has eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to non-renewable nine-year terms.
The Presidency: Consists of three judges (the President and two Vice-Presidents) elected from among the judges. It represents the Court to the outside world and helps with the organization of the work of the judges.
Judicial Divisions: 18 judges in 3 divisions, the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division.
Office of the Prosecutor (OTP): OTP is responsible for receiving referrals and any substantiated information on crimes within the jurisdiction of the Court. OTP examines these referrals and information, conducts investigations, and conducts prosecutions before the Court.
Registry: The core function of the Registry is to provide administrative and operational support to the Chambers and the Office of the Prosecutor.
Jurisdiction of ICC:
Unlike the International Court of Justice (ICJ), which hears disputes between states, the ICC handles prosecutions of individuals.
The ICC is only competent to hear a case if:
the country where the offence was committed is a party to the Rome Statute; or
The perpetrator’s country of origin is a party to the Rome Statute.
The ICC may only exercise its jurisdiction if the national court is unable or unwilling to do so.
The ICC only has jurisdiction over offences committed after the Statute’s entry into force on 1 July 2002.
Relation with United Nations (UN):
Article 2 of the Rome Statute provides for the ICC’s relationship with the UN.
While not a United Nations organization, the Court has a cooperation agreement with the UN.
When a situation is not within the Court’s jurisdiction, the UN Security Council can refer the situation to the ICC, granting it jurisdiction.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/trump-impose-sanctions-on-international-criminal-court/article69189798.ece
Dibru Saikhowa National Park, recently in news, is located in:
Assam
Explanation :
Recently, the Environment Ministry’s Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) recommended the R&D proposal i.e the ERD (extended reach drilling) technology subject to the condition that it will be used purely for research purposes inside the Dibru Saikhowa National Park.
It is a National Park as well as a Biosphere Reserve situated in the south bank of the river Brahmaputra in the extreme east of Assam state in India.
It is bounded by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers in the north and Dibru River in the south.
Vegetation: It mainly consists of moist mixed semi-evergreen forests and moist mixed deciduous forests.
It is the largest salix swamp forest in north-eastern India, with a tropical monsoon climate with a hot and wet summer and cool and usually dry winter.
Flora: It consists of Dillenia indica, Bischofia javanica, Bombax ceiba, Lagerstroemia parviflora, etc.
Fauna : Tiger, Elephant, Leopard, Jungle Cat, Bears, Small Indian Civet, Squirrels, Gangetic Dolphin, Slow Loris, Assamese Macague etc.
It is an identified Important Bird Area (IBA) having more than 382 species of Birds, some of which are Greater Adjutant Stork, Lesser Adjutant Stork, Greater Crested Grebe.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/told-it-cant-drill-in-a-national-park-oil-india-limited-turns-it-into-a-research-project-9821916/
Consider the following statements regarding the Grameen Credit Score:
- It aims to formalize self help group (SHG) transactions within the central credit system of India.
- It will help in promoting financial inclusion for self help group (SHGs) women entrepreneurs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, finance minister of India announced Grameen credit score scheme in the union budget 2025.
It aims to formalize self help group (SHG) transactions within the central credit system of India. Thereby allowing leading financial institutions to better assess creditworthiness.
The objective behind this scheme is to promote financial inclusion for self help group (SHGs) women entrepreneurs.
It is basically to provide them the much needed support to grow in life by trying to build businesses.
This score, hence, represents a significant shift in analyzing the creditworthiness of millions of women involved in the SHGs across India’s rural areas.
The introduction of the Grameen credit score is expected to bring several positive changes:
Enhanced financial access: It will open up new financial opportunities for rural women. Thus, enabling them to expand their businesses and improve their livelihoods. It will also introduce them with concepts like credit cards, creditworthiness, loan EMIs, loan repayment etc.
Customized financial products: The initiative will be supplemented by customized credit cards for micro-enterprises, with limits of up to ₹5 lakh. This will propel grassroot level financial empowerment.
Improved credit assessment: By providing a digital framework for assessing creditworthiness, it will bridge existing gaps in the current credit bureau system, which often overlooks SHG members. It will also allow them to check their credit score, credit limits and ways to improve the same.
Economic stability: Now with increase in credit availability women led SHGs will be in a position to better contribute more effectively to their houses. This will propel the growth in the rural community at large.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/money/personal-finance/budget-2025-what-are-the-benefits-of-grameen-credit-score-for-self-help-groups-11738654962367.html
With reference to Rhododendron wattii Tree, consider the following:
- It is an evergreen plant, and leaf renewal occurs throughout the year.
- It is endemic to Western Ghats region of India.
- It is pollinated by the fire-tailed sunbird and bumble bees.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a study highlights endangered Rhododendron wattii in Nagaland.
It is a shrub or tree and grows primarily in the temperate biome.
It is a small tree attaining a maximum height of 25 feet.
It is endemic to Manipur and Nagaland especially found growing in its natural habitat at Dzukou Valley (Nagaland).
It was first collected by Sir George Watt from Nagaland’s Japfu Hill range during his 1882-85 survey.
Characteristics
It is an evergreen plant, and leaf renewal occurs throughout the year.
Its flowering occurs from the end of February to April, and fruiting is observed from April to December.
The flowers present in trusses of 18-25 flowers are pink with darker flecks and purplish basal blotches.
They are foraged and pollinated by the Fire-tailed Sunbird (Aethopyga ignicauda) and bumble bees.
Issues with Rhododendron wattii Tree:
A study found the natural regeneration of the plant species to be very low although it produces numerous seeds after the flowers are pollinated mainly by the fire-tailed sunbird and bumble bees.
Poor seedling survivability, anthropogenic activities, and wildfires were among the factors responsible for the disappearance of this species.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/red-flag-over-rhododendron-tree-in-nagaland-valley/article69187620.ece
Consider the following statements regarding GREAT scheme:
- It was launched with the aim to develop the startup ecosystem in technical textiles in India.
- It has evolved under the Research, Development, and Innovation Component of National Technical Textiles Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, central government has approved 04 Start-Ups with a grant under the ‘Grant for Research & Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT)’ scheme.
It was launched in August 2023 with the aim to develop the Startup Ecosystem in Technical Textiles in India.
It has evolved under the Research, Development, and Innovation Component of National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM).
It encourages young innovators, scientists/technologists, and startup ventures in the field of Technical Textiles to translate their ideas into commercial technologies/products and make India self-reliant.
It supports individual entrepreneurs or start-ups for functional prototypes or commercialization of their technologies for Technical Textile.
It supports innovations under application areas in all segments of Technical Textiles such as Agro-textiles, Building-textiles, Cloth-textiles, Geotextiles, Home-textiles, Industrial-textiles, Medical-textiles, Mobile-textiles, Oeko-textiles, Packaging- textiles, Protective-textiles, Sports-textiles, etc.
Funding: A grant-in-aid of up to Rs 50 lakh for up to a period of 18 months will be provided.
Key facts about the National Technical Textiles Mission
It was launched to increase the penetration level of technical textiles in India while leveraging the extraordinary growth rate of the sector.
The mission aims to position India as a global leader in Technical Textiles.
Components:
Research, Innovation and Development
Promotion and Market Development
Export Promotion
Education, Training, Skill Development
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Textiles
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2099651®=3&lang=1
Which of the following best describes Jevons Paradox?
It is the idea that technological progress makes a resource cheaper and leads to an increase in demand for that resource.
Explanation :
Recently, Microsoft CEO Satya Nadella discusses Jevons Paradox, noting that improved efficiency in AI may boost its demand and make it a commodity.
It is the idea that technological progress that makes a resource cheaper or more efficient to use often leads to an increase in demand for that resource.
This refers to a form of induced demand wherein efficiency improvements in the use of a resource causes increased consumption of the resource rather than a decrease in its use.
Origin of Jevons Paradox
It was proposed by the English economist, William Stanley Jevons, in his 1865 book The Coal Question .
Jevons observed that the efficient use of coal made possible by technology actually caused more coal to be extracted and consumed rather than allowing the preservation of existing reserves.
Technological progress, in other words, only allows people to satisfy demands that could not be satisfied earlier in the absence of an appropriate technology.
Examples of Jevons Paradox
Fuel Efficiency and Vehicle Usage: Vehicle fuel efficiency improvements can also increase consumption. When cars become more fuel-efficient, the cost of driving per mile decreases, making it more affordable for individuals to use their vehicles — often increasing vehicle miles travelled, offsetting any energy conservation benefits from improved fuel efficiency.
Energy Efficiency and Consumption: As energy-efficient technologies emerge, individuals and businesses are motivated to increase their consumption due to reduced costs. For instance, the advent of energy-efficient lighting, such as LED bulbs,
Digital Technology and Energy Consumption:The rise of digital technology and the internet has undoubtedly brought numerous benefits to society. Yet, the proliferation of intelligent devices and data centres has substantially increased energy consumption.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/world/as-ai-becomes-a-commodity-will-its-energy-demands-skyrocket-satya-nadella-highlights-jevons-paradox-11737981121710.html
Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?
Himachal Pradesh
Explanation :
The 2025 annual bird count at Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary recorded an unprecedented surge in waterfowl, with a total of 1,53,719 birds of 97 species, according to officials.
About Pong Dam Lake Wildlife Sanctuary:
Pong Dam Lake (also known as Maharana Pratap Sagar) is a manmade reservoir formed due to the construction of Pong Dam on Beas River in the wetland zone of Shivalik hills in Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.
It is one of the largest man-made wetlands in Northern India. It covers an area of almost 307 sq km.
It was designated a Ramsar site in 2002.
Flora: Consists of submerged vegetation, grasslands, and forests, including species like eucalyptus, acacia, and shisham.
Fauna:
Given the site’s location on the trans-Himalayan flyway, more than 220 bird species have been identified, with 54 species of waterfowl.
Avifauna include Bar-headed geese, Pintails, common pochards, coots, Grebes, Cormorants, Herons, Storks, , angle fowls, peafowl, Grey partridges, etc.
It is also home to animals like Sambar, Barking Deer, Wild Bear, Nilgai, Clawless Otter, and Leopards.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/migratory-birds-himachal-pradesh-pong-dam-lake-9813147/
Consider the following statements regarding Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC):
1.It is a satellite-based navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
- It provides service to users in India as well as the region extending about 5000 km beyond the Indian landmass.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
ISRO recently faced a setback in its mission to position the NVS-02 satellite in the desired orbit due to thruster failure, but is working on alternative strategies to utilise the satellite in its current elliptical orbit for the NavIC navigation system.
About Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC):
NavIC is India’s independent regional navigation satellite system designed to provide accurate Position, Velocity, and Timing (PVT) service to users in India as well as the region extending about 1500 km beyond the Indian landmass, which is its primary service area.
It is a satellite-based navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
The first NavIC satellite was launched in July of 2013.
As of 2022, the NavIC system consists of eight satellites, three of them in geostationary orbits and five in inclined geosynchronous orbits, with plans to expand to 12 satellites. Currently, 7 satellites are active.
NavIC offers two services:
Standard Position Service (SPS) for civilian users.
Restricted Service (RS) for strategic users.
The system provides positioning accuracy of better than 10 metres (10.9 yards) throughout India and better than 20 m (21.9 yards) for the area surrounding India by 1,500 km (932 miles).
NavIC SPS signals are interoperable with the other global navigation satellite system (GNSS) signals namely GPS, Glonass, Galileo and BeiDou.
Applications:
Transportation (terrestrial, aerial and marine)
Location -based services
Personal mobility
Resource monitoring
Surveying and geodesy
Scientific research
Time dissemination and synchronisation
Safety-of-life alert dissemination
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/isros-navigation-satellite-mission-nvs-02-faces-setback-navic-orbit-adjustment-2673727-2025-02-03
Consider the following statements regarding Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS):
- It is an indirect area fire artillery weapon system developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It was first used during the 1965 Indo-Pak War.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Defence Ministry recently signed contracts worth ₹10,147 crore for a variety of ammunition for the Army’s Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS).
About Pinaka Multiple Rocket Launch Systems (MRLS):
It is a battle-proven, all-weather, indirect area fire Artillery Weapon System.
It was developed by DRDO’s Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE).
It was first used during the Kargil War, where it successfully neutralised Pakistan Army positions on the mountain tops.
Features:
The quick response and relatively high pointing accuracy of the launcher enable it to deliver a large volume of fire against critical and time-sensitive enemy targets, within a very short time.
Each launcher carries 12 rockets, and a battery consists of six launchers (72 rockets total).
It delivers a variety of warheads, including high-explosive and submunitions.
It has a range of 60 to 75 kilometers.
Initially unguided, but the Pinaka-Guided version uses INS/GPS navigation for precision strikes.
The system is mounted on a Tatra truck for mobility.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/defence-ministry-signs-contracts-worth-10147-crore-for-pinaka-ammunition/article69188072.ece
In which regions are the Kanjar tribe primarily found?
North India and Pakistan
Explanation :
A teenage member of Kanjar nomadic tribe was beaten to death by his fellow tribe members near Chainpur Bazaar in East Champaran district, Bihar, recently.
About Kanjar Tribe:
The Kanjar are a nomadic tribe or group of people of North India and Pakistan.
They are most concentrated in the fertile and more densely populated areas of the Indus River valley and the Punjab.
They were labeled a “criminal tribe” during colonial rule. The tribe was decriminalised after Independence.
Demography:
There are about 5,000 Kanjar in Pakistan and considerably more in north India.
Unfortunately, there is no accurate demographic or other census information on Kanjar in either nation.
Kanjar owns no land or permanent shelters. They survive by traveling from community to community through diverse regions, transporting their physical possessions on mule-drawn carts (rehra) or donkeys.
Occupation: They have historically been associated with occupations like hunting, fishing, basket weaving, and entertainment.
Linguistic Affiliation:
Kanjar are fluent in several languages and many regional dialects of Hindi, Urdu, Punjabi, and Sindhi.
Their own language, Kanjari, has affinities with Indo-Aryan Prakrits and Romani.
Chakri is one of the most popular folk dances of the Kanjar tribe.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/patna/teenager-from-nomadic-tribe-beaten-to-death/articleshow/117981945.cms
With reference to the International Criminal Court (ICC), consider the following statements:
- It is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
- It was established by the Rome Statute.
- India is a member of the ICC.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
U.S. President Donald Trump recently signed an executive order imposing sanctions on the International Criminal Court over investigations of Israel, a close U.S. ally.
About International Criminal Court (ICC):
It was established in 2002 to hold to account those guilty of some of the world’s worst crimes.
It is the only permanent international criminal tribunal.
It was established by an international agreement, the Rome Statute, on 17 July 1998.
The Rome Statute sets out the Court’s jurisdiction, structures, and functions.
The Statute entered into force on 1 July 2002.
Mandate: ICC investigates and, where warranted, tries individuals charged with the gravest crimes of concern to the international community: genocide, war crimes, crimes against humanity and the crime of aggression.
As a court of last resort, it seeks to complement, not replace, national Courts.
Members: There are 125 member countries, but dozens of governments are not ICC parties, including China, India, Israel, Russia, and the United States.
Funding: The Court is funded by contributions from the States Parties and by voluntary contributions from Governments, international organizations, individuals, corporations, and other entities.
Composition:
Judges: The court has eighteen judges, each from a different member country, elected to non-renewable nine-year terms.
The Presidency: Consists of three judges (the President and two Vice-Presidents) elected from among the judges. It represents the Court to the outside world and helps with the organization of the work of the judges.
Judicial Divisions: 18 judges in 3 divisions, the Pre-Trial Division, the Trial Division, and the Appeals Division.
Office of the Prosecutor (OTP): OTP is responsible for receiving referrals and any substantiated information on crimes within the jurisdiction of the Court. OTP examines these referrals and information, conducts investigations, and conducts prosecutions before the Court.
Registry: The core function of the Registry is to provide administrative and operational support to the Chambers and the Office of the Prosecutor.
Jurisdiction of ICC:
Unlike the International Court of Justice (ICJ), which hears disputes between states, the ICC handles prosecutions of individuals.
The ICC is only competent to hear a case if:
the country where the offence was committed is a party to the Rome Statute; or
The perpetrator’s country of origin is a party to the Rome Statute.
The ICC may only exercise its jurisdiction if the national court is unable or unwilling to do so.
The ICC only has jurisdiction over offences committed after the Statute’s entry into force on 1 July 2002.
Relation with United Nations (UN):
Article 2 of the Rome Statute provides for the ICC’s relationship with the UN.
While not a United Nations organization, the Court has a cooperation agreement with the UN.
When a situation is not within the Court’s jurisdiction, the UN Security Council can refer the situation to the ICC, granting it jurisdiction.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/trump-impose-sanctions-on-international-criminal-court/article69189798.ece
Dibru Saikhowa National Park, recently in news, is located in:
Assam
Explanation :
Recently, the Environment Ministry’s Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) recommended the R&D proposal i.e the ERD (extended reach drilling) technology subject to the condition that it will be used purely for research purposes inside the Dibru Saikhowa National Park.
It is a National Park as well as a Biosphere Reserve situated in the south bank of the river Brahmaputra in the extreme east of Assam state in India.
It is bounded by the Brahmaputra and Lohit Rivers in the north and Dibru River in the south.
Vegetation: It mainly consists of moist mixed semi-evergreen forests and moist mixed deciduous forests.
It is the largest salix swamp forest in north-eastern India, with a tropical monsoon climate with a hot and wet summer and cool and usually dry winter.
Flora: It consists of Dillenia indica, Bischofia javanica, Bombax ceiba, Lagerstroemia parviflora, etc.
Fauna : Tiger, Elephant, Leopard, Jungle Cat, Bears, Small Indian Civet, Squirrels, Gangetic Dolphin, Slow Loris, Assamese Macague etc.
It is an identified Important Bird Area (IBA) having more than 382 species of Birds, some of which are Greater Adjutant Stork, Lesser Adjutant Stork, Greater Crested Grebe.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/told-it-cant-drill-in-a-national-park-oil-india-limited-turns-it-into-a-research-project-9821916/
Consider the following statements regarding the Grameen Credit Score:
- It aims to formalize self help group (SHG) transactions within the central credit system of India.
- It will help in promoting financial inclusion for self help group (SHGs) women entrepreneurs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, finance minister of India announced Grameen credit score scheme in the union budget 2025.
It aims to formalize self help group (SHG) transactions within the central credit system of India. Thereby allowing leading financial institutions to better assess creditworthiness.
The objective behind this scheme is to promote financial inclusion for self help group (SHGs) women entrepreneurs.
It is basically to provide them the much needed support to grow in life by trying to build businesses.
This score, hence, represents a significant shift in analyzing the creditworthiness of millions of women involved in the SHGs across India’s rural areas.
The introduction of the Grameen credit score is expected to bring several positive changes:
Enhanced financial access: It will open up new financial opportunities for rural women. Thus, enabling them to expand their businesses and improve their livelihoods. It will also introduce them with concepts like credit cards, creditworthiness, loan EMIs, loan repayment etc.
Customized financial products: The initiative will be supplemented by customized credit cards for micro-enterprises, with limits of up to ₹5 lakh. This will propel grassroot level financial empowerment.
Improved credit assessment: By providing a digital framework for assessing creditworthiness, it will bridge existing gaps in the current credit bureau system, which often overlooks SHG members. It will also allow them to check their credit score, credit limits and ways to improve the same.
Economic stability: Now with increase in credit availability women led SHGs will be in a position to better contribute more effectively to their houses. This will propel the growth in the rural community at large.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/money/personal-finance/budget-2025-what-are-the-benefits-of-grameen-credit-score-for-self-help-groups-11738654962367.html
With reference to Rhododendron wattii Tree, consider the following:
- It is an evergreen plant, and leaf renewal occurs throughout the year.
- It is endemic to Western Ghats region of India.
- It is pollinated by the fire-tailed sunbird and bumble bees.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a study highlights endangered Rhododendron wattii in Nagaland.
It is a shrub or tree and grows primarily in the temperate biome.
It is a small tree attaining a maximum height of 25 feet.
It is endemic to Manipur and Nagaland especially found growing in its natural habitat at Dzukou Valley (Nagaland).
It was first collected by Sir George Watt from Nagaland’s Japfu Hill range during his 1882-85 survey.
Characteristics
It is an evergreen plant, and leaf renewal occurs throughout the year.
Its flowering occurs from the end of February to April, and fruiting is observed from April to December.
The flowers present in trusses of 18-25 flowers are pink with darker flecks and purplish basal blotches.
They are foraged and pollinated by the Fire-tailed Sunbird (Aethopyga ignicauda) and bumble bees.
Issues with Rhododendron wattii Tree:
A study found the natural regeneration of the plant species to be very low although it produces numerous seeds after the flowers are pollinated mainly by the fire-tailed sunbird and bumble bees.
Poor seedling survivability, anthropogenic activities, and wildfires were among the factors responsible for the disappearance of this species.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/red-flag-over-rhododendron-tree-in-nagaland-valley/article69187620.ece
Consider the following statements regarding GREAT scheme:
- It was launched with the aim to develop the startup ecosystem in technical textiles in India.
- It has evolved under the Research, Development, and Innovation Component of National Technical Textiles Mission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, central government has approved 04 Start-Ups with a grant under the ‘Grant for Research & Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT)’ scheme.
It was launched in August 2023 with the aim to develop the Startup Ecosystem in Technical Textiles in India.
It has evolved under the Research, Development, and Innovation Component of National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM).
It encourages young innovators, scientists/technologists, and startup ventures in the field of Technical Textiles to translate their ideas into commercial technologies/products and make India self-reliant.
It supports individual entrepreneurs or start-ups for functional prototypes or commercialization of their technologies for Technical Textile.
It supports innovations under application areas in all segments of Technical Textiles such as Agro-textiles, Building-textiles, Cloth-textiles, Geotextiles, Home-textiles, Industrial-textiles, Medical-textiles, Mobile-textiles, Oeko-textiles, Packaging- textiles, Protective-textiles, Sports-textiles, etc.
Funding: A grant-in-aid of up to Rs 50 lakh for up to a period of 18 months will be provided.
Key facts about the National Technical Textiles Mission
It was launched to increase the penetration level of technical textiles in India while leveraging the extraordinary growth rate of the sector.
The mission aims to position India as a global leader in Technical Textiles.
Components:
Research, Innovation and Development
Promotion and Market Development
Export Promotion
Education, Training, Skill Development
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Textiles
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2099651®=3&lang=1
Which of the following best describes Jevons Paradox?
It is the idea that technological progress makes a resource cheaper and leads to an increase in demand for that resource.
Explanation :
Recently, Microsoft CEO Satya Nadella discusses Jevons Paradox, noting that improved efficiency in AI may boost its demand and make it a commodity.
It is the idea that technological progress that makes a resource cheaper or more efficient to use often leads to an increase in demand for that resource.
This refers to a form of induced demand wherein efficiency improvements in the use of a resource causes increased consumption of the resource rather than a decrease in its use.
Origin of Jevons Paradox
It was proposed by the English economist, William Stanley Jevons, in his 1865 book The Coal Question .
Jevons observed that the efficient use of coal made possible by technology actually caused more coal to be extracted and consumed rather than allowing the preservation of existing reserves.
Technological progress, in other words, only allows people to satisfy demands that could not be satisfied earlier in the absence of an appropriate technology.
Examples of Jevons Paradox
Fuel Efficiency and Vehicle Usage: Vehicle fuel efficiency improvements can also increase consumption. When cars become more fuel-efficient, the cost of driving per mile decreases, making it more affordable for individuals to use their vehicles — often increasing vehicle miles travelled, offsetting any energy conservation benefits from improved fuel efficiency.
Energy Efficiency and Consumption: As energy-efficient technologies emerge, individuals and businesses are motivated to increase their consumption due to reduced costs. For instance, the advent of energy-efficient lighting, such as LED bulbs,
Digital Technology and Energy Consumption:The rise of digital technology and the internet has undoubtedly brought numerous benefits to society. Yet, the proliferation of intelligent devices and data centres has substantially increased energy consumption.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/world/as-ai-becomes-a-commodity-will-its-energy-demands-skyrocket-satya-nadella-highlights-jevons-paradox-11737981121710.html
Daya River, recently seen in the news, flows through which Indian state?
Odisha
Explanation :
River protection activists recently announced to start an indefinite satyagraha in front of the residence of Chief Minister if the government did not take steps to control pollution of the Daya River.
About Daya River:
It is a river in the Indian state of Odisha.
It originates from the Kusabhadra River and flows through the Khurda and Puri districts before emptying into the Chilika Lake, the largest coastal lagoon in India.
Length: Approximately 37 km
Tributaries: Malaguni River
Supports wetland biodiversity, providing habitat for fish and migratory birds near Chilika Lake.
Historical Significance:
The Daya River is historically important because of its connection to the Kalinga War (261 BCE), fought between Emperor Ashoka and the Kalinga kingdom.
It is believed that after the battle, the river turned red with the blood of slain soldiers.
This sight deeply moved Ashoka, leading him to embrace Buddhism and adopt a path of non-violence.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/chandigarh/migratory-birds-himachal-pradesh-pong-dam-lake-9813147/
Which among the following best describes ‘Donkey Route’, recently seen in the news?
A secretive and illegal border crossings involving multiple countries.
Explanation :
Indian deportees from the US, arriving in Amritsar, recently shared their harrowing experiences using the “donkey route” for illegal immigration.
About Donkey Route:
The donkey route is the route taken by illegal migrants to stealthily cross many unknown countries with the help of agents and human traffickers before entering the country of their choice, like the US or the UK.
Named after a Punjabi idiom referring to an arduous, unplanned journey, it involves crossing multiple international borders, often through treacherous terrain, under false promises of legal entry.
Donkey routes typically involve illegal border crossings via indirect routes with multiple stops in different countries.
For instance, individuals might obtain a tourist visa for the European Union’s Schengen Area, allowing free movement across 26 countries, and then illegally enter the UK with the help of “consultants” or “agents.”
These agents often charge hefty fees for services ranging from fake documentation to smuggling via shipping containers.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/saw-one-die-another-drown-indians-deported-from-us-recall-donkey-route-ordeal/articleshow/117967681.cms
Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The state govt’s decision to open the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) in Khanapur for a wildlife safari has sparked controversy and is facing backlash from environmentalists.
About Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary:
It spans over the Western Ghats in Belgaum district of the south Indian state Karnataka.
It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in December 2011.
The sanctuary has been named after the Bhimgad Fort, constructed and commanded by Shivaji in the 17th century as a defence from Portuguese troops.
It shares its boundary with the north of Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary, north-west of the Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary and Mollem National Park, north of Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary and east of Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary.
BWS forms the headwaters of a number of rivers like Tillari, Malaprabha and Mhadei and several perennial streams.
The forest is also famed for its Barapede caves which serve as the only known breeding area of a threatened species on the verge of extinction called Wroughton’s free-tailed bat.
Flora: It mainly comprises a combination of tropical and subtropical moist broadleaf forests and grasslands.It also hosts a number of medicinal plants.
Fauna: It has a rich biodiversity and shelters animals like Elephants, King Cobras, Wild Dogs, Foxes, Chitals, Spotted Deer, Sambar, Sloth Bear, Gaur, Leopards and Tigers.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hubballi/greens-oppose-proposed-wildlife-safari-in-bhimgad-wildlife-sanctuary/articleshow/118031182.cms
M23, or the March 23 Movement, is an armed group, fighting in which one of the following countries?
Democratic Republic of Congo
Explanation :
Rwanda-backed M23 rebels recently captured the regional capital Goma in an anarchic and mineral-rich part of the Democratic Republic of Congo.
About M23 Rebels:
M23, or the March 23 Movement, is one of more than 100 armed groups fighting Congolese forces in the mineral-rich eastern Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC).
M23’s leadership is dominated by ethnic Tutsis, a minority group in eastern DRC.
It is present in North Kivu province in areas bordering Rwanda and Uganda and has more than 8,000 fighters, according to the UN.
It is named after the date in 2009 of the signing of an accord between the National Congress for the Defence of the People (CNDP), a Tutsi-led rebel group, and the Congolese government to end a revolt led by the Tutsi people in eastern DRC.
The agreement promised better political representation and integration of former rebels into the Congolese army.
It is alleged that Rwanda is backing the M23 rebels.
Why is M23 fighting Congolese forces?
M23 was created in 2012 after former CNDP troops rebelled against the Congolese government, accusing it of failing to implement the 2009 agreement by integrating Tutsi fighters into the army, protecting minorities, and distributing resources evenly.
It says its objective is to safeguard the interests of the Congolese Tutsi and other minorities, including protecting them against Hutu rebel groups who escaped to the DRC after taking part in the 1994 Rwandan genocide that targeted Tutsis.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/congo-hundreds-women-raped-burnt-alive-mass-jailbreak-goma-munzenze-prison-m23-rebel-rwanda-101738752016301.html
Where is the Cascade Range located??
North America
Explanation :
New research reveals that long-dormant volcanoes in the Cascades region of the Pacific Northwest still have substantial magma reservoirs beneath them.
About Cascade Range:
It is a prominent collection of mountains found in the Pacific Northwest area of the northwestern United States and southwestern Canada.
The range was formed by the subduction of the Juan de Fuca Plate beneath the North American Plate, which continues to drive volcanic activity.
It is known for its snow-capped peaks, massive glaciers, steep scree slopes, and lush forests.
The range is home to 4375 named mountains, the biggest and most visible of which is Mount Rainier 4,392 m.
It includes both non-volcanic mountains, including the rugged spires of the North Cascades, and the notable volcanoes known as the High Cascades.
The Cascades are part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, the ring of volcanoes and associated mountains around the Pacific Ocean.
All of the known historic eruptions in the contiguous United States have been from Cascade volcanoes.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/planet-earth/volcanos/scientists-find-giant-magma-reservoirs-hidden-beneath-dormant-volcanoes-in-the-cascades
Swavalambini programme, recently in news, is an initiative of:
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
Explanation :
Recently, the union Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship launched the Swavalambini programme.
It was launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), in collaboration with NITI Aayog in Assam, Meghalaya and Mizoram.
This initiative is aimed at empowering female students in select Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) in the northeast by equipping them with the essential entrepreneurial mind-set, resources, and mentorship they need to succeed in their entrepreneurial journey.
MSDE through Indian Institute of Entrepreneurship (IIE) in collation with NITI Aayog, a structured stage-wise entrepreneurial process—from awareness to development, mentorship, and funding support, has been introduced.
Those who successfully build their ventures will be recognized and awarded, ensuring that their success stories inspire others.
The initiative aims to provide structured training through the Entrepreneurship Awareness Programme (EAP) which introduces 600 female students to entrepreneurship as a viable career option.
For 300 selected students, the Women Entrepreneurship Development Programme (EDP) offers an intensive 40-hour training covering crucial business aspects such as training and skilling, access to finance, market linkages, compliance and legal support, business services, and networking opportunities.
This will be followed by six months of mentorship and handholding support to help participants translate their ideas into sustainable prospects.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2100760
Consider the following statements regarding the TROPEX Exercise:
- It is an operational level exercise which is conducted every year.
- It is being conducted in various phases - both in harbour and at sea, integrating various facets of combat operations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The 2025 edition of Indian Navy’s capstone Theatre Level Operational Exercise (TROPEX), is currently underway in the Indian Ocean Region.
It is an operational level exercise is conducted biennially with participation by all operational Indian Naval units along with substantial participation of Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Coast Guard assets.
TROPEX 25 is aimed at validating Indian Navy’s core warfighting skills, and ensuring a synchronised, integrated response to preserve and protect national maritime security interests in a contested maritime environment against conventional, asymmetric as well as hybrid threats.
The exercise is being conducted in various phases - both in Harbour and at Sea, integrating various facets of combat operations, cyber and electronic warfare operations, live weapon firings during Joint Work Up Phase and Amphibious Exercise (AMPHEX).
During the exercise, the combined fleets comprising approximately 65 Indian Naval Ships, 09 Submarines and over 80 Aircrafts of different types, are put through complex maritime operational scenarios.
It is witnessing participation of platforms like indigenous aircraft carrier Vikrant, state-of-the-art Visakhapatnam and Kolkata Class destroyers, Kalvari Class submarines and aircraft fleet comprising MiG 29K, P8I, HALE Sea Guardian and MH-60R helicopters.
Towards enhancing synergy and jointness amongst the Services, IA, IAF and Indian Coast Guard have also been integrated into the exercise, with participation of Sukhoi-30, Jaguar, C-130, Flight Refueller, AWACS aircraft.
TROPEX 25 Is a step forward in coordinated planning, precise targeting, combat effectiveness and credible joint operations in a dynamic environment, towards safeguarding India’s national maritime interests.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2100813#:~:text=
With reference to Shatavari Plant, consider the following:
- It is a woody climber which is known as the Queen of herbs.
- It is only found in the Asian countries.
- Charak mentions about this plant in his book Charak Samhita.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a bid to raise awareness about the health benefits of medicinal plants, a species-specific campaign titled “Shatavari –For Better Health” was launched by Minister of State (Independent Charge), Ministry of Ayush.
Asparagus racemosus (family Asparagaceae) also known by the name Shatavari is one of the well-known drugs in Ayurveda.
Shatavari means “acceptable to many”.
It belongs to family Liliaceae and commonly known as Satawar or Satamuli.
Appearance: It is a woody climber growing to 1-2 m in height. The leaves are like pine needles, small and uniform and the flowers are white and have small spikes.
Habitat and Distribution: Its habitat is common at low altitudes in shade and in tropical climates throughout Asia, Australia and Africa.
In Ayurveda, this amazing herb is known as the “Queen of herbs”, because it promotes love and devotion.
Charak Samhita written by Charak and Ashtang Hridyam written by Vagbhata, the two main texts on Ayurvedic medicines, list Asparagus racemosus (A. racemosus) as part of the formulas to treat women’s health disorder.
Uses of Shatavari Plant:
The dried roots of the plant are used as drug. The roots are said to be tonic and diuretic and galactgogue, the drug has ulcer healing effect probably via strenthening the mucosal resistance or cytoprotection.
This herb is highly effective in problems related with female reproductive system.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2100345
Consider the following statements regarding Marsupials:
- They are mainly found in South America and Australia.
- They give birth to relatively undeveloped young which reside in a pouch located on the mothers’ abdomen.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, a team of scientists has successfully produced the first kangaroo embryos using in vitro fertilisation (IVF) which could be a crucial step towards the conservation of endangered marsupial species.
Marsupials are the group of mammals commonly thought of as pouched mammals.
They give birth to relatively undeveloped young that often reside in a pouch located on their mothers’ abdomen for a certain amount of time.
A distinctive characteristic common to most of these species is that the young are carried in a pouch.
Examples: Marsupials include opossums, Tasmanian devils, kangaroos, koalas, wombats, wallabies, bandicoots, and the extinct thylacine.
They represent the clade originating from the last common ancestor of extant metatherians, the group containing all mammals more closely related to marsupials than to placentals. Not all marsupials have pouches.
Marsupials have an extra pubic bone, the epipubic bone, to support their pouch.
Distribution: There are over 330 species of marsupials. Around two-thirds of them live in Australia. The other third live mostly in South America.
What is In Vitro Fertilization?
It is a medical procedure used to assist individuals or couples who are facing fertility challenges in achieving pregnancy.
It is the most common and effective type of assisted reproductive technology (ART).
Process:
It is a complex process that involves retrieving eggs from ovaries and manually combining them with sperm in a lab for fertilization.
Several days after fertilization, the fertilized egg (now called an embryo) is placed inside a uterus.
Pregnancy occurs when this embryo implants itself into the uterine wall.
The procedure can be done using a couple’s own eggs and sperm. Or IVF may involve eggs, sperm or embryos from a known or anonymous donor.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/australian-scientists-create-28-kangaroo-embryos-using-ivf-in-conservation-breakthrough
Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Safai Karamcharis:
- It investigates the conditions of Safai Karamcharis in India and makes recommendations to the Government.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Cabinet approved a three-year extension of tenure for the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK).
It was first set up in 1994 under the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993.
It was functioning as a statutory body till 2004, when the law lapsed.
Since then, the commission is acting as a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment with its tenure being extended from time to time.
It was established as an institution to investigate the conditions of Safai Karamcharis (waste collectors) in India and make recommendations to the Government.
Functions of National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
The NCSK has been giving its recommendations to the Government regarding specific programmes for welfare of Safai Karamcharis, study and evaluate the existing welfare programmes for Safai Karamcharis, investigate cases of specific grievances etc.
The NCSK has been assigned the work to monitor the implementation of the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013.
It is the only body keeping track of sewer deaths in the entire country.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/cabinet-extends-tenure-of-safai-karamchari-commission-by-3-years/article69193695.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC):
- It is an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
- Assessment and accreditation by NAAC is done on a voluntary basis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) recently announced an immediate halt to physical inspections of colleges.
About National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC):
It was established in 1994 as an autonomous institution of the University Grants Commission (UGC).
Its primary objective is to ensure and enhance the quality of higher education through a rigorous accreditation process.
It conducts assessment and accreditation of Higher Educational Institutions (HEI) such as colleges, universities or other recognised institutions to derive an understanding of the ‘Quality Status’ of the institution.
NAAC evaluates institutions based on various parameters such as curricular aspects, teaching-learning processes, infrastructure, governance, and innovation.
The NAAC functions through its General Council (GC) and Executive Committee (EC), comprising educational administrators, policymakers, and senior academicians from a cross-section of the Indian higher education system.
The Chairperson of the UGC is the President of the GC of the NAAC; the Chairperson of the EC is an eminent academician nominated by the President of the GC (NAAC).
At present the assessment and accreditation by NAAC is done on a voluntary basis.
Headquarters: Bengaluru
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/naac-adopts-e-inspections-to-start-new-accreditation-models/articleshow/118079833.cms
Baneshwar Fair is related to which one of the following tribes?
Bhil
Explanation :
About 12 families of Bhils have alleged that the Vasantdada Sugar Institute (VSI) is trying to demolish their homes and displace them from the land where they have been residing for generations.
About Bhil Tribe:
Bhils are considered as one of the oldest tribes in India.
They are the most widely distributed tribal groups in India.
The name ‘Bhil’ is derived from the word villu or billu, which according to the Dravidian language is known as Bow.
They could be identified as one of the Dravidian racial tribes of Western India and belong to the Australoid group of tribes.
Distribution:
They are mainly divided into two main groups: the central and eastern or Rajput Bhils.
The central Bhils are found in the mountain regions in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Rajasthan.
Bhils are also found in the north eastern parts of Tripura.
Occupation: Nearly all of the Bhil engage in agriculture, some using the slash-and-burn (jhum) method but most employing the plow.
Language: They speak Bhili, which is an Indo Aryan language.
Beliefs:
Almost all Bhils practice ethnic religions that have been highly influenced by Hinduism.
Most of them worship local deities like Khandoba, Kanhoba, Bahiroba, and Sitalmata. Some worship the Tiger God called ‘vaghdev’.
Main festivals: The Baneshwar fair is the main festival celebrated among the Bhils. This fair is held during the period of Shivratri and is dedicated to Baneshwar Mahadev also known as Lord Shiva.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/bhil-tribal-families-homes-pune-sugar-institute-9823500/
Klub-S Missile System, recently seen in the news, is developed by which country?
Russia
Explanation :
India recently reached an agreement with Russia to acquire the Klub-S missile system, aimed at enhancing the operational capabilities of the Indian Navy’s submarine fleet.
About Klub-S Missile System:
Developed by Russian defense company NPO Novator, the Klub, also known as Kalibr, is a cruise missile inducted into Moscow’s defense forces in 1994.
The Klub-S missiles have a warhead payload of 400 kilograms and are capable of targeting surface ships, submarines, and ground targets up to 300 kilometers away.
This system includes a fire control system, a vertical launcher unit (VLU), and ammunition.
It is known for its excellent performance in dangerous combat zones.
It is designed for use in situations where the enemy is engaged in heavy firing and electronic warfare is at its peak.
It can accelerate to supersonic speeds in the terminal phase, making it difficult for enemy defenses to intercept.
It cruises at an altitude of 10-15 meters, reducing the reaction time for enemy defenses. It has a modular design, and it shares common parts with other variants in the Kalibr family.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.msn.com/en-in/news/other/india-russia-deal-for-klub-s-anti-ship-cruise-missile-a-game-changer-for-navy-s-submarine-warfare/ar-AA1ytiCf?ocid=BingNewsSerp&apiversion=v
With reference to Article 22 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
- It provides protection from arrest and detention only to Indian citizens.
- It applies to all arrests except those made under a court-issued warrant.
- It guarantees the right to consult a legal practitioner only if the person is arrested on preventive detention charges.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The requirement under Article 22(1) of the Constitution to inform an arrested person about the grounds of arrest is not a formality but a mandatory constitutional requirement, and failure to do so will render the arrest illegal, the Supreme Court ruled recently.
About Article 22 of the Indian Constitution:
Article 22 of the Indian Constitution provides protection from and against arrest and detention in certain cases.
These safeguards help in avoiding any miscarriage of justice by acting as a kind of check and balance on the powers of police officers making arrests and authorities empowered to detain a person.
These safeguards are available to all people, irrespective of whether they are citizens of India or not. However, it cannot be availed by an enemy alien.
These are applicable to all arrests, except those made under a warrant issued by the court.
The offence can either be criminal or quasi-criminal in nature or any activity prejudicial to the interests of the state.
However, these safeguards are not applicable to a person arrested or detained in a civil matter.
The seven clauses of the Article has been explained below
Article 22(1) provides that no person can be arrested or detained without providing the reasons for the same. The person is also entitled to consult or be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice.
Article 22(2) further provides that the person arrested or detained in custody must be produced before the nearest Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest or detention.
This time period does not include the time taken to travel from the place of arrest to the court of the Magistrate.
Further, it provides that no person can be detained in custody after the above-mentioned period has passed, without the permission of the Magistrate.
Article 22(3) is an exception to Article 22(1) and 22(2). It states that the said clauses are not applicable to:
An enemy alien; or
Any person who has been arrested or detained under any preventive detention law.
Article 22(4) provides that no person can be detained for more than three months under any law relating to preventive detention, unless it has been opined by the Advisory Board that such detention is justified.
As per Article 22(5), it is mandatory to disclose the grounds of arrest or detention to the arrestee or person detained in custody. The person must also be given an opportunity to make representation against the order of his detention.
Article 22(6) states that the detaining authority is empowered to not disclose facts that are against public interest, while disclosing the grounds of arrest or detention to the concerned person.
Under Article 22(7), lays down that the Parliament has been empowered to prescribe the
Circumstances or classes under which a person may be detained for more than three months, without obtaining any opinion of the Advisory Board.
Maximum period for which a person can be detained under preventive detention laws.
Procedure to be followed by an Advisory Board in an inquiry as per clause 4 of Article 22.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/india/supreme-court-failure-to-inform-grounds-of-arrest-will-make-it-illegal-9823667/
Consider the following statements regarding Cayman Islands:
- It is a United States dependency.
- It is located in the Pacific Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A magnitude-7.6 earthquake shook the Caribbean Sea southwest of the Cayman Islands recently, according to the U.S. Geological Survey.
About Cayman Islands:
It is a British overseas territory in the Caribbean Sea located south of Cuba and northwest of Jamaica.
The Cayman Islands are made up of three distinct islands - Grand Cayman, Cayman Brac and Little Cayman.
The Cayman Ridge is an enormous underwater mountain range that is responsible for the formation of the islands. The islands are themselves the peaks of this ridgeline.
The islands are famous for coral reefs, crystal-clear waters, and white sand beaches.
Grand Cayman is the largest and the most populous island.
In total, the islands cover a small area of just 264 sq. km.
Its capital is George Town, on Grand Cayman.
Official Language: English
Currency: Cayman Islands Dollar (KYD)
Ethnic groups: Afro-European 40%, African 20%, European 20%, other 20%.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://www.britannica.com/place/Cayman-Islands
https://history.state.gov/countries/cayman-islands
Consider the following statements regarding the Vishwamitri River:
- It originates on the Pavagadh hills in the state of Gujarat.
- It is primarily rain-fed river which culminates into the Gulf of Kambhat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Gujarat Ecological Education and Research (GEER) has begun analysing the data of the crocodile census conducted in a 25-km urban stretch of the Vishwamitri river passing through Vadodara city.
About Vishwamitri River:
It originates on the Pavagadh hills in Gujarat.
It is linked with two other tributaries Dhadhar and Jambuva and finally culminates in the Gulf of Kambhat.
It is primarily rain-fed, it flows through a 25-km stretch of Vadodara, along the way before meeting the sea in Bharuch district.
It is highly meandering sinuous river which has a unique ecosystem bearing a plethora of beautiful ravines right from its beginning till its end.
The Vadodara stretch of the Vishwamitri is unique in that it is home to a large population of mugger or marsh crocodiles (Crocodylus palustris).
Key Facts about Mugger Crocodiles
It is one of the 24 extant species of crocodilians found globally.
Habitat: It is native to freshwater and inhabits marshes, lakes, rivers and artificial ponds.
Distribution: In India it is found in 15 Indian states, with the largest populations in the middle Ganges (Bihar-Jharkhand) and Chambal (Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan) basins.
They are also found in Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Nepal and Bangladesh — as well as south-eastern Iran.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/crocodile-river-how-many-muggers-does-the-vishwamitri-river-of-vadodara-currently-have-we-will-soon-find-out
Dashavatar Theatre, recently in news, is performed in:
Maharashtra and Goa region
Explanation :
Recently, the Dashavatar theatre performances started in Maharashtra and North Goa region.
About Dashavatar Theatre:
It is a popular form of theatre with a history of 800 years.
It is a traditional folk theater performed in Maharashtra and Northern Goa region.
Theme: The stories presented in these shows are based on the 10 incarnations of Vishnu namely Matsya, Koorma, Varaha, Narsimha, Wamana, Parashurama, Ram, Krishna, Buddha and Kalki.
Every year, the Dashavatar season begins after the paddy harvest, towards the end of the Navratri fast in October, and continues until May the following year.
Musical instruments used: Paddle harmonium, Tabala and Zanj.
The show is mostly musical sometimes dialogues are used.
The origin of Marathi theatre can be traced to Dashavatara tradition.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/dashavatar-performances-in-maharashtra-the-men-who-play-women-under-the-stars/article69156314.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Potash:
- It can be used on all plants to boost plant health and nutrition as well as to increase crop yields.
- Its reserves in India are majorly found in Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Punjab Mining Minister said the government will explore potash mining in Fazilka and Sri Muktsar Sahib districts, where surveys previously detected large mineral reserves in three mining blocks.
Potash is the general name given to various inorganic compounds that contain potassium in a water-soluble form.
Ores: The principal ore is sylvinite, a mixture of sylvite (KCl) and halite (NaCl).
Uses:
Over 90% of potash is used as fertilizer and it is one of the three primary agricultural nutrients (Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium or N-P-K).
Potash can be used on all plants to boost plant health and nutrition as well as to increase crop yields.
While all potash fertilizers contain potassium there are a number of different forms in which it exists.
Among these forms is Sulphate of Potash (SOP), a premium potash fertilizer that is free of chloride (a compound considered harmful to plants) is used primarily on high-value crops, usually leafy plants, fruits and vegetables
On the other hand, Muriate of Potash or MOP contains some chloride, is commonly used on carbohydrate-type crops, such as wheat.
Potash reserves in India: Rajasthan (alone contributes 89% to the total resources), Punjab Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh.
Potash reserves across world: It mainly located in Canada (31%), Belarus (21%), Russia (11%), China (10%), USA (6%), Germany (4%) and Chile (3%).
Hence both statements correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/potash-reserves-punjab-fertilisers-mining-9823651/
With reference to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, consider the following:
- It was established under the Article 338A of the Constitution of India.
- It advises in the planning process relating to socio-economic development of Scheduled Tribes.
- The Chairperson and Vice-Chairperson of this commission are given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes has asked the governments of Telangana, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha to conduct surveys to determine the exact number of tribal people who were displaced from Chhattisgarh due to Maoist violence.
About National Commission for Scheduled Tribes:
It was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.
By this amendment, the erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was replaced by two separate Commissions namely-the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC), and the NCST w.e.f. 19 February, 2004.
Composition
The term of office of Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and each member is three years from the date of assumption of charge.
The Chairperson has been given the rank of Union Cabinet Minister, and the Vice-Chairperson that of a Minister of State and other Members have the ranks of a Secretary to the Government of India.
Functions
To monitor safeguards provided for STs under the Constitution or under other laws;
To inquire into specific complaints relating to Rights & Safeguards of STs;
To advise in the Planning Process relating to Socio-economic development of STs;
To submit report to the President annually and other times on welfare Measures required related to Socio-economic development of STs;
To discharge such other functions in relation to STs as the President may by rule specify;
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/st-panel-asks-adjoining-states-to-collect-data-on-tribals-displaced-from-chhattisgarh-due-to-maoist-violence-101738936249993.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Restructured National Bamboo Mission:
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme which provides assistance to only government sector for the propagation and cultivation of bamboo.
- Under this mission Bamboo Technology Support Groups (BTSGs) and National Level Agencies gets 100% funding from the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of State for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare informed the Lok Sabha about the restructured National Bamboo Mission.
It has been launched as a centrally sponsored Scheme in 2018-19.
It provides assistance to both the Government & private sectors for the propagation and cultivation of bamboo in non-forest land, bamboo treatment, establishment of markets, incubation centers, value added product development & processing and development of tools & equipments.
Funding Pattern: The funding pattern is 60:40 between Centre and State Government for all States except NE & Hilly States, where it is 90:10 and 100% in case of Union Territories/Bamboo Technology Support Groups (BTSGs) and National Level Agencies.
Major objectives
To increase the availability of quality planting materials, area expansion of bamboo cultivation.
To improve post-harvest management, primary treatment and seasoning, preservation technologies, market infrastructure, product development, promote skill development and re-align efforts to reduce dependency on import of bamboo and bamboo products.
Implementation: It is being implemented through the state nodal department which is nominated by the State/UT governments concerned.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2099765#:~:text
Consider the following statements:
- It is located in Odisha.
- It is the meeting point of two biogeographic regions of India; the Deccan Peninsula and the Eastern Ghats.
- The river Mahanadi flows through the valleys in the middle of the reserve.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following protected areas?
Satkosia Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
Odisha’s first captive breeding of sambar will be undertaken at the Satkosia division of Satkosia Tiger Reserve.
About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the heartland of Odisha and spread over four districts, viz. Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh.
It comprises two adjoining sanctuaries, namely Baisipalli Sanctuary and Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary.
The reserve has an area of 963.87sq km with 523.61sq km as core area.
The area is also a part of the Mahanadi elephant reserve.
Satkosia is the meeting point of two biogeographic regions of India; the Deccan Peninsula and the Eastern Ghats.
Landscape: The terrain is hilly, with moderate to steep slopes and narrow valleys.
The river Mahanadi flows through the valleys in the middle of the reserve.
The average elevation of the terrain varies between 37 m and 932 m, with the lowest point being at Katrang and the highest point being at Sunakhania.
Vegetation: The forest vegetation comprises North Indian tropical moist deciduous forests and Moist peninsular low-level sal.
Flora:
The main tree species being sal, which grows in gregarious formations.
Other associate species are Asan (Terminalia alata), Dhaura (Anogeissus latifolia), Bamboo (Dendrocalamus strictus), and Simal (Bombax ceiba).
Fauna:
The reserve has a low population of tiger, leopard, elephant, spotted deer, sambar, chowsingha, barking deer, bison, wild dog, sloth bear, jackal, giant squirrel, and porcupine.
It is the natural habitat of two endangered species, viz., the fresh water crocodile and the gharial.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/odisha-to-launch-1st-captive-breeding-of-sambar-to-augment-prey-base/articleshow/118095503.cms
What is the type of liability that the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA), 2010 imposes on nuclear plant operators?
No-fault liability
Explanation :
Union government’s recent announcement that it would amend the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA), 2010, and the Atomic Energy Act, 1962, is likely to enthuse American and French nuclear power companies, whose projects have been deadlocked due to legal concerns for more than 15 years.
About Civil Liability for Nuclear Damages Act (CLNDA), 2010:
The CLNDA was adopted by Parliament in 2010.
It is the legal foundation that influences India’s response to nuclear incidents.
It is based on the international principles of civil nuclear liability laid down in the Vienna Convention, Paris Convention, and Brussels Supplementary Convention.
It created a mechanism for compensating victims from damage caused by a nuclear accident, allocating liability and specifying procedures for compensation.
Features:
The CLNDA provides for strict and no-fault liability on the operator of the nuclear plant, where it will be held liable for damage regardless of any fault on its part.
This Act establishes the operator’s liability for nuclear catastrophes up to 1,500 crore, which requires insurance or financial security.
In case the damage claims exceed ₹1,500 crore, the CLNDA expects the government to step in.
The Act has limited the government liability amount to the rupee equivalent of 300 million Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) or about ₹2,100 to ₹2,300 crore.
In addition to establishing a timeline for compensation claims, the act authorises the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board to report incidents within 15 days.
In addition, the act establishes a Nuclear Damage Claims Commission to facilitate equitable compensation and conflict resolution.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/119328/OPS/G3SDVILEP.1+G2DDVKJIA.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Neutrinos:
- They are nearly massless, electrically neutral subatomic particles that interact extremely weakly with matter.
- They are the most common particles in the universe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Chinese scientists recently placed special detectors deep in the South China Sea to explore the possibility of building a huge underwater observatory to find neutrinos.
About Neutrinos:
Neutrinos are nearly massless, electrically neutral subatomic particles that interact extremely weakly with matter.
Their tendency not to interact very often with other particles makes detecting neutrinos very difficult.
First predicted in 1930, they weren’t discovered in experiments until 1956, and scientists thought they were massless until even later.
They belong to the family of particles called leptons, which are not subject to the strong force.
Rather, neutrinos are subject to the weak force that underlies certain processes of radioactive decay.
Source: Neutrinos come from all kinds of different sources and are often the product of heavy particles turning into lighter ones, a process called “decay.”
They are the most common particles in the universe.
Approximately 100 trillion neutrinos pass completely harmlessly through your body every second.
Neutrinos play crucial roles in the standard model of particle physics, in stellar physics and black holes, and even in cosmology and the nature of the Big Bang.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/china-installs-deep-sea-detector-mysterious-ghost-particles-9823911/
With reference to Graphene, consider the following statements:
- It is an allotrope of carbon arranged in a three-dimensional structure.
- It is many times stronger than steel.
- It is an excellent electrical and thermal conductor.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a strange new state of matter in the dynamics of currents flowing through layers of graphene.
About Graphene:
It is an allotrope of carbon, along with diamond and graphite.
It is a two-dimensional material consisting of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a honeycomb structure.
The stacked form of graphene is graphite.
Graphene was first isolated in 2004. Since then, graphene has found hundreds of innovative applications, from sensors and electronics to energy storage and healthcare.
Properties:
Thickness: Graphene is the world’s thinnest material – it is only one atom thick, one million times thinner than a human hair.
Strength: It is 200 times stronger than steel but six times lighter.
Flexibility: It is extremely flexible and stretchable.
Conductivity: It is an excellent electrical and thermal conductor.
Transparency: It is almost perfectly transparent since it only absorbs 2% of light.
It is impermeable to gases, even those as light as hydrogen or helium.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.sciencealert.com/scientists-discover-new-class-of-quantum-states-in-graphene
Consider the following statements regarding Jagannath Temple, Puri:
- It is an example of Kalinga architecture.
- Ratha Yatra is a festival associated with Jagannath temple.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Three Indian cricket team players visited the Shree Jagannath Temple in Puri recently, a day before the second ODI against England.
About Jagannath Temple:
It is a Hindu temple located in Puri, Odisha.
It is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu.
It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century.
However, the completion of the temple happened in 1230 AD under Anangbheema Deva III, who also installed the deities in the shrine.
Architecture:
It is a striking example of Kalinga architecture, a distinct style prevalent in the Odisha region.
The temple complex includes shrines, gardens, and sacred tanks, creating a serene atmosphere for devotion.
The main temple is located at the center of the inner courtyard on a raised platform.
The main temple is constructed in such a way that no shadow of the temple falls on the ground at any time of the day.
The temple’s main structure, the sanctum sanctorum, or the garbhagriha, houses the idols of Lord Jagannath, Balabhadra, and Subhadra.
At the pinnacle of the temple, there is a 20-foot-high chakra (wheel) that is positioned in a way to be visible from any part of the city.
Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath temple.
It is also one of the four sacred pilgrimage sites, known as the Chaar Dhaams, that hold great significance for Hindus.
It is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/sports/cricket/england-tour-of-india-2025/indian-cricketers-seek-divine-blessings-at-jagannath-temple-before-2nd-odi-against-england-watch/articleshow/118061915.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Kashmir Hand-knotted Carpet:
- It is locally known as “Kal baffi” and attained the high degree of perfection after 15th century.
- It has received the Geographical Indications tag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Geographical Indications Registry Chennai has granted a new logo for the Kashmir hand-knotted carpet in order to preserve the exclusivity of the famed Kashmir carpets.
The origin of hand knotted carpets locally known as “Kal baffi” dates back to 15th century after which it progressively attained the high degree of perfection.
It is said that Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin brought carpet weavers from Persia and central Asia in to Kashmir to train the local inhabitants.
The loom used in Kashmir carpet weaving is composed of two horizontal wooden beams between which the wrap threads are stretched, one beam in front of the weaver and the second behind the first.
The difference between a carpet and other hand woven rugs lies in the fact that short lengths of the thread or yarn are tied to wrap chains to form the pile of the carpet. These are commonly called knots though it is a loop rather than an actual knot.
There are different types of knots and in Kashmir the Farsi baff and the Persian system known as Sehna, or Sinneh, knot is originally used.
Very simple tools are used to thread these knots, a wood or Metal comb to push knots and weft tightly together and pair of short scissors to cut the pile of the carpet to an even form once it is finished.
Other GI tagged Kashmir crafts
Apart from hand-knotted carpet, six other crafts have already been GI registered which include Papier Mache, Kashmir Pashmina, Kani, Sozni, Khatamband and Walnut Wood Carving.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Feb/07/gi-registry-grants-new-logo-to-preserve-kashmirs-famed-hand-knotted-carpets
Cook Islands recently in news, is located in:
South Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
Recently, the New Zealand’s Foreign Minister voiced “significant concern” as close Pacific partner the Cook Islands prepared to sign a cooperation deal with China.
About Cook Islands:
Location: It is located in the South Pacific Ocean, between Tonga to the west and French Polynesia to the east.
It is a small, self-governing Pacific nation that has a “free association” pact with New Zealand.
It consists of 15 islands divided into a northern group of six islands and a southern group of nine islands.
Northern Islands: These are mostly low-lying and sparsely populated coral atolls; and include the islands of Manihiki, Nassau, Penrhyn, Pukapuka, Rakahanga, and Suwarrow and are covered in light vegetation and equipped with stunning white sand beaches.
Southern islands: These generally consists of much larger higher islands that are volcanic in origin and more densely populated. The southern island group includes Rarotonga, Aitutaki, Atiu, Mangaia, Manuae, Mauke, Mitiaro, Palmerston, and Takutea.
The highest point is Te Manga which rises to 652m on the Rarotonga island.
Population: Most of the population is found on the island of Rarotonga.
Capital city: Avarua, which is on Rarotonga island.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/new-zealand-voices-concern-as-cook-islands-seeks-china-deal/article69200267.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Algorithmic Trading:
- It is a method of executing trading orders by providing a predefined set of rules to a computer program.
- It is completely banned in the Indian stock market by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has mandated stock exchanges to empanel algorithmic trading providers and has also defined rules for using application programming interfaces (APIs).
It is a method of executing trading orders by providing a predefined set of rules to a computer program.
This helps in placing share orders at a speed and frequency not possible for human traders.
Algo trading is already prevalent in India among both institutional as well as retail investors.
New Algo Trading Framework by SEBI
It is aimed at spelling out the rights and responsibilities of the main stakeholders of the trading ecosystem such as investors, brokers, algo providers/vendors and Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) so that the retail investors can avail algo facilities with requisite safeguards.
Under the framework, retail investors will get access to the approved algos only from the registered brokers.
The facility of algo trading would be provided by the stock broker only after obtaining requisite permission from the stock exchange for each algo.
All algo orders shall be tagged with a unique identifier provided by the exchange in order to establish audit trail and the broker shall seek approval from the exchange for any modification or change to the approved algos,”
Brokers will be solely responsible for handling investor grievances related to algo trading and the monitoring of APIs for prohibited activities.
Algos will be categorised into two categories
White box algos: Where logic is disclosed and replicable i.e. execution algos
Black box algos: Where the logic is not known to the user and is not replicable.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/sebi-allows-safer-participation-of-retail-investors-in-algo-trading/articleshow/117918452.cms?from=mdr
With reference to Salamander, consider the following:
- It is an amphibian which looks like a cross between a lizard and a frog.
- It is a cold-blooded species which is capable of regenerating lost limbs.
- It is only found in the North America and Europe region.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers discovered that wandering salamanders can rapidly fill, trap, and drain the blood in their toe tips to optimise attachment, detachment and general locomotion through their arboreal environment.
About Salamander:
It is an amphibian with a slender body and a long tail.
Features of Salamander:
Size: Their size varies with different species, ranging from 2.5 cm to 20 cm. The largest salamander in the world is the Chinese Giant Salamander, which can grow up to a length of 5 feet.
Most salamanders look like a cross between a lizard and a frog. They have moist, smooth skin, like frogs, and long tails, like lizards.
Habitat: They live in or near water or find shelter on moist ground and are typically found in brooks, creeks, ponds, and other moist locations, such as under rocks.
Distribution: They are mainly found in North America, Europe, Asia, the northern parts of South America, and North Africa.
Regeneration: They are capable of regenerating lost limbs within a few weeks, including tails and toes, allowing them to survive attacks from predators.
They are nocturnal and cold-blooded species and their temperature changes with their habitat.
Some salamander species can be poisonous, and some even have teeth.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/how-are-salamanders-able-to-take-off-and-stick-their-landing-with-ease/article69192569.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Bombay Blood Group:
- It is a rare blood group first discovered in Mumbai.
- People with this type blood group lack the H antigen which makes them incompatible with all standard blood types.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, in a rare and complex medical procedure, a 30-year-old woman with the extremely rare ‘Bombay’ (hh) blood group underwent a successful kidney transplant in India.
The Bombay, a.k.a. HH, blood group is a rare blood group first discovered in Mumbai in 1952 by Y.M. Bhende.
The key differences between the Bombay blood group and the common ABO blood groups lie in the presence (or absence) of the H antigen, which is the fundamental building block for the ABO blood group system.
Why it is Rare?
In normal individuals, the H antigen serves as the base structure for building A and B antigens. In Bombay blood group individuals, the gene responsible for producing the H antigen is mutated or absent, so neither A nor B antigens can be formed.
Unlike common blood groups, people with this type lack the H antigen, making them incompatible with all standard blood types, including O-negative, complicating both transfusions and organ transplants.
They can only receive blood from another Bombay blood group donor. Its prevalence is about 0.0004% (one in 4 million) of the total human population.
While it drops to one in a million in the European population and one in 10,000 in Mumbai, the act of finding a donor is still daunting.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/miot-chennai-cross-blood-kidney-transplant-patient-bombay-blood-group/article69195971.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the R-37M Missile, recently seen in the news:
- It is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM).
- It was developed by Russia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Russia has reportedly offered the R-37M missile, one of the world’s best air-to-air missiles, to India.
About R-37M Missile:
The R-37M missile, known by its NATO reporting name AA-13 Axehead, is a long-range air-to-air missile developed by Russia.
It is designed to eliminate enemy fighter jets and drones beyond visual range (BVR).
It evolved from the earlier R-33 missile and is designed to engage high-value targets such as AWACS, tanker aircraft, and other support platforms, thereby keeping the launching aircraft out of the range of enemy fighters.
Features:
It has a weight of approximately 510 kilograms and a length of over 4 meters, with a warhead weighing 60 kilograms.
The guidance system of the R-37M is a combination of inertial navigation with mid-course updates, an active radar homing head, and semi-active radar guidance for the terminal phase.
It features a jettisonable rocket booster that allows it to achieve a range of 300 to 400 kilometers, making it one of the longest-reaching air-to-air missiles in service globally.
Its speed can reach hypersonic levels, up to Mach 6, which is crucial for intercepting fast-moving targets.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.india.com/news/world/russia-r-37m-missile-india-indian-air-force-defense-sector-pakistan-bangladesh-china-pakistani-f-16-fighter-vladimir-putin-narendra-modi-shehbaz-sharif-loc-speed-weight-range-7604360/
Which among the following best describes ‘Quipu’, recently seen in the news?
A superstructure containing multiple galactic superclusters.
Explanation :
Astronomers recently identified what could be the largest structure ever found in the known universe, named Quipu.
About Quipu:
It is a recently discovered superstructure in which galaxies group together in clusters and clusters of clusters (superclusters).
It contains nearly 70 galactic superclusters.
It is the largest known structure in the universe in terms of length.
Quipu stretches an astonishing 1.3 billion light-years across and contains an estimated 200 quadrillion solar masses.
It is over 13,000 times the length of the Milky Way.
It is also hundreds of thousands of times more massive than a single galaxy.
Inspired by the Incan counting system of knotted cords, the structure mirrors its namesake with a long central filament and multiple branching filaments.
Despite its vast size, Quipu will not last forever. Scientists believe it will eventually break into smaller, collapsing units.
They describe it as a “transient configuration” that will change over time.
Studying Quipu may help refine cosmological models. It could offer new insights into galaxy evolution and large-scale cosmic dynamics.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news18.com/viral/astronomers-discover-quipu-the-largest-structure-in-the-universe-aa-9222329.html
Which among the following best describes ‘Yashas’, recently seen in the news?
A jet training aircraft.
Explanation :
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) recently renamed its flagship HJT-36 jet training aircraft as ‘Yashas’, following significant upgrades.
About Yashas:
It is the flagship jet training aircraft of the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
The aircraft, previously known as Hindustan Jet Trainer (HJT)-36, has undergone extensive modifications aimed at improving its departure characteristics and spin resistance across the aircraft envelope, leading to its rechristening as ‘Yashas.’
It is fully equipped for Stage II pilot training, which includes a variety of specialized operations such as counter-insurgency, counter-surface force operations, and armament training.
Features:
It has been upgraded with state-of-the-art avionics and a modern cockpit, enhancing both the training effectiveness and operational efficiency of the aircraft.
The modifications also include a reduction in weight and the replacement of imported equipment with Indian-made Line Replaceable Units (LRUs), ensuring a more self-reliant and sustainable system.
Its capabilities extend to aerobatics and armament carriage, supporting up to 1,000 kg of payload.
It is powered by a Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)-controlled AL55I Jet engine, providing best-in-class thrust-to-weight ratio, optimised thrust management, and reliability.
Additionally, the aircraft boasts a stepped-up rear cockpit with a drooped nose, providing improved all-around vision and enhanced situational awareness.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/logistics/hal-renames-hjt-36-jet-trainer-as-yashas-following-significant-upgrades/article69202905.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD):
- It is an infectious viral disease of cattle.
- There is no treatment for LSD, and prevention by vaccination is the most effective means of control.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Hyderabad-based Bharat Biotech group company, Biovet, recently announced that its Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD) vaccine for dairy cattle and buffaloes, Biolumpivaxin, has received a license from the Central Drug Standards Control Organization (CDSCO).
About Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD):
It is an infectious viral disease of cattle and water buffalo.
Causative Agent: It is caused by the lumpy skin disease virus (LSDV), which belongs to the genus capripoxvirus, a part of the poxviridae family (smallpox and monkeypox viruses are also a part of the same family).
LSDV is not zoonotic, so humans cannot get infected by the virus.
Originally found in Africa, it has also spread to countries in the Middle East, Asia, and eastern Europe.
LSD is a highly host-specific disease. It primarily affects cows and to a lesser extent, buffalo.
Morbidity rate is higher in cattle than buffalo.
The disease is of economic importance as it can cause a temporary reduction in milk production, temporary or permanent sterility in bulls, damage to hides and, occasionally, death.
Transmission:
It is transmitted by blood-feeding insects, such as certain species of flies, mosquitoes, or ticks.
Infected animals shed the virus through oral and nasal secretions, which may contaminate common feeding and water troughs.
Thus, the disease can either spread through direct contact with the vectors or through contaminated fodder and water.
Symptoms:
The disease is characterized by high fever and enlarged superficial lymph nodes on the skin and peculiar multiple nodules or lumps on the skin.
It can also lead to death, especially in animals that have not previously been exposed to the virus or have low immunity.
Treatment:
There is no treatment for the virus, so prevention by vaccination is the most effective means of control.
The infected animals receive supportive care, which involves the use of antibiotics, painkillers, and wound care sprays to treat symptoms.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/lumpy-skin-disease-vaccine-developed-by-bharat-biotechs-biovet-gets-cdsco-licence-3398793
Consider the following statements regarding Euthanasia:
- Active Euthanasiais the deliberate act of causing someone’s death by withholding or withdrawing artificial life support.
- In India, active euthanasia is illegal and a crime.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently agreed to hear a plea in seeking passive euthanasia for rabies patients.
About Passive Euthanasia:
Euthanasia is defined as the hastening of death of a patient to prevent further suffering.
The term “euthanasia” comes from the Greek phrase “euthanatos”, in which “eu” means “good” and “thanatos” translates into “death.” Literally speaking, the maxim translates to “easy death”.
The practice of euthanasia can be classified into the following two categories:
Active Euthanasia:
Active euthanasia is a method that involves taking active steps to end a life.
This involves taking positive steps to end a patient’s life, such as by administering them a dose of medication through their intravenous line that will kill them.
Active euthanasia is also sometimes referred to by the term “aggressive euthanasia”.
Passive Euthanasia:
Passive Euthanasia is defined as the deliberate act of causing someone’s death by withholding or withdrawing artificial life support, such as a ventilator, from a patient who is terminally ill.
In a case like this, something that is essential to save a patient’s life is not done.
Legality in India:
In a landmark ruling in the Common Cause vs. Union of India case (2018), a five-judge Constitution bench of the Supreme Court recognised the right to die as part of the right to life, legalising passive euthanasia and permitting the creation of a “living will”for terminally ill patients or those in a persistent vegetative state with no hope of recovery, ensuring a dignified exit by refusing medical treatment or life support.
However, in India, active euthanasia is illegal and a crime.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/supreme-court-agrees-to-hear-plea-on-passive-euthanasia-for-rabies-patients-101739183329717.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM- AJAY) Scheme:
- It is aimed at reducing poverty among the Scheduled Castes communities through various initiatives.
- It is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment chaired a meeting of the central advisory committee for PM-AJAY scheme.
The Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM- AJAY) is a 100% Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
It is aimed at reducing poverty among the SC communities through various initiatives like the generation of additional employment and improving socio-economic indicators in SC dominated villages.
It is a merged scheme of three Centrally Sponsored Schemes, namely Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY), Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCA to SCSP), and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY).
Objectives
To increase the income of the target population by way of various income generating schemes, skill development and infrastructure development.
To reduce the poverty among the target population and bring them above the poverty lines.
Eligibility Criteria
The Scheduled Castes persons living below the poverty lines are eligible for getting benefits under this scheme.
In case of Infrastructure Development, the villages having 50% or more SC population are eligible for grants under the Scheme.
It is being implemented since 2021-22 as three components, which are as under:-
Development of SC dominated villages into an ‘Adarsh Gram’ component
Grants-in-aid for District/State-level Projects for socio-economic betterment of SCs’ component
Construction of Hostels in Higher Educational Institutions’ component
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/centre-reviews-progress-of-pm-ajay-scheme-emphasises-inclusive-growth-for-sc-communities/articleshow/118070034.cms?from=mdr
Exercise Cyclone 2025, recently in news, is conducted between India and:
Egypt
Explanation :
India and Egypt will hold Exercise Cyclone 2025 from February 10 to 23 in Rajasthan.
About Exercise Cyclone 2025:
It is a joint military exercise held between India and Egypt army.
This is the third edition of Cyclone exercise.
The first edition of the exercise was conducted in 2023 (In India) and second edition (In Egypt) was in 2024.
Goal: The goal is to improve coordination between the two armies. Training will include real-world scenarios and tactical drills.
Motto of Exercise Cyclone 2025: “Together we train, together we excel”
The exercise will involve the special forces of both countries. The Indian Army and the Egyptian Army would train together in desert conditions. The focus will be on counter-terrorism, high-intensity combat, and survival techniques.
Military cooperation between India and Egypt has strengthened in recent years. Both countries have emphasised the need to strengthen security efforts. The exercise will allow both forces to operate together in simulated combat situations.
Significance of Exercise Cyclone: The exercise is expected to enhance defence cooperation and improve readiness for security challenges.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/india-egypt-special-forces-to-conduct-joint-military-drill-cyclone-2025-in-rajasthan-2677036-2025-02-09
Consider the following statements regarding Autonomous District Councils:
- They have tenure of five years from the date of their constitution.
- They cannot make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The elections to the Khasi Hills Autonomous District Council and the Jaintia Hills Autonomous District Council are scheduled for February 21.
About Autonomous District Council:
The Sixth Schedule of the Indian constitution provides a list of ten tribal areas in Assam (3), Meghalaya (3), Tripura (1) and Mizoram (3).
Each of these tribal areas constitutes an autonomous district. Each autonomous district has an Autonomous District Council (ADC).
Membership of Autonomous District Council:
They have up to 30 members with a term of five years.
Out of 30, four are nominated by the governor and the remaining 26 are elected on the basis of adult franchise.
Tenure of Autonomous District Council: Five years from the date of their constitution.
Functions of Autonomous District Council:
They makes laws on land, management of forests, except reserved forests, appointment of traditional chiefs and headmen,
They make rules regulating the inheritance of property, marriage, divorce, the constitution of village courts,
It can establish, construct or manage primary schools, dispensaries, markets, ferries, fisheries, roads and so on in the district.
It can also make regulations for the control of money lending and trading by non-tribals. But such regulations require the assent of the governor.
Revenue source of ADC:
taxes on professions, trades, callings and employment; taxes on animals, vehicles and boats;
taxes on the entry of goods into a market and sale therein, and tolls on passenger and goods carried on ferries; and taxes for the maintenance of school, dispensaries or roads.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/meghalaya/in-poll-bound-meghalaya-rat-hole-coal-mining-hopes-ride-on-article-371/article69198492.ece
With reference to Burmese Python, consider the following:
- It is a non-venomous and nocturnal forest dwellers snake.
- It is an excellent swimmer and is able to stay submerged.
- It is only found in the tropical rainforests and subtropical jungles of eastern and northeastern India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
University of Florida scientists have statistically analyzed large amounts of data collected by Burmese python contractors, revealing critical insights about how to most efficiently remove the reptiles.
About Burmese Pythons:
It is one of the largest snake species in the world. It can grow up to 20 feet and weigh more than 250 pounds, with females being larger than males.
It is a non-venomous, solitary and mainly nocturnal forest dwellers snake.
It is also excellent swimmers and is able to stay submerged for up to half an hour. Burmese pythons spend the majority of their time hidden in the underbrush and will usually move only when hunting or when threatened.
Until 2009, it was considered a subspecies of Python molurus, but is now recognized as a distinct species.
Habitat: They live in grasslands, marshes, swamps, wet rocky areas, caves, woodlands, rainforests, mangrove forests, river valleys, and jungles with open clearings.
Distribution:
It is native to the tropical rainforests and subtropical jungles of eastern and northeastern India, Myanmar, southern China, Southeast Asia, and some extent of the Indonesian archipelago. Its distribution also encompasses eastern Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh.
It is an invasive species in Florida as a result of the pet trade.
Conservation Status:
IUCN: Vulnerable
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/florida-researchers-suggest-new-ways-to-successfully-remove-burmese-pythons-from-state
Consider the following statements regarding the Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension:
- It is caused when the tiny arteries in a person’s lung become thickened and narrowed.
- It can even be associated with past or present drug use and is not a curable disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Natco Pharma has received U.S. Food and Drug Administration final approval for Bosentan tablets for oral suspension, its generic version of Actelion Pharmaceuticals US Inc.’s pulmonary arterial hypertension(PAH) drug Tracleer.
About Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension:
It is a specific type of pulmonary hypertension that is caused when the tiny arteries in your lung become thickened and narrowed.
This blocks the blood flow through your lungs which raises the blood pressure in the lungs and causes your heart to work harder to pump your blood through those narrowed arteries.
Causes:
The exact cause of PAH is unknown but it is believed that PAH occurs when there is injury to the cells that line the blood vessels of the lung, which over time results in this blood vessel disease.
It can also develop in association with other medical conditions including congenital heart disease, liver disease, HIV and connective tissue diseases — such as scleroderma and lupus.
PAH can even be associated with past or present drug use, such as the use of methamphetamine or certain diet pills.
Symptoms of Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: Blue fingers or lips, Chest pain, Dizziness or fainting, Fatigue, Shortness of breath that gets worse over time etc.
Treatment: While there are treatment options for PAH, there is no known cure.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Industry/natcos-generic-for-pah-gets-usfda-nod-marketing-partner-lupin-to-launch-product/article69202074.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Jallianwala Bagh incident:
- The precursor to the incident was a democratic protest by people in Punjab in response to Gandhiji’s call for the Non-cooperation Movement.
- As a result of the atrocities in it, Gandhiji renounced his Knighthood in protest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?`
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13 April 1919. A large but peaceful crowd had gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar, Punjab to against the arrest of pro-Indian independence leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satya Pal. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It was Rabindranath Tagore who renounced his Knighthood in protest of this massacre and not Gandhiji. Gandhiji renounced his Kesar-i-hind title for the same. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
A Parsi social reformer Behramji M. Malabari, founded the Seva Sadan in 1908. Seva Sadan specialized in taking care of those women who were exploited and then discarded by society. It catered to all castes and provided the destitute women with education, and medical and welfare services.
Dev samaj was founded in 1887 in Lahore by Shiv Narayan Agnihotri. It is a religious and social reform society. The society emphasized on the eternity of the soul, the supremacy of the guru, and the need for good action.
Narayan Malhar Joshi founded the Social Service League in Bombay to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work. They organized many schools, libraries, reading rooms, day nurseries and cooperative societies.
Who among the following leaders were actively involved in the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1920?
- Bal Gangadhar Tilak
- C.R Das
- Vallabhbhai Patel
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Non-Cooperation Movement was formally launched on 1 August 1920. That day was also marked by the death of Lokmanya Tilak, which witnessed strikes and processions to mourn the passing way of this great national leader. So, point 1 is not correct.
A special session of the Congress was held in Calcutta in September 1920 to finally deliberate and decide the issue of non-cooperation. It gave its assent to non-cooperation, despite some opposition by those interested in Council entry. By the time of the regular Congress Session in December 1920 held at Nagpur, the programme of non-cooperation was accepted without opposition. It involved the surrender of government titles and honorary positions, boycott of government schools and colleges, law courts, and foreign cloth. It could also be extended to include resignation from government service and nonpayment of government taxes. Moreover, it was decided to set up national schools and colleges, establish and strengthen the panchayats for settlement of disputes, promotion of hand spinning and weaving, condemnation and renunciation of untouchability, maintenance of communal amity and strict observance of non-violence. Thus, for the first time, an open extra-constitutional programme of mass mobilisation was started by the Congress.
Although the boycott of the law courts was not as successful, many leading lawyers of the country like C.R. Das, Motilal Nehru, Saifuddin Kitchlew, C. Rajagopalachari, M.R. Jayakar, Vallabhbhai Patel, Asaf Ali and T. Prakasham quit their practice. The boycott of foreign cloth became a very successful programme. So, point 2 and point 3 are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian schools of philosophy:
- Nyaya School adopts a scientific approach and believes that all material objects are made of atoms.
- Samkhya School argued that salvation could be attained through the acquisition of knowledge.
- Lokayata School was a propounder of a materialistic view to achieve salvation.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian school of philosophy is divided into Orthodox and Heterodox. The six major sub-schools of the Orthodox School are: Samkhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Purva mimamsa and Uttar mimamsa. The major heterodox schools include Buddhist, Jainism, Ajivikas, Lokayata or charvaka.
Nyaya school: It believes in the technique of logical thinking to achieve salvation. It considers that mysteries of life like life, death and salvation can be solved through logical and analytical thinking.
Vaisheshika School: It is considered to be realistic and objective in nature. This school has a very scientific approach and also developed the atomic theory that all material objects are made of atoms. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Samkhya school: It believed that the presence of any divine agency was not necessary for the creation of the Universe. According to it, salvation could be attained through the acquisition of knowledge. Lack of knowledge is supposed to be the root cause for the misery of man. So, statement 2 is correct.
Charvaka School: It was the main propounder of the materialistic view to achieve salvation. It was known as Lokayata. It denied the existence of any supernatural or divine agent and argued against the need to achieve salvation. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
With reference to the Indian Freedom Struggle, consider the following events:
- State of Hyderabad was founded
- Murshid Quli Khan was made Governor of Bengal
- Haider Ali came to power in Mysore
What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time?
2-1-3
Explanation :
The State of Hyderabad was founded by Nizam Ul Mulk in 1724. From 1722 – 1724 he was the Wazir of the empire. But he soon got disgusted with that office and decided to go back to the Deccan and laid the foundation of the Hyderabad empire.
Murshid Quli Khan was made the Governor of Bengal in 1717 although he was the de-facto ruler of the State since 1700.
Haider Ali came to power in Mysore in 1761 by overthrowing Nanjaraj and establishing his full authority.
Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1919:
- Local self-government was one of the reserved subjects under the Governor’s control.
- It established a system of dyarchy in the Provincial government.
- It resulted in complete financial decentralisation in the governmental setup.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Under this system, some subjects such as finance and law and order were called Reserved subjects and remained under the Governor’s direct control. Transferred subjects like Local-Self Government, Education, Public health were controlled by ministers responsible to legislatures. So, statement 1 is not correct.
It introduced dyarchy in Provincial governments and they were given more powers. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Governor retained complete control over the finances, therefore no financial decentralisation. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding education system in early colonial times:
- The British neglected Mass Education in India.
- The British laid special emphasis on girl’s education to awe the liberal Indians.
- Modern education delivered by British led to the propagation of modern within a section of Indians.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A major weakness of the educational system was the neglect of mass education, with the result that mass literacy in India was hardly better in 1921 than in 1821. So, statement 1 is correct.
A major lacuna in the early educational policy was the almost total neglect of the education of girls for which no funds were allotted. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Despite many weaknesses of the official educational policy, the limited spread of modern education led to the propagation of modern ideas in India and thus helped in its modernisation. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following events:
- Fort William College was set up by Wellesley.
- Sanskrit College was established by Jonathan Duncan.
- Calcutta Madrasah was established by Warren Hastings.
- The Bethune School was founded by J.E.D. Bethune at Calcutta.
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
3 - 2 - 1 - 4
Explanation :
The Calcutta Madrasah was established by Warren Hastings in 1781 for the study of Muslim law and related subjects.
The Sanskrit College was established by Jonathan Duncan, the resident, at Benaras in 1791 for the study of Hindu law and philosophy.
The Calcutta Madrasah and the Sanskrit College were designed to provide a regular supply of qualified Indians to help the administration of law in the Company’s court, and the knowledge of classical languages and vernaculars was useful in correspondence with Indian states.
Fort William College was set up by Wellesley in 1800 for the training of civil servants of the Company in the languages and customs of Indians.
The Bethune School was founded by J.E.D. Bethune (John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune) at Calcutta in 1849 was the first fruit of a powerful movement for the education of women which arose in the 1840s and 1850s. Bethune was the president of the Council of Education. Mostly due to Bethune’s efforts, girls’ schools were set up on a sound footing and brought under the government’s grants-in-aid and inspection system.
With reference to the Champaran Satyagraha, consider the following statements:
- It was a response to the tax increase by the provincial government.
- Mahatma Gandhi was nominated as a member of the Government-appointed enquiry committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of the total land (called tinkathia system). When synthetic dyes began to be produced in Germany, the European planters in Champaran began to face losses as the German dyes were much cheaper the planters tried to transfer the burden of this loss on the peasants by demanding high rents and illegal dues from them. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Due to the passive resistance offered by Gandhi, the authorities retreated and permitted Gandhi to make an enquiry. The government also appointed a committee to go into the matter and nominated Gandhi as a member. Gandhi was able to convince the authorities that the tinkathia system should be abolished and that the peasants should be compensated for the illegal dues extracted from them. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to the Indian National Movement during the First World War, consider the following statements:
- The Congress and the Muslim League joined hands to demand Self-Government.
- Extremists and revolutionaries opted not to support the British regime and instead waged a struggle against it.
- The Swarajya Sabha was launched in India to utilise the opportunity created by the war.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
To foster unity in its fight for council reforms, Congress attempted to allay the Muslim Leagues’ concerns regarding the potential Hindu domination of the reconfigured Council. Thus, Congress signed an agreement called the Lucknow Pact in 1916 with the Muslim League in which it accepted separate representation for the Muslims in the Councils. The coming together of the Congress and the Muslim League to jointly fight for a common cause (such as swaraj or self-government) was an important political event during the first World War. So, statement 1 is correct.
The nationalist response to British participation in the First World War was three-fold: (i) the Moderates supported the empire in the war as a matter of duty; (ii) the Extremists, including Tilak (who was released in June 1914), supported the war efforts in the mistaken belief that Britain would repay India’s loyalty with gratitude in the form of self-government; and (iii) the revolutionaries decided to utilise the opportunity to wage a war on British rule and liberate the country. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The outbreak of the First World War in 1914 gave a new lease of life to the nationalist movement which had been dormant since the heady days of the Swadeshi Movement. Britain’s difficulty was India’s ‘opportunity.’ This opportunity was seized by Lokamanya Tilak, Annie Besant and their Home Rule Leagues (swarajya sabha) in India. The Home Rule Leaguers launched a nation-wide agitation for securing Home Rule or Swaraj. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the All-India Muslim League, consider the following statements;
- Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan was one of its key founders.
- Aga Khan III was its first permanent president.
- One of the key achievements was the provision of separate electorates in the constitutional reforms of 1909.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Muslim League was founded in 1906 to safeguard the political rights and interests of the Muslims, to preach loyalty to the British and to further the cause of inter-communal amity. Some of its founder members are Khwaja Salimullah, Aga Khan III, Vikar-ul-Mulk, Syed Amir Ali and Khan Bahadur Ghulam. Sir Sayyid Ahmed khan died in 1898. So, statement 1 is not correct.
One of the foremost voices for the interests of Muslims in the Indian sub-continent, Sir Sultan Mohammad Shah, popularly called Aga Khan III, was born on November 2 in 1877. After becoming an Imam at a very young age, Shah would rise to become one of the founders of the All-India Muslim League (AIML) and the organization’s first permanent president. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Simla deputation led by Aga Khan met Minto in 1906 and demanded separate electorates for Muslims and representation in excess of their numerical strength. These provisions were visible in Morley into reforms of 1909 which reflected the success of the Muslim League. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Downward Filtration Theory’:
- The main reason for adopting this policy was the lack of expenditure on education.
- It aimed to educate a few Indians from higher and middle-class groups only.
- This led to the complete prevention of spreading education and modern ideas among the masses.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Government of India in 1935 made English the medium of instruction in its schools and colleges. It opened a few English schools and colleges instead of many elementary schools.
The Government neglected the education of the masses as it was not willing to spend more than an insignificant sum on education. To make up for the lack of expenditure on education, the official had recourse to the so-called “downward filtration theory”. So, statement 1 is correct.
Since the allocation of funds could educate only a handful of Indians, it was decided to spend them educating a few persons from the upper and middle classes who were expected to assume the task of educating the masses and spreading modern ideas among them. Education and modern ideas were thus supposed to filter or radicate downwards from the upper classes. So, statement 2 is correct.
Though education did not percolate downwards, modern ideas did largely, though not in the form desired by the rulers. Through political parties, the press, pamphlets, though not through schools and textbooks, the educated Indians or the intellectuals spread ideas of democracy, nationalism, anti-imperialism and social and economic equality and justice among the rural and urban masses. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the First All India Bengal Conference:
- It was held in August 1928 and was presided over by Subhash Chandra Bose.
- It represented the left-wing and confined its attention to the struggle against imperialism.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The first All-Bengal Conference of Students was held in August 1928 and was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru and not Subash Chandra Bose. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The year 1927 witnessed many portents of national recovery and the emergence of the new trend of socialism. Marxism and other socialist ideas spread rapidly.
Politically this force and energy found reflection in the rise of a new left-wing in the Congress under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose. The left-wing did not confine its attention to the struggle against imperialism. They simultaneously raised the question of internal class oppression by the capitalists and landlords. So, statement 2 is not correct
During the 1920s, Indian youth were becoming active. All over the country, youth leagues were being formed, and student conferences held.
Therefore option (c) is the answer.
Once any Indian princely state gets into the arrangement of Subsidiary Alliance with British:
- They have to permanently station British force within their geographical territory.
- They were not allowed to employ any European without approval of the British.
- They were promised no interference in the internal affairs of the State by British.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
While the practice of helping an Indian ruler with a paid British force was quite old, it was given a definite shape by Wellesley, who used it to subordinate the Indian States to the paramount authority of the Company. Under his Subsidiary Alliance system, the ruler of the allying Indian states was compelled to accept the permanent stationing of the British force within his territory and pay a subsidy for its maintenance. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Subsidiary Alliance also usually provided that the Indian ruler would agree to the posting at his court of a British resident, that he would not employ any Europeans in his service without the approval of the British, and that he would not negotiate with any other Indian ruler without consulting the Governor-General. So, statement 2 is correct.
In return, the British undertook to defend the ruler from his enemies. The British also promised non-interference in the internal affairs of the allied state, but this was a promise they seldom kept. In reality, by signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian state virtually signed away its independence. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the East India Company (EIC):
- Conditions in the North India were more favourable to it its expansion, than in South India.
- It took over the Madras area as a result of the battles it fought with the local kings.
- Fort St. George was the first fort built by British in India in and around the present day Chennai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Conditions in the South were more favourable to the EIC as they did not face a strong Indian government there. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The great Vijaynagara Kingdom had been overthrown in 1565 and taken place by several weak states. Madras was given to EIC for lease by the local raja in 1639, not by battle. So, statement 2 is not correct.
St George in Madras was the first British fortress in India founded in 1639 at the coastal city of Madras, the modern city of Chennai. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- In 1781, Lord Hastings set up the Calcutta Madrasa.
- In 1791, Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
It was Warren Hastings who set up Calcutta Madrasah in 1781, not Lord Hastings. So, statement 1 is not correct.
In 1791, Jonathan Duncan started a Sanskrit College at Varanasi, where he was the Resident, for the study of Hindu law and Philosophy. So, statement 2 is correct.
With reference to megalithic culture, the terms Menhir, Dolmen, Cists refers to:
Burial practices
Explanation :
The word ‘megalith’ comes from two Greek words, Megas meaning great or big and lithos meaning stone. Megaliths include different kinds of monuments that have one thing in common—they are made of large, roughly dressed slabs of stone.
The term megalithic culture refers to the cultural remains found in the megaliths and from habitation sites associated with them. The three types of megaliths are the chamber tombs, unchambered tombs, and megaliths not connected with burials.
Some of the megaliths that reflect certain burial styles emerged at different times in different places. These are- A pit burial marked by a single large standing stone slab is called a menhir. If the chamber is underground, it is known as a cist. If it is partly underground, it is known as a dolmenoid cist. If it is fully above the ground, it is known as a dolmen. The chamber is sometimes divided into sections by vertical slabs called transepts.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Portuguese rule in India:
- Francisco de Almeida is credited with abolishing Sati under his rule.
- Alfonso de Albuquerque developed the cartaz system.
- Nuno da Cunha established Hooghly as Portuguese headquarters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Albuquerque, who succeeded Almeida as the Portuguese governor in India, was the real founder of the Portuguese power in the East. The Portuguese, under Albuquerque, bolstered their stranglehold by introducing a permit system for other ships and exercising control over the major ship-building centres in the region. The non-availability of timber in the Gulf and Red Sea regions for ship-building also helped the Portuguese in their objectives. Albuquerque acquired Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 with ease; the principal port of the Sultan of Bijapur became “the first bit of Indian territory to be under the Europeans since the time of Alexander the Great”. An interesting feature of his rule was the abolition of sati. So, statement 1 is not correct.
In 1507, the Portuguese squadron was defeated in a naval battle off Diu by the combined Egyptian and Gujarat navies, and Almeida’s son was killed. Next year, Almeida avenged his defeat by totally crushing the two navies. Almeida’s vision was to make the Portuguese the master of the Indian Ocean. His policy was known as the Blue Water Policy (cartaze system). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Nuno da Cunha assumed the office of the governor of Portuguese interests in India in November 1529 and almost one year later shifted the headquarters of the Portuguese government in India from Cochin to Goa. Da Cunha attempted to increase Portuguese influence in Bengal by settling many Portuguese nationals there with Hooghly as their headquarters. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
A tectonic plate is a massive, irregularly shaped slab of solid rock, made up of the lithosphere or the earth’s top layer. Tectonic plate movements are studied to identify earthquakes and volcanoes and to better understand the evolution of the earth.
A new study has added several micro-plates to the existing tectonic plate model like the :
Macquarie microplate - south of Tasmania. So, pair 1 is correctly matched
Capricorn microplate - separates the Indian and Australian plates. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Nazca plate which is between South America and Pacific plate and Caroline plate which is between the Philippine and Indian plate (North of New Guinea) are examples of minor plates. So, pairs 3 and 4 are correctly matched.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Mid-Oceanic ridge system:
- It is the longest mountain chain on the surface of the earth.
- Mid-oceanic ridges occur along convergent plate boundaries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The massive mid-ocean ridge system is a continuous range of underwater volcanoes that wraps around the globe like seams on a baseball, stretching nearly 65,000 kilometers (40,390 miles). The majority of the system is underwater, with an average water depth to the top of the ridge of 2,500 meters (8,200 feet). This forms an interconnected chain of mountain systems within the ocean. It is the longest mountain-chain on the surface of the earth. So, statement 1 is correct.
Mid-ocean ridges occur along divergent plate boundaries, where a new ocean floor is created as the Earth’s tectonic plates spread apart. As the plates separate, molten rock rises to the seafloor, producing enormous volcanic eruptions of basalt. The speed of spreading affects the shape of a ridge – slower spreading rates result in steep, irregular topography while faster spreading rates produce much wider profiles and more gentle slopes. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Plateaus:
- Piedmont plateaus are formed at the foothill zone of mountains.
- Batholithic and Laccolithic intrusions cause dome-shaped plateaux.
- Deccan plateau and Arabian plateau are examples of the continental plateau.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Piedmont plateau formed at the foothill zone of extensive mountains and surrounded by mountain ranges on one side and plain or coastal topography on the other side. So, statement 1 is correct.
Dome-shaped plateaux are formed when the landmass is uplifted in such a manner that the middle portion is upward and the sides are rounded. Dome-shaped plateaux are generally formed due to endogenic forces mainly during volcanic activities. Batholithic and Laccolithic intrusions of magmas beneath the crustal rocks cause large-scale doming of the gourd surface which rises to several hundred metres from the surrounding neighbouring ground surface. So, statement 2 is correct.
Continental plateaux are very extensive plateaux generally away from mountainous areas but are surrounded by coastal plains. Deccan plateau, South African, Australian, Arabian plateaus are some examples. So, statement 3 is correct.
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Mid-Oceanic Ridges -It is composed of two chains of mountains separated by a large depression. The mountain ranges can have peaks as high as 2,500 m and some even reach above the ocean’s surface. E.g., Iceland is a part of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. So, pair 1 is correctly matched. What Is An Abyssal Plain? - WorldAtlas
Seamount - It is a mountain with pointed summits, rising from the seafloor that does not reach the surface of the ocean. Seamounts are volcanic in origin. These can be 3,000-4,500 m tall. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Submarine Canyons - These are deep valleys cutting across the continental shelves and slopes, often extending from the mouths of large rivers. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Guyots -It is a flat-topped seamount. They show evidence of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains. It is estimated that more than 10,000 seamounts and guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Consider the following statements with reference to forests:
- Monsoon forests grow in areas having a limited period of the rainy season.
- Trees in temperate deciduous forests shed their leaves at the onset of the winter.
- Species richness of equatorial forests makes it suitable for greater commercial exploitation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Monsoon Forests: These forests are found in central and northeast India, Myanmar, Vietnam, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia and northeast Australia. The main characteristic of monsoon climate is the limited period of the rainy season. Duration and amount of rainfall affect the density of forests. Hence, monsoon forests are not very dense. The characteristics are dense undergrowth and bamboo groves. Sal, teak and shisham are important trees of the region. So, statement 1 is correct.
Temperate Deciduous Hardwood Forests: Temperate regions of moderate temperature and rainfall like central and western Europe, north-eastern USA, southern Russia, Central America, eastern Asia have hardwood deciduous forests. Trees of these forests shed their leaves at the onset of the winter and remain without leaves throughout the winter; Like the tropical rainforest, these forests also have trees of different species mixed. Woods from these forests are strong and durable. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Equatorial Forests: These forests extend between 50 N and 50 S of the equator. They are found m the Congo basin of Africa the Amazon basin of South America and with some modifications in Malaysia and Indonesia. The equatorial forests in the Amazon basin are also known as selvas. Most of the trees in these forests have hardwood. One of the problems of the economic exploitation of these forests is the scattering of trees of one species over a wide area. In other words, trees of any one species are not found in one area. As a result, one has to have to a big area to get them in a large number. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the climatic regions:
- The Laurentian type of climate is absent in the Southern Hemisphere.
- The typhoons associated with the China type of climate occur most frequently in late summer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The cool temperate easten margin or laurentian type of climate is an intermediate type of climate between the British and the Siberian type of climate. It has features of both the maritime and the continental climates. In the Southern Hemisphere, this climatic type is absent because only a small section of the southern continents extend south of the latitude of 400 S. Some of these small sections come under the rain-shadow region of Andes (Patagonia) and hence Westerlies hardly ever reach these regions. So these regions are subjected to aridity rather than continentality. So, statement 1 is correct.
A characteristic feature of the china type of warm temperate eastern margin climate is the great annual temperature range. Second is the occurrence of typhoons which are intense tropical cyclones that originate in the pacific ocean & move westwards to the coastlands bordering the south china sea. They are most frequent in late summer, from July to September and can be very disastrous. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to Cyclones in the Indian Ocean:
- Western coasts of India are more prone to severe cyclones than the Eastern coasts.
- A cyclone is classified as a ‘Super Cyclone’ based on its associated wind speed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Cyclones affect the entire coast of India; however, the Eastern coast is more prone to severe cyclones compared to the Western coast. An analysis of the frequencies of cyclones on India’s East and West coasts during 1891-2000 shows that nearly 308 cyclones (out of which 103 were severe) affected the East coast. During the same period, 48 tropical cyclones crossed the West coast, of which 24 were severe cyclonic storms. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The criteria followed by the Meteorological Department of India (IMD) to classify the low-pressure systems in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea is based on associated wind speed in the circulation. So, statement 2 is correct.
Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The state government’s move to build a village for tribals in the buffer zone of Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary has raised questions over their safety, besides concerns over fueling wildlife conflicts.
About Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is nestled in the Western Ghats in the Kodagu district of Karnataka.
It covers an area of about 181 sq.km.
The sanctuary gets its name from the highest point, the Brahmagiri peak, which is 1607m in height.
Rivers: The Lakshmana Tirtha River originates in the sanctuary and is a tributary of the Cauvery River.
Terrain: The area is generally of undulating terrain with several steep valleys and hillocks.
Flora:
The primary vegetation of the sanctuary includes evergreen and semi-evergreen forests, shoal forest patches in grasslands, and bamboos.
It is surrounded by coffee and cardamom plantations.
Fauna:
It is the home of the lion-tailed macaque, which is a rare and endangered species.
Tiger, elephants, bonnet macaque, common langur, barking deer, mouse deer, Malabar giant squirrel, giant flying squirrel, and Indian Gaur are the big mammals commonly found here.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/concerns-raised-over-proposal-to-build-tribal-village-close-to-brahmagiri-wildlife-sanctuary-3399311
Consider the following statements regarding Crocodile Catfish, recently seen in the news:
1.It is endemic to South America.
- It is classified as endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The recent discovery of the Crocodile Catfish in the Bahini River, located in the Basistha locality of Guwahati, has raised alarm over potential ecological disruptions.
About Crocodile Catfish:
Crocodile Catfish, commonly known as the Asian giant river catfish, crocodile goonch catfish, or the giant devil catfish, is a species of catfish that belongs to the family Sisoridae.
It is one of the largest freshwater catfish species in Asia.
Scientific Name: Bagarius suchus
Distribution: It is native to freshwater habitats in South and Southeast Asia, including countries like India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar, and Thailand.
Habitat:
It is typically found in large rivers and deep pools with slow to moderate currents.
They are often associated with rocky and gravelly substrates in their natural habitats.
Appearance:
It can reach impressive lengths of up to 1.5 meters or more and can weigh over 50 kilograms.
It has a distinctive appearance. It has a long, cylindrical body with a broad head and a wide mouth.
Its body is typically dark brown or black, and it may have irregular patches or spots on its body.
The dorsal fin is long and extends almost the entire length of the back.
Behaviour:
It is a carnivorous predator. It primarily feeds on other fish and various aquatic organisms.
It is known for its voracious appetite and can consume prey that is relatively large compared to its own size.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Near Threatened
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://www.northeasttoday.in/2025/02/11/assam-crocodile-catfish-discovered-in-guwahatis-bahini-river/
What is the main characteristic of a Bailey bridge?
Standardized prefabricated panels for quick assembly.
Explanation :
A suspension Bailey bridge over the Teesta river at Sangkalang in the Mangan district of north Sikkim collapsed recently.
About Bailey Bridge:
A Bailey bridge is a portable, prefabricated truss bridge used extensively since World War II, capable of supporting vehicular traffic.
It was conceptualized and designed by Sir Donald Bailey, UK, in 1941.
The characteristics of the Bailey bridge were standardization and simplicity of panels, readiness of assembly in the field, capacity for additional strengthening by doubling or tripling the truss girders, and adaptability to long spans with the aid of pontoons.
Bailey bridge assembly covers a small area, which can avoid the situation that large hoisting equipment cannot enter the construction site.
The Bailey bridge is limited by its structure and bearing capacity, and the standard length will not exceed 60 meters.
Therefore, it is generally used in terrains that span rivers, valleys, and spans that are not very large.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/west-bengal/bailey-bridge-over-teesta-river-in-north-sikkim-collapses-no-injuries-reported/cid/2082997
Which among the following best describes ‘Vancomycin’, recently seen in the news?
An antibiotic used to treat serious bacterial infections.
Explanation :
A study led by the University of Birmingham recently found that vancomycin, a commonly used antibiotic for diarrhea, could effectively treat a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) linked to autoimmune liver disease.
About Vancomycin:
It is a glycopeptide antibiotic used to treat severe but susceptible bacterial infections such as MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus).
It is commonly used to treat infections in the bloodstream, skin and soft tissues, heart valves (endocarditis), bones, joints and certain intestinal infections like C. difficile-associated diarrhea.
However, this medicine may cause some serious side effects, including damage to your hearing and kidneys. These side effects may be more likely to occur in elderly patients.
Vancomycin will not work for colds, flu, or other viral infections.
Mechanism of Action of Vancomycin:
Vancomycin works by interfering with the bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Bacterial cells have a rigid outer layer called the cell wall, which provides structural support and protects the cell from bursting.
Vancomycin binds to specific components in the cell wall, preventing the formation of a stable cell wall structure.
As a result, the bacterial cell becomes weak and more susceptible to damage, leading to its death.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/common-antibiotic-that-treats-diarrhea-can-also-treat-inflammatory-bowel-disease-study/articleshow/118140551.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Fishery Survey of India (FSI):
- It is the nodal fishery institute in India under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying.
- The primary responsibility of FSI is the survey and assessment of fishery resources in the Indian exclusive economic zone (EEZ) and adjoining areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A deep-sea fishing expedition by the Fishery Survey of India (FSI) recently revealed several highly productive, potentially untouched fishing grounds in the Arabian Sea.
About Fishery Survey of India (FSI):
The FSI, under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry, and Dairying, is the nodal fishery institute in India.
Primary Responsibility: Survey and assessment of fishery resources in the Indian exclusive economic zone (EEZ) and adjoining areas for their optimum utilization and sustainable development.
Headquarters: Mumbai, Maharashtra
History:
It was established in the year 1946 as Deep Sea Fishing Station with the objective of augmenting food supply through the development of deep-sea fishing.
It graduated to the status of a survey institute in the year 1974 under the name Exploratory Fisheries Project, with bases known as Offshore Fishing Stations in all the maritime states.
The objectives of exploratory fishing and charting of fishing grounds, training of fishing operatives, and testing commercial possibilities of deep-sea fishing were assigned to it.
In 1983 it was reorganized and upgraded as a national institute, the FSI.
It was recognised as a Science & Technology Institute in the year 1988.
Hence both statements are correct
Source: https://www.deccanherald.com/environment/new-fishing-grounds-in-arabian-sea-discovered-3400646
Consider the following statements regarding the Panchayat Devolution Index:
- It evaluates framework, capacity building and accountability of the Panchayats.
- It provides transparency in tracking Panchayat functioning and resource allocation to citizens.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Panchayati Raj will release the comprehensive Devolution Index Report on 13th February, 2025, at Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), New Delhi.
About Devolution Index:
It is a result of meticulous research and empirical analysis, provides insights into the progress of decentralization across States and Union Territories.
The Index evaluates six critical dimensions: Framework, Functions, Finances, Functionaries, Capacity Building and Accountability of the Panchayats.
The Index specifically examines how ‘free’ Panchayats are to make and implement independent decisions, reflecting the true spirit of Article 243G of Constitution of India.
This Article empowers State legislatures to devolve powers and responsibilities to Panchayats across 29 subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
The Devolution Index serves as a tool for strengthening cooperative federalism and local self-governance, enabling States to identify areas for improvement and adopt best practices for more empowered and effective Panchayats.
What sets this Devolution Index apart is its practical utility for multiple stakeholders.
For citizens, it provides transparency in tracking Panchayat functioning and resource allocation.
For elected representatives, it offers data-driven insights for advocacy and reform.
For government officials, it serves as a roadmap for implementing effective decentralization policies. Policymakers can use the Devolution Index to assess the overall health of local governance and identify where reforms are most urgently needed.
Significance: The initiative aligns with the vision of Viksit Bharat, where Panchayats serve as the foundation for rural transformation, driving inclusive growth and sustainable development at the grassroots level.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2101678#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding the South Asian Free Trade Agreement:
- It is the free trade arrangement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC).
- Afghanistan is not a member of this initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Solvent Extractors’ Association of India (SEA) has requested the Government to regulate the inflow of edible oils from Nepal and other SAARC countries due to misuse of SAFTA norms.
About SAFTA:
It is the free trade arrangement of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC).
The agreement came into force in 2006, succeeding the 1993 SAARC Preferential Trading Arrangement.
SAFTA signatory countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
SAFTA recognizes the need for special and differential treatment for LDCs in its preamble. This has been translated in the following measures:
The Objectives of this Agreement are to promote and enhance mutual trade and economic cooperation among Contracting States by, inter-alia:
Eliminating barriers to trade in, and facilitating the cross-border movement of goods between the territories of the Contracting States;
Promoting conditions of fair competition in the free trade area, and ensuring equitable benefits to all contracting States, taking into account their respective levels and pattern of economic development;
Creating effective mechanism for the implementation and application of this Agreement, for its joint administration and for the resolution of disputes; and
Establishing a framework for further regional cooperation to expand and enhance the mutual benefits of this Agreement.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/sea-urges-centre-to-regulate-edible-oil-imports-from-nepal-due-to-misuse-of-safta-norms/article69202782.ece#:~:text=
Consider the following statements regarding Market Intervention Scheme:
- It is a component of the integrated scheme of PM-AASHA.
- It is implemented to all farm produces whose price reduces to 10% in the prevailing market price as compared to the previous normal year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the central government has revised the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) guidelines.
About Market Intervention Scheme:
It is implemented on the request of State/UT Government for procurement of various perishable agricultural/horticultural commodities such as tomato, onion and potato etc. for which Minimum Support Price (MSP) is not applicable.
It will be implemented only when there is a minimum reduction of 10% in the prevailing market price as compared to the previous normal year.
Revised Market Intervention Scheme Guidelines
It made MIS a component of the integrated scheme of PM-AASHA.
The procurement/coverage limit of production quantity of crops has been increased from the existing 20 percent to 25 percent.
The State has also been given the option to pay the difference between the Market Intervention Price (MIP) and the selling price directly into the bank account of the farmers in place of physical procurement.
Reimbursement: The operational cost incurred in storage and transportation of crops from the producing State to other consuming States will be reimbursed by Central Nodal Agencies (CNA) like NAFED and NCCF, in the interest of farmers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/amp/markets/capital-market-news/govt-revises-guidelines-for-market-intervention-scheme-increasing-procurement-limit-of-crops-to-25-from-20-125021101240_1.html?isa=yes
With reference to United Kingdom (UK)-India Young Professionals Scheme, consider the following:
- It allows Indian citizens between 18 and 30 years old to live and work in the UK for up to 2 years.
- It was conceived as part of an India-U.K. Migration and Mobility Memorandum of Understanding.
- The selected candidate from India is not eligible to do research in sensitive subjects in the UK.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The ballot for this year’s United Kingdom-India Young Professionals Scheme (YPS) will open next week.
About UK-India Young Professionals Scheme:
It was conceived as part of an India-U.K. Migration and Mobility MoU signed in May 2021 and was announced in November at the G20 summit in Bali.
It was formally launched in February 2023.
Features
It allows Indian citizens between 18 and 30 years old to live and work in the UK for up to 2 years.
It will enable candidates to enter the UK at any time while their visa is valid and leave and return anytime during their stay.
Eligibility to get Visa under this initiative
You have to be an Indian national aged between 18 and 30 years.
You must have a bachelor’s degree or above.
You must have 2,530 pounds in savings.
You must not have any children under the age of 18 who live with you or whom you are financially supporting.
A person must be selected in the India Young Professionals Scheme ballot before they can apply for a Young Professionals Scheme visa.
You cannot apply if you’ve already been in the UK under this scheme or the Youth Mobility Scheme visa.
In case the applicant is issued a visa, they must enter the UK within six months of the date on which the visa was issued.
Once in the UK, the applicant can:
Study -for certain degree programs, such as post-graduation or research in sensitive subjects in the UK, an additional certificate under the Academic Technology Approval Scheme (ATAS) needs to be applied before starting the course or research.
Be self-employed and set up a company - as long as your premises are rented, your equipment is not worth more than £5,000 and you do not have any employees.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/uk-india-young-professionals-scheme-9830514/
Consider the following statements regarding the Asian Fisheries and Aquaculture Forum:
- It is a triennial event of the Asian Fisheries Society which has a strong legacy of fostering global collaboration in the sector.
- Its headquarter is located in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The 14th Asian Fisheries and Aquaculture Forum (14AFAF) is being organized in New Delhi during February 12-14, 2025.
About Asian Fisheries and Aquaculture Forum:
It is a triennial event of the Asian Fisheries Society which has a strong legacy of fostering global collaboration in the sector.
Since its inception, the forum has been successfully hosted in multiple countries across Asia.
This prestigious event is being hosted in India for the 2nd time after the 8AFAF held at Kochi in 2007.
The forum will provide a platform to showcase India’s contributions, strengthen international partnerships, and promote innovative approaches for sustainable, resilient, and economically viable fish production systems.
With a rapidly expanding blue economy, progressive government policies, and significant scientific advancements, India has emerged as a key player in sustainable fisheries and aquaculture.
Today, India occupies 2nd position in total fish production and also aquaculture production globally.
Headquarters: Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia.
Key facts about 14th AFAF
It has brings together key players from the fisheries and aquaculture sectors and will host around 1,000 delegates from 24 countries, including researchers, policymakers, industry leaders, and stakeholders.
Theme of 14th AFAF: “Greening the Blue Growth in Asia-Pacific”
It is being jointly organized by the Asian Fisheries Society (AFS), Kuala Lumpur; Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), New Delhi; the Department of Fisheries (DoF), Government of India; and the Asian Fisheries Society Indian Branch (AFSIB), Mangalore.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2101732
The Hindon River is a tributary of which river?
Yamuna
Explanation :
Huge sludge along with silt and leftover puja material has recently been deposited in the Hindon River in Ghaziabad, bringing in large-scale contamination to the already polluted river.
About Hindon River:
It is a tributary of the Yamuna River.
It is a monsoon-fed river.
Course:
It originates in the Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh, in the Siwalik Hills, at an elevation of about 800 meters (2,625 feet) above sea level.
It flows across the industrial belt of Western Uttar Pradesh for 400 kilometres before discharging into the Yamuna River in Noida.
It has a catchment area of around 7,083 sq. km.
Tributaries: The Kali (West) River and Krishni River are the main tributaries of River Hindon.
It is on the banks of this river that archeologists found traces of the Harappan civilization with sites dating back to as long as 2500 BC.
Due to urban, agricultural, and industrial waste which is being released without sufficient treatment into its waters, the Hindon is now one of the most polluted stretches in the Ganga basin.
In 2015, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) found the Hindon’s pollution levels were so severe that it was declared a ‘dead river’ and ‘unfit’ even for bathing in several sections of the river.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/noida-news/ghaziabad-deposits-of-silt-garbage-choke-hindon-river-101739386118371.html
With reference to the Arab League, consider the following statements:
- It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa.
- It is headquartered in Cairo, Egypt.
- The decisions taken by the Arab League Council are binding on all the member states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Arab League rejected U.S. President Donald Trump’s Gaza relocation plan recently, saying it is unacceptable.
About Arab League:
The Arab League, or League of Arab States, is a voluntary association of countries whose peoples are mainly Arabic-speaking or where Arabic is an official language.
It is a regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts of Africa.
Formation:
It was formed in Cairo on 22 March 1945 with six members: Egypt, Iraq, Transjordan (later renamed Jordan), Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, and Syria, with Yemen joining on 5 May 1945.
The league was chartered in response to concerns about post-war colonial divisions of territory as well as strong opposition to the emergence of a Jewish state on Palestinian territory.
The main aims of the League are to strengthen relations and to coordinate collaboration between member states, to safeguard their independence and sovereignty, and to provide collective consideration of the affairs and interests of the member states.
Headquarters: Cairo, Egypt.
Official language: Arabic
Members: It currently has 22 member states: Algeria, Bahrain, Comoros, Djibouti, Egypt, Iraq, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Mauritania, Morocco, Oman, Palestinian Authority, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Somalia, Sudan, Syria, Tunisia, United Arab Emirates, and Yemen.
There are four nations that were conferred observer status by the League: Brazil, Eritrea, India, and Venezuela.
Organisation Structure:
The highest body of the League is the Council, which is composed of representatives of each state.
Each member state has one vote, irrespective of size.
The League makes decisions on a majority basis. The decisions are binding only on states that voted for them.
The General Secretariat, the administrative and executive body of the League, runs the League on a daily basis.
It is headed by a Secretary-General appointed by the Arab League Council every five years.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/videos/international/first-gaza-then-west-bank-arab-league-slams-trumps-unacceptable-ethnic-cleansing-plan/videoshow/118179460.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Mpox:
- It is a zoonotic viral illness.
- It is transmitted through close contact with infected animals or people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The scientific community is divided on whether mpox should be given the label of a sexually transmitted disease (STD), with targeted public health interventions to contain it.
About Mpox:
Mpox, previously known as monkeypox, is a zoonotic viral illness caused by the monkeypox virus, a species of the genus Orthopoxvirus.
Mpox is characterized by rash or skin lesions that are usually concentrated on the face, palms of the hands and soles of the feet.
The first human case of mpox was recorded in 1970 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC).
There are two known sub-types of mpox:
Clade I: It is endemic to Central Africa. It tends to cause more serious illness than clade II. Recent outbreaks of clade I have been less deadly.
Clade II: It is endemic to East Africa. There’s been a global outbreak of clade II mpox since 2022. It’s less likely to be fatal than clade I.
Transmission:
MPXV is transmitted to people by close contact with infected animals or people or by touching virus-contaminated materials.
It enters the body through (often invisible) injuries or wounds in the skin, or the mucous membranes.
Mpox can be passed from one person to another during sexual contact.
During pregnancy, the virus may be passed to the fetus, or to the newborn during or after birth.
Symptoms:
Common symptoms of mpox are a skin rash or mucosal lesions, which can last 2–4 weeks, accompanied by fever, headache, muscle aches, back pain, low energy and swollen lymph nodes.
Mpox symptoms often resolve on their own without the need for treatment.
Treatment:
There are no specific treatments for monkeypox virus infection.
Treatment for most people with mpox is to relieve symptoms.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/should-mpox-be-labelled-a-sexually-transmitted-disease/article69209805.ece
Which among the following best describes ‘P-8I Aircraft’, recently seen in the news?
A maritime patrol aircraft.
Explanation :
India is looking to revive the proposal to procure six more P-8I long-range maritime patrol aircraft from the U.S.
About P-8I Aircraft:
P-8I Neptune is a long-range, multi-mission maritime patrol aircraft being manufactured by Boeing (a U.S. aerospace company) for the Indian Navy.
It replaced the ageing fleet of the Indian Navy’s Tupolev Tu-142 aircraft.
The P-8I Neptune flown by the Indian Navy is a variant of the P-8A Poseidon used by the United States Navy.
Its advanced sensors, weapons systems, and long-range capabilities enable it to detect and respond to a wide range of threats, from submarines and surface vessels to environmental challenges.
It can conduct anti-submarine warfare (ASW), anti-surface warfare (AsuW), intelligence, maritime patrol, and surveillance and reconnaissance missions.
Features:
The aircraft has a length of 39.47 m, wingspan of 37.64 m and height of 12.83.
The maximum take-off gross weight of the P-8I is 85,139 kg.
The P-8I is manned by nine crew members.
It can fly at a maximum speed of 789 km/h and can reach a maximum altitude of 12,496 m.
It has a maximum range of over 2,222 kilometres with a time on station of four hours.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-may-revive-plan-to-procure-six-more-p-8i-maritime-patrol-aircraft-from-us/article69211486.ece
With reference to the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Parliament, consider the following statements:
- It consists of not more than thirty members, twenty elected by Lok Sabha, and not more than ten members of Rajya Sabha.
- The main function of the committee is to ascertain whether the money granted by parliament has been spent by the government within the scope of the demand.
- A Minister is not elected a member of the PAC.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament recently directed the government to review the existing rules that decide the toll tax on National Highways.
About Public Accounts Committee (PAC):
It is a committee of selected members of parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India, for the purpose of auditing the revenue and expenditure of the Government of India.
It serves as a check on the government, especially with respect to its expenditure bill, and its primary function is to examine the audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (C&AG) after it is laid in Parliament.
C&AG assists the committee during the course of the investigation.
The main function of the committee is to ascertain whether the money granted by parliament has been spent by the government within the scope of the demand.
Genesis of the Committee:
It is one of the oldest Parliamentary Committees in India.
From its inception in the year 1921 till early 1950, the Finance Member was appointed as the Chairperson of the Committee, and its secretarial functions were looked after by the Finance Department (later Ministry of Finance).
With the coming into force of the Constitution of India on 26 January 1950, the Committee became a Parliamentary Committee under the control of the Speaker.
Its secretarial functions were transferred to the Parliament Secretariat (now Lok Sabha Secretariat).
Membership:
PAC consists of not more than twenty-two members, fifteen elected by Lok Sabha, and not more than seven members of Rajya Sabha.
The members are elected every year from amongst its members of respective houses according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
The term of office of the members is one year.
The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst the members of the Committee from Lok Sabha.
The Speaker, for the first time, appointed a Member of the Opposition as the Chairperson of the Committee for 1967-68. This practice has been continuing since then.
A Minister is not elected a member of the Committee, and if a member, after his election to the Committee, is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
Functions:
The functions of the Committee include examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India, the annual finance accounts of the Government, and such other accounts laid before the House as the Committee may think fit.
In scrutinising the appropriation accounts of the Government of India and the report of the C&AG thereon, the Committee has to satisfy:
that the moneys shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for, and applicable to, the service or purpose to which they have been applied or charged;
that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it; and
that every re-appropriation has been made in accordance with the provisions made in this behalf under rules framed by competent authority.
One of the duties of the Committee is to ascertain that money granted by Parliament has been spent by the Government within the scope of the demand.
It considers the justification for spending more or less than the amount originally sanctioned.
If any money has been spent on a service in excess of the amount granted by the House for the purpose, the Committee examines with reference to the facts of each case, the circumstances leading to such an excess and makes such recommendations as it may deem fit.
The functions of the Committee extend, however, “beyond, the formality of expenditure to its wisdom, faithfulness and economy”.
The Committee thus examines cases involving losses, nugatory expenditure and financial irregularities.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/119739/OPS/GAEE01BDS.1+GNNE03NH5.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the MITRA Platform:
- It assists investors in tracking and reclaiming inactive or unclaimed mutual fund folios.
- It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) introduced a new digital platform called MITRA.
Mutual Fund Investment Tracing and Retrieval Assistant (MITRA) will assist investors in tracking and reclaiming inactive or unclaimed mutual fund folios.
Objective: The objective of the platform is to encourage investors to search for forgotten MF investments and update KYC as per the current norms.
Features
The platform addresses a growing concern wherein investors, over time, lose track of their mutual fund investments lack of updated contact information, or unawareness of investments made in their name.
It will allow investors to identify the overlooked investments or any investments made by any other person for which he/she may be rightful legal claimant and also encourage them to do KYC as per the current norms thus reducing the number of non-KYC compliant folios.
It is developed by the Registrar and Transfer Agent (RTAs) to provide investors with a searchable database of inactive and unclaimed mutual fund folios at an industry-level which will empower the investors.
The criteria for classifying a folio as inactive include an absence of investor-initiated transactions, financial or non-financial, for a period of ten years, despite having a unit balance.
SEBI has also revised the mandate of the Unit Holder Protection Committee (UHPC) under Mutual Funds rules.
The UHPC will now be responsible for reviewing inactive folios along with unclaimed dividends and redemptions, ensuring proactive steps are taken to reduce such cases.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/sebi-launches-mitra-to-help-investors-trace-inactive-mutual-fund-folios/article69213813.ece
Sṛjanam, recently in news, is a:
automated biomedical waste treatment rig
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister launched India’s first indigenous Automated Bio Medical Waste Treatment Plant Sṛjanam at AIIMS New Delhi.
It is an innovative, automated biomedical waste treatment rig.
This environmentally friendly technology, developed by CSIR-NIIST (National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology),
Features of Sṛjanam Rig
It can disinfect pathogenic biomedical waste such as blood, urine, sputum, and laboratory disposables, without the use of costly and energy-intensive incinerators.
The rig imparts a pleasant fragrance to the otherwise foul-smelling toxic waste.
It has a daily capacity of 400 kg, the equipment is capable of handling 10 kg of degradable medical waste per day in the initial phase.
Advantages
It offers a safer and more efficient approach, eliminating the risks associated with human exposure to harmful waste and minimizing the chances of spills and accidents.
The technology has been third-party validated for its antimicrobial action, and studies have shown that the treated material is safer than organic fertilizers like vermicompost.
It offers a significant advancement in the sustainable management of biomedical waste.
It is an environmentally responsible alternative to traditional incineration methods.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2101416
Consider the following statements regarding Einstein Ring:
- It is a ring of light around a form of dark matter and cluster of galaxies.
- It can only be observed through space telescopes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has discovered a rare ring of light, known as an Einstein ring, around a galaxy nearly 590 million light-years away from Earth.
It is a ring of light around a form of dark matter, galaxy or cluster of galaxies.
It is essentially an example of gravitational lensing.
Einstein rings are not visible to the naked eye, and can be observed only through space telescopes such as Euclid.
In the case of the recently discovered Einstein ring, NGC 6505 was the gravitational lens.
The nearer galaxy distorted and amplified the light coming from a distant unnamed galaxy, located 4.42 billion light-years away.
These are named after mathematician and physicist Albert Einstein, whose general theory of relativity predicted that light could bend and brighten around objects across the cosmos.
The first Einstein ring was discovered in 1987, and since then, several more have been discovered.
Significance of Einstein ring
These rings help scientists investigate dark matter, which has never been detected but is believed to make up 85% of the total matter in the universe.
They enable scientists to learn about distant galaxies, which otherwise might not be visible.
They can also provide information about the expansion of the universe as the space between the Earth and other galaxies — both in the foreground and the background
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/einstein-ring-9832360/
With reference to Dokra Artwork, consider the following:
- It is a form of folk art practiced by the Dhokra Damar tribes.
- This artwork is mainly found in West Bengal and Odisha region of India.
- It is done by using lost wax technique.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India presented French President Emmanuel Macron with a meticulously crafted Dokra artwork.
Dokra art which is also known as bell metal craft traces its origins back more than 4,000 years.
It is a form of folk art practiced by the Dhokra Damar tribes, who are traditionally metalsmiths.
These artisans are primarily found in eastern India, including West Bengal, Odisha, and Jharkhand, with a notable presence in Chhattisgarh as well.
Features of Dokra Artwork
No two pieces are ever the same.
Each sculpture is painstakingly handcrafted, drawing inspiration from mythology, nature, and daily rituals.
Process of Dokra Artwork
The method of making Dokra is done by combining the metallurgical skills with that of the lost wax technique.
Artisans begin by sculpting a basic clay model of the desired object.
This model is then coated in wax, where fine details are meticulously etched. Another clay layer is added to form a mold, into which molten metal—typically brass or copper—is poured.
The heat melts the beeswax, allowing the liquid metal to take the shape of the original model. Once cooled and hardened, the outer clay mold is broken away, revealing the finished sculpture.
Issues: The rapid pace of urbanization, coupled with the rise of mechanized production techniques, has threatened the livelihoods of traditional artisans and endangered this ancient craft.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/pm-modi-gifts-macron-exquisite-dokra-artwork-silver-mirror-to-french-first-lady/articleshow/118185087.cms
Fulani Community, recently in news, is mainly found in:
African Sahel Region
Explanation :
A new study has found that the Fulani, one of Africa’s largest pastoral populations, have a history going back to the ‘Green Sahara’ period (12,000–5,000 years before the present).
The Fulani are a large and widely dispersed group of both nomadic herders and sedentary farmers living in the African Sahel/Savannah belt.
They are concentrated principally in Nigeria, Mali, Guinea, Senegal, and Niger but can also be found in several other countries.
Language: The Fulani language, known as Fula, is classified within the Atlantic branch of the Niger-Congo language family.
Fulani are divided into three groups: Makiyaya (herders), Fulanin Soro (those living in towns) and Bararo, which refer to Fulani living in forests. Bararo retain a close cultural connection to ancestral nature belief systems and rituals.
Social structure of Fulani Community:
The social structure of the pastoral Fulani is egalitarian, in marked contrast to that of other Muslim groups, such as the Hausa.
They value family and community, with strong kinship ties and clear gender roles.
Polygamy is practiced, and marriage is an important cultural milestone, often accompanied by elaborate rituals and festivals.
Their traditions are deeply intertwined with their spirituality, which is influenced by Islam, as well as their connection to the land and nature.
Fulani women are also known for their skill in weaving and craftsmanship.
Fulani women are famous for their intricate hairstyles, which are often adorned with beads, cowrie shells, and other decorative elements.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/40-million-strong-fulani-found-from-atlantic-africa-to-lake-chad-have-roots-in-green-sahara-period-study
Ongole Cattle, recently seen in the news, are native to which Indian state?
Andhra Pradesh
Explanation :
A breed of Ongole cattle, named Viatina-19, recently made headlines in Brazil by fetching an astonishing $4.82 million (about 41 crore) at an auction, making it the most expensive cow in the world.
About Ongole Cattle:
It is a famous breed of indigenous cattle from India, native to the Prakasam district of Andhra Pradesh.
It is named after the town of Ongole. The breed is also known as “Nellore” as the Ongole area was earlier in the Nellore district.
The breed is known for hardiness, disease resistance, and capacity to thrive on scanty resources.
They are one of the most unique triple-purpose cattle of the tropics, serving well as draught, milk, and meat animals.
They are very fine and majestic-looking cattle, huge in size, extremely docile, and suitable for steady, heavy draught.
Features:
The breed has a glossy white coat colour.
Males possess dark markings on the head, neck, and hump and black points on the knees and pastern.
Horns are short and stumpy, growing outward and backward from the outer angles of the poll, thick at the base and firm without cracks.
In cows, horns are thinner than bulls. Horns in cows generally extend outward, upward, and inward.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/new-updates/this-andhra-origin-breed-becomes-worlds-most-expensive-cow-at-rs-41-crore-in-brazil-but-is-neglected-in-india/articleshow/118211049.cms?from=mdr
Under the current income tax system in India, what does the term “Assessment Year” refer to?
The year following the financial year in which income is earned.
Explanation :
The Income Tax Bill 2025, tabled in Parliament recently, defined a new concept of ‘tax year.
About ‘Tax Year’ Concept:
Currently, income tax laws use the assessment year to refer to the year following the financial year in which income is earned.
This often leads to confusion when filing taxes or depositing self-assessment and advance tax.
The new bill proposes a unified ‘Tax Year’, which will simply refer to the same financial year (April 1–March 31), in which income is earned and tax is filed.
Under the new system, the ‘Tax Year’ will run from April 1 to March 31, replacing the assessment year.
Benefits of Tax Year:
The primary benefit of Tax Year is that this will remove the confusion between Previous Year and Assessment Year.
This will also help India fall in line with international standards since many countries follow the concept of a singular tax year.
Advance tax computation will also be made easier since taxpayers will be able to refer to the Tax Year alone instead of navigating through Previous Year and Assessment Year.
An example of how Tax Year will work:
According to the Income Tax Act 1961, if a person earns in the year April 1, 2024–March 31, 2025, this time period will be known as the Previous Year and 2025-26 when tax will be assessed for said income; that time period is known as the Assessment Year.
In the new draft bill, if a person earns in the year April 1, 2025–March 31, 2026, it will simply be known as Tax Year 2025-26.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtvprofit.com/personal-finance/new-income-tax-bill-introduces-tax-year-concept-no-more-fy-ay-confusion-for-taxpayers
With reference to President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- The proclamation of President’s Rule should be approved in both Houses of Parliament by a special majority.
- President’s Rule can be revoked any time by a subsequent proclamation by the President, which does not require approval by Parliament.
- A law or rule made for the state during this time continues to remain in force even after the end of the President’s rule.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Four days after the Manipur Chief Minister resigned, President’s Rule was imposed in the northeastern State that has been affected by ethnic violence for the past two years.
About Article 356:
Article 356 of the Constitution of India pertains to the imposition of President’s rule over a certain State or Union Territory.
It is derived from the Government of India Act of 1935.
This is of two types:
If the President receives a report from the state’s Governor or is otherwise convinced or satisfied that the state’s situation is such that the state government cannot carry on the governance according to the provisions of the Constitution.
Article 365: As per this Article, President’s Rule can be imposed if any State fails to comply with all directions given by the Union on matters it is empowered to.
In simple words, the President’s Rule is when the state government is suspended and the Central Government directly administers the State through the office of the Governor (centrally appointed).
It is also called a State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency.
Parliamentary approval is necessary for the imposition of President’s Rule in any state.
The proclamation of President’s Rule should be approved in both Houses of Parliament within two months of its issue. The approval is by a simple majority.
The President’s Rule is initially valid for six months. It can be extended up to three years with Parliamentary approval every six months.
The 44th Amendment to the Constitution (1978) brought in some constraints on the imposition of the President’s Rule beyond a period of one year. It says that President’s Rule cannot be extended beyond one year unless:
There is a national emergency in India.
The Election Commission of India certifies that it is necessary to continue the President’s Rule in the state because of difficulties in conducting assembly elections in the state.
What happens after the President’s Rule is imposed?
The President takes up the functions of the state government, the Governor and any other executive authority in the state.
The state will be administered by the Governor on behalf of the President.
The Governor will also take the help of the Chief Secretary of the State or advisors appointed by the President.
The powers of the state legislature are also assumed by the President by either suspending or dissolving it.
The Parliament passes the state bills and budget when the legislative assembly is suspended or dissolved under the President’s rule.
The Parliament delegates law-making powers to the President or any other authority specified by he/she in this regard.
The President or a delegated authority makes laws and also imposes a duty upon the Centre, its officers and its authorities.
The President can sanction funds for expenditure from the State Consolidated Fund and also pass ordinances, subject to Parliament’s approval.
These powers can also be exercised when the Lok Sabha is not in session, subject to sanction by Parliament.
A law or rule made for the State during this time continues to remain in force even after the end of the President’s rule. It can be repealed, amended, or re-enacted by the new state legislature.
The imposition of the President’s rule does not affect the fundamental rights of citizens, unlike the National Emergency.
Revocation of the President’s Rule:
President’s Rule can be revoked any time after such a proclamation has been made by a subsequent proclamation by the President.
A proclamation of revocation does not require approval by Parliament.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/manipur/presidents-rule-imposed-in-manipur/article69215923.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Black Seadevil Fish, recently seen in the news:
- It is a deep-sea fish known for its terrifying appearance and unique hunting adaptations.
- It is classified as ‘endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently recorded the first-ever sighting of an adult abyssal anglerfish, also known as ‘black demon fish’ or ‘black seadevil fish’, in broad daylight.
About Black Seadevil Fish:
The Black Seadevil Fish, also known as abyssal or humpback anglerfish, is a deep-sea fish known for its terrifying appearance and unique hunting adaptations.
Scientific Name: Melanocetus johnsonii
It belongs to the anglerfish family (Melanocetidae).
It is referred to as the black devil due to its dark colours, sinister-looking sharp teeth, and monstrous shape.
Habitat: It is found in the deep ocean, often at depths exceeding 2,000 meters (6,600 feet). It prefers total darkness and high-pressure environments.
Features:
It has a huge head, glassy fangs, and a body that can stretch to contain prey larger than the fish itself.
It lures other fish towards it with a “fishing rod” with a luminous lure on its nose.
It has a gelatinous body, which helps it survive under extreme pressure.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/us/black-demon-fish-captured-for-first-time-on-video-heres-what-it-looks-like/articleshow/118124434.cms?from=mdr
With reference to the BRICS Grouping, consider the following:
- Saudi Arabia
- Indonesia
- Iran
- Qatar
- United Arab Emirates
How many of the above countries are members of BRICS Grouping?
Only four
Explanation :
The US President recently issued a blunt warning to BRICS nations, threatening a 100% tariff on all imports into the United States if they proceed with launching a common currency.
About BRICS Grouping:
BRICS is an acronym for Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, a bloc of countries that formed a partnership following the creation of the term in 2001 by Goldman Sachs economist Jim O’Neill (but it didn’t include South Africa at the time).
South Africa joined in 2010, making it “BRICS”.
Representatives of the BRIC countries first began meeting informally during the 2006 meeting of the United Nations General Assembly.
The group was designed to bring together the world’s most important developing countries to challenge the political and economic power of the wealthier nations of North America and Western Europe.
It is an attempt to form a geopolitical bloc capable of counterbalancing the influence of Western-dominated global institutions such as the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
The BRICS countries operate as an organization that seeks to further economic cooperation amongst member nations and increase their economic and political standing in the world.
New Members:
Saudi Arabia, Iran, Ethiopia, the United Arab Emirates, and Egypt joined BRICS in 2024.
Indonesia joined the bloc as a full member on January 6, 2025.
The expanded group has a combined population of about 3.5 billion, or 45% of the world’s inhabitants.
Combined, members’ economies are worth more than $28.5tn - about 28% of the global economy.
With Iran, Saudi Arabia, and UAE as members, BRICS countries produce about 44% of the world’s crude oil.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/foreign-trade/donald-trump-declares-brics-is-dead-claims-100-tariff-threat-stopped-blocs-dollar-moves/articleshow/118226943.cms?from=md
Consider the following statements regarding the Sudan Virus Disease:
- It is a viral hemorrhagic fever disease, belonging to the same family as Ebola virus disease.
- It cannot transfer from person-to-person even after direct contact with infected patient’s blood.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Ugandan government and the World Health Organization confirmed an outbreak of Sudan virus disease.
About Sudan Virus Disease:
It is a viral hemorrhagic fever disease, belonging to the same family as Ebola virus disease.
It was first identified in southern Sudan in June 1976.
It is caused by Sudan virus (SUDV). SUDV is enzootic and present in animal reservoirs in the region.
It is a severe disease with high case fatality.
Symptoms:
It is typically characterized by acute onset of fever with non-specific symptoms/signs (e.g., abdominal pain, anorexia, fatigue, malaise, myalgia, sore throat) usually followed several days later by nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and occasionally a variable rash. Hiccups may occur.
Severe illness may include hemorrhagic manifestations (e.g., bleeding from puncture sites, ecchymoses, petechiae, visceral effusions), encephalopathy, shock/hypotension, multi-organ failure.
Transmission: Person-to-person transmission occurs by direct contact with blood, other bodily fluids, organs, or contaminated surfaces and materials with risk beginning at the onset of clinical signs and increasing with disease severity.
Treatment: There are no approved treatments or vaccines for Sudan virus, but early initiation of supportive treatment has been shown to significantly improve health conditions.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/what-is-sudan-virus-and-how-similar-is-it-to-ebola
Consider the following statements regarding the PARAS-2 Spectrograph:
- It is a fiber-fed spectrograph located at Mt Abu Telescope.
- It operates in 380-690 nm wave-band and helps in detection of massive planets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, scientists at Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) discovered a new dense sub Saturn exoplanet TOI-6038A b by using PARAS-2 Spectrograph at Mt Abu Telescope.
About PARAS-2 Spectrograph:
The PRL Advanced Radial-velocity All-sky Search-2 (PARAS-2) is a cutting-edge fiber-fed spectrograph integrated with the PRL 2.5m telescope, constituting a significant advancement over its predecessor.
It is a state-of-the-art high-resolution spectrograph that operates in 380-690 nm wave-band.
It is aimed to unveil the super-Earth-like worlds.
It was conceived with the primary objective of achieving sub-m/s precision in radial velocity (RV), a crucial capability for the detection and characterization of super-Earths or massive planets orbiting G and K dwarf stars.
It is the highest-resolution spectrograph in Asia which is under ultra-stable temperature and pressure environment.
What is Exoplanet?
These are planets that orbit other stars and are beyond our solar system.
Exoplanets come in a host of different sizes. They can be gas giants bigger than Jupiter or as small and rocky as Earth.
They are also known to have different kinds of temperatures; boiling to cold.
The recently discovered sub Saturn exoplanet TOI-6038A b lies in the transition region between Neptune-like and gas giant exoplanets, called as “Sub-Saturn,” a category absent in our solar system, providing a unique opportunity to study planetary formation and evolution.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.isro.gov.in/PRL_Scientists_Discovered_DenseSub-Saturn.html
Consider the following statements regarding BrahMos NG Missile:
- It is an advanced supersonic cruise missile developed jointly by India-Russia.
- It will be able to fit on a wider array of platforms like Sukhoi-30MKI and Tejas fighter aircrafts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The next-generation BrahMos missile, known as BrahMos NG, is approaching its first flight test, slated for 2026, with production set to commence in 2027-28.
About BrahMos NG:
It is an advanced supersonic cruise missile developed jointly by India-Russia.
Features:
It is a sleeker missile with the same capabilities as its predecessor.
It is lighter, smaller and compact, due to its reduced size, the next-generation missile system will be able to fit on a wider array of platforms.
These include the Russian-origin Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft and India’s indigenously developed Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas, both of which will now be capable of deploying the BrahMos NG.
It weighs 1.6 tonnes and is 6 metres long while the older version weighed 3 tonnes and was 9 metres long.
Range and Speed: The missile has a range of 290 km and a speed of up to 3.5 Mach.
It will have a lesser radar cross-section in comparison to the previous version.
It will have a homemade seeker with an AESA radar which will enhance its precision and stealth capabilities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Feb/12/next-generation-brahmos-missile-to-make-first-flight-run-in-2026
With reference to J. C. Bose Grant Scheme, consider the following:
- It is designed to support senior-level researchers who have demonstrated exceptional achievements.
- It provides an annual research funding of Rs. 25 lakhs for duration of five years.
- The grant under this Scheme can be availed until the age of 55 years.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) has announced the launch of the new scheme J. C. Bose Grant (JBG).
About J. C. Bose Grant:
It is a restructured form of the J. C. Bose Fellowship running under erstwhile Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB).
It recognizes the outstanding performance and contributions of senior Indian scientists and engineers to enhance their research in cutting-edge scientific and technological areas.
It is designed to support senior-level researchers who have demonstrated exceptional achievements, with evidence of excellence such as publications records and research outcomes, patents, technology transfers, awards, and grants etc. across various domains of science and technology (S&T) including agriculture, medicine, as well as humanities and social sciences at the interfaces of S&T.
Eligibility: Participants must be active, senior Indian scientists or researchers with a proven track record of excellence, holding at least a Professor-level position or equivalent at an Indian institution/university.
Selection: The process of selection for J. C. Bose grants will be conducted once a year by a Search-cum-Selection Committee specially constituted for the purpose and as per the broad guidelines of the grant.
Grants:
This grant provides an annual research funding of Rs. 25 lakhs for a duration of five years.
Additionally, an annual overhead of Rs. 1.0 lakh will be provided to the implementing institution.
If the Principal Investigator (PI) superannuates, during the term of the grants, it can be continued subject to the host institutions willingness to host the PI. The grant can be availed until the age of 68.
Key facts about the Anusandhan National Research Foundation
It is an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction of scientific research in the country as per recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP) aims to seed, grow and promote research and development (R&D) and foster a culture of research and innovation.
It will support capacity building at all levels to strengthen the research ecosystem of the country.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2102312®=3&lang=1
Climate Risk Index, recently in news, is prepared by:
Germanwatch
Explanation :
According to a new Climate Risk Index report, India ranks sixth among the top 10 countries most affected by extreme weather events over the last three decades from 1993-2023.
About Climate Risk Index:
It is being published since 2006.
It is one of the longest running annual climate impact-related indices.
The CRI analyses climate-related extreme weather events’ degree of effect on countries. It measures the consequences of realised risks on countries.
This backward-looking index ranks countries by their economic and human impacts (fatalities as well as affected, injured, and homeless) with the most affected country ranked highest.
The findings of the report are based on extreme weather event data from the International Disaster Database (Em-dat) and socio-economic data from the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
It is published by Germanwatch, an independent development, environmental, and human rights organisation based in Bonn and Berlin.
Highlights of the Index
India is among the 10 countries most affected by extreme weather events between 1993 and 2022, accounting for 10% of global fatalities caused by such events, and 4.3% of the damage (in dollar terms).
It is ranked sixth in the Climate Risk Index, 2025, highlighting its vulnerability to the climate crisis
Dominica, China, Honduras, Myanmar, and Italy are ranked ahead of India.
India faced more than 400 extreme events, causing $ 180 billion in losses, and at least 80,000 fatalities.
India was affected by floods, heatwaves, and cyclones during the period. It experienced devastating floods in 1993, 1998, and 2013, along with severe heatwaves in 2002, 2003, and 2015.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/india-among-top-10-countries-most-affected-by-extreme-weather-events-economic-losses-amount-to-180-billion-over-last-three-decades-report
Consider the following statements regarding Amsterdam Island, recently seen in the news:
- It is a small island located in the Pacific Ocean.
- It is administered by France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
For nearly a month the French territory of Amsterdam Island in the southern Indian Ocean has been engulfed in flames.
About Amsterdam Island:
Referred to as Nouvelle Amsterdam or Île Amsterdam, Amsterdam Island is a small French island territory that is situated in the southern Indian Ocean.
Along with the neighboring Île Saint-Paul, Amsterdam Island is administered under the French Southern and Antarctic Territories.
It is located roughly midway between Australia, Antarctica, Madagascar, the Australian external territory of Cocos (Keeling) Islands, and British Indian Ocean Territory.
It is approximately 3,200 km away from each of these territories.
The elliptical-shaped volcanic Amsterdam Island covers an area of about 55 sq.km. and has a length of 10 km and a maximum width of 7 km.
The island is relatively recent, having formed between 400,000 and 200,000 years ago.
The island consists of a potentially active stratovolcano, although there are no historical records of volcanic eruptions on the island.
Flora & Fauna:
The endemic Amsterdam albatross is one of the world’s rarest species of avifauna, found only on Amsterdam Island.
Amsterdam Island is the only French sub-Antartic isle that supports a native tree, Phylica nitida.
Human Presence: The island has no permanent population but hosts a small scientific research station called Martin-de-Viviès, which is manned by a rotating team of scientists.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.bbc.com/news/articles/cew598rvxn7o
Consider the following statements regarding Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR):
1.It is a metric used to determine the revenue that telecom operators must share with the government in the form of licensing charges.
- AGR incorporates revenues from non-telecom sources such as deposit interests and sale of assets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently rejected Vodafone Idea and Bharti Airtel’s review petitions to correct errors in AGR dues calculations.
About Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR):
AGR is a metric used to determine the revenue that telecom operators must share with the government in the form of spectrum usage charges or licensing charges.
Under this mechanism, telecoms are required to share a percentage of AGR with the Department of Telecommunications.
Calculation of AGR and Controversy:
As per the Dept of Telecom, the AGR calculations should incorporate all revenues earned by a telecom company. This also includes revenues from non-telecom sources such as deposit interests and sale of assets.
The companies, however, are of the view that AGR should comprise the revenues generated from telecom services only, and non-telecom revenues should be kept out of it.
In October 2019, the Supreme Court widened the definition of AGR to include the government’s view.
The Supreme Court ordered it to include all revenues, except for termination fees and roaming charges, as a part of the AGR.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/telecom/telecom-news/vi-says-all-legal-options-in-agr-case-closed-after-sc-junks-last-review/articleshow/118248492.cms?from=mdr
Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Assam
Explanation :
After about 40 years, the Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary witnessed the movement of one-horned rhinos, and the wetlands are now in focus for drawing more water birds than Assam’s only Ramsar site, the Deepor Beel.
About Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located on the southern part of the Brahmaputra River in Nagaon District of Assam.
It covers an area of around 70.13 sq.km.
It was declared as a buffer zone of the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve in 2007 and became an integral part of the larger Laokhowa-Burachapori ecosystem.
It is a part of the Brahmaputra valley.
The sanctuary is surrounded by human-dominated areas on all sides except for the north.
Flora: Laokhowa is also rich in flora, with diverse plant species including grasslands, tropical moist deciduous forests, and semi-evergreen forests.
Fauna: Its main attraction is the Great Indian onehornedRhinocerous. Other animals found here are Indian Royal Bengal Tiger, Elephant, Wild Boar, Civet Cat, Leopard Cat, Hog Deer, Asian water buffalo, about 200 species of birds, including the Bengal Florican, Leopard, Asiatic Buffalo, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!state/assams-laokhowa-wildlife-sanctuary-shines-bright-in-water-bird-estimation-enn25020401006
What is the primary purpose of Matsya 6000, recently seen in the news?
Deep-sea mining and biodiversity studies
Explanation :
India’s first manned submersible, Matsya 6000, is expected to carry three people to a depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean by 2026, Union Minister of State for Science and Technology and Earth Sciences said recently.
About Matsya 6000:
Matsya 6000 is India’s deep-sea submersible designed for ocean exploration, particularly for deep-sea mining and biodiversity studies.
Developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) under the Samudrayaan Mission, it is capable of diving to a depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean.
Features:
It is equipped with cutting-edge technologies, including advanced life support systems, navigation equipment,robotic arms for sample collection, and high-resolution imaging systems.
Matsya 6000 will house a 2.1-metre internal diameter Titanium alloy personnel sphere to safely carry humans to a 6000 m depth.
The Titanium alloy personnel sphere is being integrated in collaboration with ISRO.
The manned submersible will also be “equipped with subsystems for buoyancy management enabling descent/ascent, power, and control systems, maneuvring propellers, sub-sea intervention manipulators, navigation and positioning devices, data and voice communication systems, on-board energy storage batteries, as well as systems for emergency support.
The submersible is designed to enable continuous operations at 6000 m depth for up to 12 hours with an emergency endurance of up to 96 hours for conducting deep water observation and exploration.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehansindia.com/news/national/indias-first-manned-submersible-matsya-6000-launch-in-2026-945471
Consider the following statements regarding Alzheimer’s Disease:
- It is a brain disorder that slowly destroys memory and thinking skills.
- It is completely curable with certain medications and therapies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
In a new research published in the journal Alzheimer’s & Dementia, scientists have found a single cause of development of Alzheimer’s disease, and that is the formation of stress granules.
About Alzheimer’s Disease:
Alzheimer’s disease is a brain disorder that slowly destroys memory and thinking skills and, eventually, the ability to carry out the simplest tasks.
It is the most common cause of dementia, a general term for memory loss and other cognitive abilities serious enough to interfere with daily life.
Alzheimer’s disease accounts for 60-80% of dementia cases.
It involves parts of the brain that control thought, memory, and language.
The condition usually affects people aged 65 years and over, with only 10% of cases occurring in people younger than this.
Cause: The exact cause of Alzheimer’s disease is not fully understood, but it is believed to be influenced by a combination of genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors.
Symptoms:
The early signs of the disease include forgetting recent events or conversations.
Over time, it progresses to serious memory problems and loss of the ability to perform everyday tasks.
On average, a person with Alzheimer’s lives four to eight years after diagnosis but can live as long as 20 years, depending on other factors.
Treatment: There’s no cure for Alzheimer’s, but certain medications and therapies can help manage symptoms temporarily.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/health-fitness/health-news/scientists-uncover-root-cause-of-alzheimers-disease-in-breakthrough-study/articleshow/118255397.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Foetus in Foetu:
- It is a rare congenital disorder which is also known as cryptodidymus.
- It is a result from an anomaly during the development of monozygotic twins.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, doctors at the Buldhana District Women’s Hospital in Maharashtra detected a rare case of “foetus in foetu” in a pregnant woman.
About Foetus in Foetu:
It is a rare congenital disorder which is also known as cryptodidymus.
It is a foetus-like mass developed within the body of the other foetus in a monozygotic twin pregnancy.
Basically, one twin is very underdeveloped and enwrapped inside the body of the other twin, so much so that the pregnancy is considered a singleton pregnancy.
The presence of a twin inside the body of the other twin may go undetected for years.
This condition occurs when a malformed foetus develops inside another foetus.
It affects about one in 500,000 births. Less than 200 cases have been reported worldwide, with about 10 to 15 cases in India.
Causes of Foetus in Foetu
The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it’s believed to result from an anomaly during the development of monozygotic or identical twins.
About 10 to 15 days after the conception of monozygotic twins, the cell mass of the embryo may be split unevenly, due to which one twin is smaller and incompletely formed with the other twin fully developed.
The smaller twin gets trapped within the larger twin. The trapped twin is considered “parasitic,” as it draws its blood supply and nutrients from the other “host” twin.
The trapped or “parasitic twin” has some morphologic features of a normal foetus such as an umbilical cord-like structure, a bag of membranes surrounding it, and blood vessel connections to the host twin. It may have a vertebral column, limbs, and a few organs but lacks vital organs like the brain, heart or gut. Despite having “living tissue,” the parasitic twin has no prospects of independent existence outside the host twin.
The presence of the parasitic twin affects the health of the host twin, who has to “feed” the former from the nutrients received over a single umbilical cord. In addition, enlargement of the trapped parasitic twin may compress vital organs in the host and cause discomfort or life-threatening complications.
Generally, the parasitic twin is found in the abdomen of the host twin. Rarely, it may be found in other organs like the brain or chest.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/fetus-in-fetu-a-twin-mystery/article69209604.ece#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding the U.S.-India COMPACT Initiative:
- It will lay the foundation for deepening military partnerships.
- Under this initiatives India and US aim to double bilateral trade to $500 billion by 2030 under “Mission 500.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the President of USA and Prime Minister of India launched the U.S.-India COMPACT initiative.
About U.S.-India COMPACT Initiative:
The Catalyzing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce & Technology (COMPACT) initiative will drive transformative change across key pillars of cooperation.
It is a framework that will lay the foundation for deepening military partnerships, with a clear focus on technology, trade, and defence industrial cooperation.
Under this initiative, they committed to a results-driven agenda with initial outcomes this year to demonstrate the level of trust for a mutually beneficial partnership.
Key features of COMPACT Initiative
New Defence Procurements & Regulatory Reforms: A new ten-year Framework for the US-India Major Defense Partnership, with the US pledging additional defence sales and co-production initiatives.
Advancing Defence Technologies & Military Collaboration: To accelerate cooperation in space, air defence, missile systems, maritime, and undersea operations. The launch of the Autonomous Systems Industry Alliance (ASIA) will spur innovation in AI-enabled counter-UAS and maritime defence.
Economic & Trade Expansion: Under this component both countries aim to double bilateral trade to $500 billion by 2030 under “Mission 500.” They plan to negotiate the first phase of a Bilateral Trade Agreement by fall 2025, focusing on fair trade, national security, and job creation.
Strengthening Technology & Innovation Ties: The launch of the US-India TRUST initiative will boost cooperation in defence, AI, semiconductors, quantum computing, biotechnology, energy, and space.
Boosting Space Cooperation & Critical Minerals Partnership: To deepen space collaboration includes the introduction of INDUS Innovation, inspired by the INDUS-X platform, which will drive academic and industrial partnerships in space and emerging tech.
Space Collaboration in 2025: NASA and ISRO partner via AXIOM to send the first Indian astronaut to the ISS and expedite the NISAR dual-radar satellite launch.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/world-news/us-india-military-cooperation-key-takeaways-from-the-modi-trump-talks/3748963/
Indirect Prompt Injection, recently in news, is a:
technique that manipulates chatbots into executing malicious commands
Explanation :
Recently, researchers warned that AI chatbots vulnerable to indirect prompt injection attacks.
About Indirect Prompt Injection:
It is a technique that manipulates chatbots into executing malicious commands.
It exploits the inherent nature of large language models (LLMs) to follow instructions embedded within the content they process.
By embedding malicious instructions within seemingly benign documents or emails, attackers can induce chatbots to perform unauthorised actions, such as searching for sensitive information or altering long-term memory settings.
Key facts about Large Language Models
It is a type of artificial intelligence (AI) program that can recognize and generate text, among other tasks.
They are trained on huge sets of data—hence the name “large.”
LLMs are built on machine learning: specifically, a type of neural network called a transformer model.
It is a computer program that has been fed enough examples to be able to recognize and interpret human language or other types of complex data.
Applications of Large Language Models
They can be trained to do a number of tasks. One of the most well-known uses is their application as generative AI: when given a prompt or asked a question, they can produce text in reply.
The publicly available LLM ChatGPT, for instance, can generate essays, poems, and other textual forms in response to user inputs.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/ai-chatbots-vulnerable-to-indirect-prompt-injection-attacks-researcher-warns/article69214527.ece
With reference to Bhadra Tiger Reserve, consider the following:
- It is located in the Western Ghats region of Kerala.
- It has both dry-deciduous and moist-deciduous vegetation.
- It is well drained by the river Bhadra and its tributaries.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Recently, wildlife activists have raised questions about the recent death of a leopard in the Bhadra Tiger Reserve and demanded a probe into the incident.
About Bhadra Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is situated in the midst of the Western Ghats region of Karnataka.
It boasts of a substantial tiger population and as such the sanctuary was declared the 25th Project Tiger reserve of India in 1998.
The reserve is unique as it is nestled within several hill ranges. The habitat has a good population of elephants and is also an Elephant Reserve.
It is well drained by the river Bhadra and its tributaries.
Vegetation: It has dry-deciduous, moist-deciduous, shola, and semi-evergreen patches.
Flora: Teak, Rosewood, Mathi, Honne, Nandi and many medicinal plants etc.
Fauna: Tiger, Leopard, Leopard cat, Dholes, Indian Civet, ungulates like Gaur, Sambar and Barking Deer are common.
Other Tiger Reserves of Karnataka: Bandipura, Nagarahole, Dandeli-Anshi and Biligiriranga Tiger Reserve.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/wildlife-activists-demand-probe-into-leopard-death-in-bhadra-tiger-reserve/article69220393.ece
Corruption Perceptions Index, recently in news, is prepared by:
Transparency International
Explanation :
According to a Transparency International report India ranked 96 out of 180 countries in the Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024.
About Corruption Perceptions Index:
It is the most widely used global corruption ranking in the world.
The index is published annually by the non-governmental organisation Transparency International since 1995.
It is an index which ranks countries “by their perceived levels of public sector corruption, as determined by expert assessments and opinion surveys.”
It generally defines corruption as an “abuse of entrusted power for private gain”.
It uses a scale of zero to 100, where “zero” is highly corrupt and “100” is very clean.
It measures how corrupt each country’s public sector is perceived to be, according to experts and business people.
The score for each country is derived from a minimum of three data sources, selected from 13 distinct corruption surveys and assessments. These sources are gathered by a range of reputed organisations, such as the World Bank and the World Economic Forum.
Highlights of Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) for 2024
The index, which lists countries by their perceived levels of public sector corruption, ranked Denmark at the top, followed by Finland, and Singapore.
This year’s Index highlighted the connection between climate action and corruption, linking it to the broader theme of climate financing.
It gave India a CPI score of 38. In 2023, India’s overall score was 39 while in 2022, it was 40. There is a decline in the score of India on CPI. In the Asia-Pacific region, the average score for the region has dropped by one point to 44 as the countries are still failing to deliver on anti-corruption pledges.
Corruption not only undermines development in a country but is also a key cause of declining democracy, instability, and human rights violations as highlighted by the report.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-ranks-96-out-of-180-countries-in-corruption-perceptions-index-2024/article69213911.ece
Consider the following statements regarding National Skill Development Corporation:
- NSDC acts as a catalyst in skill development by providing funding to enterprises, companies, and organizations that provide skill training.
- It also develops appropriate models to enhance, support and coordinate private sector initiatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) recently announced 50 new future skills centres and 10 international academies as part of the expansion of its skilling footprint across India and advanced skill development and training programs.
About National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC):
NSDC, established in 2009, is a not- for- profit company set up by the Ministry of Finance, under Section 25 of the Companies Act,1956.
NSDC aims to promote skill development by catalyzing the creation of large, quality, and for-profit vocational institutions.
NSDC provides funding to build scalable and profitable vocational training initiatives.
Its mandate is also to enable a support system which focuses on quality assurance, information systems, and train the trainer academies either directly or through partnerships.
NSDC acts as a catalyst in skill development by providing funding to enterprises, companies, and organizations that provide skill training.
It also develops appropriate models to enhance, support, and coordinate private sector initiatives.
The present equity base of NSDC is Rs. 10 Crore of which the government of India, through the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE), holds 49%, while the private sector holds the balance 51%.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/nsdc-to-set-up-50-new-future-skills-centres-10-international-academies-101739465058160.html
What does the term “colorectal disease” refer to?
Diseases affecting the colon and rectum
Explanation :
Medical experts have raised alarms over the rising incidence of colorectal diseases in India.
About Colorectal Diseases:
Colorectal disease is a general term used to describe many digestive conditions that affect the colon and rectum.
These diseases can be inflammatory, infectious, functional, or cancerous.
These conditions can range from mild to severe.
Colorectal diseases include colon and rectal cancer, diverticulitis, and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), such as Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, among others.
Colorectal diseases are very common. Some can cause recognizable symptoms such as abdominal pain or rectal bleeding. Others may progress silently, detectable only through screenings.
Common symptoms of colorectal diseases include:
Abdominal pain
Blood in your stool
Diarrhea or constipation that doesn’t go away
Rectal or anal pain
Prevention & Public Health Measures:
Dietary Changes: High-fiber diet (whole grains, fruits, vegetables), reduced red meat consumption.
Lifestyle Modifications: Regular physical activity, adequate hydration, avoiding smoking, and alcohol.
Screening & Early Detection:
Colonoscopy for individuals > 45 years.
Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) for detecting hidden blood in stool.
Public Health Initiatives: Awareness programs on colorectal cancer screening and lifestyle modifications.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News https://www.deccanchronicle.com/lifestyle/health-and-well-being/surge-in-colorectal-diseases-sparks-concern-among-medical-experts-1861426
Consider the following statements regarding White-Winged Duck, recently seen in the news:
- It is endemic to Western Ghats.
- It is classified as ‘critically endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A pair of rare endangered white-winged ducks (Deo Hanh), which is the state bird of Assam, was spotted in Dihing Patkai National Park by conservationists and forest officials recently.
About White-Winged Duck:
The White-Winged Duck, also known as the White-Winged Wood Duck, is a large, rare, and endangered species of duck found in freshwater wetlands and dense tropical forests of South and Southeast Asia.
Scientific Name: Asarcornis scutulata
In Assamese, it is known as ‘Deo Hans’ or spirit duck because of its ghostly call.
It is considered one of the most threatened waterfowl species in the world.
Distribution:
Prefers dense tropical and subtropical forests with slow-moving rivers, swamps, and wetlands.
Found in India (Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur), Bangladesh, Myanmar, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, Vietnam, Indonesia (Sumatra), and Malaysia.
In India, it is mostly found in the Dibru-Saikhowa National Park, Kaziranga National Park, and the wetlands of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.
Features:
It has a black body, a white head that is thickly spotted with black, conspicuous white patches on the wings, and red or orange eyes.
Its average length is about 81 cm.
The sexes are more or less alike, the male having more gloss on the plumage, and being much larger and heavier.
It is a crepuscular bird, as it is most active at dusk and dawn.The adults are largely omnivorous.
Conservation Status:
IUCN RedList: Critically Endangered
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/rare-white-winged-ducks-spotted-in-assam-forest/articleshow/118284336.cms
Simlipal Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Odisha
Explanation :
The Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) authorities recently arrested six poachers for hunting a mouse deer within the South wildlife division.
About Simlipal Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located within the Mayurbhanj District, in the Northern-most part of Odisha.
It is spread over 2750 sq.km. and has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani.
History and current status:
It was formally designated a tiger reserve under Project Tiger in May 1973.
It was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in 1979.
Later in 1980, Government of Orissa proposed 303 sq. km of the sanctuary as National Park.
UNESCO added this National Park to its list of Biosphere Reserves in May 2009.
It comes under Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve that includes the adjacent Hadgarh and Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuaries.
It is surrounded by high plateaus and hills, the highest peak being the twin peaks of Khairiburu and Meghashini (1515m above mean sea level).
The terrain is mostly undulating and hilly, interspersed with open grasslands and wooded areas.
Vegetation: It is a mix of different forest types and habitats, with Northern tropical moist deciduous dominating some semi-evergreen patches.
Fauna:
It is known for the tiger, elephant and hill mynah.
It holds the highest tiger population in the state of Orissa.
55 species of mammals, 304 species of birds, 60 species of reptiles, 21 species of frogs, 38 species of fish and 164 species of butterflies have been recorded from the reserve.
Fauna: An astounding 1078 species of plants, including 94 species of orchids are found here.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2025/Feb/16/six-poachers-held-in-odishas-similipal-tiger-reserve
Which tectonic plates are involved in the location of Mount Etna, recently seen in the news?
African and Eurasian Plates
Explanation :
Mount Etna, Europe’s tallest and most active volcano, has erupted once again, sending lava flows and thick clouds of ash into the sky.
About Mount Etna:
Also known by its Latin name ‘Aetna,’ Mount Etna is an active stratovolcano situated in the Metropolitan City of Catania on the eastern coast of the Italian island of Sicily.
It is located above the convergent plate boundary between the African and Eurasian Plates, and is one of the most active volcanoes in the world.
It is one of Europe’s tallest active volcanoes and Italy’s highest peak, located south of the Alps.
Etna covers an area of 1,190 sq.km. with a basal circumference of 140 km.
Due to its recent volcanic activities and closeness to densely populated areas, the United Nations designated Mount Etna as a Decade Volcano.
It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/travel/news/mount-etna-erupts-again-spews-fire-and-ash-disrupting-travel-in-sicilyall-details-here/articleshow/118214703.cms
Sources:https://www.britannica.com/place/Mount-Etna
https://volcano.si.edu/volcano.cfm?vn=211060
https://artsandculture.google.com/entity/mount-etna/m016pdb?categoryid=place
https://www.worldatlas.com/volcanoes/mount-etna-sicily.html
https://www.atlasobscura.com/articles/mount-etna-decipoint
https://www.worldatlas.com/articles/interesting-facts-about-mount-etna.html
ImageLink: https://images.squarespace-cdn.com/content/v1/57fde0228419c2d82f755f93/1679371462455-82PQN6LZGOQSTA749CG2/bg-Volcano-Etna-eruption-in-Sicily.jpg?format=1000w
Consider the following statements regarding the NAMASTE Scheme:
- It targets sewer and septic tank sanitation workers (SSWs) and wastepickers in urban areas of India.
- It is jointly being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment (SJ&E) distributed Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) kits and Ayushman health cards to Sewer and Septic Tank Workers under the flagship scheme of National Action for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE).
About NAMASTE Scheme:
The objective of the “National Action for Mechanised Sanitation Ecosystem” (NAMASTE) scheme is to formalize and institutionalize the persons engaged in hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks and promoting safe and mechanized cleaning through trained sanitation workers.
It is jointly supervised by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Implementing agency: It is implemented by the National Safai Karmacharis Finance Development Corporation (NSKFDC) under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE).
Duration: It would be implemented for three years from FY 2023-24 to FY 2025-26.
Target Groups: Sewer and septic tank sanitation workers (SSWs) and waste pickers in urban areas of India
What are the Aims of NAMASTE Scheme?
Zero fatalities in sanitation work in India
All sanitation work is performed by skilled workers
No sanitation workers come in direct contact with human fecal matter
Sanitation workers are collectivized into SHGs and are empowered to run sanitation enterprises
All Sewer and Septic tank sanitation workers (SSWs) have access to alternative livelihoods
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2103177
Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf of Eilat:
- It is also known as Gulf of Aqaba which is the northeastern extension of the Red Sea.
- It is bordered by the countries of Israel, Jordan, Egypt, and Saudi Arabia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A new study reveals that coral reefs in the Gulf of Eilat experienced a surprising 3,000-year ‘shutdown’ in growth, from about 4,400 to 1,000 years ago, likely due to a temporary drop in sea level that could have been caused by global cooling.
About Gulf of Eilat:
It is also known as Gulf of Aqaba which is the northeastern extension of the Red Sea.
The northern portion of the Red Sea is divided by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba in the east and the Gulf of Suez in the west.
It is located along the southeastern edge of the Sinai Peninsula and to the west of the Arabian Peninsula.
It forms an integral part of the East African Rift System and was created by seismic activity along the Afro-Syrian Rift.
The Tiran Strait connects the Gulf of Aqaba with the Red Sea. It also serves as a connecting point between the continents of Asia and Africa.
It supports unique and diverse aquatic ecosystems and serves as a vital habitat for some of the world’s richest coral reefs.
It is bordered by the countries of Israel, Jordan, Egypt and Saudi Arabia.
Some of the major cities that are situated on the northern end of the Gulf of Aqaba include Taba (Egypt), Eilat (Israel), and Aqaba (Jordan).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/reader?utm_source=Hindu&utm_medium=Menu&utm_campaign=Header&_gl=11qyuzvi_gcl_au*MTQ3ODQ2ODY3NC4xNzM5MDI1MzE2LjIwMTgxODEwNDcuMTczOTU4OTQyNC4xNzM5NTg5NDI0
Anamudi Shola National Park, recently in news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
Recently, the Kerala Water Authority confirmed that the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has given the green light to use 0.0442 hectares of forest land from Anamudi Shola National Park to construct the weir across the Silandhi river.
About Anamudi Shola National Park:
It is located in the Western Ghats region of the Kerala.
It is surrounded by Eravikulam National park, Pampadum Shola National park, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary and Mathikettan Shola Park.
Its tallest peak is Anamudi.
Vegetation:
It consists of southern subtropical hill forests, southern montane wet temperate forests and moist deciduous forests.
The unique thing in the dense shola woods that houses a dense patch of stunted trees will be the luxurious presence of lichen, mosses, and climbers.
Flora: The place is home to around 174 species of herbs and shrubs, 62 species of trees and around 40 species of climbers of which quite a few of them are endemic..
Fauna: It is home to Leopards, civet cats, wolves, Indian bison, wild boars, elephants, tigers, Panther, and sloth bears etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/kerala-gets-wildlife-board-approval-for-silandhi-check-dam-likely-to-trigger-dispute-with-tn-101739559412976-amp.html
With reference to Hangul Deer, consider the following:
- It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and Kashmir.
- It has a matriarchal society, where the females lead the groups.
- It is categorized as endangered species under IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, scientists at the CSIR-Centre for Cellular & Molecular Biology (CCMB) have highlighted the need for minimising human disturbances during the mating and birthing seasons for population recovery of the Hangul Deer living in the Himalayas.
About Hangul Deer:
It is also known as the Kashmir stag which is a subspecies of Central Asian red deer endemic to Kashmir and surrounding areas.
Habitat: It is found in dense riverine forests in the high valleys and mountains of Jammu and Kashmir and northern Himachal Pradesh.
Appearance: The Hangul is a large deer and the male deer have impressive antlers. The female Hangul do not have horns.
In Kashmir, it is found primarily in the Dachigam National Park where it receives protection.
A small population has also been witnessed in Overa-Aru Wildlife Sanctuary in south Kashmir.
The hangul has a matriarchal society, where the females lead the groups and choose the mating partners.
The breeding season occurs from September to October, when the males compete for the females by roaring, fighting and displaying their antlers.
Conservation status
IUCN: Critically Endangered
CITES : Appendix I
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/humans-putting-himalayan-hangul-deer-under-stress-during-mating-birthing-seasons/article69216340.ece
With reference to Sarojini Naidu, consider the following:
- She was famously known as the “Nightingale of India” for her lyrical poetry.
- She becomes the first Indian women to preside Indian National Congress in 1925 held in Lucknow.
- She was involved in Non-cooperation movement and Salt Satyagraha.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
National Women’s Day is observed annually in India on February 13th to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sarojini Naidu.
About Sarojini Naidu:
Sarojini Naidu was born on February 13, 1879 in Hyderabad.
She was a renowned Indian poet, freedom fighter and politician.
She was famously known as the “Nightingale of India” for her lyrical poetry.
She contributed significantly to India’s independence movement.
Role in India’s Independence Movement
She took part in the Congress session in Bombay in 1904.
She made associations with Gokhale, Tagore, Annie Besant, Gandhi and Nehru.
She went on to become the first Indian women to preside Indian National Congress in 1925 at its 40th session, Kanpur.
Naidu was involved in Non-cooperation movement, Home Rule movement, Salt Satyagraha.
In 1917 she headed the All-India Women’s Deputation and championed women’s suffrage before E. S. Montagu (Secretary of State for India).
In the same year, she along with Annie Besant and others set up the Women’s India Association.
Contribution to Constitution Making: She was appointed to the Constituent Assembly from Bihar. She spoke about the importance of adopting a national flag in the Assembly.
Naidu was appointed as the Governor of Uttar Pradesh from 15th August 1947.
Key Writings of Sarojini Naidu
The Golden Threshold, Bird of Time, The Broken Wing and The Feather of the Dawn.
Additionally, she authored Mahatma Gandhi: His Life, Writings and Speeches and Words of Freedom: Ideas of a Nation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/national-women-s-day-2025-history-significance-quotes-and-more-nc-125021300039_1.html
Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
The carcass of a male elephant aged around 45-50 years was recently found in the dense forests of the Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS) near the Indo-Nepal border.
About Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary (KWS):
Location: It is a protected area in the Upper Gangetic plain in Uttar Pradesh.
In 1987, it was brought under the purview of the ‘Project Tiger’, and together with the Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary and the Dudhwa National Park, it forms the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve.
The total area of KWS is 400.09 sq.km. which is a part of the core area of Dudhwa Tiger reserve.
It provides strategic connectivity between the tiger habitats of Dudhwa and Kishanpur in India and the Bardia National Park in Nepal.
Vegetation: Its fragile Terai ecosystem comprises a mosaic of sal and teak forests, lush grasslands, numerous swamps, and wetlands.
Flora: It is predominantly Sal Forest with its associate tree species like Terminalia alata (Asna), Lagerstroemia parviflora (Asidha), Adina cordifonia (Haldu), Mitragyna parpiflora (Faldu), Gamelina arborea (Gahmhar), etc.
Fauna:
It is home to a number of endangered species, including the Gharial, tiger, rhino, swamp deer, hispid hare, Bengal florican, and white-backed and long-billed vulture
The Gairwa River, which flows in the KWS area, is declared a sanctuary for Mugger and Gharial. It is also home to rare turtles, freshwater fish, and a host of aquatic life
It is among the few places in India where freshwater dolphins, also known as Gangetic dolphins, are found in their natural habitat.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/others/elephant-carcass-found-in-katarniaghat-wildlife-sanctuary-101739641400870.html
Consider the following statements regarding Measles:
- It is a highly contagious disease caused by a virus.
- Currently, no specific treatment exists for measles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Measles, a highly contagious virus, is making a comeback in the U.S., particularly in states like Texas due to lower vaccination rates and international travel.
About Measles:
It is a highly contagious and serious airborne disease.
It is caused by a virus in the paramyxovirus family, and is normally passed through direct contact and the air.
The virus infects the respiratory tract, then spreads throughout the body, causing severe disease, complications, and even death.
Symptoms:
The first sign of measles is usually high fever, beginning about 10 to 14 days after exposure to the virus and lasting four to seven days.
A runny nose, cough, red and watery eyes, and small white spots inside the cheeks can develop in the initial stage.
A rash erupts after several days, usually on the face and upper neck. The rash spreads over about three days, eventually reaching the hands and feet, and lasts five to six days before fading.
Who is at risk?
Any non-immune person (not vaccinated or vaccinated but did not develop immunity) can become infected.
Unvaccinated young children and pregnant persons are at the highest risk of severe measles complications.
Treatment: No specific antiviral treatment exists for measles.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/texas-measles-outbreak-how-to-stay-safe-from-this-infectious-disease/articleshow/118308735.cms
What was the main cause of the decline of the Kalyana Chalukya dynasty?
Confrontation with the Chola dynasty.
Explanation :
Three Kannada inscriptions from the Kalyana Chalukya era were noticed for the first time in Kankal village in the Pudur mandal of Vikarabad district.
About Kalyana Chalukyas:
The Chalukyas ruled over the central Indian plateau of the Deccan between the sixth and twelfth centuries.
During that period, they ruled as three closely related but individual dynasties.
The Chalukyas of Badami, who ruled between the sixth and eighth centuries, and the two sibling dynasties of the Chalukyas of Kalyani, or the Western Chalukyas, and the Chalukyas of Vengi, or the Eastern Chalukyas
Kalyana Chalukyas:
Primarily a Kannadiga dynasty, they were known after their capital city, Kalyani. It is present in the modern-day Bidar district of Karnataka.
The empire was established by Tailapa II when the Western Chalukya was a feudatory of the Rashtrakuta Empire and Tailapa II governed Tardavadi in the Bijapur district of Karnataka.
In the 300 years long rule in the western Deccan and southern part of the Indian peninsula, Chalukya of Kalyani expanded and reached the zenith of power during the rule of Vikramaditya VI (1076-1126 CE).
It is considered the most successful period of the later Chalukya rulers in Karnataka’s history, and many scholars refer to this period as the ‘Chalukya Vikrama era’.
Vikramaditya VI was not only controlling feudatories in the northern region, such as Kadamba Jayakesi II of Goa, Silhara Bhoja, and the Yadava King; he won several battles against the Chola dynasty.
Decline:
After Vikramaditya VI’s death, the consistent confrontation with the Chola dynasty exploited both empires and gave opportunities to their subordinates to rebel.
After 1126, the Western Chalukya empire started declining, and by the time of Jagadhekamalla II, everything was falling apart.
Administration, Art, and Architecture:
The Western Chalukya administration was mainly hereditary, where the king passed his powers to the male heir and brother in the absence of a male heir.
The whole kingdom was divided and managed by feudatories such as the Hoysala and the Kakatiya.
While the Chalukya Dynasty maintained a great army of infantries, cavalries, elephant units, etc, the Western Chalukyas followed the trend and achieved a great extent of power.
They were primarily Hindus but also acknowledged and tolerant of Buddhism and Jainism.
The Chalukyas contributed greatly to the development of Kannada and Telugu literature.
The Western Chalukya minted punch-marked gold coins called pagodas with Kannada legends.
The Western Chalukya dynasty is considered to be a crucial era for the evolution of Deccan architecture.
Their art is also called the ‘Gadag style’ because numerous temples were built in the Tungabhadra-Krishna doab region in the present-day Gadag district.
The Mallikarjuna temple of Bellary, Siddeshvara temple in Haveri, Kallesvara temple in Davangere district, etc are a few of the finest examples of later Chalukya architecture.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/900-yr-old-inscriptions-found-in-vikarabad-dist/articleshow/118309860.cms
Consider the following:
- Himachal Pradesh
- Uttar Pradesh
- Haryana
Yamuna River flows through how many of the above states?
All three
Explanation :
A large-scale effort to clean the heavily polluted River Yamuna commenced recently, guided by a four-pronged strategy, aimed to restore the river within three years.
About Yamuna River:
Yamuna is the major tributary of the Ganga River.
It rises in the Himalayas, from the Yamunotri Glacier, at the height of 4,421 meters.
Course:
Originating near Banderpooch peaks at a height of 6,387 meters at Yamunotri Glacier, it travels a length of 1,376 kilometers before merging with River Ganges at Sangam in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh.
It is the longest river in India which does not directly flow to the sea.
The river water flows through the states of Uttarkhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan out of which only Rajasthan does not fall in its riparian zone.
It has four main tributaries in the Himalayan region: Rishi Ganga, Hanuman Ganga, Tons and Giri. In the plains, the main tributaries are Hindon, Chambal, Sind, Betwa and Ken. Tons, being the major tributary, contributes to about 60 percent flow of the Yamuna.
The Chambal River is Yamuna’s biggest tributary on the right.
The confluence of the two rivers is an especially sacred place to Hindus and is the site of annual festivals as well as the Kumbh Mela, which is held every 12 years.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/politics/yamuna-river-pollution-cleanup-drive-delhi-lg-bjp-government-aap-1250217002
Gravehawk System, recently seen in the news, is a short-range surface-to-air missile system developed by which one of the following countries?
United Kingdom
Explanation :
Ukraine has reportedly acquired a new weapon system to defend against the barrage of missiles unleashed by Russia: the Gravehawk hybrid surface-to-air missile system.
About Gravehawk System:
It is a short-range surface-to-air missile system developed by the United Kingdom.
It is designed to address short-range threats, particularly those posed by fast-moving airborne objects.
It is mounted on an all-terrain vehicle chassis, allowing for rapid deployment and mobility on the ground.
It is equipped with infrared-guided missiles, including the AIM-132 ASRAAM and the Wympel R-73.
The missiles can reach speeds of up to Mach 2.5 and engage targets at a range of approximately 12 miles, making them effective against drones, cruise missiles, and low-flying aircraft.
One of the system’s key advantages is its passive infrared guidance, which eliminates the need for radar emissions that could expose its location to enemy forces.
The containerized launch system also incorporates electro-optical and infrared targeting cameras, allowing remote operation so that operators can fire missiles from a safe distance.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eurasiantimes.com/soviet-r-73-air-to-air-missiles-to-plug-gaping/
Consider the following statements regarding the Loggerhead Turtle:
- It uses the geomagnetic field as a map when navigating large distances.
- It is only found in the Pacific Oceans and Mediterranean Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A recent study revealed that the loggerhead turtle can learn and remember the magnetic signature of an area and does a ‘turtle dance’ when in a location that they associate with food.
About Loggerhead Turtle:
It is a species of oceanic turtle belonging to the family Cheloniidae.
It is named Loggerhead for their large heads that support powerful jaw muscles.
It is the world’s largest hard-shelled turtle, slightly larger at average and maximum mature weights than the Green sea turtle and the Galapagos tortoise.
It is also the world’s second largest extant turtle after the leatherback sea turtle.
It uses the geomagnetic field as a map when navigating large distances.
Distribution: It has a cosmopolitan distribution, nesting over the broadest geographical range of any sea turtle. It inhabits the Atlantic, Indian and Pacific Oceans, and the Mediterranean Sea.
Diet: It is omnivorous, feeding mainly on bottom-dwelling invertebrates, such as gastropods, bivalves, and decapods. It has a greater list of known prey than any other sea turtle.
Conservation status:
IUCN: Vulnerable
Threats: Bycatch in fishing gear, Climate change, Direct harvest of turtles and eggs, Loss and degradation of nesting habitat, Ocean pollution/marine debris.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/loggerhead-turtles-use-geomagnetic-field-to-navigate-large-distances/article69219813.ece
Consider the following statements regarding International Classification of Diseases:
- It is a flagship World Health Organization product.
- It provides critical knowledge on the extent, causes and consequences of human disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has released the 2025 edition of the International Classification of Diseases 11th Revision (ICD-11).
About International Classification of Diseases:
It is a flagship World Health Organization product that serves as the basis for identifying health trends and statistics at country level and worldwide.
ICD is at the foundation of WHO’s Fourteenth General Programme of Work efforts to accelerate progress towards health-related Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), addressing inequalities and achieving relevant national health targets.
Uses: It serves a broad range of uses globally and provides critical knowledge on the extent, causes and consequences of human disease and death worldwide via data that is reported and coded with the ICD.
Clinical terms coded with ICD are the main basis for health recording and statistics on disease in primary, secondary and tertiary care, as well as on cause of death certificates.
In India, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence (CBHI) is an agency under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that serves as the WHO Collaboration Centre for ICD-related activities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.who.int/news/item/14-02-2025-who-releases-2025-update-to-the-international-classification-of-diseases-(icd-11)
Exercise Komodo, recently in news, is a:
multilateral naval exercise
Explanation :
Indian Navy platforms INS Shardul and long range maritime surveillance P8I aircraft are in Bali, Indonesia, to participate in the International Fleet Review (IFR) 2025 and also in Exercise Komodo.
About Exercise Komodo:
It was first launched in 2014, is a non-combat military exercise organized by the Indonesian Navy to foster maritime cooperation among friendly nations.
It is a multilateral naval exercise aimed at enhancing maritime interoperability and regional security cooperation.
This year it is themed “Maritime Partnership for Peace and Stability”.
The exercise is the fifth edition of the biennial event and began with a fleet review, where participating nations showcased their naval capabilities, including warships, helicopters, and aircraft.
This year’s drill includes various naval exercises alongside an officer exchange forum, bilateral meetings between naval forces, an international maritime security symposium, a defense exhibition, and cultural parades.
It is involving 39 countries and featuring 34 foreign and 18 Indonesian Navy warships.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2103820
With reference to Prime Minister’s Yoga Award, consider the following:
- It was established to honor the profound impact of Yoga on society.
- An individual applying for this award must be 40 years or older.
- It is conferred only to an individual should have at least 20 years of dedicated service in Yoga promotion.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Ayush announces the opening of nominations for the prestigious Prime Minister’s Yoga Awards for the 2025 edition of the International Day of Yoga (IDY2025).
About Prime Minister’s Yoga Award:
It recognizes individuals and organizations that have made significant and sustained contributions to the promotion and development of Yoga, both nationally and internationally.
It was established to honor the profound impact of Yoga on society and aim to celebrate exemplary contributions to the field, reinforcing Yoga’s role in disease prevention, health promotion, and the management of lifestyle-related disorders.
The awards will be conferred in the National Individual, National Organization, International Individual, and International Organization categories, with each winner receiving a Trophy, Certificate, and a Cash Award of Rs. 25 lakh.
Eligibility: Individuals applying must be 40 years or older and should have at least 20 years of dedicated service in Yoga promotion.
Entities can apply directly or be nominated by a prominent Yoga organization. Each applicant/nominee can apply for only one category (National or International) per year.
Selection committee: A Screening Committee constituted by the Ministry of Ayush will review all applications and recommend a maximum of 50 names per award category to the Evaluation Jury.
The Jury, comprising eminent personalities from various fields, will be the apex decision-making body.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2103817#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding the TrailGuard AI system:
- It is a camera-based alert system designed for enhancing wildlife conservation and promoting human-wildlife coexistence.
- It autonomously detects target objects and transmits real-time alerts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Similipal Tiger Reserve is the first reserve where TrailGuard AI system has shown success as an ‘anti-poaching tool.’
About TrailGuard AI System:
It is an end-to-end, camera-based alert system designed for enhancing wildlife conservation and promoting human-wildlife coexistence in remote areas.
Features:
The system combines durable outdoor hardware, on-the-edge AI algorithms, and real-time transmission capabilities, and can be deployed along trails or access points in areas of interest.
Its battery lasts for six months to one year based on the number of photos it sends
It autonomously detects target objects, and transmits real-time alerts that can trigger rapid-response to entry by poachers or illegal loggers, wildlife entering agricultural or pastoral lands, or status of endangered or exotic invasive species.
It transmits human and wildlife activities in remote areas in under 30 seconds, enabling real-time interventions.
Working of TrailGuard AI System
They operate on a low-power mode by default but switch to a high-power mode when they sense movement, and capture an image.
The camera then performs AI inference on the edge, meaning it uses the chip inside to sort between various object classes such as ‘animals’, ‘humans’, and ‘vehicles’ in the image.
If the AI deems it necessary, it autonomously transmits an image using the cellular system attached to the camera to an end-user in 30-40 seconds.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/ai-fit-cameras-in-similipal-tiger-reserve-send-poaching-plummeting/article69225924.ece
Which of the following is excluded from the eligible projects for Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) in India?
Nuclear power generation
Explanation :
Like several emerging markets, India also turned to sovereign green bonds to help fund its transition to a low-carbon economy, but investor demand remains weak.
About Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs):
SGrBs are debt securities issued by a national government to fund projects that have positive environmental benefits.
The proceeds from these bonds are exclusively allocated to green initiatives, which can include renewable energy projects, sustainable agriculture, waste management, and more.
Essentially, these bonds are a way for governments to raise capital while promoting environmental sustainability.
Sovereign Green Bonds in India:
The Union Budget 2022-23 announced the issue of SGrBs.
The framework for the SGrBs was issued by the government on November 9, 2022.
What does the framework entail?
The government’s framework is based on the International Capital Market Association’s (ICMA) listed principles for issuing green bonds, which has four components:
Use of proceeds, project evaluation and selection, management of proceeds, and reporting.
The government said the bonds’ proceeds will be used for green projects that:
Encourage energy efficiency
Reduce carbon emissions and greenhouse gases
Promote climate resilience and/or adaptation
Improve natural ecosystems and biodiversity, especially in accordance with the principles of sustainable development goals
The framework listed investments in solar, wind, biomass, and hydro energy projects, and urban mass transportation projects such as metro rail, green buildings, pollution prevention and control projects.
The government excluded projects such as fossil fuels, nuclear power generation, and direct waste incineration.
The eligible expenditure is limited to government spending that occurred not more than 12 months prior to issuance.
The proceeds should be allocated to projects within 24 months of issuing the bonds.
If an eligible green project is postponed or cancelled, it will be replaced by another eligible green project.
How will green projects be evaluated and reported?
The Ministry of Finance has constituted a Green Finance Working Committee composed of relevant ministries and chaired by the chief economic adviser.
The ministries will submit their projects to the committee, which will meet at least twice a year to evaluate the proposals.
Once the projects are evaluated, the final list will be given to the budget division of the finance ministry.
The division will then issue the bonds through the RBI and use the proceeds to finance the selected projects.
The government will release an annual report on the selection of green projects, the funds deployed, and their impact on the greening of the economy.
It will also maintain a Green Register with details of the green bond issuance, the proceeds generated, allocations made, and information about the eligible projects.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-economics/sovereign-green-bonds-weak-india-9837469/
Parambikulam Tiger Reserve lies in which state?
Kerala
Explanation :
A faunal survey by the Forest Department at the Parambikulam Tiger Reserve has added 15 new species to the protected area’s checklist.
About Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:
It is a protected area located in the Palakkad and Thrissur districts of Kerala.
It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2009 under Project Tiger.
It covers an area of 391 sq.km.
Rivers: The Parambikulam, Sholayar, and Thekkady rivers flow through the reserve, supporting its rich biodiversity.
It is home to the four different tribes of Kadar, Malasar, Muduvar, and Mala Malasar which are settled in six different colonies inside the protected reserve.
Flora:
The habitat comprises predominantly mixed deciduous, evergreen, and semi-evergreen forests.
Other unique habitats like montane and marshy grasslands, locally known as ‘vayals’, are also found.
Teak plantations and deep freshwater ecosystems created by three dams further add to the diversity.
Fauna:
It hosts one of the densest gaur populations and is home to 49 species of mammals, including Bengal tigers, Asian elephants, Indian leopards, spotted deer, and the more uncommon lion-tailed macaques and Nilgiri marten.
Tomopterna parambikulamana (Parambikulam Frog) and one species of sucker fish, Garro surendranathanii, are endemic to the reserve.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/parambikulam-tiger-reserve-adds-15-new-species-to-its-biodiversity-checklist/article69230515.ece
Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missile, recently seen in the news, is developed by which country?
United States
Explanation :
India and the US recently announced plans to pursue new procurements and co-production arrangements for Javelin anti-tank guided missiles, to meet the defense requirements of India.
About Javelin Anti-Tank Guided Missile:
It is a man-portable, fire-and-forget, anti-tank guided missile.
It is developed and produced jointly by American defence majors Raytheon and Lockheed Martin.
It was designed to defeat heavily armored vehicles such as main battle tanks and lighter-skinned military vehicles.
The weapon also has capability against other target types like fortifications, bunkers, and helicopters.
Features:
It has an effective range of 2.5 km.
It is a fire-and-forget missile with lock-on before launch and automatic self-guidance.
It uses automatic infrared guidance that allows the user to seek cover immediately after launch.
The Javelin’s HEAT warhead is capable of defeating modern tanks by attacking them from above where their armor is thinnest (see top-attack), and is also useful against fortifications in a direct attack flight.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.theweek.in/news/defence/2025/02/14/what-is-javelin-anti-tank-guided-missiles-which-india-is-set-to-procure-from-us-and-co-produce.html
Souparnika River flow through which state?
Karnataka
Explanation :
Environmentalists have raised alarm over an alarming increase in pollution in the Souparnika River, which flows beside the Kollur Mookambika Temple.
About Souparnika River:
The Souparnika River is a west-flowing river in Karnataka.
The river is surrounded by lush green forests of the Western Ghats.
Course: Originating from the Kodachadri Hills in the Western Ghats, it flows through the Byndoor taluk, passing near the renowned Mookambika Temple in Kollur, before merging with the Arabian Sea.
The Souparnika River is deeply associated with Hindu mythology.
Legend has it that Garuda (the divine bird and vehicle of Lord Vishnu) performed penance on the riverbanks, which is how it got its name “Souparnika” (named after “Suparna,” another name for Garuda).
A unique feature of the Souparnika River is observed near Maravanthe Beach, where the river runs parallel to the Arabian Sea, separated by a narrow stretch of land.
This rare geographical phenomenon offers a picturesque landscape, making it a popular spot for tourists and photographers.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/mangaluru/greens-raise-alarm-over-pollution-in-sowparnika-river/articleshow/118336716.cms
Consider the following statements with respect to Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA):
- It is a statutory body established working under the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare, Government of India.
- It provides financial assistance, information, and guidelines for the development of scheduled products like fruits, vegetable, meat, etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA), in collaboration with AgroStar and Kay Bee Exports, successfully completed India’s first-ever commercial trial shipments of premium Sangola and Bhagwa pomegranates, respectively, to Australia via sea.
About Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA):
APEDA was established by the Government of India under the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority Act passed by the Parliament in December, 1985.
The Authority replaced the Processed Food Export Promotion Council (PFEPC).
It works under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Objective: To develop and promote the export of scheduled products.
The products specified under the APEDA ACT are called scheduled products, and exporters of such scheduled products are required to register under APEDA.
It provides financial assistance, information, and guidelines for the development of scheduled products.
Headquarters: New Delhi
Functions:
Setting the standards and specifications for the scheduled products.
Registration of exporters of the scheduled products on payment of required fees.
Improving packaging and marketing of the Scheduled products.
Carrying out an inspection of products to ensure the quality of such products.
Training in various aspects of the industries connected with the scheduled products.
Development of industries relating to the scheduled products and undertaking surveys, feasibility studies, etc
Collection of statistics from the owners of factories or establishments and publication of such statistics.
Examples of scheduled products: Fruits, Vegetable, Meat, Poultry Products. Dairy Products, Confectionery, Biscuits, Bakery Products, Honey, Jaggery, etc.
APEDA also functions as the Secretariat to the National Accreditation Board (NAB) for the implementation of accreditation of the Certification Bodies under National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) for Organic exports.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/business/apeda-facilitates-first-ever-sea-shipments-of-indian-pomegranates-to-australia/
Consider the following statements regarding the NAKSHA Programme:
- It aims to create and update land records in urban areas to ensure accurate and reliable documentation of land ownership.
- It will empower citizens and improve ease of living in urban areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Minister of Rural Development and Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare is inaugurating the NAKSHA Programme at Raisen, Madhya Pradesh.
About NAKSHA Programme:
The National Geospatial Knowledge-based Land Survey of Urban Habitations (NAKSHA) programme aims to create and update land records in urban areas to ensure accurate and reliable documentation of land ownership.
This initiative will empower citizens, improve ease of living, enhance urban planning, and reduce land-related disputes.
The IT-based system for property record administration will foster transparency, efficiency and support sustainable development.
The Survey of India is the technical partner for NAKSHA programme which is responsible for conducting aerial surveys and providing orthorectified imagery, through third party vendors, to state and Union Territory governments.
The end-to-end web-GIS platform will be developed by the Madhya Pradesh State Electronic Development Corporation (MPSEDC) and storage facilities will be provided by the National Informatics Centre Services Inc. (NICSI).
States and Union Territory governments are scheduled to conduct field surveys and ground truthing using the orthorectified imagery, ultimately leading to the final publication of urban and semi-urban land records.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2104028#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding the Project Waterworth:
- It uses AI to enhance subsea cable infrastructure to improve global connectivity.
- It is an initiative of the World Economic Forum to improve digital inclusion across the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Meta announced its most ambitious subsea cable endeavour ever – Project Waterworth.
About Project Waterworth:
It stretches over 50,000 km long cable which connects India, US, Brazil, South Africa and other “key regions”.
Its cable will reach depths of up to 7,000 meters in deep waters.
The project is using AI to enhance subsea cable infrastructure to improve global connectivity.
It focuses on enhancing cable deployment and maintenance, ensuring reliable and efficient internet access worldwide.
It uses enhanced burial techniques in high-risk fault areas, such as shallow waters near the coast, to avoid damage from ship anchors and other hazards.
What will Project Waterworth do?
Project Waterworth, by leveraging advanced machine learning models, aims to predict and mitigate potential disruptions, enhancing the resilience of subsea networks.
The initiative will bring industry-leading connectivity to the US, India, Brazil, South Africa, and other key regions.
This will facilitate greater economic cooperation, digital inclusion, and open opportunities for technological development in the said regions.
It would provide “industry-leading connectivity” to five major continents and help support its AI projects.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/artificial-intelligence/meta-project-waterworth-ai-driven-subsea-cable-infra-9837582/
Exercise Dharma Guardian, recently in news, is conducted between India and:
Japan
Explanation :
The Exercise Dharma Guardian, between India and Japan is scheduled at Mount Fuji, Japan from February 25 to March 9, the Indian Army.
About Exercise Dharma Guardian:
It is a joint military exercise between India and Japan.
It is an annual exercise and conducted alternatively in India and Japan.
It aims to enhance interoperability between the two forces while undertaking joint urban warfare and counter-terrorism operations under UN mandate.
It will focus on a high degree of physical fitness, joint planning and joint tactical drills.
Drills to be rehearsed during the exercise include advanced special forces skills and various other tactics, techniques and procedures as per the current operational paradigm.
It will culminate with a 48-hour-long validation to rehearse the tactical drills for counterterrorism operations in desert and semi-desert terrain.
In addition to tactical manoeuvres, it will foster stronger cultural and professional ties between the participating contingents.
Military drills often include social and cultural exchanges that promote deeper understanding of each other’s traditions, values, and operational approaches which helps in building a foundation of mutual respect, which is crucial for effective collaboration in real-world scenarios.
Significance: The exercise will enable the two sides to share their best practices in tactics, techniques and procedures of conducting tactical operations.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/india-japan-joint-military-exercise-to-begin-at-mount-fuji-from-feb-25/
Consider the following statements regarding Ovoid cells:
- These are highly specialized neurons which get activated each time when we encounter something new.
- These are present within the hippocampus of humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have discovered a new type of neuron that plays a fundamental role in recognition memory and named “ovoid cells.”
About Ovoid cells:
These cells are named for the distinct egg-like shape of their cell bodies, are present in relatively small numbers within the hippocampus of humans, mice, and other animals.
These are highly specialized neurons which get activated each time when we encounter something new.
It triggers a process that stores those objects in memory and allows us to recognize them months–potentially even years–later.
They are quite distinct from other neurons at a cellular and functional level, and in terms of their neural circuitry.
Significance: This discovery provides key insights into how memories form and could aid in the treatment of brain conditions related to object recognition, such as Alzheimer’s disease, Autism Spectrum Disorder, and epilepsy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/researchers-discover-new-type-of-brain-cells-that-allow-you-to-remember-objects/
With reference to Earthquake Swarm, consider the following:
- It occurs when multiple seismic events of comparable intensity strike a small area in relatively quick succession.
- It involves a series of many high intensity earthquakes.
- Magma movement can act as the ‘driving mechanism’ for Earthquake swarms.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A state of emergency has been declared on Greece’s Santorini and the nearby islands of Ios, Amorgos, and Anafi after a swarm of undersea earthquakes this month.
About Earthquake Swarm:
It occurs when multiple seismic events of comparable intensity strike a small area in relatively quick succession.
It involves a series of many (sometimes thousands) low-intensity earthquakes without a discernible main shock that can occur over weeks in active geothermal areas.
When seismic energy piles up inside the Earth and is released in small amounts from certain points, such a series of earthquakes can occur.
What causes swarm sequences?
Fluid movement:
In volcanic environments, this can be fluid released from deeper magma or circulating within active geothermal areas (in volcanic areas such as the Taupō Volcanic Zone).
The earthquakes triggered by fluids occur as fault slip on the cracks and faults through which the water is moving.
Active volcanism:
Magma movement can also act as the ‘driving mechanism’ for swarms, creating the earthquakes as magma-filled cracks push their way through the Earth’s crust.
In such a case the earthquakes commonly occur near the crack tip (ahead of the magma where the crack is starting to open), or off to the side of the crack.
Slow-slip events
A slow-slip event is essentially an earthquake in slow-motion, and typically involves centimetres to tens of centimetres of movement along a fault, over weeks to years.
We commonly see slow slip events at the Hikurangi subduction zone, usually at least one or two per year.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-an-earthquake-swarm/article69232651.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Biennial Transparency Report (BTR):
- It is a report submitted by Parties to the Paris Agreement on their progress in implementing the agreement.
- Every country that is Party to the Paris Agreement should mandatorily submit BTR every two years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India is in the final stages of preparing its first ever Biannual Transparency Report (BTR), part of its commitment as a signatory to the 2015 Paris Agreement on climate change.
About Biennial Transparency Report (BTR):
The BTR is a report prepared and submitted by Parties to the Paris Agreement under the Enhanced Transparency Framework (ETF) that captures information on their progress in implementing the different aspects of the Agreement.
The different aspects are covered in the five separate chapters of the BTR, some of which are mandatory and some of which are optional.
Different chapters and components of the BTR:
National Inventory Report of GHG Emissions: All Parties - Mandatory
Progress made in implementing and achieving the NDC: All Parties - Mandatory
Climate change impacts and adaptation: All Parties - Optional
Financial, technology transfer, and capacity building support provided:
Developed country Parties - Mandatory
Other Parties that provide support - Optional
Financial, technology transfer, and capacity-building support needed and received: Developing country Parties - Optional
All Parties to the Paris Agreement, except for small island developing states (SIDS) and the least developed countries (LDCs), are required to provide country-specific information on the implementation of the Paris Agreement in the form of BTR every two years.
Recognizing the capacity constraints faced by SIDS and LDCs, and the need to provide flexibility in light of their national circumstances, SIDS and LDCs may submit BTRs at their discretion.
As the reporting instrument of the Paris Agreement, BTRs help facilitate mutual trust and confidence between countries and allow parties and non-party stakeholders to understand the state of climate action in each country.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/india-to-submit-updated-greenhouse-gas-inventory-to-un-soon/article69234598.ece
Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC) is a project consisting of a crude oil pipeline that connect which of the following countries?
Kazakhstan and Russia
Explanation :
Russia said oil flows through the Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC), a major route for supplying Kazakhstan and exporting to the global market, were reduced by 30-40% recently after a Ukrainian drone attack on a pumping station.
About Caspian Pipeline Consortium (CPC):
CPC is a $2.6 billion project consisting of a 935-mile crude oil pipeline that runs from the Tengiz oil field in Kazakhstan to the Russian Black Sea port of Novorossiysk.
Construction on the CPC pipeline began in 1999.
It was commissioned in 2001, and a $5.1 billion expansion project was completed in 2018.
It is a key East-West pipeline that will carry oil from the Caspian Sea region to international markets.
CPC includes the Russian and Kazakh governments, as well as Western energy majors Chevron, ExxonMobil, and Shell.
This pipeline accounts for two-thirds of Kazakhstan’s oil exports.
The pipeline’s total capacity is 1.4 million barrels per day of oil. This is 2.3 percent of global seaborne oil trade.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/ukraine-attack-on-russian-pipeline-to-hit-kazakh-oil-exports/article69234607.ece
Which of the following is a key feature of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?
Flexibility in choosing rules of procedure and arbitrators.
Explanation :
A five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court recently heard arguments on whether courts can modify an arbitral award under Sections 34 and 37 of the Arbitration Act, 1996.
About Arbitration and Conciliation Act:
It established a sound framework for alternative dispute resolution (ADR) in India.
The Act updated and codified the laws about arbitration, mediation, and conciliation.
It is vital for businesses and individuals alike; it allows them to have an easier, less adversarial, and less costly mode of dispute resolution as compared to those conducted outside traditional courts.
Features of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act:
Two-tiered system: It offers arbitration and conciliation and thus differences in modes of conflict resolution.
Flexibility: Parties can choose their rules of procedure and arbitrators for flexibility and convenience.
Confidentiality: Confidentiality in the proceedings is required; it is important in cases of business disputes regarding issues that cannot easily be revealed.
Finality and Enforceability: Arbitration awards become binding and enforceable by courts, so parties must adhere to them.
Judicial Support and Limited Intervention: Courts could intervene under certain cases, which include the appointment of arbitrators or the enforcement of the award.
Global Applicability: In regard to the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) Model Law, it is globally compatible, and therefore this act helps in international arbitration.
Major Provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act:
Arbitration Agreement: An arbitration agreement refers to a written undertaking between parties to have their disputes arbitrarily determined, thereby paving the way for arbitration proceedings to be given the go-ahead.
Appointment of Arbitrators: The appointment of arbitrators is at the discretion of the parties, but courts take action if the parties cannot agree on the appointment. The provision would promote self-regulation while providing judicial support when needed.
Interim Measures by Courts: Gives courts the authority to issue interim relief before arbitration starts. This will prevent cases where parties may lose their assets before the case is settled.
Arbitral Proceedings: Provides that parties can agree on procedures or adopt institutional rules, which promotes procedural autonomy.
Forms and Contents of Arbitral Award: Requires awards to be in writing, dated, signed by arbitrators, and reasons given, unless parties agree otherwise. The award pronounced becomes binding.
Setting Aside an Arbitral Award: Goes on to detail when the court shall set aside the award. The basis includes either the party’s incapacity or an invalid agreement.
Appeals: Gives limited grounds on appeal so that awards are substantially final and enforceable and sets a limit to risk-prolonged litigation.
Amendments to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act:
Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015:
Introduced timelines for the institution of arbitral proceedings so that it is completed within 12 months.
Judicial interference has been curtailed to an extent to bring finality to arbitration.
Cost control regulations have been enhanced to make ADR cost-effective.
Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2019:
It has established the Arbitration Council of India (ACI) to regulate arbitration standards and promote institutional arbitration.
Disclosure of the existence of conflicts of interest by the arbitrator is made mandatory, thereby increasing transparency.
Focused on reducing delays by limiting stay orders on arbitral awards.
Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2021:
Did away with automatic stays on arbitral awards for reasons such as fraud or corruption.
Streamlined the process of enforcing arbitral awards, thereby endorsing a pro-enforcement approach in this manner of the Act.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.scobserver.in/reports/courts-power-to-modify-an-arbitral-award-day-1-constitution-bench-contemplates-extent-of-jurisdiction-to-set-aside-an-award/
With reference to Qatar, consider the following:
- Saudi Arabia
- Kuwait
- Oman
How many of the above countries share border with Qatar?
Only one
Explanation :
India and Qatar recently elevated their ties to a strategic partnership and agreed to double bilateral trade to almost $30 billion by 2030.
About Qatar:
It is a small peninsular nation located on the northeastern coast of the Arabian Peninsula.
It shares a sole land border with Saudi Arabia to the south and is surrounded by the Persian Gulf on all other sides.
The Gulf of Bahrain separates Qatar from the Kingdom of Bahrain.
The country spans an area of approximately 11,571 sq.km.
Doha is the capital and largest city of Qatar.
Landscape:
The landscape of Qatar is primarily flat and barren desert.
Sand dunes dominate the southern part of the country, especially in the area known as the Khor al Adaid, or the “Inland Sea”.
To the north and west, the terrain turns slightly rockier and features low-rising limestone formations.
Qatar has wadis, which are valleys that remain dry except during the rainy season when they can briefly turn into rivers.
Ethnic Groups:
Qatar was originally settled by Bedouin nomads from the central part of the Arabian Peninsula.
Qatari citizens, however, constitute only a small portion—roughly one-ninth—of the total population today.
Economic growth beginning in the 1970s created an economy dependent on foreign workers—mostly from Pakistan, India, and Iran—who now far outnumber nationals.
Few Qataris retain a nomadic lifestyle.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/india-qatar-elevate-ties-to-strategic-partnership-101739872842018.html
Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR) lies in which state?
Rajasthan
Explanation :
The forest department recently decided to notify the eco-sensitive zone (ESZ) of Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR).
About Sariska Tiger Reserve (STR):
It is located in the state of Rajasthan.
It is spread over the world’s oldest mountain range- the Aravallis.
It covers an area of 800 sq.km.
It was once a hunting ground of the Maharaja of Alwar before being proclaimed a natural reserve in 1955 and a national park in 1979.
It is the first reserve in the world to successfully relocate tigers.
It is also famous for old temples, palaces, and lakes such as Pandu Pol, Bhangarh Fort, Ajabgarh, Pratapgarh, Siliserh Lake, and Jai Samand Lake.
Topography: It possesses a rocky landscape, scrub thorn arid forests, grasses, hilly cliffs, and semi deciduous wood.
Vegetation: The vegetation of Sariska corresponds to Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests and Northern Tropical Thorn Forest.
Flora:
The area of this reserve is covered with dhok trees.
Other species found include salar, kadaya, gol, ber, Banyan, gugal, bamboo, kair, adusta, etc.
Fauna: A variety of other wild animals, like the leopard, sambhar, chital, nilgai, four-horned antelope, wild boar etc are found in the reserve apart from the tiger.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/esz-notification-for-sariska-reserve-expected-this-year-raj-govt-seeks-time/articleshow/118314024.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Soil Health Card Scheme:
- The scheme provides farmers with a detailed analysis of pH, and organic carbon of the soil.
- Under the scheme, soil samples are collected once every five years,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the soil health card scheme has completed its decade.
About Soil Health Card Scheme:
The soil health card scheme was launched in 2015 to assist State Governments to issue soil health cards to all farmers.
It provides information to farmers on nutrient status of their soil along with recommendation on appropriate dosage of nutrients to be applied for improving soil health and its fertility.
Key features:
It contains status of the soil with respect to 12 parameters, namely N, P, K, S (Macro-nutrients); Zn, Fe, Cu, Mn, Bo (Micro - nutrients); and pH (Acidity or Basicity), EC (Electrical Conductivity) and OC (Organic Carbon).
Soil samples are taken generally two times in a year, after harvesting of Rabi and Kharif Crop respectively or when there is no standing crop in the field.
A farmer will get the soil card once in every 3 years.
Village Level Soil Testing Labs can be set up to provide test results by individual entrepreneurs i.e. rural youth and community based entrepreneurs, including Self Help Groups (SHGs), Schools, Agriculture Universities etc.
Soil Health Card scheme has been merged in Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) scheme as one of its components under the name ‘Soil Health & Fertility’ from the year 2022-23.
Technological Advancements: To streamline the implementation/monitoring of the scheme and to provide easy access to Soil Health Card to the farmers, SHC Mobile App has been built with additional features.
Benefits:
The scheme monitors the soil of the farmers well and gives them a formatted report. So, they can decide well which crops they should cultivate and which ones they should skip.
The authorities monitor the soil on a regular basis. One in every 3 years, they provide a report to farmers. So farmers need not worry if the nature of the soil changes due to certain factors. Also, they always have updated data about their soil.
Nodal Agency: Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare in (DA&FW).
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2104403
Consider the following:
- It is located in Kerala.
- Karamana River flow through this
- It is home to Nilgiri Tahr.
Which of the following protected area has been discussed above?
Nagarhole National Park
Explanation :
Recently, The Periyar Tiger Conservation Foundation has implemented the real-time monitoring and networking system in the Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary under the Thiruvananthapuram Forest Division.
About Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Thiruvananthapuram district of Kerala spread over 53 sq km. area.
It was declared as wildlife sanctuary in 1983.
The sanctuary constitutes the catchments of peppara dam constructed across the Karamana River.
Topography:
Altitude ranging from 100 to 1717 m.
The major peaks in the sanctuary are Chemmunjimottai (1717 m) and Athirumalai 1594 m.
The vazhvanthol waterfall is located nearby it.
Forest Types: Forest types include tropical evergreen forests, moist mixed deciduous forests and semi-evergreen forest, Myristica swamp forest etc.
Biodiversity:
43 species of mammals, 233 sp. of birds, 46 species of reptiles, 13 species of amphibians and 27 species of fishes are reported from the sanctuary.
The common mammals found are Tiger, Leopard, Sloth bear, Asian Elephant, Sambars, Barking deer, Lion-tailed macaque, Nilgiri langur, Nilgiri tahr etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/real-time-monitoring-and-networking-system-implemented-in-peppara-wildlife-sanctuary/article69223274.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
- The PLFS estimates Unemployment Rate in the short time interval of three months.
- It is conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Unemployment rate in urban areas during the third quarter (October-December) of FY25 remained unchanged at 6.4 per cent compared to the preceding quarter, according to the latest quarterly Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data.
Key Findings:
Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in urban areas among persons of age 15 years and above has increased from 49.9% during October - December, 2023 to 50.4% in quarter October – December, 2024.
LFPR for male of age 15 years and above in urban areas increased from 74.1% during October – December, 2023 to 75.4% during October - December, 2024 reflecting overall increasing trend in male LFPR.
LFPR among female of age 15 years and above for urban areas increased from 25.0% during October – December, 2023 to 25.2% during October - December, 2024.
Worker Population Ratio (WPR) in urban areas among persons of age 15 years and above has increased from 46.6% during October - December, 2023 to 47.2% in October - December, 2024.
WPR for male of age 15 years and above for urban areas increased from 69.8% in October - December, 2023 to 70.9% during October - December, 2024 reflecting overall increasing trend in male WPR.
Unemployment Rate (UR) in urban areas among persons of age 15 years and above decreased from 6.5% during October - December, 2023 to 6.4% during October - December, 2024.
UR among males of age 15 years and above remained same as 5.8% during October - December, 2023 and October - December, 2024. UR among female of age 15 years and above decreased from 8.6 % in October - December, 2023 to 8.1% in October - December, 2024.
The survey further showed that the jobless rate for the youth (15-29 age group) increased to 16.1 per cent in Q3FY25 from 15.8 per cent in the preceding quarter.
About Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
Considering the importance of availability of labour force data at more frequent time intervals, National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) has been conducting the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) since 2017.
The objectives:
Primarily to estimate the key employment and unemployment indicators (viz. Worker Population Ratio, Labour Force Participation Rate, Unemployment Rate) in the short time interval of three months for the urban areas only in the ‘Current Weekly Status’ (CWS).
PLFS also estimate employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’ (ps+ss) and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
This survey is conducted by the NSSO, working under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
Urban unemployment rate unchanged at 6.4% in Q3FY25, shows PLFS data
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/urban-unemployment-rate-steady-at-6-4-in-q3fy25-shows-plfs-data-125021800977_1.html
Which of the following naval vessels was used for Navika Sagar Parikrama?
INSV Tarini
Explanation :
The Indian Naval Sailing Vessel (INSV) Tarini entered Port Stanley on 18 Feb 25 thus completing the third and most challenging phase of Navika Sagar Parikrama II.
About Navika Sagar Parikrama II:
It underscores the Indian Navy’s commitment to gender empowerment and maritime excellence.
It is crewed by two women officers-Lieutenant Commander Dilna K and Lieutenant Commander Roopa A.
It aims to promote ocean sailing, self-reliance, and India’s rich maritime heritage.
The historic expedition was flagged off from Goa by the chief of the Naval Staff on October 2, 2024.
Navika Sagar Parikrama II covering more than 21,600 nautical miles (approx 40,000 km) will unfold in five legs with stop overs at four ports for replenishment and maintenance, as required. The broad contour of voyage will be as follows: -
Goa to Fremantle, Australia
Fremantle to Lyttleton, New Zealand
Lyttleton to Port Stanley, Falkland
Port Stanley to Cape Town, S. Africa
Cape Town to Goa
About INSV Tarini:
It is a 56-foot sailing vessel built by M/s Aquarius Shipyard Ltd.
The vessel has clocked more than 66,000 nautical miles (1,22,223 km) and participated in first edition of Navika Sagar Parikrama in 2017.
The boat is equipped with advanced navigation, safety and communication equipment.
Navika Sagar Parikrama II: INSV Tarini reaches port Stanley - Third Port of Call
Hence option b is correct answer.
News: https://www.aninews.in/news/national/general-news/navika-sagar-parikrama-ii-insv-tarini-reaches-port-stanley-third-port-of-call20250218231448/
Consider the following statements regarding the Inland Waterways Authority of India:
1.It is responsible for the development and maintenance of infrastructure on national waterways.
- It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Jal Shakti.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways inaugurated an Inland Waterways Terminal (IWT) on Brahmaputra in Assam’s Jogighopa.
About Inland water transport terminal:
The terminal is set to transform the connectivity in the region and bolster our trilateral trade with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
The foundation stone for the terminal was laid in February, 2021.
It has been set up at a cost of Rs 82 crore.
It has the potential to boost trade by reducing transportation expenditure and offering an eco-friendly and alternative mode of transport via the Brahmaputra river.
By 2027, this terminal is expected to handle cargo of 1.1 million tonnes per annum.
About Inland Waterways Authority of India:
It is a statutory body established under the Inland Waterways Authority of India Act (IWAI), 1985.
Purpose: The Authority primarily undertakes projects for development and maintenance of IWT infrastructure on national waterways through grant received from the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
It presently has five regional offices in Guwahati (Assam), Patna (Bihar), Kochi (Kerala), Bhubaneswar (Odisha) and Kolkata (West Bengal).
Headquarter: Noida, Uttar Pradesh.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sonowal-inaugurates-key-waterways-terminal-in-assams-jogighopa/article69234452.ece
With reference to the National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body set up with a clear mandate to regulate, oversee, and inspect dams.
- It plays a crucial role in formulating policies and guidelines that govern the construction, maintenance, and operation of dams nationwide.
- In the face of natural calamities or unforeseen events, the NDSA ensures that comprehensive emergency response plans are in place.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently directed a supervisory committee chaired by the head of the National Dam Safety Authority, to look into issues raised by Tamil Nadu against Kerala concerning the maintenance of the 125-year-old Mullaperiyar dam.
About National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA):
NDSA is a statutory body set up by the Central Government in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 8(1) of the National Dam Safety Act, 2021.
Functions:
It operates with a clear mandate to regulate, oversee, and inspect dams.
This authority plays a crucial role in formulating policies and guidelines that govern the construction, maintenance, and operation of dams nationwide.
A key function of the NDSA is to resolve any issue between the State Dam Safety Organisations of states or between a State Dam Safety Organisation and any owner of a specified dam in that state.
The NDSA actively engages in nationwide awareness programs to educate citizens about dam safety.
In the face of natural calamities or unforeseen events, the NDSA ensures that comprehensive emergency response plans are in place.
It is headed by a chairman and assisted by five members to lead its five wings - policy and research, technical, regulation, disaster and resilience and administration and finance.
It has its headquarters at New Delhi.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/mullaperiyar-dam-case-sc-asks-new-supervisory-panel-to-examine-tns-complaints-about-kerala-find-a-solution-agreeable-to-both-states/article69238059.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Fusion:
It produces less energy than nuclear fission does.
2. It is much safer than nuclear fission, since fusion can’t create runaway reactions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A world record for nuclear fusion has been smashed after the WEST Tokamak reactor, in southern France, was able to maintain a plasma for more than 22 minutes.
About Nuclear Fusion:
Nuclear fusion is the process by which two light atomic nuclei combine to form a single heavier one while releasing massive amounts of energy.
The process releases energy because the total mass of the resulting single nucleus is less than the mass of the two original nuclei. The leftover mass becomes energy.
Fusion reactions take place in a state of matter called plasma — a hot, charged gas made of positive ions and free-moving electrons with unique properties distinct from solids, liquids or gases.
The sun, along with all other stars, is powered by this reaction.
What are Tokamaks?
The devices designated for the task of doing this here on Earth—nuclear fusion reactors — are called tokamaks.
Tokamaks are often also called ‘artificial suns’ due to the fact that these doughnut-shaped machines replicate processes that occur in the sun.
There are currently over 200 tokamaks in operation across the globe, with the scientific milestones achieved in these devices developing a roadmap for the operation of the International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor, or ITER, the world’s largest fusion experiment under construction in the south of France.
A commercial tokamak will aim to use the thermal energy of plasma heated by fusion to heat water, create steam, and, in turn, spin a turbine that generates electricity.
Fusion can involve many different elements in the periodic table. However, researchers working on fusion energy applications are especially interested in deuterium-tritium (DT) fusion.
DT fusion produces a neutron and a helium nucleus. In the process, it also releases much more energy than most fusion.
Advantages of Nuclear Fusion:
Nuclear Fusion produces more energy than fission does. Fusion could generate four times more energy per kilogram of fuel than fission (used in nuclear power plants) and nearly four million times more energy than burning oil or coal.
It also doesn’t produce radioactive byproducts that need to be stored or harmful carbon emissions; it simply produces inert helium and a neutron.
Unlimited Fuel Supply: The fuel to make fusion happen is simply heavy hydrogen atoms, which can be found in something that Earth has in abundance: seawater. No mining of uranium is required.
It is much safer than nuclear fission, since fusion can’t create runaway reactions.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.msn.com/en-xl/news/other/artificial-sun-nuclear-fusion-reactor-sets-a-new-world-record/ar-AA1zniEp?ocid=finance-verthp-feeds
The Mising people are one of the largest tribal groups in which Indian state?
Assam
Explanation :
Assam’s largest tribal community, the Mising tribe, celebrated the Ali Ai Ligang festival recently.
About Mising Tribe:
The Mising people are an indigenous tribe from Northeast India. They are part of the Tani people, who speak Tibeto-Burmese languages.
They live in parts of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh in India and Tibet in China.
Tibetans call them “Lhobhas,” which means “southerners’ ‘ because they live in South Tibet and areas now in Arunachal Pradesh.
They are one of the largest tribal groups in Assam. According to the census of India 2011, the total population of Mising is 680,424 in Assam.
They have a life closely related to rivers, and therefore they can be described as the only riparian tribe of Northeast India.
Life and culture of Mising people revolve around agriculture and fishing.
The agriculture practice of the Mising people was originally ‘Jhum’ or slash & burn method.
However, after settling down in the plains of Assam, they have mastered the art of wet paddy cultivation, and at present they are good settled cultivators.
Drawing their origin in Jhum cultivation, the main festival of the Mising people is ‘Ali-Aye-Ligang’. Ali means edible root, Aye means seed, and Ligang means sowing festival.
Religion: The Mising people practice the cult of ‘Do-nyi – Po:lo’ which literally translates into worshiping the Sun and the Moon.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.aninews.in/news/national/general-news/assam-mising-tribe-celebrates-the-ali-ai-ligang-festival-in-jorhat20250219150055/
Nauru, recently seen in the news, is located in which region of the world?
Oceania
Explanation :
To help meet the cost of moving about 10,000 residents from low-lying homes menaced by rising sea levels and floods, the remote Pacific Ocean nation of Nauru aims to sell citizenships for the climate-threatened island.
About Nauru:
Nauru is an island nation and a microstate in Oceania, located in the southwestern Pacific Ocean.
It is the smallest republic in the world with a land area of about 8 square miles and a population of 12,500.
The island is about 1,300 km northeast of the Solomon Islands; its closest neighbour is the island of Banaba, in Kiribati, some 300 km to the east.
Nauru is a raised, fossilized coral atoll and is one of the three great phosphate rock islands in the Pacific Ocean.
The island is dominated by a central phosphate plateau which is surrounded by coral cliffs.
Phosphate mining has ravaged the interior of the island, leaving about four-fifths of it uninhabitable and uncultivable.
It has no official capital city. Located on the southern coast of the island country is the district of Yaren – the de facto capital of Nauru.
Their native language is Nauruan, but English is widely spoken as it is used for government and commercial purposes.
Its constitution, adopted upon gaining independence in 1968, established it as a republic with a Westminster-style parliamentary system of government.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/nri/visit/a-tiny-island-nation-is-selling-passports-its-main-usp-the-visa-free-access-it-opens-up-to-uk-singapore-and-hong-kong/articleshow/118377299.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
- It is a statutory organisation constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- It advises the Central Government on matters related to control and abatement of air and water pollution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) recently filed a report before the National Green Tribunal’s Principal Bench revealing concerning findings regarding the river water quality at Prayagraj during the ongoing Maha Kumbh Mela.
About Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB):
It is a statutory organisation constituted in September, 1974, under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.
Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Principal Functions of the CPCB:
To promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control, and abatement of water pollution.
To improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.
It advises the Central Government on matters related to control and abatement of air and water pollution.
It also coordinates the affairs of other State Pollution Control Boards, assists them, furnishes guidance, and helps in conflict resolution in case of any disagreement among them.
CPCB has delegated its powers and functions under the Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, the Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977, and the Air (Prevention & Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, to the respective regional administration with respect to Union Territories.
Standard development activities of CPCB:
CPCB takes up the development/revision of Environmental Standards, the upgradation of Comprehensive Industrial Document (COINDS), and guidelines for environmental management in various industrial sectors.
In consultation with the state government concerned, CPCB laid down the standard for stream or well or quality of air and also prepared manuals, codes, and guidance relating to the treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents, as well as for stacks gas cleaning devices, stacks, and ducts;
CPCB develops Standards for:
National ambient air quality
Water Quality Criteria from different sources
Standards for Emission or Discharge of Environmental Pollutants from various Industries (Issued under Environment Protection Rules, 1986)
Standards for Treatment and Disposal of Bio-Medical Waste by Incineration
Emission standard, Noise limits for Diesel Engines
Emission and Noise Limit of LPG and CNG Generator Sets
CPCB also formulates the Minimal National Standards (MINAS) specific for various categories of industries with regards to their effluent discharge (water pollutants), emissions (air pollutants), noise levels, and solid waste.
These standards are required to be adopted by State Governments as minimal standards.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/environment/cpcb-high-levels-faecal-bacteria-river-water-prayagraj-maha-kumbh-ngt-284324
Consider the following statements regarding Bacterial Cellulose:
- It is a natural polymer produced by certain bacteria.
- It acts as effective material for plant wound care and facilitates improved healing in plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, researchers reported in a study that Bacterial cellulose can be used as a bandage to significantly improve healing and regeneration in plants.
About Bacterial Cellulose:
It is a natural polymer produced by certain bacteria.
It has been identified as an effective material for plant wound care. Its unique properties facilitate improved healing and regeneration in plants.
Advantages of Bacterial Cellulose bandages
It offers a sustainable solution to plant injuries, potentially reducing the reliance on chemical treatments.
This method not only promotes healthier plant growth but also aligns with eco-friendly agricultural practices.
By enhancing the natural healing processes of plants, farmers can expect improved crop yields and resilience, contributing to food security and environmental conservation.
This advancement in plant care underscores the potential of integrating biotechnology into agriculture, paving the way for more resilient and sustainable farming systems.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/bacteria-made-band-aid-for-plants-what-study-found-9841587/
Consider the following statements regarding the Vertical Propellant Mixer:
- It is the largest solid propellant mixing equipment globally.
- It is developed and designed by Satish Dhawan Space Centre in collaboration with Central Manufacturing Technology Institute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Indian Space Research Organisation has announced the successful development of a 10-tonne ‘vertical planetary mixer’, the largest of its kind for solid propellants globally.
About Vertical Propellant Mixer:
It is the largest solid propellant mixing equipment globally.
It is developed and designed by Satish Dhawan Space Centre in collaboration with Central Manufacturing Technology Institute, a Bengaluru-based research and development organisation under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
Key Features of Vertical Propellant Mixer
It has high-capacity mixing of propellant ingredients in a single batch
It has precision and control for quality consistency & performance
Safety and Reliability for handling highly hazardous materials
World’s Largest: It is weighing approximately 150 tonne, it measures 5.4m (L) × 3.3m (B) × 8.7m (H).
Advanced Technology: It is equipped with multiple agitators which are hydrostatic driven and will be remotely operated using PLC based control system with SCADA stations.
A propellant mixer is a machine that mixes the ingredients of rocket propellants, specifically fuel and oxidiser, to ensure a uniform and reliable mixture for solid rocket motors.
These mixers, such as planetary mixers, are utilised to combine the raw materials that compose rocket propellant.
The quality of the mixed propellant directly impacts the performance and reliability of the rocket motor.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/isro-develops-worlds-largest-vertical-propellant-mixer-for-rocket-sold-propellants/articleshow/118370967.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the OPEC+ :
- It is a group of 22 oil-exporting countries aim to work together on adjusting crude oil production to bring stability to the oil market.
- It only consists of nations from African continent as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Brazil’s government approved the country’s entry into OPEC+, the alliance of major oil-exporting nations.
About OPEC+:
It is a group of 22 oil-exporting countries which meets regularly to decide how much crude oil to sell on the world market.
These nations aim to work together on adjusting crude oil production to bring stability to the oil market.
Origin: These nations came to an accord towards the end of 2016 “to institutionalize a framework for cooperation between OPEC and non-OPEC producing countries on a regular and sustainable basis.”
At the core of this group are the 12 members of OPEC (the Organization of the Oil Exporting Countries), which are mainly Middle Eastern and African countries.
Members: It comprises 12 OPEC countries plus Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan, and Oman.
What is OPEC?
It is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting countries.
It was established in 1960 by the five founding members Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.
Currently, it has 12 members, including Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Libya, Nigeria, and the United Arab Emirates.
Angola withdrew its membership effective 1 January 2024.
Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/brazil-to-join-opec-group-of-major-oil-exporting-nations/articleshow/118365422.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Killer Whale:
- It is also known as Orcas which is found across the world.
- It is categorized as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, officials said that more than 150 false killer whales are stranded on a remote beach on Australia’s island state of Tasmania.
About Killer Whale:
It is also known as Orcas which is found across the world.
It is the largest member of the Delphinidae family, or dolphins and are the most widely distributed of all cetaceans.
Members of this family include all dolphin species, as well as other larger species, such as long-finned pilot whales and short-finned pilot whales, whose common names also contain “whale” instead of “dolphin”.
Killer whales are highly social, and most live in social groups called pods (groups of maternally related individuals seen together more than half the time).
Killer whales rely on underwater sound to feed, communicate, and navigate.
Appearance: They are one of the most recognizable marine mammals, with their distinctive black and white bodies.
Habitat: Globally, killer whales occur in a wide range of habitats, in both open seas and coastal waters.
Conservation Status
IUCN : Data Deficient
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/more-than-150-false-killer-whales-stranded-on-a-beach-in-australias-tasmania-state/article69236603.ece
With reference to Evo 2 AI System, consider the following:
- It is a powerful new foundation model that understands the genetic code for all domains of life.
- It can be applied to biomolecular research applications including predicting the form and function of proteins.
- It is developed by the Indian Institute of Science Bengaluru.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
AI chipmakers Nvidia have unveiled powerful AI system for genetic research created new AI called Evo 2.
About Evo 2 AI System:
It is a powerful new foundation model that understands the genetic code for all domains of life.
It is the largest publicly available AI model for genomic data.
It was built on the NVIDIA DGX Cloud platform in a collaboration led by nonprofit biomedical research organization Arc Institute and Stanford University.
The model was built using 2,000 Nvidia H100 processors on Amazon’s cloud infrastructure.
It is trained on an enormous dataset of nearly 9 trillion nucleotides pieces of genetic information taken from over 128,000 different organisms on a wide array of species across domains of life — including plants, animals and bacteria.
In early tests, it accurately identified 90% of potentially harmful mutations in BRCA1, a gene linked to breast cancer.
Potential applications of Evo 2 AI System
It can be applied to biomolecular research applications including predicting the form and function of proteins based on their genetic sequence, identifying novel molecules for healthcare and industrial applications, and evaluating how gene mutations affect their function.
The model can be applied to scientific fields such as healthcare, agricultural biotechnology and materials science.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/nvidia-unveils-powerful-ai-system-for-genetic-research/article69241167.ece
Which among the following best describes Majorana 1, recently seen in the news?
A quantum computing chip.
Explanation :
Microsoft released Majorana 1, the world’s first quantum chip built on a topological core, recently.
About Majorana 1:
It is the quantum computing chip developed by Microsoft.
The Majorana 1 is designed to make quantum computing more practical, faster, and reliable.
Quantum computers process information differently from traditional computers, using quantum bits (qubits) instead of regular bits.
Qubits can exist in states 0, 1, or both simultaneously (superposition).
This allows them to solve complex problems much faster,but qubits are extremely fragile and prone to errors.
Majorana 1 leverages a new material called a topoconductoror a topological superconductor, which helps create a special kind of qubit that is more stable and less prone to losing information.
Majorana 1 relies on a subatomic particle called the Majorana fermion, which was theorised as existing by scientist Ettore Majorana in 1937.
The Majorana 1 chip is made of a material made from indium arsenide and aluminum to create what Microsoft calls the “world’s first topoconductor,”.
This could finally allow quantum computers to scale up to millions of qubits and help solve real-world problems like designing better medicines, reducing pollution, and creating materials that can repair themselves.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/business/what-is-majorana-1-top-5-things-to-know-about-microsofts-quantum-computing-chip-101740027549094.html
Who set up the Dinesh Khara Committee, recently seen in the news?
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI)
Explanation :
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) recently set up a seven-member committee headed by former chairman of SBI Dinesh Khara to examine proposed amendments to the Insurance Act, 1938, and suggest a framework for its implementation.
About Dinesh Khara Committee:
It is a high-powered seven-member committee set up by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI).
Purpose: To review proposed amendments to the Insurance Act of 1938 and recommend a regulatory framework for their implementation.
The committee is formed as the Union government prepares to introduce the Insurance Amendment Bill to Parliament.
The proposed amendments include increasing the foreign direct investment (FDI) cap in the insurance sector from 74% to 100%, reducing paid-up capital requirements, introducing a composite licence system, and streamlining regulatory processes.
The committee’s mandate is strictly limited to reviewing the proposed changes and determining their implementation through regulations and circulars, without suggesting additional amendments.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://legal.economictimes.indiatimes.com/amp/news/regulators/irdai-sets-up-panel-led-by-ex-sbi-chairman-khara-to-implement-amendments-to-insurance-law/118427099
Consider the following statements with reference to Parkinson’s Disease (PD):
- It is a genetic disorder that causes muscle weakness.
- There’s no cure for this disease.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A breakthrough study has uncovered a hidden player in Parkinson’s disease—24-OHC, a cholesterol metabolite that fuels the spread of harmful protein clumps in the brain.
About Parkinson’s Disease (PD):
It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that primarily affects movement.
It causes nerve cells (neurons) in parts of the brain to weaken, become damaged, and die, leading to symptoms that include problems with movement, tremor, stiffness, and impaired balance.
As symptoms progress, people with PD may have difficulty walking, talking, or completing other simple tasks.
Although many brain areas are affected in Parkinson’s disease, the most common symptoms result from the loss of neurons in an area near the base of the brain called the substantia nigra.
The neurons in this area produce dopamine.
Dopamine is the chemical messenger that transmits signals in the brain to produce smooth, purposeful movement.
Most people with PD have lost 60 to 80% or more of the dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra by the time symptoms appear.
Lack of dopamine causes the slowed movements and tremors symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
Who does it affect?
The risk of developing Parkinson’s disease naturally increases with age, and the average age at which it starts is 60 years old.
It’s slightly more common in males.
Diagnosis: Currently, no blood laboratory or radiological tests are available to diagnose Parkinson’s disease.
Treatment: There’s no cure for this disease, but treatments can help significantly improve your symptoms.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://scitechdaily.com/scientists-just-found-a-cholesterol-clue-that-could-change-parkinsons-treatment/
Manikaran, recently seen in the news, lies in which state?
Himachal Pradesh
Explanation :
A recent proposal to transfer water from Manikaran - a pilgrimage site for both Hindus and Sikhs - to Kasol in Himachal Pradesh’s Kullu district to establish a hot bath facility has upset the local residents and sparked a row.
About Manikaran:
It is a small town in Himachal Pradesh, famous for its hot springs, religious significance, and scenic beauty.
It is located in the Parvati Valley along the banks of the Parvati River, at an altitude of about 1,829 meters.
It has the finest natural hot water springs.
These hot springs, believed to have healing properties, attract devotees and tourists alike.
The water of the springs is said to be radioactive.
It is believed to be beneficial to sufferers from rheumatism and similar ailments.
It is a significant religious site for both Sikhs and Hindus.
Manikaran is known for its Shiva temple, Manikaran Sahib Gurudwara, and a Rama temple.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/plan-to-divert-manikaran-holy-water-in-himachal-pradesh-stirs-row/articleshow/118396685.cms
With reference to Advocate-on-Record (AoR), consider the following statements:
- Only an AoR is authorised to file a Vakalatnama on behalf of a client in the Supreme Court (SC).
- Any notice or order/correspondence by the SC is sent to the AoR.
- An AoR is required to have an office in Delhi within a radius of 10 miles from the SC house.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that Advocates-on-Record (AoRs) bear full responsibility for the accuracy of petitions filed before the Court, even if the drafts are prepared by other advocates.
About Advocate-on-Record (AoR):
The concept of AoR was introduced by the SC with the power given to it under Article 145(1) of the Constitution of India, which states that the SC may, from time to time, make rules for regulating the practices and procedures in the court.
An AoR is a lеgal profеssional who is entitled to represent clients and plead for them in the SC.
It is a spеcific catеgory of advocates with rights of audiеncе in thе SC.
An AoR has thе exclusive right to filе and conduct casеs in thе SC. No advocate other than AoR can appear and plead in any matter unless an AoR instructs him.
No other High Court in India has a similar provision.
Roles and Responsibilities:
Only an AoR is authorised to file a Vakalatnama on behalf of a client in the SC. The Vakalatnama is a crucial document that grants the advocate the authority to represent the client.
All the procedural aspects need to be completed by AOR with the assistance of a registered clerk.
This includеs drafting and filing pеtitions, applications, and othеr lеgal documents.
Any notice or order/correspondence by the SC is sent to the AoR.
An AoR is personally liable for the due payment of all fees/charges payable to the court.
Order IV rule 5 of the Supreme Court Rules, 2013, lays down the requirements to be fulfilled to become an AoR. They are as follows:
The Advocate is required to be enrolled with any State Bar Council.
The Advocate is required to have a prior experience of at least 4 years.
The Advocate has undergone a training of 1 year under a senior AoR.
The Advocate has appeared for the examination conducted by the SC.
The Advocate is required to have an office in Delhi within a radius of 10 miles from the SC house and give an undertaking to employ a clerk, who shall be a registered clerk, within one month of being registered as an AoR.
Once registered, an AOR is issued a unique identification number that must be used on all documents filed in the SC.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/advocate-on-record-liable-for-wrong-statements-even-if-petition-was-drafted-by-another-advocate-supreme-court-284492
Consider the following statements regarding Digital Brand Identity Manual:
- It aims to establish a standardized and cohesive digital identity across all government ministries and platforms.
- It focuses on simplifying and standardizing government websites so that citizens from diverse backgrounds can easily navigate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched the Digital Brand Identity Manual (DBIM) and the inaugural Chief Information Officer (CIO) Conference 2025.
About Digital Brand Identity Manual:
It aims to establish a standardized and cohesive digital identity across all government ministries and platforms, enhancing accessibility, inclusivity, and citizen engagement.
The primary objective of the DBIM is to create a unified and consistent digital brand for the Government of India.
It is part of the “Gov.In: Harmonisation of Government of India’s Digital Footprint” initiative.
The initiative focuses on simplifying and standardizing government websites, ensuring that citizens from diverse backgrounds can easily navigate and access essential government services.
By standardizing elements such as color palettes, typography, and iconography, the manual not only ensures uniformity in look and feel but also strengthens the integrity of government-hosted data.
This cohesive approach will enable government departments to present a compelling and trustworthy brand presence, both nationally and globally.
The guidelines extend beyond websites to cover mobile applications and social media platforms, reinforcing a seamless user experience across all digital touch points
Features of DBIM initiative
DBIM Toolkit for ensuring uniformity in digital identity.
Gov.In CMS Platform for streamlined website management.
Central Content Publishing System (CCPS) for centralized content governance.
Social Media Campaign Guidelines to standardize digital communication.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2104686
Consider the following statements regarding the UN-Habitat:
- It is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns.
- Its Executive Board is composed of 36 member states elected by the UN-Habitat Assembly and meets three times a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, C40 Cities and UN-Habitat have announced a landmark partnership to transform urban planning.
About UN-Habitat:
It is the focal point for all urbanization and human settlement matters within the UN system.
It is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities with the goal of providing adequate shelter for all.
It works with partners to build inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable cities and communities.
UN-Habitat promotes urbanization as a positive transformative force for people and communities, reducing inequality, discrimination and poverty.
Governance structure: It is a three-tier structure made up of the UN-Habitat Assembly, the Executive Board and the Committee of Permanent Representatives.
UN-Habitat Assembly is a universal body composed of the 193 member states of the United Nations and convenes every four years.
The Executive Board is composed of 36 member states elected by the UN-Habitat Assembly and meets three times a year to increase the oversight by Member States of UN-Habitat operations.
The Committee of Permanent Representatives of UN-Habitat (CPR) meets twice every four years in an open-ended manner.
Headquarters: Nairobi
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.c40.org/news/un-habitat-c40-cities-new-partnership/
Consider the following statements with reference to the International Organization of Aids to Marine Navigation:
- It is mandated to harmonise global maritime navigation systems and promote maritime safety initiatives.
- India is not a member of this organization because of its discriminatory trade rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, India elected to the Vice Presidency of the International Organization of Aids to Marine Navigation (IALA) in Singapore.
About International Organization of Aids to Marine Navigation:
It was established in 1957 as Non-Governmental Organisation (NGO).
It was officially changed its status from a Non-governmental Organization (NGO) to an Intergovernmental Organization (IGO) based on a Convention ratified by 34 States in 2024.
Aims:
Foster safe, economic and efficient movement of vessels by improving and harmonizing aids to navigation worldwide and by other appropriate means.
Encourage, support and communicate recent developments; develop international cooperation by promoting close working relationships and assistance among members;
Enhance mutual exchange of information with organizations representing users of aids to navigation.
Its mandate is to harmonise global maritime navigation systems, promote maritime safety initiatives, and collaborate with member states, international organizations, and industry stakeholders to address emerging challenges in maritime safety and environmental protection.
Members: It comprises of 200 members, 80 of which are national authorities and 60 are commercial firms. India is a member of this organization since 1957.
Headquarters: Saint-Germain-en-Laye, France.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2104773
Lake Kivu, recently in news, is located between:
Democratic Republic of Congo and Rwanda
Explanation :
According to UN report, the Lake Kivu offers leisure in Rwanda but Goma in Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) faces devastation after M23 rebels seized the city last month.
About Lake Kivu:
It is one of the great lakes of East Africa, situated between the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) to the west and Rwanda to the east.
It is Rwanda’s largest lake and the sixth largest in Africa.
It is in the Albertine Rift, the western branch of the East African Rift.
Features of Lake Kivu
It is lying at 1,460 metres above sea level, it occupies 1,040 square miles (2,700 sq.km).
Its 58% of its waters are lying in the DRC; the rest are situated in Rwanda.
Its irregular shores form a number of inlets and peninsulas, and plenty of waterfalls.
Lake Kivu empties into the Rusizi River, which flows southwards into Lake Tanganyika.
Islands: The tenth largest inland island on the planet, Idjwi Island, is located on Kivu Lake.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.nytimes.com/2025/02/19/world/africa/rwanda-congo-m23-lake-kivu-conflict.html
With reference to Solar Coronal Holes, consider the following:
- They are cooler, less dense regions than the surrounding plasma region in sun.
- They can last much longer during solar maximum.
- They have significant influence on space weather as well as on the Indian summer monsoon rainfall.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, a new study has accurately estimated the physical parameters of thermal and magnetic field structures of solar coronal holes.
About Solar Coronal Holes:
Coronal holes are dark regions in X-ray and extreme ultraviolet images of the Sun.
These were discovered in the 1970s by X-ray satellites.
Features of Solar Coronal Holes:
They appear dark because they are cooler, less dense regions than the surrounding plasma and are regions of open, unipolar magnetic fields.
They have open magnetic field lines and are hence important for understanding the interplanetary medium and space weather.
Coronal holes can last between a few weeks to months. The holes are not a unique phenomenon, appearing throughout the sun’s approximately 11-year solar cycle.
They can last much longer during solar minimum – a period of time when activity on the Sun is substantially diminished, according to NASA.
Significance of Solar Coronal Holes
The occurrences of coronal holes are associated with disturbances in the Earth’s ionosphere, the layer of the atmosphere that reflects and modifies the radio waves, leading to further communication issues.
They have significant influence on space weather that affects satellites, as well as the Indian summer monsoon rainfall.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2104369
Consider the following statements regarding the Andaman Sea:
- It is a semi-enclosed marginal sea in the northeastern Indian Ocean.
- The Bay of Bengal bounds the Andaman Sea to the west and the Strait of Malacca to the east.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
An earthquake of magnitude 5.2 struck the Andaman Sea recently.
About Andaman Sea:
It is a semi-enclosed marginal sea in the northeastern Indian Ocean.
It lies between the eastern coast of India and the Malay Peninsula, with Myanmar to the north and the Indonesian island of Sumatra to the south.
The Bay of Bengal bounds the Andaman Sea to the west and the Strait of Malacca to the east.
The sea, covering an area of approximately 307,994 square miles, extends about 750 miles in length and 400 miles in width.
It is a complex geological region with a tectonically active plate boundary.
It is part of the larger Sunda Plate, which the Indian Plate borders to the northwest and the Australian Plate to the southeast.
The ongoing tectonic convergence between these plates has resulted in the formation of the Andaman Basin, characterized by undersea ridges, trenches, and faults.
The most prominent geological feature in the region is the Andaman Trench, which is formed by the subduction of the Indian Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate.
This tectonic activity has given rise to numerous earthquakes and volcanic eruptions in the region, making the Andaman Sea seismically active.
It is home to extensive coral reef systems, seagrass meadows, and mangrove forests, which provide critical habitats for a multitude of marine organisms.
The Andaman Sea is also an important site for migratory birds, with several key stopover locations along the East Asian-Australasian Flyway.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/earthquake-of-magnitude-5-2-strikes-andaman-sea/articleshow/118404493.cms
Which among the following best describes “Strobilanthes gigantra”, recently seen in the news?
A. A new species of butterfly found in the Western Ghats. B. A giant tree species discovered in the Amazon rainforest. C. A species of fungi that is crucial to forest ecosystems.
Explanation :
A new species, Strobilanthes gigantra, has been discovered in Arunachal Pradesh, within the Indian Himalayan Region (IHR).
About Strobilanthes gigantra:
It is a new species of flowering plant discovered in Arunachal Pradesh, within the Indian Himalayan Region (IHR).
This species stands out due to its exceptionally large size—sometimes growing into a tree—along with unique floral characteristics such as densely imbricate bracts, uninterrupted inflorescence, a slightly curved corolla tube, and wings on the staminal curtain.
The genus Strobilanthes is the second largest within the Acanthaceae family (a family of dicotyledonous flowering plants), comprising around 450 species globally, with 167 species found in India, primarily in the Himalayas and Western Ghats.
The Eastern Himalayas, particularly Arunachal Pradesh, serve as a biodiversity hotspot for this genus, housing 41 known species.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/arunachal-pradesh/story/new-giant-strobilanthes-species-discovered-in-arunachals-eastern-himalayas-1174002-2025-02-21
The Iron Dome air missile defense system, recently seen in the news, is developed by which country?
Israel
Explanation :
Recently, the US President signed an Executive Order to build an Iron Dome-style missile defence system to shield the United States against the “threat of attack by ballistic, hypersonic, and cruise missiles, and other advanced aerial attacks.”
About Iron Dome:
It is Israel’s air missile defense system that can defend against short-range rockets, intercepting them in the air above the state.
It is a short-range mobile air defense system developed for Israel by Rafael Advanced Defense Systems and Israel Aerospace Industries, with additional support from Raytheon.
First deployed in 2011, Iron Dome constitutes the innermost layer of the tiered Israeli air defense network.
It has all-weather capabilities and is able to function night or day and in all conditions, including fog, rain, dust storms, and low clouds.
It is able to launch a variety of interceptor missiles.
It is designed to shoot down missiles with a range of about 40 miles or less.
It also has the ability to be moved, either onto ships or across land, to better suit defense needs.
It must be reloaded to continuously intercept incoming missiles.
The Iron Dome operates through three main components:
a radar that detects incoming rockets,
a command-and-control system that determines the threat level,
an interceptor that seeks to destroy the incoming rocket before it strikes.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.orfonline.org/expert-speak/the-us-iron-dome-eyeing-an-advanced-shield-against-hypersonic-threats
Kuno National Park lies in which state?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
Five cheetahs were released into the wild in Kuno National Park (KNP) in Madhya Pradesh’s Sheopur district recently.
About Kuno National Park:
It is located in the Morena and Sheopur districts in Madhya Pradesh.
It is nestled near the Vindhyan Hills.
It covers an area of 750 sq.km.
It derives its name from the meandering Kuno River (one of the main tributaries of the Chambal River) that graces the region.
Initially established as a wildlife sanctuary, it was only in 2018 that the government changed its status into a national park.
It was selected under ‘Action Plan for Introduction of Cheetah in India’.
Vegetation: Kuno is primarily a grassland region, though a few rocky outcrops are found here too.
Flora:
Kardhai, Salai, and Khair trees dominate the forested area of Kuno National Park, which is mostly mixed forest.
The park has a total of 123 tree species, 71 shrub species, 32 exotic and climbing species, and 34 bamboo and grass species.
Fauna: The protected area of the forest is home to the jungle cat, Indian leopard, sloth bear, Indian wolf, striped hyena, golden jackal, Bengal fox, and dhole, along with more than 120 bird species.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/5-cheetahs-released-into-wild-in-madhya-pradeshs-kuno-national-park-7765686
Consider the following statements regarding Brine Pools:
- They are hypersaline and anoxic (oxygen-lacking) lakes.
- They appear as distinct pools, separate from the surrounding seawater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists recently discovered a deadly secret lurking beneath the Red Sea, brine pools so extreme that they instantly kill or stun any marine life that enters.
About Brine Pools:
Brine pools are lakes of hypersaline, anoxic (oxygen-lacking) lakes that form on the seafloor, their high salt content making them denser than the surrounding ocean.
They are often referred to as “underwater lakes” or “brine lakes” because they appear as distinct pools, separate from the surrounding seawater due to their high salinity and density.
The water in the brine pool is being filtered through salt sediments, and the water is so salty that it can’t mix with the seawater around it, and therefore creates its own body of water with a distinct surface.
The deepest-known brine pool lies in the Orca Basin in the Gulf of Mexico, some 2,200 m below sea level.
This 7 x 21 km (4 x 13 mi) depression is filled with water that has a salt content of around 300 g/litre (48 oz per gallon), around eight times saltier than the Gulf itself.
The salinity of these pools is so great that they are toxic to most sea life, but certain highly adapted chemosynthetic organisms have found ways to survive and even thrive on the shores of these undersea lakes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.timesnownews.com/world/death-pools-in-the-red-sea-linked-to-moses-scientists-make-a-shocking-discovery-article-118467585
Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Personnel License:
- It will replace traditional physical licenses for pilots.
- It is implemented by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the union Civil Aviation Minister launched Electronic Personnel License (EPL) for pilots.
About Electronic Personnel License:
It is a digital version of a personnel license that will replace traditional physical licenses for pilots.
It will be securely accessible via the eGCA Mobile Application, ensuring a seamless and transparent process in alignment with the Government of India’s “Ease of Doing Business” and “Digital India” initiatives.
The introduction of EPL follows International Civil Aviation Organization’s (ICAO) Amendment 178 to Annex 1 – Personnel Licensing, which encourages Member States to adopt electronic licenses for improved security and efficiency.
With this advancement, India becomes the second country globally to implement this advanced system, following approval from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).
It is implemented by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA).
Key facts about International Civil Aviation Organization
It is an intergovernmental specialized agency associated with the United Nations (UN).
It was established in 1947 by the Convention on International Civil Aviation (1944) known as Chicago Convention.
Functions:
It is dedicated to developing safe and efficient international air transport for peaceful purposes and ensuring a reasonable opportunity for every state to operate international airlines.
It sets standards and regulations necessary for aviation safety, security and facilitation, efficiency, and economic development of air transport as well as to improve the environmental performance of aviation.
It also serves as a clearinghouse for cooperation and discussion on civil aviation issues among its member states.
It also promotes regional and international agreements aimed at liberalizing aviation markets.
Headquarters: Montreal, Canada
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/transportation/airlines-/-aviation/civil-aviation-minister-k-rammohan-naidu-launches-electronic-personnel-license-for-pilots/articleshow/118407469.cms?from=mdr
Consider the following statements regarding the Blue-Cheeked Bee-eater Bird:
- It is a near passerine bird found in sub-tropical semi-desert regions.
- It breeds only in Nile Delta and some parts of Africa.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the first breeding site of the Blue-Cheeked Bee-eater (merops persicus) in peninsular India has been discovered in the saltpans of Aandivilai near the Manakudy Mangroves in Kanniyakumari district.
About Blue-cheeked Bee-eater:
It is a near passerine bird in the bee-eater family, Meropidae.
It was historically known as passage migrant and winter visitor in India.
Habitat: This bird favors sub-tropical semi-desert regions dotted with sparse trees, such as acacias, for breeding.
Behaviour: It may choose to nest solitarily or in small, loose colonies of up to ten individuals. It is also known to share colonies with European bee-eaters.
Breeding Range: Its breeding was primarily recorded in regions such as Nile Delta, Pakistan, and Iran while its wintering grounds include parts of Africa.
In its breeding grounds, this species occupies semi-desert, steppe, dunes, saline pans, cultivation, thorn woodland and sandy slopes with small gulleys, ravines, quarries, pits and embankments.
It breeds mainly in sand deserts near bodies of water fringed with reeds and tamarisks.
Conservation status
IUCN: Least Concern
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/first-breeding-record-of-blue-cheeked-bee-eater-discovered-in-peninsular-india/article69242534.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Bathouism:
- It is the traditional faith of the Bodos, who resides in the state of Assam.
- It believes in planting Sijou tree on an elevated altar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the government of the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR) in Assam has included ‘Bathouism’ as an official option in the religion column of various application forms.
About Bathousim:
It is the traditional faith of the Bodos, the largest plains tribe of Assam.
The word ‘Bathou’ is derived from the Bodo language, where ‘Ba’ means ‘five’ and ‘thou’ means ‘deep philosophical thought’.
The faith system is based on five elements: Bar (Air), San (Sun), Ha (Earth), Or (Fire), and Okhrang (Sky).
Beliefs of Bathousim
The community worships Bwrai Bathou as the supreme god. In the Bodo language, the word ‘Bwrai‘ refers to the ‘eldest’ man concerning power or knowledge.
The Bathou faith is centred on the Sijou plant (Euphorbia splendens).
The Sijou is planted in the Bathou altar at the centre as the symbol of Bathou religion of the Bodos.
In Bathou religion, the Sijou plant has an important place and has been widely accepted as the symbol of life or soul by the Bodo people since time immemorial.
This plant is the living symbol of Bathoubwrai, the supreme God of the Bodos.
Bodos plant the sijou tree on an elevated altar encircled with a bamboo fencing of eighteen pairs of posts weaved with five pieces of bamboo split.
The five bamboo strips signify the five bindings of Bathou, viz. (i) birth, (ii) marriage or procreation, (iii) sorrow, (iv) happiness and (v) death.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/assam-move-to-recognise-bathousim-highlights-government-commitment-to-preserve-nature-based-faiths-says-expert
Mount Dukono, recently in news, is located in:
Indonesia
Explanation :
Recently, the Mount Dukono erupted which prompted the Indonesia’s Volcanology and Geological Disaster Mitigation Centre to issue an aviation warning.
About Mount Dukono:
It is located in Indonesia’s North Maluku province.
It is a complex volcano and one of the most active volcanoes in Indonesia in historic time.
The volcano, situated on Halmahera Island, spewed a column of ash up to 2,000 metres into the sky, with thick white-to-grey clouds drifting south of the crater.
It is standing 1,087 metres above sea level, is one of Indonesia’s 127 active volcanoes.
It has been erupting continuously since 1933, with frequent ash explosions and sulfur dioxide plumes
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://ddindia.co.in/2025/02/indonesias-mount-dukono-erupts-triggers-aviation-warning-and-safety-advisory/
With reference to Technology Adoption Fund, consider the following:
- It aims to accelerate the development of indigenous space technology, reducing reliance on imported solutions.
- It consists of a corpus of Rs 500 crore to support the growth of India’s space startups.
- It is an initiative of the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe).
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe) has launched a new fund called Technology Adoption Fund.
About Technology Adoption Fund:
It consists of a corpus of Rs 500 crore to support the growth of India’s space startups.
This fund aims to accelerate the development of indigenous space technology, reducing reliance on imported solutions.
Key features of Technology Adoption Fund
The fund will offer financial support of up to 60 per cent of the project cost for startups and MSMEs, and 40 per cent for larger industries, with a maximum funding cap of Rs 25 Crores per project.
It is also open to all eligible Non-Government Entities (NGEs)/companies that are ready to demonstrate the commercial potential of their innovations.
It will also provide partial funding to NGEs. In addition to financial support, the initiative will provide technical guidance and mentoring opportunities, which will help companies navigate challenges during the product development phase.
The fund will also support the transition of early-stage space technologies developed by Indian companies into commercially viable products.
It is designed to enable “innovators to bridge the gap between early-stage development and commercialisation”.
This support will enable companies to refine their technologies, enhance production processes, and meet market demands both within India and abroad.
The fund will help promote advanced space technologies and contribute to job creation along with economic growth.
With TAF, IN-SPACe aims to support a wide range of outcomes — from the development of new space products to the creation of intellectual property that can drive future research and development.
It will invest in domestic research and development and strengthen collaboration between government agencies and the private sector, positioning India as a key global player in the space industry.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/in-space-unveils-rs-500-crore-technology-adoption-fund-to-boost-indias-space-startups-and-innovation/
Purchasing Managers’ Index for India is given by:
S&P Global
Explanation :
Recently, India’s Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) rose for first time after three quarters.
It is an indicator of business activity – both in the manufacturing and services sectors.
It is a survey-based measure that asks the respondents about changes in their perception of some key business variables from the month before.
It is calculated separately for the manufacturing and services sectors and then a composite index is constructed.
The index helps in determining whether the market conditions, as seen by purchasing managers, is expanding, contracting or staying the same.
There are two types of PMI — Manufacturing PMI and Services PMI.
How is the manufacturing PMI derived?
It is derived by sending fact-based questions to a large number of companies in the concerned sector.
The questions are related to 5 key variables— new orders, output employment, suppliers’ delivery times and stock of items purchased
The surveys are conducted on a monthly basis.
A PMI number greater than 50 indicates expansion in business activity.
A number less than 50 shows contraction. The rate of expansion is also judged by the difference from the mid-point (50) and also by previous month’s data.
PMI data for India is released by S&P Global - a global major in financial information and analytics.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/composite-flash-pmi-rises-first-time-three-quarters-9849275/
With reference to Bhavani river, consider the following statements:
- It originates in the upper regions of the Nilgiris of Western Ghats.
- It is one of the major tributary of the River Krishna.
- Its major drainage basin is spread in Tamil Nadu.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
Recently, the public health and preventive medicines department of Tamil Nadu has found that the Bhavani river water at Palaiyur village in Jadayampalayam village panchayat was unsafe for drinking.
It originates in the upper regions of the Nilgiris of Western Ghats.
It flows across three districts of Tamil Nadu, Nilgiris, Coimbatore and Erode.
It is a major tributary of the Cauvery River and the second largest river in Tamil Nadu.
The river confluences with Cauvery river at the town of Bhavani after it travels 185 km distance. About 90 per cent of the river water is used for agriculture.
The drainage basin of this perennial river is spread over an area of 6,200 square kilometers, out of which, eighty seven percent is in Tamil Nadu, nine percent in Kerala and four percent in Karnataka.
Tributaries of Bhavani River: The largest tributaries of the Bhavani River are West and East Varagar, which come from the Nilgiris.
Bhavani Sangameshwarar Temple, situated at the meeting point of Bhavani and the Cauvery Rivers, is a prominent pilgrim center.
The Bhavanisagar dam is constructed on this River which is one of the world’s largest earthen dams.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/coimbatore/bhavani-river-water-at-palaiyur-village-unsafe-for-drinking-report/articleshow/118488722.cms
Extinction Filtering, recently in news, is a:
process where species sensitive to human disturbance disappear
Explanation :
Recent study finds that human activities outside protected areas are driving biodiversity loss and extinction filtering is affecting sensitive species.
It is the process where species sensitive to human disturbance disappear, leaving only those that can survive in degraded landscapes.
It predicts that species that have evolved and survived in high-disturbance environments should be more likely to persist in the face of new disturbances, including those of habitat loss and fragmentation
The existence of anthropogenic extinction filtering acting on mammals in tropical forests, whereby human overpopulation has driven the most sensitive species to local extinction while remaining ones are able to persist, or even thrive, in highly populated landscapes and mainly depend on habitat cover
Impact on biodiversity:
It results in a less diverse and more uniform mix of species in tropical forests.
Over time, this weakens entire ecosystems and reduces their ability to recover from environmental changes.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/protected-areas-alone-wont-save-wildlife-conservation-needs-wider-focus#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding Perovskite Nanocrystal:
- It is a material that has the same crystal structure as the mineral calcium titanium oxide.
- It is used in optoelectronics, including photovoltaic solar cells and photodetectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, researchers at the Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences (CeNS) in Bengaluru have developed an innovative method to minimize anion migration in CsPbX₃ perovskite nanocrystals.
It is a material that has the same crystal structure as the mineral calcium titanium oxide (CaTiO3).
Generally, perovskite compounds have a chemical formula ABX3, where ‘A’ and ‘B’ represent cations, and X is an anion that bonds to both.
A large number of different elements can be combined together to form perovskite structures.
Due to its compositional flexibility, scientists can design perovskite crystals to have a wide variety of physical, optical, and electrical characteristics from insulating, semiconducting, metallic, and superconducting characteristics.
Applications of Perovskite Nanocrystal:
They have applications in various fields of optoelectronics, including photovoltaic solar cells, photodetectors, light-emitting devices, etc.
Perovskite LEDs, which combine the advantages of OLEDs and QLEDs, have long been considered a promising technology for next-generation lighting.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2105309
Consider the following statements regarding Asperger’s Syndrome:
- It is a neuro developmental disorder within the family of autism spectrum disorder.
- It is characterized by impaired social communication and can be cured.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, on the occasion of International Asperger’s Day, the National Institute for Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (NIEPID) organized various programmes to raise awareness and promote inclusivity for individuals with Asperger’s Syndrome.
It is a neurodevelopmental disorder within the family of autism spectrum disorder.
It is characterized by impaired social communication and interaction, average or superior intelligence, and no significant language delay.
It was first described by Hans Asperger in 1944 as the behavioral characterization of individuals with difficulties in communication and social interaction.
Symptoms of Asperger Syndrome:
The symptoms of Asperger Syndrome typically manifest in early childhood and can persist into adulthood.
These symptoms often vary in severity and can include: Social Difficulties, Repetitive Behaviors, Communication Challenges, Motor Coordination Difficulties.
It also includes engaging in one-sided, long-winded conversations, without noticing if the listener is listening or trying to change the subject and displaying unusual nonverbal communication, such as lack of eye contact, few facial expressions, or awkward body postures and gestures.
Causes of Asperger Syndrome: Doctors and researchers don’t understand what causes Asperger’s syndrome.
Treatment: The core signs of Asperger’s syndrome can’t be cured. But most children benefit from early specialised interventions that focus on behavior management and social skills training.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2105137
Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Tech Triumph Program:
- It aims to identify and showcase India’s gaming talent on the international stage.
- It is open to individuals and organizations involved in gaming development and business solutions critical to the gaming ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, to support the India’s gaming industry growth the Bharat Tech Triumph Program (TTP) has been launched as part of the Create in India Challenge Season 1.
It aims to identify and showcase India’s gaming talent on the international stage.
It is organized by the Interactive Entertainment and Innovation Council (IEIC) in partnership with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (MIB) the program
A diverse range of participants from the interactive entertainment industry including developers, studios, startups, and tech companies can participate in this programme.
This initiative is open to individuals and organizations involved in gaming development, esports and business solutions critical to the gaming ecosystem.
Evaluation criteria: The evaluation criteria for the Bharat Tech Triumph Program focus on assessing key aspects of your product, pitch and team to determine its potential for success.
Winners of this Program will have an incredible opportunity to showcase their products, intellectual property and technology on a global stage.
They’ll be fully sponsored to present their innovations at the prestigious Game Developers Conference (GDC) 2025 in San Francisco and later at WAVES in India.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2105340
Consider the following statements regarding the Gulf of Tonkin:
- It is a crescent-shaped and semi-enclosed water body border by China and Vietnam.
- It is connected with the South China Sea by the Strait of Johr.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Vietnam’s foreign ministry published a map defining its baseline claim in the Gulf of Tonkin.
It is referred as “Beibu Gulf” in Chinese and “Bac Bo Gulf” in Vietnamese.
It is a crescent-shaped, shallow, semi-enclosed water body situated off South China and Northern Vietnam coasts in the South China Sea’s northwestern portion.
Bordering regions: It is bordered by the northern coastline of Vietnam in the west and northwest; by China’s Guangxi Zhuang Autonomous Region in the north; and by the Leizhou Peninsula and Hainan Island in the east.
It is connected with the South China Sea via the gulf’s mouth in the south and the Hainan Strait in the northeast.
Many rivers empty into the Gulf of Tonkin, with the Red River supplying the major riverine discharge along with some smaller rivers along the northern and western coastal areas.
Major Ports: In Northern Vietnam, the gulf’s main ports include Haiphong and Ben Thuy, whereas, in China, its major port is Beihai (Pakhoi).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/vietnam-government-publishes-map-of-its-gulf-of-tonkin-baseline/
Consider the following statements regarding Bay of Bengal Inter-Governmental Organisation:
- It is mandated to assist the livelihood opportunities to fisher folk in the Bay of Bengal region.
- India recently assumed the Chairmanship of this organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India assumed Chairmanship of Bay of Bengal (BOB) Inter-Governmental Organisation from Bangladesh at the 13th Governing Council Meeting at Malé, Maldives.
It was set up in 2003.
It is a unique regional fisheries body, specifically mandated to assist the member countries in increasing the livelihood opportunities and improving the quality of life of the small-scale/ artisanal fisher folk in the Bay of Bengal region.
The Organisation evolved from the erstwhile Bay of Bengal Programme of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations (UN) founded in 1979.
It has set international benchmarks in execution of programs and activities in the field of small-scale fisheries that has translated into measurable benefits for the member countries.
Member Countries: The current members of the Organisation are Bangladesh, India, Maldives and Sri Lanka while Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar and Thailand are cooperating non-contracting parties.
Objective of Bay of Bengal Inter-Governmental Organisation:
To increase awareness and knowledge of the needs, benefits and practices of marine fisheries management;
Enhance skills through training and education; transfer appropriate technologies and techniques for development of the small-scale fisheries; establish regional information networking; and promote women’s participation in marine fisheries value chain.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2105308
Jhumoir dance, recently in news, is performed in:
Assam
Explanation :
Prime Minister of India will attend the Jhumoir Binandini (Mega Jhumoir) 2025, a spectacular cultural extravaganza with 8,000 performers participating in the Jhumoir dance.
It is also known as Jhumur, is a traditional folk dance performed by the Adivasi tea tribes of Assam during the harvest season.
It is accompanied by traditional instruments like the Madal, Dhol, Taal and Flute.
The dance is performed to celebrate various occasions, including harvest festivals, weddings, and community gatherings.
Performance and attire
It is performed by both men and women, who dance in a circular formation, holding each other’s waists.
The dance is characterized by rhythmic footwork, swaying movements, and lively music.
The traditional attire for Jhumur dance includes colorful sarees for women and dhotis and kurtas for men.
Significance
It embodies the spirit of inclusivity, unity and cultural pride, and symbolises Assam’s syncretic cultural mélange.
It serves as a means of social bonding and cultural expression.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2105467
With reference to Palamu Tiger Reserve, consider the following:
- It is located in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region of Jharkhand.
- It is drained by the rivers North Koyal, and Auranga.
- It is primarily dominated by the Northern tropical Dry Deciduous forests.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
For the first time in Jharkhand, the tiger which had vacated its haunt in the Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR) and wandered off into the Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary in Jharkhand and West Bengal’s Purulia a few months back will be brought back to its native territory.
It is located in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region of Jharkhand.
The reserve forms a part of the Betla National Park.
It is one of the first 9 tiger reserves created in the country at the inception of ‘Project Tiger’.
It is the first reserve in the world in which a tiger census was carried out as a pugmark count, as early as 1932 under the supervision of J.W. Nicholson
Three rivers namely North Koyal, Auranga and Burha flow through the valleys.
The area is draught drone with Burha being the only perennial river.
The Reserve is very rich in minerals like Bauxite and Coal.
Vegetation:
It is primarily dominated by Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous, Sal Forest and its associates.
Smaller patches of Northern tropical Moist Deciduous forests exist too in the Reserve.
Flora: Shorea robusta, Acacia catechu, Madhuca indica, Terminalia tomentosa, Butea monosperma, Pterocarpus marsupium, Anogeisus latifolia, Indigofera pulchela etc.
Fauna: Some keystone and principal species found in the reserve include Tiger, Asiatic Elephant, Leopard, Grey wolf, Wild dog, Gaur, Sloth bear and four horned antelope.
Hence all statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Feb/22/in-a-1st-tiger-wandered-off-from-palamu-tiger-reserve-to-be-brought-back-to-mother-territory#:~:text
Consider the following statements regarding the Northern Pintail Duck, recently seen in the news:
- It is endemic to the Indian subcontinent.
- It is classified as endangered under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
A flock of rare northern pintail ducks has been recently spotted at an unprecedented altitude of 13,500 feet in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
About Northern Pintail Duck:
It is a graceful, migratory waterfowl celebrated for its striking appearance and fascinating behavior.
Scientific Name: Anas acuta
Distribution:
Sometimes referred to as the northern nomads, northern pintails have extensive migratory routes.
They have been found on every continent except Antarctica but typically do not live or breed south of the equator.
Features:
They are named for their long central tail feathers ending in what appears to be a point.
The male is a buff-gray color with a chocolate-covered head, a wide white strip on his chest and black patterning on his back.
Females and non-breeding males are mottled brown with a light chest, and neck.
These large ducks can reach over 60 centimeters long and weigh over one kilogram.
Their wingspan spreads up to 91 centimeters.
Their aerodynamic build makes them fast flyers, capable of reaching speeds up to 48 mph.
In the wild, northern pintails can live up to 22 years old.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence both statements are not correct.
News: https://nenow.in/north-east-news/arunachal-pradesh/arunachal-rare-northern-pintail-ducks-spotted-in-tawang.html
Which one of the following rivers flows into the Palk Strait?
Vaigai
Explanation :
In a fresh incident, 32 fishermen from Tamil Nadu were arrested by Sri Lankan Navy personnel on charges of poaching along the Palk Straits recently.
About Palk Strait:
It is an inlet of the Bay of Bengal between southeastern India and northern Sri Lanka.
It is bounded on the south by Pamban Island (India), Adam’s (Rama’s) Bridge (a chain of shoals), the Gulf of Mannar, and Mannar Island (Sri Lanka).
The southwestern portion of the strait is also called Palk Bay.
The strait is named after Robert Palk, who was a governor of Madras Presidency (1755-1763) during the Company Raj period.
The strait is 40 to 85 miles wide, 85 miles long, and less than 330 feet (100 metres) deep.
It receives several rivers, including the Vaigai (India), and it contains many islands on the Sri Lankan side.
The port of Jaffna, the commercial centre for northern Sri Lanka, lies on the strait.
The shoals and numerous islands long have limited transit through the strait to smaller vessels.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/32-tn-fishermen-arrested-by-sri-lankan-navy/article69253927.ece
Consider the following statements regarding HKU5-CoV-2, recently seen in the news:
- It is a newly discovered bat coronavirus.
- It has a lower binding affinity to human ACE2 than SARS-CoV-2, the virus behind COVID-19 pandemic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A newly discovered bat coronavirus, HKU5-CoV-2, similar to the virus that caused the COVID-19 pandemic, has been identified in China.
About HKU5-CoV-2:
It is a newly discovered bat coronavirus.
It closely resembles the SARS-CoV-2, the virus behind COVID-19 pandemic.
It belongs to the merbecovirus subgenus, which also includes the virus responsible for Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS).
It can bind to human ACE2 receptors, similar to SARS-CoV-2. This suggests it has the potential for animal-to-human transmission.
HKU5-CoV-2 has a lower binding affinity to human ACE2 than SARS-CoV-2, and its ability to infect humans on a large scale remains uncertain.
The virus binds not just to human ACE2 but also to multiple mammalian species, meaning it could spread through an intermediate animal before reaching humans.
There are no confirmed cases of HKU5-CoV-2 in humans yet, so its symptoms are unknown.
The discovery was made by a team of virologists led by Shi Zhengli, often referred to as “Batwoman” for her extensive research on coronaviruses at the Wuhan Institute, China.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/what-you-need-to-know-about-the-new-bat-virus-hku5-cov-2-symptoms-how-it-can-affect-humans-7767902
Consider the following statements regarding various kinds of Extended Realities:
- In Virtual Reality (VR), virtual information and objects are overlaid on the real world.
- In mixed reality, digital and real-world objects co-exist and can interact with one another in real-time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The XR Creator Hackathon is being organised by Wavelaps in association with the WAVES 2025 initiative of the Ministry Information and Broadcasting.
About Extended Reality (XR):
Extended reality (XR) represents a fusion of immersive technologies that blend the physical and virtual worlds, encompassing virtual reality (VR), augmented reality (AR), and mixed reality (MR) technologies.
All immersive technologies extend the reality we experience by either blending the “virtual” and “real” worlds or by creating a fully immersive experience.
Augmented Reality (AR):
In AR, virtual information and objects are overlaid on the real world.
This experience enhances the real world with digital details such as images, text, and animation.
You can access the experience through AR glasses or via screens, tablets, and smartphones.
This means users are not isolated from the real world and can still interact and see what’s going on in front of them.
Virtual Reality (VR):
In contrast to AR, in a VR experience, users are fully immersed in a simulated digital environment.
Individuals must put on a VR headset or head-mounted display to get a 360 -degree view of an artificial world that fools their brain into believing they are, e.g., walking on the moon, swimming under the ocean or stepping into whatever new world the VR developers created.
Mixed Reality (MR):
In mixed reality, digital and real-world objects co-exist and can interact with one another in real-time.
This is the latest immersive technology and is sometimes referred to as hybrid reality.
It requires an MR headset and a lot more processing power than VR or AR.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/waves-2025-xr-creator-hackathon-opens-up-opportunities-for-myriad-talents/article69255276.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Ex Gratia Payment:
- It is a voluntary payment that is not a part of an organization’s legal liability.
- Organizations use ex gratia payments to express their goodwill to maintain good long-term relationships with the payment receivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Ministry of Railways handed over wads of cash in bundles of notes of Rs 100 and 50 after announcing that it would provide Rs 10 lakh ex-gratia to the kin of the 18 deceased in the stampede at the New Delhi Railway Station recently.
About Ex Gratia Payment:
An ex gratia payment is a type of payment made by an organization, government, etc., to an individual for damages or claims without recognizing any legal obligation.
“Ex gratia” means “by favor” or “by virtue of grace” in Latin.
Thus, an ex gratia payment is a voluntary payment that is not a part of an organization’s legal liability.
Ex gratia payments are not common since companies or other organizations are usually only willing to cover the payments under legal enforcement.
However, some organizations use ex gratia payments to express their goodwill to maintain good long-term relationships with the payment receivers.
For example, a company experienced a bad year and decided to lay off a large number of employees.
In addition to compensating the employees according to legal terms, the company may also pay extra amounts to show its benevolence.
It can help the company to lower the negative effect of the job cuts on its public image.
Ex gratia payments are not taxable in India unless they are made in lieu of salary or wages.
The amount of the payment is not limited, but it is generally based on the individual’s or group’s needs and circumstances.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/new-delhi-railway-station-stampede-ex-gratia-cash-9848839/
Consider the following statements regarding the International Finance Corporation:
- It is the private lending arm of the World Bank.
- It provides investment in developing countries through both loans and direct investments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the International Finance Corporation (IFC) has decided against investing in a proposed $40 million loan for waste-to-energy (WTE) incineration projects in Gujarat, India.
About International Finance Corporation:
It is the private lending arm of the World Bank.
It was established in 1956 as a member of the World Bank Group, focused on investing in economic development.
Functions of International Finance Corporation
It provides financing of private-enterprise investment in developing countries around the world, through both loans and direct investments.
It also provides advisory services to encourage the development of private enterprises in nations that might lack the necessary infrastructure or liquidity for businesses to secure financing.
It mobilizes capital from other lenders and investors through loan participations, parallel loans and other means.
Governance: It is owned and governed by its member countries. It is a corporation whose shareholders are member governments that provide paid-in capital and have the right to vote on its matters.
The President of the World Bank Group is also the President of the IFC.
Headquarter: Washington, D.C
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/waste/world-banks-private-lending-arm-withdraws-funding-for-waste-incineration-projects-in-gujarat
Consider the following statements regarding the Zagros Mountains:
- They are formed by sliding of the Arabian Plate underneath the Eurasian Plate.
- It extended only in Syria and Turkey regions of Central Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, a geologist said that a hilly area surrounding the Zagros Mountains in Iraq is being pulled into Earth.
About Zagros Mountains:
It is a major mountain range in Central Asia.
Formation: Scientists estimate that these Mountains were formed during orogenic episodes triggered by the sliding of the Arabian Plate underneath the Eurasian Plate during the Miocene and Pliocene Epochs.
Historically, the Zagros Mountains have acted as a natural barrier between several cultures and empires of the ancient and modern worlds alike.
It extends for a distance of 1,500 kilometers in a northwest to southeast direction from the border areas between eastern Turkey and northern Iraq across the Iranian Plateau, ending at the Strait of Hormuz in southern Iran.
Highest Peak: Mount Dena, with a peak achieving an elevation of 14,465 feet, is the highest peak in the Zagros Mountain system.
The most commonly seen geological structural materials of the Zagros Mountains are Limestone and shale rocks from the Mesozoic Era and Paleogene Period.
Climate: A semi-arid temperate climate prevails in the region, wherein the bitter winters are severely cold and experience deadly temperatures drop, while summers are highly arid.
Vegetation: It consists of temperate broad-leaved forests, dominated by oak and pistachio trees, as well as dense ground covers of steppe vegetation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/iraq-slowly-sinking-into-earth-9848939/
Consider the following statements regarding National Commission for Indian System of Medicine:
- It frames policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine.
- It consists of 29 members, appointed by the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) concluded the closing ceremony marking the completion of the first phase of the ‘desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyaan’ with Historic Five Guinness World Records.
About National Commission for Indian System of Medicine:
It is the statutory body constituted under NCISM Act, 2020.
This act provides for a medical education system that improves access to quality and affordable medical education, ensures availability of adequate and high quality medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine in all parts of the country.
Composition of National Commission for Indian System of Medicine
It consists of 29 members, appointed by the central government.
A search committee will recommend names to the central government for the post of Chairperson, part time members, and presidents of the four autonomous boards set up under the NCISM.
Functions
Framing policies for regulating medical institutions and medical professionals of Indian System of Medicine.
Assessing the requirements of healthcare related human resources and infrastructure.
Ensuring compliance by the State Medical Councils of Indian System of Medicine of the regulations made under the Bill
Ensuring coordination among the autonomous boards.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2105326
Soliga Tribe, recently in news, mainly resides in:
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
Recently, the Prime Minister of India made a reference to Soliga Tribal people of BRT Tiger Reserve in the 119th edition of Mann Ki Baat and appreciated their contribution to tiger conservation.
About Soliga Tribes:
They are a group of indigenous, forest-dwelling people found mostly in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.
The term “Soliga” literally translates to “children of bamboo”, which reflects the tribe’s relationship with nature and their belief that they too have emerged from it.
They reside in the peripheral forest areas near Biligiri Rangana Hills and Male Mahadeshwara Hills.
Soligas was the first tribal community living inside a tiger reserve and getting their forest rights recognised by a court in a judgment in 2011.
Language: The Dravidian language sholaga is spoken by the Soliga. They also speak Kannada and Tamil.
The Soligas live in single-room huts, built of bamboo and mud.
Economy:
The traditional economy of the Soliga is mostly based on shifting cultivation and collection of minor forest produce.
Honey is an important part of the diet for the Soliga people, who still forage large parts of their food from the biodiversity-rich Ghats.
They believe in coexisting with the environment and have indigenous ways of using nature to make unique utility products, such as the ‘jottai’, which is a cup made out of leaves.
Religion: Along with adhering to Hindu customs, the Soliga people practice naturism and animism.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/pm-modi-praises-soliga-tribes-for-their-role-in-tiger-conservation-in-mann-ki-baat/article69254558.ece
With reference to Pagri Sambhal Jatta movement, consider the following:
- It was started in Punjab to protest against three agricultural laws imposed by the British
- It was started by Bhagat Singh by providing a slogan “Pagri Sambhal Jatta” to this movement.
- It was supported by the famous freedom fighter Lala Lajpat Rai.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, farmers protesting at the Punjab and Haryana borders are observed February 23 as Pagri Sambhal Diwas, in honour of Ajit Singh, paternal uncle of freedom fighter Bhagat Singh.
About Pagri Sambhal Jatta movement:
It was started by Ajit Singh in 1907, to protest against three agricultural laws imposed by the British.
‘Pagri Sambhal Jatta’ literally translates to ‘take care of your turban, o farmer’, and invokes self respect and honour.
The slogan “Pagri Sambhal Jatta” was coined by Banke Dayal, a nationalist poet, and became a symbol of resistance.
The three laws were: The Punjab Land Alienation Act, 1900; The Punjab Land Colonisation Act, 1906; and The Doab Bari Act, 1907.
The Punjab Land Alienation Act restricted the rights of farmers to sell or mortgage their land freely.
It favored moneylenders and landlords, making it difficult for peasants to escape debt.
The Punjab Land Colonisation Act gave the British control over land ownership in the newly developed Chenab Colony (now in Pakistan). Farmers had to transfer their land to the British government upon death instead of passing it to their heirs.
The Doab Bari Act, 1907, too, took away farmers’ ownership rights over their lands, effectively reducing them to contract workers.
Along with this, the British raised taxes on agricultural land and water for irrigation, increasing the financial burden on farmers. Many small farmers and peasants were forced into debt and land loss.
Ajit Singh and Kishan Singh (Bhagat Singh’s father) formed the Bharat Mata Society, a revolutionary group for farmers.
Lala Lajpat Rai and other leaders also supported the movement.
Impact of the movement
Pagri Sambhal Jatta was one of the first major farmer movements against British rule, laying the foundation for future resistance in Punjab.
The agitation led to mass protests and civil disobedience. Due to intense pressure, the British government withdrew some of the oppressive clauses of the laws.
The movement inspired future protests, including the Ghadar Movement and Bhagat Singh’s revolutionary activities.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-history/bhagat-singhs-uncle-ajit-singh-pagri-sambhal-jatta-9851504/
Consider the following statements regarding Spices Board:
- It is a statutory body responsible for the export promotion of spices in India.
- It functions under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Spices Board is working with the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) and other regulatory agencies to bring in more regulations for the industry.
About Spices Board:
It is a statutory body constituted on 26th February 1987 under the Spices Board Act 1986, with the merger of the erstwhile Cardamom Board (1968) and Spices Export Promotion Council (1960).
It is one of the five Commodity Boards functioning under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
It is responsible for the overall development of the cardamom industry and export promotion of 52 spices listed in the schedule of the Spices Board Act, 1986.
The primary function of the Board includes the development of small and large cardamom, promotion, development, regulation of export of spices, and control on the quality of spices for export.
The Board is an international link between the Indian exporters and the importers abroad.
It also undertakes research activities on cardamom (small & large) under the Indian Cardamom Research Institute.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/working-with-fssai-other-bodies-to-regulate-spice-industry-spices-board/article69259759.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Slender-Billed Gull, recently seen in the news:
- It is endemic to the Mediterranean region.
- It is classified as ‘Least Concern’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Birders in Chennai recently recorded a rare shorebird, the slender-billed gull, at the Pallikaranai marshland.
About Slender-Billed Gull:
It is a medium-sized seabird species.
Scientific Name: Chroicocephalus genei
Distribution:
It breeds very locally around the Mediterranean and the north of the western Indian Ocean (e.g. Pakistan) on islands and coastal lagoons.
Most of the population is somewhat migratory, wintering further south to north Africa and India, and a few birds have wandered to western Europe.
In India, it is considered a regular along the western coast with several records from wetlands of northern India.
Features:
It is 37 to 40 cm long with a 90 to 102 cm wingspan.
It has a pale grey body, a white head and breast, and black tips to the primary wing feathers.
The head and dark red bill have an elongated tapering appearance, and this bird also appears long-necked.
The legs are dark red, and the iris is yellow.
About half of the slender-billed gull’s food is fish. It flies a few metres above the surface of the water and dives into the water when it sees suitable prey.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/spotted-rare-slender-billed-gull-at-pallikaranai-marsh/articleshow/118539458.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Caspian Sea:
- It is the world’s largest water body that is enclosed or bordered by land on all sides.
- The mean salinity of the Caspian Sea is several times that of the oceans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Environmental activists are quite concerned and alarmed over the rapidly declining water levels of the Caspian Sea.
About Caspian Sea:
It is the world’s largest water body that is enclosed or bordered by land on all sides.
This massive lake is located between Asia and Europe. The sea’s name derives from the ancient Kaspi peoples, who once lived in Transcaucasia to the west.
It is an endorheic basin (drainage basin without an outflow). It covers a total surface area of about 386,400 sq.km.and is about 1,200 km long and 320 km wide.
Bordering countries: It is bordered by Russia and Azerbaijan on the west, Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan on the north and east, and Iran on the south.
The composition of the water of the Caspian Sea also varies from almost fresh in the northern parts of the lake to saltier southwards.
The mean salinity of the Caspian Sea is now about one-third that of the oceans.
Three major rivers—the Volga, the Ural, and the Terek—empty into the Caspian from the north.
Baku, the capital of Azerbaijan, is the largest city on the Caspian. Another important city along the Caspian is Iran’s Nowshahr.
The sea contains as many as 50 islands, most of them small. The largest are Chechen, Tyuleny, Morskoy, Kulaly, Zhiloy, and Ogurchin.
The sea is also known for its abundance of energy resources (oil and natural gas reserves in offshore fields and onshore on the coast of the sea).
It is the source of most of the world’s caviar.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/the-caspian-sea-is-sinking-nearly-31000-sq-km-lost-since-2005/articleshow/118531509.cms
Consider the following statements regarding RS-24 Yars, recently seen in the news:
- It is a Russian intercontinental ballistic missile.
- It has a range of over 20000 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Russia recently deployed autonomous launchers of intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBM) RS-24 Yars on combat patrol routes which are equipped with nuclear weapons.
About RS-24 Yars:
The Yars RS-24 (NATO designation SS-29) is a Russian intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) system.
It is believed to have entered into service in February 2010.
It is reported to be designed similarly to Russia’s SS-27 (Topol M) ICBM and the Bulava (SS-NX-32) SLBM.
Features:
It is three-staged, solid-fueled, and can be launched from a silo or mobile launcher.
The missile is estimated to be 22.5 meters in length and 2 meters in diameter.
The total launch weight of the RS-24 is assessed to be 49,000 kg and is expected to have a minimum range of 2,000 km and a maximum of 10,500 km.
The missile uses an guidance upgraded system of the inertial and Glonass systems.
The missile can be armed with up to 10 Multiple Independently Targetable Reentry Vehicles (MIRVs), each containing a thermonuclear warhead weighing 300 kilotons.
It has the capability to manoeuvre during flight and deploy both active and passive decoys, which gives Yars an advantage against modern missile defence systems.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.india.com/news/world/russia-deploys-america-killer-yars-ballistic-missile-know-how-dangerous-it-is-7636495/
Consider the following statements regarding Bhitarkanika National Park:
- It is located in Andhra Pradesh.
- It is India’s second largest mangrove ecosystem after the Sunderbans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Bhitarkanika National Park, known for hosting large numbers of migratory birds during winter, is witnessing an early departure of these avian visitors.
About Bhitarkanika National Park:
Location: It is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha.
The National park is essentially a network of creeks and canals which are inundated with waters from the Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra, and Patasala rivers forming a unique ecosystem.
It is spread over a vast area of 672 sq.km.
It is India’s second largest mangrove ecosystem after the Sunderbans.
It houses a variety of brooks, backwaters, estuaries, deltas, and mud huts.
Proximity to the Bay of Bengal makes the soil of the area enriched with salt; the vegetation and species of the sanctuary are comprised of those that are mainly found in the tropical and subtropical intertidal regions.
It is also designated as the second Ramsar site in Odisha after the Chilika Lake.
Flora: Mangrove species, casuarinas, and grasses like the indigo bush.
Fauna:
It is home to the largest congregation of the endangered Salt Water Crocodile in the country.
The Gahirmatha Beach, which forms the boundary of the park in the east, is the largest colony of the Olive Ridley Sea Turtles.
It is also home to numerous animals like hyenas, wild boar, Chitals, Sambar, Spotted Deer, Wild Boar, Jungle cat, Wild Pigs, etc., and migratory birds, which make it their home during the winter season, lending a vibrant hue to the eco system.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2025/Feb/25/migratory-birds-leave-bhitarkanika-national-park-as-mercury-rises
Consider the following statements regarding Selenium mineral:
- It is found in the soil and naturally appears in water and some foods.
- It plays a critical role in thyroid hormone metabolism and DNA synthesis in human body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Medical experts have linked cases of sudden hair loss affecting 279 people in Maharashtra’s Buldhana district to high selenium content found in wheat supplied through local ration shops from Punjab and Haryana.
About Selenium:
It is a trace mineral, which means that the body only needs a small amount of it.
It is a mineral found in the soil and naturally appears in water and some foods.
Soil and ground water contain inorganic forms of selenium that plants accumulate and convert to organic forms, mostly selenomethionine and selenocysteine and their methylated derivatives.
Selenium is a constituent of 25 selenoproteins, including thioredoxin reductases, glutathione peroxidases, and selenoprotein P.
Human body can’t produce Selenium on its own. You have to get it through diet.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of Selenium for adult men and women 19+ years of age is 55 micrograms daily. Women who are pregnant and lactating need about 60 and 70 micrograms daily, respectively.
Food Sources of Selenium: Protein foods from animals are generally good sources of selenium. Seafood, organ meats, and Brazil nuts are the foods highest in selenium
Health benefits: Selenoproteins play critical roles in thyroid hormone metabolism, DNA synthesis, reproduction, and protection from oxidative damage and infection.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/buldhana-hair-loss-cases-expert-report-blames-high-selenium-in-wheat/article69260787.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Kalakkad – Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve:
- It is located in southern Western Ghats region of Karnataka.
- It consists of savannah woodlands and evergreen forests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the post-monsoon wildlife census at Kalakkad Division of Kalakkad – Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR) commenced.
About Kalakkad – Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve:
It is located in the Southern Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu.
It includes three main sanctuaries: Kalakad Sanctuary, Mundanthurai Sanctuary, and a part of Kanyakumari Sanctuary.
It is nestled between Kerala and Tamil Nadu, the Agastya Malai Hill Range forms the core area of the sanctuary and is part of one of the world’s 18 biodiversity hotspots.
It is also known as the “River Sanctuary”, with as many as 14 rivers originating from this Tiger Reserve.
Terrain: Undulating with several valleys and porous rocks.
Vegetation:
It varies from thorny shrub jungles to lush evergreen forests.
It also consists of savannah woodlands, and grasslands, there are tea and coffee plantations within the reserve.
Flora: Important species include Sarcandra, Paphiopedulum, druryi, Hopea parviflora, Hopea utilis, Calophylum elatum, Cullenia exarillata, etc.
Fauna: Tiger, leopard, rusty spotted cat, sloth bear, elephant, gaur, sambar, spotted deer, mouse deer, nilgiri langur, slender loris, bonnet macaque, lion tailed macaque, etc.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Madurai/post-monsoon-wildlife-census-begins/article69258599.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Black Plastic:
- It is often made from recycled electronic waste such as computers, TVs, and appliances.
- It is used to make everyday items like food trays and containers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Black Plastic made headlines as a recent study claimed that the material contained toxic flame retardants which could be leaching into food at hazardous levels.
About Black Plastic:
It is a type of plastic used to make everyday items like food trays, containers, and utensils.
It is often made from recycled electronic waste such as computers, TVs, and appliances.
These are more likely to contain unregulated amounts of toxic chemicals including heavy metals and flame retardants.
The issue is that these electronics typically contain substances such as the flame retardant bromine; antimony; and heavy metals such as lead, cadmium, and mercury.
These electronics comprise flame retardants in a bid to prevent fire hazards.
Impact on human health:
The aforementioned substances and heavy metals are known to be toxic to humans at high levels of exposure.
Children are particularly vulnerable as they often come into prolonged contact with toys that could expose them to harmful chemicals through direct handling or ingestion.
Toxic chemicals in black plastic kitchen utensils could leach into food during heating, compounding the risk of exposure for households using these products regularly.
Studies have shown that chemicals in black plastic, such as BPA and phthalates, disrupt the endocrine system, leading to potential reproductive health issues, obesity, and diabetes.
It is difficult to recycle and often ends up in landfills or incinerators, releasing toxic substances like dioxins and furans into the air.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/black-plastic-9854309/
Honduras, recently in news, shares border with:
Pacific Ocean and Caribbean Sea
Explanation :
Recently, India has dispatched humanitarian assistance of 26 tons to Honduras in the wake of the recent Tropical storm SARA.
About Honduras:
It is located in Central America.
Bordered by
It is bordered by Guatemala to the west; by El Salvador to the southwest; and by Nicaragua to the southeast.
It is also bounded by the Pacific Ocean at the Gulf of Fonseca to the south and by the Caribbean Sea at the Gulf of Honduras to the north.
Climate: The climate is generally hot, with high humidity in the tropical coastal lowlands becoming modified by elevation toward the interior.
Terrain: More than three-fourths of the land area of Honduras is mountainous.
Highest Peak: Mount Las Minas.
Major Rivers: The Coco River forms the border with Nicaragua and other important rivers are Patuca & Ulúa.
The major bodies of water are Lake Yojoa, which is the only significant lake in the entire nation, and the Caratasca Lagoon in the northeast.
Natural Resource: Timber, gold, silver, copper, lead, zinc, iron ore, antimony, coal, fish, hydropower.
Capital: Tegucigalpa
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-sends-humanitarian-assistance-to-typhoon-hit-honduras/
With reference to Spinal Muscular Atrophy, consider the following:
- It is a genetic condition which affects motor neurons that control movement.
- It is caused by mutations in the survival motor neuron gene.
- It can be cured by using antibiotic drugs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, clinical neuroscientists said that they have managed to treat a deadly motor neuron disease spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) in a baby who was still in the womb.
About Spinal Muscular Atrophy:
It is a debilitating genetic condition which affects motor neurons that control movement, and leads to progressive muscle weakening.
Types of SMA: There are five subtypes of SMA- type 0, 1, 2, 3, 4. Healthcare providers classify them based on the age of onset, as well as the severity and life expectancy.
Symptoms:
Its symptoms vary and may be mild or disabling, but involve a weakness of the muscles that control movement. Involuntary muscles are not affected, such as those in the heart, blood vessels and digestive tract.
The weakness in SMA tends to be more severe in the muscles that are close to the center of your body than in the muscles farther away from your body’s center.
Causes: The condition is caused by mutations in the survival motor neuron gene (SMN1) which causes a deficiency of a protein crucial for the survival of motor neurons in the spinal cord.
This prevents muscles from receiving signals from the brain, causing them to waste away.
Prevalence: About one in every 10,000 births have some form of the condition — making it a leading genetic cause of death in infants and children.
Treatment: Unfortunately, there isn’t a cure for SMA. Treatment for SMA mainly seeks to manage symptoms and prevent complications.
Symptom management therapies may include:
Physical therapy, which can help improve posture, prevent joint immobility and slow muscle weakness.
Between 2016 and 2020, the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved treatments that can significantly improve the course of SMA. They include: Disease-modifying therapy and Gene replacement therapy.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/how-doctors-treated-a-genetic-disorder-in-the-womb-for-the-first-time-9853708/
Consider the following statements regarding Jainism:
- It rejected the existence of gods.
- The early Jaina’s discarded Sanskrit language.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Jainism recognised the existence of gods but placed them lower than the jina. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Jainism made the first serious attempt to mitigate the evils of the varna order and the ritualistic Vedic religion. The early Jainas discarded Sanskrit language mainly patronized by the brahmanas. They adopted Prakrit language of the common people to preach their doctrines. So, statement 2 is correct.
The text – ‘Kalak Acharya Katha’, belongs to
Jainism
Explanation :
The Kalpasutra and the Kala Acharya-Katha, the two very popular Jain texts were repeatedly written and illustrated with paintings commissioned by the Jain merchants and bankers.Kalpasutra and Kalakacarya-katha - The British Library
Kalpasutra is a Prakrit work composed by Bhadrabahu in the 5th century BC. This canonical work narrates the early stages of development of Jainism.
Kalak Acharya Katha tells the story of a great Jain muni of the Shwetambar school called Kalak. Kalaka, a Jain teacher who uses his magical powers to help the Saka (Scythian). In return they help him defeat the evil king of Ujjain Gardhabilla, who had kidnapped his sister. This story is very often found as an appendix to the Kalpasutra.
Consider the following statement with reference to Buddhism Sulvasutra:
- Buddhism recognized the existence of God and soul (atman).
- Buddhist order was open to people from all varnas.
- Slaves and debtors were not admitted to the Buddhist sangha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Buddhism is based upon the teachings, life experiences of its founder Siddhartha Gautam, born in circa 563 BCE. Buddha did not involve himself in fruitless controversies regarding soul (atman) and the Brahma which raged strongly in his time; he addressed himself to worldly problems. He said that the world is full of sorrows and people suffer from desires. If desires are conquered, nirvana will be attained, that is, man will be free from the cycle of birth and death.
Buddhism does not recognize the existence of God and soul (atman). This can be taken as a kind of revolution in the history of Indian religions. Since early Buddhism was not enmeshed in the clap-trap of philosophical discussion, it appealed to the common people. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Buddhism particularly won the support of the lower orders as it attacked the varna system. People were taken into the Buddhist order without any consideration of caste. Women also were admitted to the sangha and thus brought on a par with men. In comparison with Brahmanism, Buddhism was liberal and democratic. Although Buddhism tried to mitigate the evils resulting from the new material life in the sixth century BC, it also tried to consolidate the changes in the social and economic life of the people. The rule that debtors were not permitted to be members of the sangha naturally helped the moneylenders and richer section of the society from whose clutches the debtors could not be saved. Similarly, the rule that slaves could not join the sangha helped the slave-owners. Thus, the rules and teachings of Gautama Buddha took full account of the new changes in material life and strengthened them ideologically. So, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is correct
The sacred book ‘ Uttaradhyayana Sutra’ is related to
Jainism
Explanation :
The Uttaradhyayana Sutra is one of the most important sacred books of the Shvetambar Jains. It is one of the four ‘Mulasutras’ of the Jain canon.
Uttaradhyayana Sutra outlined the rules of monastic conduct, said to be Mahavira’s final sermon. These 36 lectures provide rules for ascetics and discuss various topics, such as karma and the substances in the universe, and recount the tale of Nemi’s renunciation.
Meant to teach the basics of Jain doctrine and practice to mendicants, Mulasutras form a set of works, all written in Ardhamagadhi Prakrit. New monks and nuns begin to study these texts immediately after their initiations. The works are considered to contain the basic elements that must be understood to lead the mendicant life and therefore make up the first stage in the Shvetambara monastic curriculum.
Consider the following statements with reference to Jainism:
- Jainism emphasizes that the ultimate truth and reality is complex and multidimensional.
- Parshvanath, the predecessor of Mahavira, professed to discard the clothes completely.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Anekantavada, the fundamental doctrine of Jainism, emphasises that the ultimate truth and reality is complex and has multiple aspects. Hence, there exists non-absolutism, which means no single, specific statement can describe the nature of existence and the absolute truth. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Parsvanath, the predecessor of Mahavira, allowed his followers to cover the upper and lower portions of their body. It was his followers, who in later times, came to be known as Svetambars or those who put on white dress. Mahavir, on the other hand, asked his followers to lead a more austere life. He even added the fifth principle of Brahamcharya (Celibacy) to the existing four, i.e., Ahimsa, Satya, Aparigrah (Non-Greediness), and Astey (Non-Stealing). He even asked his followers to discard the clothes completely. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to the cultural history of India, the terms `Chhandavasini, Bhogavasin, Dasisama’ refers to:
Different kinds of marriages mentioned in Vinaya Pitaka.
Explanation :
Ancient Indian texts lay special emphasis on the institution of marriage. In Buddhist texts, the type of marriage most approved is one arranged by parents and where the bride and groom were young and chaste.
The Vinaya Pitaka mentions 10 kinds of unions between a man and woman: (1) When a woman is bought by money (dhanakkhita); (2) when she stays of her own accord with a man (chhandavasini); (3) when a man gives her money (bhogavasin); (4) when a man gives her clothes (patavasini); (5) when an ablution of water is performed (odapattakani); (6) when she removes her headgear (obhatachumbata); (7) when she is also a female slave (dasisama); (8) when she is also a servant (kammakari); (9) when she is temporarily with a man (muhuttika); and (10) when she is captured in a raid (dhajahata).
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Many of the sculptural reliefs represent important scenes from the life of the Buddha. In the early stages, the artists depicted these scenes without showing the Buddha in bodily form. There were four key episodes from his life that were most frequently represented, especially at important places of honour on the gateways—jati (birth), sambodhi (enlightenment), dharmachakra-pravartana (the first sermon), and mahaparinibbana (death). To this list can be added two others—avakranti (the descent, i.e., conception) and the mahabhinishkramana (the great departure).
At Sanchi, the birth of the Buddha is usually represented by Maya seated on a lotus. The most developed form of the scene shows Maya flanked by two elephants holding round pitchers in their trunks. The first sermon at Sarnath is represented by the wheel.
The Buddha’s enlightenment is represented by the bodhi tree, variously combined with an umbrella over it, a throne in front of it, or a railing around it. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
The conception is represented in scenes showing Maya asleep on a couch with a white elephant at the top of the panel. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
The stupa symbolised the Buddha’s death. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Siddhartha’s departure into homelessness is represented by a bridled horse and a groom holding an umbrella over the head of the invisible rider. So pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Consider the following statements with reference to the philosophy of Buddhism:
- It emphasizes on ‘Karma Marga’, the path of action, to attain nirvana or salvation.
- It acknowledges the existence of the soul and the idea of transmigration.
- It believed in the doctrine of Conditioned co-production- Pratityasamutpada.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3 only
Explanation :
Buddhism was one of the greatest religions to emerge in this world founded by Gautama Buddha. It believes in the efficacy of Jnana Marga (path of knowledge) to attain salvation, whereas Jainism believes in the efficacy of Karma Marga (path of action) to attain salvation. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Buddha has rejected the idea of soul and argued that there was nothing like soul. He emphasized that nothing moves from one life to another and thus did not acknowledge transmigration of soul. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Buddha believed in the Doctrine of Conditioned Co-production (Pratityasamutpada) which states that ‘one state of life leads to the next state of life’. So, statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the religious history of India, Skanda, Manjusri, and Avalokitesvara refers to
Boddhisattvas
Explanation :
Prominent Boddhisattvas under Buddhism
Skanda: Guardian of viharas and the Buddhist teachings.
Manjusri: One of the three protective deities around Buddha is also depicted in Ajanta Caves. He is associated with the wisdom of Buddha and is a male Bodhisattva with a wielding sword in his hand.
Avalokitesvara: One of the three protective deities around Buddha. He is described as holding Lotus flower and is also known as Padmapani. He is the most acknowledged among all the Bodhisattvas.
Avalokitesvara manifests Buddha’s compassion, Vajrapani manifests Buddha’s power and Manjusri contemplates Buddha’s wisdom.
The “Murtipujaka” sect belongs to?
Jainism
Explanation :
Jainism has two major schools, Digambaras and Svetambaras. Sthanakavasi, Murtipujaka, Terapanthi are the three sub-sects of Svetambara school.
Murtipujaka sect: They keep idols of the Tirthankaras at their temples and worship them and the saints do not wear a muhapatti.
Consider the following statements:
- Pratikraman is a process during which Jains repent for their sins during their daily life.
- Sallekhana is a religious practice of voluntarily fasting to death by gradually reducing the intake of food and liquids.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Pratikraman is the process during which Jains repent for their sins during their daily life, and remind themselves not to repeat them. The five types of Pratikraman include Devasi, Rayi, Pakhi, Chaumasi, and Samvatsari. So, statement 1 is correct.
Sallekhana is a religious practice of voluntarily fasting to death by gradually reducing the intake of food and liquids. It is not considered as suicide by Jain scholars because it is not an act of passion, nor does it deploy poisons or weapons. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Buddha?
- He is also known as Tathagata and Sakyamuni in various Buddhist texts.
- The predecessor of Buddha was Maitreya.
- He was a contemporary of twenty-fourth Tirthankara Rishabhanatha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Buddha is also known as Tathagata and Sakyamuni in various Buddhist texts. Tathagata, one of the titles of Buddha and the one most frequently employed by Siddhartha Gautama, when referring to himself. The Buddha belonged to a small gana known as the Sakya gana and was a Kshatriya. The name Shakyamuni is the Sanskrit word for “Sage of the Shakya.” So, statement 1 is correct.
The predecessor of Buddha under Buddhism was Kassapa Buddha and his successor will be Maitreya. Kassapa Buddha is the twenty-fourth Buddha of the Pali tradition; and one of the seven Buddhas mentioned in Pali canons. Besides, he is also reckoned as the third Buddha of the present aeon, Bhadda Kappa. Maitreya is the much-awaited future Buddha, who is yet to be born. He would be counted as the fifth and the last of the Buddhas of the current aeon, i.e., the Bhadda Kappa. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The first Tirthankara is believed to be Rishabhanatha. The last, twenty-fourth Tirthankara was Vardhamana Mahavira who was a contemporary of Gautama Budhha. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Sthavira Nikaya and Mahasamghika were the schools of Buddhism.
- Vajrayana Buddhism combines some tribal elements, Brahmanical rituals and Buddhist philosophies.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
After the passing of Buddha, the original Sangha is believed to have split into the two early schools, Sthavira Nikaya and Mahasamghika. The Sthavira nikaya school sub-sects included Mahisasaka, Sarvastivada, Sankrantika, Sautrantika, Dharmaguptaka, Vatsiputriya etc. The Mahasamghika school sub-sects included Gokulika, Prajnaptivada, Bahusrutiya, Ekavyaharikas. So, statement 1 is correct.
Scholars contemplate that the Vajrayana school developed as a result of royal courts sponsoring both Buddhism and Shaivism. It involved combining Brahmanical rituals with Buddhist philosophies. This school believes in Tantra’s, Mantras, and Yantras superiority. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which among the following statements is/are correct with reference to Buddhist literature known as Tripitakas:
- Vinayapitaka contains discipline for monks as well as nuns who are part of the monastic Sangha.
- Suttapitaka consists of only discourses delivered by the Buddha.
- Abhidhamma pitaka deals with the philosophy and doctrine of Buddhism appearing in the Suttas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Once Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at Kushinagar in 483 BC, there was a need to compile his teachings, and hence four Buddhist Councils were held in a span of next 500 years to collate this material into Pitakas. The result was writing of three major pitakasVinaya, Sutta and Abhidhamma, that when combined were called Tripitaka. All of these have been written in Pali language.
Suttapitaka contains basic doctrinal section of the Buddhist canon. It consists of more than 10,000 Suttas (discourses) delivered by the Buddha and his close disciples during and shortly after the Buddha’s forty-five year teaching career, as well as many additional verses by other members of the Sangha. This also deals with the first Buddhist council which was held shortly after Buddha’s death, dated by the majority of recent scholars around 400 BC. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Vinaya Pitaka, is the textual framework upon which the monastic community (Sangha) is built. It includes not only the rules governing the life of every Theravada bhikkhu (monk) and bhikkhuni (nun) but also a host of procedures and conventions of etiquette that support harmonious relations, both among the monastics themselves, and between the monastics and their lay supporters, upon whom they depend for all their material needs. It is thus also called as Book of Discipline. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Abhidhammapitaka deals with the philosophy and doctrine of Buddhism appearing in the suttas. However, it does not contain systematic philosophical treatises but a detailed reworking. They represent a development in a rationalistic direction of summaries or numerical lists. The topics dealt with in Abhidhamma books include ethics, psychology, and epistemology. So, Statement 3 is correct.
With reference to Chennakesava Temple located in Belur, consider the following statements:
- It was built during the reign of the Hoysala dynasty.
- It is made of marble with very detailed carvings.
- It is situated on the banks of river Krishna.
- Though a Vaishnava temple, it houses images from Jainism and Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
The Chennakeshava Temple, also referred to as Keshava, or Vijayanarayana Temple of Belur, Karnataka is one of the bigger and more renowned Hoysala temples. The temple was built in the early 12th century by the Hoysala ruler, Vishnuvardhana, when the town of Belur was the site for the capital of the Hoysala kingdom. So, statement 1 is correct.Chennakeshava Temple, Belur | Hassan District, Government of Karnataka | India
Built with soapstone, the Chennakesava temple features a very detailed finish built around a typical Hoysala style blueprint. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The temple stands on a platform or Jagati and looks like a huge casket. The pillars of the temple exhibit some of the best details and finishing of sculpture and art work in the entire complex. The Narasimha pillar is one of the most popular of these temple pillars.
The Chennakeshava Temple is built on the banks of the Yagachi River in Belur, also known as Velapura. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Though a Vaishnava temple, it includes themes from Shaivism and Shaktism, as well as images from Jainism and Buddhism. The Chennakeshava temple is a testimony to the artistic, cultural and theological perspectives in 12th century South India and the Hoysala era, which was tolerant towards all beliefs. So, statement 4 is correct.
With reference to temple architecture in ancient India, the terms Gavaksha, Kalasha and Vyala refers to
. Various elements of surface ornamentation
Explanation :
Various elements of ornamentation such as gavaksha, vyala/yali, kalpa-lata, amalaka, kalasha, etc. are used in distinct ways and places in a temple.
A mandir kalasha is a metal or stone spire used to top the domes of temples. The shikhara is truncated at the top and capped by a shoulder course (skandha), above which is a circular necking (griva), carrying a large grooved disc called the amalasaraka. On it rests a pot and a crowning kalasha.
Gavaksha is a term used to describe the motif centered on an ogee, circular or horseshoe arch that decorates many examples of Indian rock-cut architecture
A vyala (yali), the decorative lion monster which decorates many Hindu temples.
In which one of the following states is Lingaraja temple located?
. Odisha
Explanation :
Lingaraja temple is the epitome of Orissan temple architecture. It is one of the most beautiful temples in India. This temple represents the magnificence and grace of the maturity and highly developed temple form of Orissan style.
The temple consists of four parts, the sanctum, with the high tower, the mandapa, nata mandapa, and the bhoga mandapa. The Lingaraja temple is the largest temple in Bhubaneswar. The temple represents the quintessence of the Kalinga architecture and culminates the medieval stages of the architectural tradition at Bhubaneswar.
The temple is believed to have been built by the kings from the Soma Vamsi dynasty, with later additions from the Ganga rulers.
None of the above
Explanation :
As the Mughal Empire declined, one of the staunchest and hardiest of the empire’s adversaries, the Marathas, got a chance to rise in power. They controlled a large portion of the country; besides, they also received tributes from areas not directly under their control.
Bajirao I (1720-40), considered greatest of all the Peshwas, had started a confederacy of prominent Maratha chiefs to manage the rapidly expanding Maratha power, and to some extent appease the Kshatriya section of the Marathas (Peshwas were brahmins) led by the senapati Dabodi. Under the arrangement of the Maratha confederacy, each prominent family under a chief was assigned a sphere of influence which he was supposed to conquer and rule, but in the name of the then Maratha king, Shahu.
The Maratha families which emerged prominently were—
the Gaekwad of Baroda, So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
the Bhonsle of Nagpur, So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
the Holkars of Indore, So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
the Sindhias of Gwalior.
the Peshwa of Poona.
Consider the following statements with reference to the developments in Art, Architecture and Culture in 18th Century India:
- Bada Imambara was built by Asaf-ud-Daula in Gwalior.
- Sawai Jai Singh built the pink city of Jaipur.
- Shah Abdul Latif composed Risalo, a collection of poems in the Sindhi language.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
At Lucknow, Asaf-ud-Daula built the badaImambara in 1784. In the first half of the 18th century, Sawai Jai Singh built the pink city of Jaipur and five astronomical observatories at Delhi, Jaipur, Benares, Mathura and Ujjain. He also prepared a set of timetables called Jij Muhammad-shahi, to help the people in the study of astronomy. In the south, in Kerala, the Padmanabhapuram Palace, famous for its architecture and mural paintings, was constructed. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
A distinct feature of the literary life of the 18th century was the growth of the Urdu language and poetry. It was the period of Urdu poets like Mir, Sauda, Nazir and Mirza Ghalib (19th century). In south India, Malayalam literature flourished under the patronage of the Travancore rulers. Kalakkathu Kanchan Nambiar was a noted Malayalam poet. The Tamil language was enriched by sittar poetry. Tayumanavar (1706-44), one of the best exponents of sittar poetry, protested against the abuses of temple rule and the caste system. Heer-Ranjha, the romantic epic in Punjabi literature, was composed by Warris Shah. In Sindhi literature, Shah Abdul Latif composed Risalo, a collection of poems. These are just some examples of literary works in regional languages. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Pitt’s India Act of 1784:
- It sanctioned a fund of Rupees one lakh for the purposes of education in India.
- Formal recognition of the parliamentary right to control Indian Affairs began with it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Pitt’s India Act gave the British government a large measure of control over the Company’s affairs. In fact, the Company became a subordinate department of the State. The Company’s territories in India were termed ‘British possessions’.The Pitt’s India Act in 1784, also known as the East India Company Act, was passed in British Parliament to correct the defects of the previously signed Regulating Act in 1773.
The real beginning of western education in India can be traced to the Charter Act of 1813 which allocated 1 lakh rupees per year for two specific purposes: first, the encouragement of learned natives of India and the revival of and improvement of literature; secondly, the promotion of a knowledge of sciences amongst the inhabitants of that country. So statement 1 is not correct.
Before the Pitt’s India Act of 1784, the Regulating Act of 1773 had already recognised the legislative right to monitor Indian affairs. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Permanent Settlement system:
- It benefited the landlords more than the government in the long run.
- Vested the land ownership right in the zamindars but prevented their heirs from inheriting
- It was governed by the ‘sun-set’ law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
According to the permanent settlement, Zamindar had to pay a fixed amount of revenue to the government every year. By increasing the area under cultivation, the landlords’ collection of rent went up, but the amount they had to pay to the government remained the same. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Permanent Settlement in 1793 was made with the zamindars. Every bit of land in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa became a part of zamindari or estate and the zamindar had to pay the tax fixed upon it. If he did so, then he was the proprietor or owner of his zamindari: he could sell, mortgage and transfer it; land could also be inherited by heirs. But failure to pay the revenue would lead to the confiscation of the zamindari by the government and its sale by auction; the new purchaser would then have the ownership right on it. This was the so-called creation of private property in land; the magic of private property, it was widely hoped, would bring in the desired improvement in agriculture. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Zamindars had to pay a fixed amount of revenue by a particular date, failure leading to the sale of the Zamindari. This was the so-called sun-set law under the permanent settlement. So, statement 3 is correct.
Only One Pair
Explanation :
Padmanabha Swamy temple
Located inside the East Fort in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, the Sree Padmanabha Swamy Temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. This temple is a blend of the Kerala and Dravidian styles of architecture. It is one of the 108 sacred Vishnu temples or Divya Desams in India. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Marthanda Varma, noted among Travancore kings, did a major renovation to the temple and it resulted in the present-day structure of the Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple. It was Marthanda Varma who introduced the Murajapam and Bhadra Deepam festivals in the temple. Murajapam, which literally means continuous chanting of prayers, is still conducted in the temple once every six years.
Sri Rangam Temple
Srirangam is the foremost of the eight self-manifested shrines (Swayam Vyakta Kshetras) of Lord Vishnu. It is located in Srirangam, Tiruchirapalli, Tamil Nadu. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Ramna Kali Temple
In December 2021, the Indian President inaugurated the renovated Sri Ramna Kali Mandir, Dhaka which was completely destroyed by Pakistani forces during heinous Operation Searchlight in 1971. Operation Searchlight of the Pakistan army targeted the political opposition and the religious minorities of East Pakistan. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
It was originally built in the time of the Mughal Empire. It was also known as the “Ramna Kalibari”. The temple is dedicated to the Hindu Goddess Kali.
Consider the following statements with reference to Heraka Movement:
- It was a socio-religious movement in the early 20th century.
- Birsa Munda was the leader who started this movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Heraka movement was a socio-religious movement that arose in the early 1920s in the Zeliangrong territory (spread across Assam, Manipur and Nagaland). Heraka, which literally means pure, is a monotheistic religion where the followers worshipped Tingkao Ragwang. It was started to resist the infiltration of Christian missionaries as well as the reforms imposed by the British government. So, statement 1 is correct.
The movement was started by Haipou Jadonang. After the death of Jadonang, Rani Gaidinliu took up the leadership of the movement. Rani Gaidinliulinked her spiritual role as a leader of the socio-religious movement to her role as a nationalist and constantly evoked Mahatma Gandhi’s efforts at the national level to inspire her people to rebel against the British. She began her own version of the Non-cooperation Movement among Naga tribes. She made it difficult for the British administration to function in the region after she instructed all households to abstain from paying taxes. So, statement 2 is not correct.
With reference to Anglo-Sikh wars, consider the following statements:
- The first Anglo-Sikh war ended with the treaty of Amritsar.
- Under the treaty of Amritsar, Kashmir was sold to Raja Gulab Singh of Jammu.
- After the second Anglo-Sikh war Maharaja Dalip Singh signed the subsidiary alliance with the British.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The death of Ranjit singh in 1839 created political instability in Punjab, which was a cause of concern for the British. Later, the crossing of river satluj by the Sikh army was seen as aggressive by the British which resulted in the first anglo-Sikh war in 1845. Failure of leadership and treachery of some of the sardars led to the defeat of the Sikh army. The war ended with the ‘treaty of Lahore’ on March 8, 1846. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Due to Gulab Singh’s neutrality during the Anglo-Sikh War, the British granted him dominion over Jammu and Kashmir through a sale deed, which was formalized through the Treaty of Amritsar. This treaty was signed a week after the Treaty of Lahore, on March 16, 1846. Gulab Singh ‘bought’ the state from the East India Company for a sum of Rs 75 lakh. So, statement 2 is correct.
The immediate cause of the second anglo-Sikh War (1848-49) was the rebellion of two Sikh governors, Diwan Mul Raj of Multan and Sardar Chartar Singh Attariwala. Ceasing the opportunity, the then Governor-General of India, Lord Dalhousie waged a war which resulted in the victory of the British. On 29 March 1849 Maharaja Dalip Singh signed the document of annexation; Punjab hereafter became a province of the East India Company’s empire in India. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to British Land revenue policy, consider the following statements:
- The Permanent Settlement vested the land ownership right in the zamindars.
- The Ryotwari experiment was started by Alexander Reed in 1792.
- British policies aided Indian peasants in modernising their agriculture so that the company could generate more cash.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal in 1793. All land of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa came under it and the zamindar had to pay the tax fixed upon it. If he did so, then he was the owner of his zamindari and he could sell, mortgage and transfer it; land could also be inherited by heirs. In case of failure to pay the revenue, zamindari would be confiscated by the government and would be sold to the new owner through auction. Thus, the system vested the land ownership right in the zamindars, who previously enjoyed only revenue collecting rights. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Ryotwari experiment was started by Alexander Reed in Baramahal in 1792 and was continued by Thomas Munro from 1801. Under it, each cultivator or ryots is separately assessed, and revenue was directly collected from the village. It created individual proprietary rights in land, which was vested in the peasants rather than in the zamindars. So, statement 2 is correct.
The British government refused to help in improving and modernizing Indian agriculture. A characteristic of the financial system of British India was that, while the main burden of the taxation fell on the shoulders of the peasants, the government spent only a very small part of profit on the peasants. So, statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to Dwarf Galaxies, consider the following statements:
- They are small galaxies that typically contain just a few billion stars.
- They are the most abundant type of galaxy in the universe.
- They are most commonly found in galaxy clusters, often as companions to larger galaxies.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A team of scientists in the US, led by Indian-origin astrophysicist Raga Deepika Pucha, recently discovered the largest samples of intermediate-mass black holes and dwarf galaxies with active black holes.
About Dwarf Galaxies:
They are small galaxies that typically contain just a few billion stars, unlike their larger cousins, which can hold hundreds of billions.
They are the most abundant type of galaxy in the universe but are difficult to detect due to their low luminosity, low mass, and small size.
They are most commonly found in galaxy clusters, often as companions to larger galaxies.
Our Milky Way galaxy is orbited by more than 20 dwarf galaxies.
They are thought to have been created by gravitational forces in the early stages of the creation of these larger galaxies, or as a result of collisions between galaxies, forming from streams of material and dark matter ejected from the parent galaxies.
Because most of them come from galaxy collisions, many dwarf galaxies are grouped into irregular shapes.
However, some dwarf galaxies have spiral arms or look like mini-elliptical galaxies.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/vijayawada/andhra-pradesh-origin-scientists-team-opens-door-on-
Which among the following best describes INS Tamal, recently seen in the news?
It is a stealth guided missile frigate.
Explanation :
The Indian Navy crew that will operate Tamal, the stealth frigate under construction in Russia, reached St. Petersburg recently in preparation for its commissioning.
About INS Tamal:
It is a state-of-the-art stealth guided missile frigate.
It is an upgraded Krivak-III class frigate, and is part of a significant $2.5 billion deal between India and Russia for four stealth frigates, two to be built in Russia and the other two to be manufactured at Goa Shipyard Limited.
INS Tushil, the first of this, was commissioned into the Indian Navy in December 2024.
INS Tamal will be the last warship to be commissioned outside India or imported. The country now designs and constructs its own warships.
Following the delivery of INS Tamal, the Indian Navy will receive two additional frigates being constructed at Goa Shipyard Limited in India.
Key Features of INS Tamal:
It is designed for blue water operations, capable of engaging in various naval warfare dimensions, including air, surface, underwater, and electronic warfare.
It measures 125 meters in length and has a displacement of 3,900 tonnes, blending Russian design with Indian technology.
Approximately 26% of its components are sourced from Indian manufacturers.
Armament:
The frigate is equipped with a 76mm Super Rapid Gun Mount (SRGM), which enhances its naval artillery capabilities.
Additionally, it has two Indigenous Triple Torpedo Launchers (ITTL) designed for 324mm torpedoes, allowing for effective anti-submarine warfare operations.
Missile Systems: INS Tamal carries an array of missile systems, including BrahMos supersonic cruise missiles and vertically launched Shtil surface-to-air missiles, providing it with formidable offensive and defensive capabilities.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamal-indias-last-imported-warship-likely-to-be-commissioned-in-june/article69262725.ece
The Thames River, recently seen in the news,flow through which country?
United Kingdom
Explanation :
A new study has learned that climate change is increasing the potential for algal blooms in the United Kingdom’s River Thames despite a four-decade-long decline in phosphorus loads.
About Thames River:
It is a 346-km river that flows through southern England.
It is the longest river in England and the second longest in the United Kingdom, right after the River Severn.
Course:
Origin: Its source is at Thames Head, near Kemble in the Cotswold Hills, Gloucestershire County.
It flows into the North Sea via the Thames Estuary.
The Nore is the sandbank that marks the mouth of the Thames Estuary and the confluence point of the Thames and the North Sea.
The Thames’ basin covers an area of approximately 16,130 sq.km.
The river passes numerous popular cities along its way, such as London, Reading, Hendley-on-Thomas, Windsor, and Oxford, where it is also called the Isis River.
It provides two-thirds of London’s drinking water.
It has been a vital transportation route since ancient times, facilitating trade and commerce between London and other parts of England.
There are 16 bridges that cross the River Thames in Greater London alone, most prominently the Golden Jubilee Bridges and the Millennium Bridges for pedestrians.
Main Tributaries: Lea, Leach, Churn, Coln, Windrush, Kennet, Evenlode, Ock, and Loddon.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2025-02-river-thames-climate-limits-cleanup.html
Why was Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP) introduced in India?
To reduce companies’ reliance on overseas fundraising methods
Explanation :
Shareholders of the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Ltd. (IREDA) recently approved the company’s proposal to raise up to ₹5,000 crore through Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP) of equity shares in one or multiple tranches.
About Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP):
It is a capital-raising mechanism publicly listed companies use to issue equity shares or convertible securities exclusively to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs).
QIBs include mutual funds, venture capital funds, pension funds, and other institutional investors.
A QIP is, at its core, a way for listed companies to raise capital without having to submit legal paperwork to market regulators.
It is common in India and other Southeast Asian countries.
It provides a quicker and cost-effective alternative to traditional public offerings (IPOs and FPOs) while ensuring minimal dilution of management control.
Why was QIP introduced in India?
Earlier, since raising finance in the domestic market involved a lot of complications, Indian companies used to raise funds from the overseas markets.
So to prevent this, SEBI in 2006 introduced the QIP process so as to make the raising of funds easier in the domestic market.
QIP allows companies to raise funds domestically, reducing dependence on foreign investors through instruments like American Depository Receipts (ADRs), Global Depository Receipts (GDRs), or Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/121578/OPS/GA6E1SF98.1+GE5E1U4DJ.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED):
- It was established in 1987 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 1984.
- TRIFED has also been entrusted by the Government of India to implement its proposed Minimum Support Price Scheme for Minor Forest Produce.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a significant move to promote tribal entrepreneurship and economic inclusion, TRIFED recently signed MoUs with Reliance Retail, HCL Foundation, and Torajamelo Indonesia.
About Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED):
TRIFED is an organization under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India, dedicated to the socio-economic development of tribal communities through the marketing development of tribal products.
It was established in August 1987 under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act, 1984, by the Government of India as a national-level cooperative body.
Mandate: Bringing about the socio-economic development of the tribals of the country by institutionalizing the trade of Minor Forest Produce (MFP) & Surplus Agricultural Produce (SAP) collected/cultivated by them.
Objectives:
To develop the socio-economic welfare of the tribal community.
To act as a facilitator and service provider for the tribal community to uplift production.
Provide training to enhance artistic skills with modern technology to meet the requirements of the global market.
To increase the promotion of tribal art and crafts for a stable livelihood.
To identify target groups to monitor and evaluate the process and activities and provide input to the Ministry.
The approach involves capacity building of the tribal people through sensitization, formation of Self Help Groups (SHGs), and imparting training to them for undertaking a particular activity, exploring marketing possibilities in national as well as international markets, creating opportunities for marketing tribal products on a sustainable basis, and creating a brand.
Retail Marketing:
TRIFED has been doing the retail marketing of tribal products under the brand name of TRIBES INDIA.
TRIFED promotes and creates a sustainable market through retail outlets, exhibitions such as Aadishilp, Aadichitra, OCTAVE; international fairs, and e-marketing.
TRIFED has also been entrusted by the Government of India to implement its proposed Minimum Support Price Scheme for Minor Forest Produce.
Hence both the statements are correct.
News:https://psuwatch.com/newsupdates/trifed-partners-with-reliance-retail-hcl-foundation-and-torajamelo-for-tribal-empowerment
Consider the following statements regarding African-Asian Rural Development Organization:
- It is an autonomous inter-governmental organization with an objective of development of the rural areas.
- Its headquarter is located in New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, 21st African-Asian Rural Development Organization (AARDO) concluded and reaffirmed that development is strongest when rooted in community, driven by local knowledge, technology and south-south cooperation.
About African-Asian Rural Development Organization:
It is an autonomous inter-governmental Organization comprising country governments of Africa and Asia which was established in 1962.
The organization was set up with a view to promote coordinated efforts, exchange of experiences and cooperative action for furthering the objectives of development of the rural areas.
The membership of the Organization is open to all countries of the Afro-Asian region provided that it is a full or associate member of the United Nations or any of its specialised agencies, organisations and foundations concerned with the development of rural communities.
Member countries: Currently it comprises 32 countries of Africa and Asia as full members and 3 associate members.
Functions
To develop understanding among members for better appreciation of each other’s problems and to explore opportunities for collaboration of efforts for sustainable agricultural and rural development;
To collaborate with the appropriate international and regional organizations, including UN agencies, the national bodies, governmental or non-governmental.
To organize and facilitate the conduct of international, regional and in-country training programmes to strengthen the institutional capacity of Afro-Asian member countries in sustainable agriculture and rural development
To initiate research and action research studies of specific or common interest and disseminate disaggregated data/statistics and information to member countries;
To provide technical and financial support to its member countries to undertake pilot projects for experimentation and replication;
It enjoys observer status with international organisations like Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD), United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Headquarters: New Delhi, India
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/aardo-to-ensure-develoment-reaches-to-remote-villages-of-asia-africa/
Consider the following statements regarding Palaeognath Birds:
- These are the largest and heaviest avian specimens on Earth.
- These birds are classified into two groups namely Tinamiformes and Ratitae and both cannot fly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A new study by scientists from the University of Bristol in the United Kingdom has found that Palaeognath Birds like Emus and Rheas are not exactly ‘dumb’ as assumed to be.
About Palaeognath Birds:
These are grouped together on the basis of their distinctive palate morphology, from which they receive their name (“old jaw”).
Most of the birds classified in the Palaeognathae are also flightless, but not all flightless birds are classified in the Palaeognathae.
These 50 bird species are very different from the other birds on the planet.
They are the largest and heaviest avian specimens on Earth and may represent some of the first birds to evolve from dinosaurs.
These birds are classified into two groups:
Tinamiformes: These species have a keeled sternum and can fly (weakly), which include the tinamous of South and Central America; and the
Ratitae, or ratite birds: They have flat sterna and reduced wings, and cannot fly at all. Examples: The African ostrich, the rhea of South America the Australian emu and New Guinea cassowary; and the kiwi of New Zealand.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/emus-and-rheas-not-as-dumb-as-previously-thought-finds-study
Consider the following statements with reference to the Kaziranga National Park:
- It is located in the state of Assam.
- It was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the external Affairs minister of India and Heads of missions of 61 countries took elephant and jeep safari rides in the Kaziranga National Park.
About Kaziranga National Park:
It is situated in the north-eastern part of India in the state of Assam.
It is the single largest undisturbed and representative area in the Brahmaputra Valley floodplain.
In 1985, the park was declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
Terrain: It is of sheer forest, tall elephant grass, rugged reeds, marshes, and shallow pools.
Rivers: The River Diffalu, a tributary of the Brahmaputra, flows through the National Park while another tributary, Moradifalu, flows along its southern boundary.
Flora: It is primarily famous for its dense and tall elephant grasses intermixed with small swamplands. It also includes an abundant cover of water lilies, water hyacinths and lotus.
Fauna: Many endangered and threatened species like Rhino, Tiger, Eastern swamp deer, Elephant, Buffalo, Hoolock gibbon, Capped langur, and Gangetic River dolphin are commonly found in the habitat.
It is inhabited by the world’s largest population of one-horned rhinoceroses, as well as many mammals.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/assam/jaishankar-heads-of-missions-of-61-countries-visit-kaziranga-national-park/article69257764.ece
SWAYATT Initiative, recently in news, is a:
an initiative which invigorate participation of women-led enterprises and youth in public procurement
Explanation :
Recently, the Government e Marketplace (GeM) commemorated six years of Startups, Women & Youth Advantage through eTransactions (SWAYATT) initiative at New Delhi.
About SWAYATT Initiative:
It was launched on 19th February, 2019.
It was conceptualised with a clear objective of invigorating participation of women-led enterprises and youth in public procurement.
It is rooted in GeM’s foundational pillar of social inclusion, SWAYATT is portal’s commitment to enhance ease of doing business and establish direct market linkages to annual public procurement for startups, women entrepreneurs, Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs), Self Help Groups (SHGs) and youth, especially those from backward sections of the society.
Since inception, the initiative is focused at facilitating the training and onboarding of last-mile sellers, developing women entrepreneurship and encouraging participation and small-scale businesses in government procurement.
Key Facts about Government e Marketplace
It is an online market platform that was set up in 2016 to facilitate the procurement of goods and services by government ministries, departments, public sector undertakings (PSU) etc.
It has been envisaged as the National Procurement Portal of India.
This portal was developed by the Directorate General of Supplies and Disposals (Ministry of Commerce and Industry) with technical support from the National e-governance Division (Ministry of Electronic and Information Technology).
GeM is a completely paperless, cashless and system-driven e-marketplace that enables procurement of common-use goods and services with minimal human interface.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2106076
With reference to PUNCH Mission, consider the following:
- It consists of constellation of four satellites each sent to the Low Earth Orbit.
- It is an initiative of the European Space Agency.
- It is designed to make use of the polarisation of light to measure the corona and solar wind.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
NASA is gearing up for a new and first-of-its-kind solar mission called PUNCH mission that will closely observe the solar atmosphere.
About PUNCH Mission:
The Polarimetry to Unify the Corona and Heliosphere (PUNCH) mission will be launched by SpaceX .
Components of PUNCH Mission:
It will be a constellation of four, suitcase-sized satellites each weighing about 64 kg sent to the Low Earth Orbit (LEO).
It will have three Wide Field Imagers (WFI) and one Narrow Field Imager onboard. Once every four minutes, each of the four cameras will capture three raw images using different polarising filters.
In addition, each camera will capture an unpolarised image once every eight minutes.
Objectives of PUNCH Mission
It is the first time that a solar mission has been specifically designed to make use of the polarisation of light to measure the corona and solar wind, that too, in 3D.
It will provide scientists with new information which could lead to more accurate predictions about the arrival of space weather events on Earth and impact on humanity’s robotic explorers in space.
It will measure polarised light using polarising filters, enabling scientists to look into the inner solar system.
PUNCH’s four-camera setup will operate as a single, virtual instrument to generate large-scale imagery data, making it a unique information-loaded 3D image of the solar corona.
Time Period: The expected mission life is two years.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/nasas-punch-mission-sun-atmosphere-solar-winds-9855328/
What does the term “petrification” mean?
Complete replacement of organic matter by minerals
Explanation :
Geologists and forest officials recently unearthed a rare and well-preserved petrified fossil at Rajmahal Hills near Barmasia village in Pakur district, Jharkhand.
About Petrification:
Petrification (petros means stone) occurs when the organic matter is completely replaced by minerals and the fossil is turned to stone.
This generally occurs by filling the pores of the tissue and inter- and intracellular spaces with minerals, then dissolving the organic matter and replacing it with minerals.
This method reproduces the original tissue in every detail. This kind of fossilization occurs in both hard and soft tissues.
This typically occurs when the material is buried under sediment and exposed to mineral-rich water over long periods.
This process is involved in many forms of fossilization and leaves behind many stunning and beautifully preserved fossils.
An example of this kind of fossilization is petrified wood.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/ranchi/rare-and-well-preserved-petrified-fossil-discovered-in-pakur/articleshow/118584434.cms
Mount Fentale, recently seen in the news, lies in which country?
Ethiopia
Explanation :
Mount Fentale volcano in Ethiopia is spewing unusually large volumes of methane from its crater, according to satellite measurements of the potent greenhouse gas.
About Mount Fentale:
It is a stratovolcano located in Awash National Park in the Oromia Region, Ethiopia.
It rises approximately 600 m from the floor of the Rift Valley, and the lavas of the volcano cover an oval area of approximately 100 sq km.
An elliptical caldera, approximately 6 km in diameter, dominates the upper portion of the volcano.
Recent Earthquake Activity:
A magnitude 6.0 earthquake hit under Fentale volcano on 14 February 2025.
It is the strongest earthquake to strike Ethiopia since 1989.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indiandefencereview.com/ethiopian-volcano-unleashes-mamethane-plumes/
Consider the following statements regarding the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), recently seen in the news:
- It is a European Union (EU) tariff on carbon-intensive products.
- Only countries with high carbon emissions are covered under the CBAM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The European Union recently acknowledged India’s “specific concerns” about implementing the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM).
About Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
It is a European Union (EU) tariff on carbon-intensive products.
It is a new EU instrument for preventing carbon leakage, that is, the shifting of the production of goods to non-EU countries where there is a lower or no carbon cost associated with their production.
Purpose: To put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production of carbon-intensive goods that are entering the EU and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU countries.
By confirming that a price has been paid for the embedded carbon emissions generated in the production of certain goods imported into the EU, the CBAM will ensure the carbon price of imports is equivalent to the carbon price of domestic production, and that the EU’s climate objectives are not undermined.
Imports mean any imports to the EU from outside the EU, including e.g., imports of goods ordered online and imports of gifts.
The CBAM is designed to be compatible with WTO rules.
Carbon Certificates:
If implemented as planned, EU importers will have to buy carbon certificates corresponding to the carbon price that would have been paid in the EU if the goods had been produced locally.
The price of the certificates would be calculated according to the auction prices in the EU carbon credit market.
The number of certificates required would be defined yearly by the quantity of goods and the embedded emissions in those goods imported into the EU.
EU importers will declare the emissions embedded in their imports and surrender the corresponding number of certificates each year.
If importers can prove that a carbon price has already been paid during the production of the imported goods, the corresponding amount can be deducted.
Companies in countries with a domestic carbon pricing regime equivalent to the EU’s will be able to export to the EU without buying CBAM certificates.
Implementation Timeline:
CBAM will apply in its definitive regime from 2026, while the current transitional phase lasts between 2023 and 2025.
The CBAM commenced in its transitional phase as of 1 October 2023.
Only reporting obligations arise during the transitional period, and financial obligations apply from 2026.
Coverage: CBAM will initially cover several specific products in some of the most carbon-intensive sectors at risk of “carbon leakage”: iron and steel (including some downstream products such as nuts and bolts), cement, fertilizers, aluminium, electricity, and hydrogen.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/eu-ready-to-address-specific-concerns-of-india-on-carbon-tax-levy-on-imports/article69268124.ece
Cholanaikkan Tribe, recently seen in the news, resides in which state?
Kerala
Explanation :
In a novel attempt to provide education to a bed-ridden girl belonging to the Cholanaikkan tribe, the Samagra Shiksha Kerala programme of the general education department has prepared 30 audio-visual texts in the tribe’s own distinct language.
About Cholanaikkan Tribe:
They are a diminishing tribe of India. With a population of less than 400 members, it is one of the most isolated tribes.
Location:
They reside deep inside the Karulai and Chungathara forest ranges of Western Ghats.
This is in the Nilambur region of the Malappuram district in the state of Kerala.
They are classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
The community prefers to stay isolated and away from both agrarian and urban lifestyles.
They are among those unique tribes that still depend largely on forest produce for their survival.
Also known as “Caveman of Kerala”, even to the present date, they use natural caves as a safe dwelling space in the forest.
The community speaks a distinct Dravidian language called Cholanaikkan.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/education-comes-home-to-bed-ridden-tribal-girl/article69263061.ece
With reference to Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), consider the following statements:
- They act as a care provider at the community level and raise health awareness.
- All ASHAs must be at least 35 years of age and have a minimum of higher secondary level of education.
- They are provided a fixed monthly salary by the Central Government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
ASHA workers have been on an indefinite stir in front of the Kerala government secretariat over the last several days demanding an increase of their monthly remuneration to Rs 21,000, retirement benefit of Rs 5 lakh and other basic benefits.
About Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA):
ASHA is a trained female community health activist.
The ASHA program was conceived and funded by the Indian National Rural Health Mission (NHRM) in an effort to promote public health awareness amongst local, rural populations, and increase the utilization and accountability of existing health services.
Selected from the community itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be trained to work as an interface between the community and the public health system.
Functions:
Act as a care provider at the community level.
Facilitating access to healthcare, medicine, and sanitation services.
Raising the level of awareness of health issues among the marginalised sections within the community.
Advocate for female health and hygiene standards.
Advocate for a health-conscious behaviour and approach to livelihood.
The ASHA scheme is presently in place in all States/UTs (except Goa).
The states are mandated to employ at least one ASHA worker per every 1000 people.
They receive basic public health training and are equipped with a standard drug kit, which allows them to deliver first-contact healthcare.
They are chosen through a rigorous process of selection involving various community groups, self-help groups, Anganwadi Institutions, Block Nodal officer, District Nodal officer, the village Health Committee, and the Gram Sabha.
Selection Criteria:
In rural areas, ASHA must primarily be a woman resident of the village married/widowed/divorced, preferably in the age group of 25 to 45 years and literate, preferably qualified up to 10th standard (formal education up to Class 8).
In urban areas, ASHA must be a woman resident of the “slum/vulnerable clusters” and belong to that particular vulnerable group which have been identified by the City/District Health Society for selection of ASHA and must have good communication and leadership skills.
The States have been given the flexibility to relax the population norms as well as the educational qualifications on a case-to-case basis, depending on the local conditions as far as her recruitment is concerned.
Compensation for ASHA:
An ASHA worker is primarily an “honorary volunteer” but is compensated for her time in specific situations (such as training attendance, monthly reviews, and other meetings).
On average, an ASHA worker’s monthly income varies from Rs 2,000 per month to Rs 7,000 per month, depending on the state.
In addition, she is eligible for incentives offered under various national health programmes.
She would also have income from the social marketing of certain healthcare products like condoms, contraceptive pills, sanitary napkins, etc.
Her work should be so designed that it is done without impinging on her main livelihood and adequate monetary compensation for the time she spends on these tasks- through performance based payments should be provided.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/kerala/is-cpm-trying-to-suppress-asha-workers-stir-in-kerala-3423209
Consider the following statements regarding the SPHEREx Telescope:
- It will use spectroscopic images to measure the 3D positions of about 450 million galaxies across cosmic history.
- It is an initiative of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) is tentatively scheduled to launch its new megaphone-shaped space telescope aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket from Vandenberg Space Force Base in California.
About SPHEREx Telescope:
The Spectro-Photometer for the History of the Universe, Epoch of Reionization and Ices Explorer (SPHEREx) telescope is a megaphone-shaped telescope.
Tenure: 2 year
Aims of SPHEREx Telescope:
It will map the universe while detecting two kinds of cosmic light, optical and infrared.
It will measure something called cosmic inflation. (It refers to a period which took place around 14 billion years ago, during which the universe expanded faster than the speed of light for a fraction of a second).
It will help better understand things about the formation of the universe, the growth of all galaxies across cosmic history, and the location of water and life-forming molecules in the Milky Way galaxy.
It will use spectroscopic images to measure the 3D positions of about 450 million galaxies across cosmic history.
It will complement the work being done by other infrared telescopes in space, such as the James Webb Space Telescope and Hubble Space Telescope.
Significance of this Initiative
Mapping the whole sky enables astronomers to identify promising regions for life and gather large-scale data to separate meaningful patterns from anomalies, making this mission a transformative step in the search for life beyond Earth.
We can determine the necessary conditions to form biogenic molecules in space. In turn, this can tell us about a crucial step in how life came to be.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nasas-new-telescope-will-create-the-most-colourful-map-of-the-cosmos-ever-made/article69261258.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Svalbard Global Seed Vault:
- It is the largest backup facility for the world’s crop diversity.
- Located in the Antarctica, it offers free-of-charge, long-term storage of seed duplicates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Svalbard Global Seed Vault received more than 14,000 new seed samples.
About Svalbard Global Seed Vault:
It is the largest backup facility for the world’s crop diversity.
Svalbard is the Norwegian archipelago half way between the Northern pole and Mainland Norway.
The Seed Vault’s objective is to safeguard as much of the world’s unique crop genetic material as possible while also avoiding unnecessary duplication.
It offers free-of-charge, long-term storage of seed duplicates from international, national and regional gene banks and institutions.
The ownership of the seeds remains with the depositing gene bank. In the Seed Vault they are stored under so called black box conditions, meaning that only the institution that deposited the seeds has access and is allowed to withdraw them.
It was set deep inside a mountain to withstand disasters from nuclear war to global warming, was launched in 2008 as a backup for the world’s gene banks that store the genetic code for thousands of plant species.
It has the capacity to store 4.5 million varieties of crops.
The facility serves a humanitarian purpose and is part of the international system for conserving plant genetic diversity guided by the UN organisation for Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/arctic-doomsday-seed-vault-gets-more-than-14000-new-samples/
Consider the following statements regarding Cali Fund:
- It is a new international fund which has been created to help protect biodiversity.
- It will collect money from private companies which use genetic data from nature in their businesses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the ‘Cali Fund’ was launched at the resumed 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) to the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) in Rome.
About Cali Fund:
It is a new international fund has been created to help protect biodiversity.
It will collect money from private companies. These companies use genetic data from nature in their businesses.
The Cali Fund will receive money from businesses that rely on Digital Sequence Information (DSI).
DSI includes genetic data from plants, animals, and microorganisms. Industries like pharmaceuticals, cosmetics, agriculture, and biotechnology use DSI to develop products.
Under this new system, they will now have to contribute a part of their revenue to support biodiversity efforts.
The money collected will be used in several ways.
It will support biodiversity conservation projects, help developing countries implement their biodiversity action plans, and fund scientific research to improve how genetic data is stored and used.
At least 50 per cent of its resources will go to indigenous peoples and local communities, recognising their crucial role in protecting nature.
This is the first time that a global biodiversity fund under the UN will receive direct contributions from businesses.
This fund will be managed by the United Nations Development Programme and United Nations Environment Programme.
Significance:
This marks an important step in ensuring industries benefiting from biodiversity also contribute to its conservation.
It is seen as a key step towards meeting the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) goal of stopping and reversing biodiversity loss by 2030.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/cali-fund-launched-at-cbd-cop16-in-rome-to-boost-biodiversity-finance
Kundi, a traditional water harvesting system, is mainly found in:
Rajasthan
Explanation :
The Kundi traditional Water Harvesting System is an excellent example of how local knowledge and architectural ingenuity can address environmental challenges in water scarce region.
About Kundi Water Harvest System:
The kundi (also known as a kund) is a traditional rainwater harvesting system that is predominantly found in desert regions in Rajasthan, India.
This system is designed to capture and store rainwater, which is crucial in arid and semi-arid areas where water is scarce and rainfall is unpredictable.
Structure
It consists of a deep, circular or rectangular pit that is either dug into the ground or constructed above ground.
It is usually lined with stones, bricks, or other materials to reinforce the structure and prevent seepage.
The pit is often covered with a lid or stone slab to prevent contamination from debris and to reduce evaporation.
Rainwater is collected through channels or from rooftops, then funnelled into the kundi, where it is stored for use during the dry season.
Significance
It serves as an efficient method of water conservation, particularly in places where surface water is limited, and access to groundwater is difficult.
It helps to ensure that water is available for drinking, irrigation, and other domestic purposes when rainfall is scarce.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/water/kundi-timeless-sanctuaries-of-rainwater-in-the-heart-of-desert
With reference to Gharial, consider the following:
- It is a freshwater crocodile found in River Chambal.
- It is also found in the rivers of Bangladesh and Bhutan.
- It is categorized as endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister released 10 gharials into the Chambal river at the National Chambal Gharial Sanctuary in Morena.
About Gharials:
It is a freshwater crocodile belonging to the Crocodylia Order and Crocodylidae Family.
The name ‘gharial’ comes from the Hindi word ghara, meaning pot or vessel, referring to the bulbous snout tip of adult males, which resembles an inverted pot.
Distribution: Its range spanned the rivers of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan.
Their major population occurs in three tributaries of the Ganga River: the Chambal and Girwa Rivers in India and the Rapti-Naryani River in Nepal.
The Gharial reserves of India are located in three States: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.
Features
It is one of the largest crocodilian species, with males reaching 16 to 20 feet (5 to 6 meters) in length. Females typically grow to lengths of 11.5 to 15 feet (3.5 to 4.5 meters).
They have thick skin covered with smooth epidermal scales that do not overlap.
The snout of the gharial is uniquely the thinnest and most elongated among all the crocodilians.
In addition, the adult males sport a large bulb at the tip of their snout, called the ‘ghara’.
It is also the most aquatic of all crocodilians, for it never moves far from the water.
Reproduction: They mate during November–January and lays eggs in March–May.
Threats: Overhunting for skins, trophies, eggs, and traditional medicine
Conservations Status
IUCN: Critically endangered
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/amy-gleason-acting-administrator-doge-9857963/
Which among the following best describes Minervarya ghatiborealis, recently seen in the news?
A newly discovered species of frog in Western Ghats
Explanation :
Researchers from the west Maharashtra region recently discovered a new endemic species of frog named ‘Minervarya ghatiborealis’.
About Minervarya ghatiborealis:
It is a new species of endemic frog was found at the hill station Mahabaleshwar in the north-western Ghats of Sahyadri in Maharashtra.
This species is named after the Sanskrit word ‘Ghati’, meaning western, and the Latin word ‘Borealis’, meaning northern region, thus meaning ‘from the north western Ghats’.
It has been included in the genus Minervarya, commonly known as the ‘Cricket frog’.
Frogs of the Minervarya genus are distinguished by the parallel lines on their abdomens.
They nest near standing water or small springs and make noises similar to that of nightingales.
The breeding vocalisation of males differs from other species of the genus.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolhapur/new-endemic-frog-species-found-in-mahabaleshwar/articleshow/118611051.cms
Which of the following statements about the Hague Service Convention is correct?
It applies only when both the sending and receiving countries are signatories.
Explanation :
The U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission recently sought assistance from the Union Law Ministry, the central authority for India under the Hague Service Convention, to effectuate summons on Gautam Adani and his associates.
About Hague Service Convention:
Hague Service Convention, formally known as the Convention on the Service Abroad of Judicial and Extrajudicial Documents in Civil or Commercial Matters, 1965, was adopted at the Hague Conference on Private International Law in 1965.
Building on the 1905 and 1954 Hague Conventions on Civil Procedure, this multilateral treaty ensures that defendants sued in foreign jurisdictions receive timely and actual notice of legal proceedings while facilitating proof of service.
Eighty-four states, including India and the U.S., are parties to the Convention.
Its procedures apply only when both the sending and receiving countries are signatories.
Each member state must also designate a central authority to process requests and facilitate the service of documents from other signatory states.
Signatory states can select the modes of transmission that apply within their jurisdiction.
Under the Convention, the primary mode of service is through designated central authorities.
However, alternative channels are also available, including postal service, diplomatic and consular channels, direct communication between judicial officers in both states, direct contact between an interested party and judicial authorities in the receiving state, and direct communication between government authorities.
How is service effectuated on defendants in India?
India acceded to the Convention on November 23, 2006, with certain reservations, expressly opposing all alternative service methodsunder Article 10.
It prohibits the service of judicial documents through diplomatic or consular channels,except when the recipient is a national of the requesting country.
Additionally, all service requests must be in English or accompanied by an English translation.
As a result,valid service can only be executed through the Ministry of Law and Justice, India’s designated central authority.
The Ministry is permitted to reject a service request, but must specify the reasons for such refusal.
For instance, under Article 13, a request can be denied if the state believes its sovereignty or security would be compromised.
However, a state cannot reject a service request solely because it claims exclusive jurisdiction over the subject matter under its domestic law.
Similarly, under Article 29, a request cannot be refused simply because the state’s internal law does not recognise a right of action.
If the central authority raises no objections, it proceeds with serving the defendant.
The service is then treated as a summons issued by an Indian court under Section 29(c) of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Once completed, the central authority issues an acknowledgement to the requesting party.
The entire process typically takes six to eight months.
Can a default verdict be rendered?
A default judgment may be issued under the Convention if a foreign government refuses to cooperate in serving summons on a defendant residing within its jurisdiction.
However, Article 15 prescribes specific conditions that must be met before such a judgment can be rendered:
the document must have been transmitted through one of the methods outlined in the Convention;
at least six months must have elapsed since the transmission, with the court determining this period to be reasonable in the given case; and
no certificate of service has been received despite all efforts to obtain it through the competent authorities of the recipient state.
Notably, India has expressly declared that its courts may issue a default judgment in cross-border disputes even if no certificate of service or delivery has been received, provided that all conditions under Article 15 are met.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/gautam-adani-us-indictment-how-are-summons-issued-under-the-hague-convention/article69257226.ece
Idukki Wildlife Sanctuary lies in which state?
Kerala
Explanation :
During a three-day off-season faunal survey held in the Idukki Wildlife Sanctuary recently, 14 species of birds, 15 butterflies, and 8 odonates have been newly sighted in the sanctuary.
About Idukki Wildlife Sanctuary (IWL):
IWL, which came into existence in 1976, is located in the Thodupuzha and Udumbanchola taluks in Idukki District, Kerala.
It covers 77 sq.km. of forests surrounding the Idukki Arch Dam.
Terrain: The terrain of the sanctuary is characterized by steep mountains, valleys, and hills.
Altitude: Altitude ranging from 450 to 1272 m. The highest peak is Vanjur Medu (1272 m).
Drainage: The major rivers flowing through the area are Periyar and Cheruthoniar. The sanctuary consists of 33 sq.km. of waterbody of Idukki reservoir.
Rainfall: Average rainfall is 3800 mm.
Vegetation: West Coast Tropical Evergreen forests, Semi Evergreen forests, Moist Deciduous Forests, Hill shoals, and Grasslands.
Flaura: Forests are essentially dense teak, rosewood, jackfruit, ebony, cinnamon, and diverse bamboo species.
Fauna:
It is home to Elephants, bison, sambar deer, wild dogs, jungle cats, tiger, wild boar etc apart from various species of snakes including cobra, viper, krait, etc.
Birds include jungle fowl, myna, laughing thrush, black bulbul, peafowl, woodpecker, kingfisher, etc.
It is home to the endangered species of the Nilgiri Tahr.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/14-new-birds-15-butterflies-8-odonates-sighted-during-faunal-survey-in-idukki-wildlife-sanctuary/article69270973.ece
With reference to the Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI), consider the following statements:
- It is a statutory body set up under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960.
- It advises State and Central Governments on the issues related to animal welfare, including cruelty meted out to animals.
- It also gives financial assistance and other assistance to Animal Welfare Organisations functioning in any local area.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Central Government plans to change the Animal Welfare Board’s old guidelines to make them more relevant in the current scenario as well as ensure their effective implementation as part of efforts to prevent cruelty towards animals.
About Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI):
It is a statutory body set up in 1962 in accordance with Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1960.
It was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, a well-known humanitarian.
The mandate of the Board is to promote animal welfare in general and to protect animals from being subjected to unnecessary pain or suffering, in particular.
Headquarters: Ballabhgarh in Haryana
It advises state and central governments on the issues related to animal welfare, including cruelty meted out to animals.
The AWBI periodically addresses the letters to the State Governments and UTs regarding the complaints received and requests them to take necessary action against the offenders as per law.
The State Authorities are empowered to initiate appropriate action against the offenders meting out cruelty to animals and to take action as per the law.
AWBI also gives financial assistance and other assistance to Animal Welfare Organisations functioning in any local area, to impart education in relation to the humane treatment of animals and so on.
Membership:
The Board consists of 28 Members.
The term of office of Members is for a period of 3 years.
Several government organisations, along with animal rights activists and parliamentarians, are represented on the Board.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsdrum.in/business/govt-plans-to-change-animal-welfare-boards-guidelines-to-prevent-cruelty-towards-animals-8762172
Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Retroviral Therapy (ART):
- It is a combination of medications that treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
- It helps to increase the number of CD4 (T-helper) cells in the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently directed all States to respond to concerns relating to periodic stockouts, transparency in tendering and procurement, and drug quality and certification processes of the of Anti-Retroviral Therapy (ART) drugs for People Living with HIV/AIDS (PLHIV).
About Anti-Retroviral Therapy (ART):
ART is a combination of medications that treat human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
HIV is a virus that destroys CD4 cells (also called helper T-cells), an important part of your immune system.
Without the protection of CD4 cells, you’re more likely to get life-threatening infections.
While ART can’t cure HIV, it can reduce the levels of HIV in your body.
Low levels of the virus mean your body can produce more CD4 cells.
This keeps your immune system healthy and makes you less likely to get serious infections.
ART medications use a variety of ways to stop HIV from getting into your cells and reproducing.
You usually take a combination of two to four medications that work in different ways to reduce the levels of virus (also called viral load) in your body.
Taking a combination of medications, rather than just one, makes the treatment more effective and reduces the risk that it’ll stop working.
If your viral load is low enough, tests won’t be able to detect HIV in your blood (undetectable levels).
HIV treatment is called “anti-retroviral” because HIV is a retrovirus.
This means it uses its genetic instructions (RNA) as a template to make DNA (most of the time, in human cells, DNA is used to make RNA).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-hearing-pil-quality-of-hiv-treatment-drugs-285180
Consider the following statements regarding the Doomsday Fish:
- It is filter feeders and primarily eats krill and plankton.
- It is known as Orafish and most often thriving in the epipelagic zone.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recent appearances of the doomsday fish near Baja California Sur, Mexico have ignited discussions on social media.
About Doomsday Fish:
It is also known as Orafish and the “sea serpent” is a deep-sea dweller that rarely comes near the surface.
Appearance
It is a deep-sea creature, known for its long, ribbon-like body and bright orange fins.
It can grow to more than 30 feet, which makes them quite the sight to behold.
Diet: It is filter feeders and primarily eat krill, plankton and other small crustaceans.
Habitat: They are deep-sea dwellers, thriving most often in the zone least explored by scientists to date: the mesopelagic zone (waters down to 1,000 meters).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/why-do-the-japanese-believe-that-if-doomsday-fish-comes-to-the-surface-it-means-disaster-will-follow/articleshow/118574658.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Blood Moon:
- It happens when Earth’s moon is in a total lunar eclipse.
- It is caused due to a process called Rayleigh scattering.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A total lunar eclipse, or blood moon, will light up the sky on March 14 and will be visible in most parts of the world.
About Blood Moon:
It happens when Earth’s moon is in a total lunar eclipse.
How it occurs?
A blood moon occur when Earth comes directly between the Sun and the moon.
A process called Rayleigh scattering causes the moon to appear red instead of dark.
This happens because shorter-wavelength light (blue) is scattered, while longer-wavelength red light passes through the Earth’s atmosphere, making the moon appear red.
During totality, “the entire Moon falls within the darkest part of Earth’s shadow, called the umbra.
When the Moon is within the umbra, it appears red-orange.” This colour shift is what earns the event its nickname, the “blood moon.
Depending on external factors such as atmospheric conditions and light pollution, the moon, during a blood moon phase, may appear red, orange, or copper-coloured.
This year’s phenomenon will occur during daytime in India, it won’t be visible in the country and it will be visible in America, Western Europe, Western Africa, and the North and South Atlantic Ocean.
This total lunar eclipse marks its return after nearly three years––the last one occurring in 2022.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/blood-moon-2025-total-lunar-eclipse-march-14-9857632/
Consider the following statements regarding General Anti Avoidance Rules:
- It is an anti-tax avoidance law in India to curb tax evasion and avoid tax leaks.
- Its provisions are implemented under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Income tax authorities may now be able to issue reassessment notices under General Anti Avoidance Rules (GAAR) under the new proposal under the Income Tax Bill 2025.
About General Anti Avoidance Rules:
It is an anti-tax avoidance law in India to curb tax evasion and avoid tax leaks.
It came into effect on 1st April 2017. The GAAR provisions come under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
GAAR is a tool for checking aggressive tax planning, especially those transactions or business arrangements that are entered into with the objective of avoiding tax.
It is specifically aimed at cutting revenue losses that happen to the government due to aggressive tax avoidance measures practiced by companies.
It is meant to apply to transactions that are prima facie legal, but result in tax reduction.
Under current rules, reassessment notices where the under-reported income is Rs ₹50 lakh or more, have to be issued within 5 years and 3 months from the end of the assessment year.
GAAR provisions give wide powers to tax authorities to treat any arrangement or a transaction as an ‘impermissible avoidance arrangement’ (IAA) and re-compute income and consequent tax implications.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/proposed-income-tax-bill-2025-allows-reassessment-beyond-time-limits-under-gaar-with-safeguards-against-misuse/article69267105.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control:
- It was developed by countries in response to the globalization of the tobacco epidemic.
- It is not ratified by India because of discriminatory rules of this framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the World Health Organization celebrated the 20th anniversary of the entry into force of its Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (WHO FCTC).
About WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control:
It is the first international treaty negotiated under the auspices of the World Health Organization.
It was adopted by the World Health Assembly on 21 May 2003 and entered into force on 27 February 2005.
There are currently 181 Parties to the Convention.
It was developed by countries in response to the globalization of the tobacco epidemic.
It aims to tackle some of the causes of that epidemic, including complex factors with cross -border effects, such as trade liberalization and direct foreign investment, tobacco advertising, promotion and sponsorship beyond national borders, and illicit trade in tobacco products.
Govt. of India ratified the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (WHO FCTC) in 2004.
It provides for various measures to reduce the demand as well as supply of tobacco.
It asserts the importance of strategies to reduce both demand and supply, and provides a framework for tobacco control measures to be implemented at the national, regional and international levels. This includes actions to:
Protect public health policies from commercial and other vested interests of the tobacco industry.
Adopt price and tax measures to reduce the demand for tobacco.
Protect people from exposure to tobacco smoke
Regulate the contents of tobacco products
Regulate tobacco product disclosures
Regulate the packaging and labelling of tobacco products
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://news.un.org/en/story/2025/02/1160481
With reference to Lunar Trailblazer Orbiter, consider the following:
- It aims to find and map water on the moon’s surface.
- High-resolution Volatiles and Minerals Moon Mapper will be used for measuring the lunar surface temperature.
- It is an initiative of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket lifted off from the Kennedy Space Center in Cape Canaveral carrying NASA’s Lunar Trailblazer orbiter.
About Lunar Trailblazer Spacecraft:
It is an initiative of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
Objective: It is being sent to find and map water on the moon’s surface.
It is about the size of a dishwasher and relies on a relatively small propulsion system.
It weighs about 200 kg and measures about 3.5 metres wide when its solar panels are fully deployed.
It is scheduled to perform a series of moon flybys and looping orbits over a span of several months to position itself to map the surface in detail.
It eventually will orbit at an altitude of roughly 100 km and collect high-resolution images of targeted areas to determine the form, distribution and abundance of water and to better understand the lunar water cycle.
It is carrying two instruments to achieve its science objectives:
High-resolution Volatiles and Minerals Moon Mapper (HVM3): It will look at the moon’s surface for a telltale pattern of light given off by water.
Lunar Thermal Mapper (LTM): It will map and measure the lunar surface temperature.
When used in conjunction, these two instruments provide the ability to simultaneously identify the various forms of water on the moon, mineralogy, and temperature.
It was built by Lockheed Martin’s space division.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/nasa-launches-satellite-on-mission-to-detect-water-on-the-moon/article69269408.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Economic Survey of India:
- Department of Financial Services under Ministry of Finance prepares the Economic Survey Document.
- It is presented a day before the Union Budget each year.
- The survey’s recommendations are binding on the Budget.
How many of the above statement are correct?
Only One
Explanation :
The Economic Survey of India is an annual report released by the Finance Ministry that assesses the country’s economic performance over the past year.
Preparation & Presentation
Prepared by the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs, under the supervision of the Chief Economic Advisor (CEA). So, statement 1 is not correct.
Presented a day before the Union Budget each year. So, statement 2 is correct.
The first Economic Survey was released for 1950-51 and was presented along with the Budget until 1964.
The survey’s recommendations are not binding on the Budget. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Consider the following statements:
- India ranks 7th in global services exports.
- Agriculture and allied activities contribute nearly 16% to India’s GDP (FY24).
As per the recently released Economic Survey, which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India ranks 7th in global services exports, showcasing sectoral strength. So, statement 1 is correct.
Agriculture and allied activities contribute ~16% to India’s GDP (FY24) at current prices. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Union Budget of India:
- Article 112 of the Constitution requires the government to present to Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure in respect of every financial year.
- Budget statement is called the Annual financial statement.
- It is divided into three parts - Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund and Public Account.
- Union Budget 2025-26 was presented with the theme “Sabka Vikas” stimulating balanced growth of all regions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All Four
Explanation :
The Finance Minister presented the Union Budget 2025-26 with the theme “Sabka Vikas” stimulating balanced growth of all regions. So, statement 4 is correct.
Article 112 of the Constitution requires the government to present to Parliament a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure in respect of every financial year, from April 1 to March 31. So, statement 1 is correct.
This statement is called the annual financial statement. So, statement 2 is correct.
It is divided into three parts - Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund and Public Account. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Investment Friendliness Index of States:
- This index is being developed by the Reserve Bank of India in consultation with the Ministry of Finance.
- This index will evaluate how well a state fosters business growth, investment inflows, and economic development.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
2 Only
Explanation :
Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs said that the government will come up with an Investment Friendliness Index of states in 2025 to further the spirit of competitive cooperative federalism.
NITI Aayog is developing an investment index that will rank states on the basis of their investment efficacy. So, statement 1 is not correct.
This index will be a composite ranking that evaluates how well a state fosters business growth, investment inflows, and economic development. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following statement(s) regarding Freestyle Chess and FIDE is/are correct?
- Freestyle Chess allows players to use computer assistance during the game.
- FIDE officially recognizes and organizes Freestyle Chess tournaments as part of its standard chess competitions.
- In Freestyle Chess, human players often collaborate with chess engines to form “centaur teams.”
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The feud between Freestyle Chess Grand Slam Tour organisers and FIDE is nearing resolution.
Freestyle Chess (also known as Advanced Chess or Centaur Chess) allows players to use computer assistance during the game. So, statement 1 is correct.
FIDE (Fédération Internationale des Échecs), the governing body of chess, does not officially recognize Freestyle Chess as part of its standard tournament structure. FIDE governs over-the-board, rapid, and online chess, but not freestyle formats. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In Freestyle Chess, human players often collaborate with chess engines, creating powerful teams called “centaur teams,” which combine human intuition with machine precision. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following statement(s) regarding the position of lakes in Canada is/are correct?
- The Great Bear Lake, the largest lake entirely within Canada, is located in the Northwest Territories.
- Lake Superior, the largest freshwater lake by surface area in the world, is entirely within Canadian territory.
- The Great Slave Lake, one of North America’s deepest lakes, is situated to the south of the Great Bear Lake.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Great Bear Lake is the largest lake entirely within Canada and is located in the Northwest Territories. So, statement 1 is correct.
Lake Superior is the largest freshwater lake by surface area in the world, but it is not entirely within Canada; it is shared between Canada and the United States. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Great Slave Lake, one of the deepest lakes in North America, is located south of Great Bear Lake in the Northwest Territories. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following statements regarding Fentanyl are correct?
- It is a synthetic opioid that is significantly more potent than morphine.
- It is primarily used in medical settings for pain management but has also contributed to the opioid crisis due to illicit use.
- It is classified as a stimulant and is commonly prescribed for increasing energy levels.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Fentanyl is a synthetic opioid that is 50 to 100 times more potent than morphine, making it highly effective for pain relief but also highly dangerous in cases of misuse. So, statement 1 is correct.
It is used in medical settings for severe pain management, such as in cancer patients or post-surgical recovery. However, illicitly manufactured fentanyl has become a major driver of the opioid crisis, leading to overdose deaths. So, statement 2 is correct.
Fentanyl is an opioid (a depressant), not a stimulant. It does not increase energy levels; rather, it can cause sedation, respiratory depression, and euphoria. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following statements regarding asteroids are correct?
- Asteroids are primarily composed of metals and rocky materials and are remnants from the early solar system.
- The majority of asteroids in the solar system are found in the Kuiper Belt between Mars and Jupiter.
- Near-Earth asteroids (NEAs) have orbits that bring them close to Earth’s orbit and pose potential impact threats.
- Ceres, the largest object in the asteroid belt, is classified as both an asteroid and a dwarf planet.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
NASA and the European Space Agency are monitoring asteroid 2024 YR4, which has a 1.2% chance of hitting Earth in December, 2032.
Asteroids are small, rocky bodies that primarily consist of metals and rocky materials and are remnants from the formation of the early solar system. So, statement 1 is correct.
The majority of asteroids are located in the Asteroid Belt between Mars and Jupiter, not in the Kuiper Belt (which lies beyond Neptune and mainly contains icy bodies like Pluto). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Near-Earth Asteroids (NEAs) are those whose orbits bring them close to Earth’s orbit, and some are considered potentially hazardous due to the risk of impact. So, statement 3 is correct.
Ceres, the largest object in the asteroid belt, is classified as both an asteroid and a dwarf planet due to its size and spherical shape. So, statement 4 is correct.
Which of the following statements regarding Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) is/are correct?
- SMRs are nuclear reactors with a smaller power output than conventional reactors and can be deployed in a modular fashion.
- SMRs require larger land areas and cooling infrastructure compared to traditional nuclear reactors, making them less suitable for remote locations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
India is advancing its entry into the global Small Modular Reactors (SMR) manufacturing value chain, receiving institutional support through key policy enablers announced in the Union Budget.
Small Modular Reactors (SMRs) are nuclear reactors with a smaller power output (typically under 300 MWe) compared to conventional nuclear plants.
They are designed to be manufactured in factories and assembled on-site in a modular fashion, allowing for greater flexibility and scalability. So, statement 1 is correct.
SMRs are designed to require less land and cooling infrastructure than traditional large reactors, making them suitable for remote locations and areas with limited infrastructure. So, statement 2 is not correct.
If Country A imposes high tariffs on imports from Country B as a measure to protect its domestic industries, which of the following is the most likely consequence of this trade war?
Country B may retaliate by imposing tariffs on exports from Country A.
Explanation :
US President Donald Trump delayed the imposition of 25% tariffs on Mexico and Canada just hours before they were set to take effect, pausing the North American trade war for a month.
In a trade war, when one country (Country A) imposes high tariffs on imports, the affected country (Country B) often retaliates with counter-tariffs on exports from Country A.
This can lead to reduced trade between both nations, economic slowdowns, and disruptions in global supply chains.
A multinational company headquartered in Country A earns profits from its operations in Country B. Without a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) between the two countries, what is the most likely financial impact on the company?
The company may have to pay taxes in both Country A and Country B, leading to higher tax liability.
Explanation :
Without a Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA), the multinational company could be taxed twice:
In Country B (where the income is generated).
In Country A (where the company is headquartered).
DTAA prevents this double taxation by allowing tax credits, exemptions, or lower tax rates in one of the countries.
Which of the following statements regarding the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) are correct?
- It is an independent regional navigation system developed by ISRO to provide accurate position information primarily to India and its surrounding regions.
- The operational name of IRNSS is NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation).
- It provides us with various services such as Standard Positioning Service (SPS) for civilian use, Restricted Services (RS) for defense forces.
- It relies entirely on geostationary satellites for its navigation services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation :
India’s NVS-02 navigation satellite partially failed on February 2 due to engine non-firing, marking another setback for the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), or NavIC.
IRNSS is an independent regional navigation system developed by ISRO to provide accurate positioning services to India and nearby regions. So, statement 1 is correct.
The operational name of IRNSS is NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), which was introduced for public use. So, statement 2 is correct.
Unlike GPS (Global Positioning System), which provides worldwide coverage, IRNSS/NavIC is designed for regional coverage, extending up to 1,500 km beyond India’s borders.
NavIC provides us with various services such as Standard Positioning Service (SPS) for civilian use, Restricted Services (RS) for authorized users like defense forces, and a Search and Rescue service. So, Statement 3 is correct.
IRNSS consists of both geostationary (GEO) and geosynchronous (GSO) satellites, not just geostationary ones. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Which of the following best describes the key difference between the International Court of Justice (ICJ) and the International Criminal Court (ICC)?
ICJ is a United Nations body that settles disputes between states, whereas ICC prosecutes individuals for genocide and war crimes.
Explanation :
The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the judicial organ of the United Nations (UN) and resolves disputes between sovereign states. It also provides advisory opinions on legal questions referred by UN bodies.
The International Criminal Court (ICC), established under the Rome Statute, is an independent tribunal that prosecutes individuals for crimes such as genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
Which of the following statements regarding the regional geography of the Chandrayaan-3 landing site is/are correct?
- Chandrayaan-3 successfully landed near the Moon’s south pole, a region of interest due to its potential water ice deposits.
- The landing site is characterized by vast lunar maria, similar to the Moon’s near-equatorial regions, making it geologically less significant.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
A study by scientists of ISRO has estimated the age of the Chandrayaan-3 landing site on the Moon to be 3.7 billion years.
Chandrayaan-3 landed near the Moon’s south pole, specifically in the vicinity of 69.37°S latitude, an area of great scientific interest due to the possible presence of water ice in permanently shadowed regions. This could be crucial for future lunar exploration and resource utilization. So, statement 1 is correct.
Unlike the lunar maria (which are smooth, basaltic plains found mainly in equatorial regions), the south polar region is rugged, cratered, and geologically unique. It presents challenges for landing but holds potential for new discoveries related to the Moon’s history and resources. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following factors is most likely to encourage an increase in private investment in an economy?
Stable government policies and improved ease of doing business
Explanation :
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman expressed optimism about a revival in private investments following income tax breaks and the RBI’s first interest rate cut in nearly five years.
The government’s income tax relief and the RBI’s repo rate cut are expected to boost consumption, leading businesses to review their capacity utilization.
Private investment refers to businesses and individuals investing in assets like infrastructure, machinery, and technology to generate future returns.
Stable policies and an improved business environment provide confidence to investors, reducing risks and encouraging capital inflows.
Which of the following statements regarding Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) is/are correct?
- CSS are implemented by the state governments but largely funded by the central government.
- The central government has full control over the design and execution of these schemes, with minimal involvement from state governments.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are jointly funded by the central and state governments but are implemented by the states. The central government provides a major portion of the funds, while the states contribute a smaller share. So, statement 1 is correct.
While the central government designs the broad framework of these schemes, states have flexibility in implementation to suit regional needs. The execution and administration are largely in the hands of state governments. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following statement(s) regarding steel and its composition is/are correct?
- Steel is primarily an alloy of iron and carbon, where carbon content typically ranges between 0.02% to 2.14%.
- The addition of elements like chromium and nickel improves the hardness but reduces the corrosion resistance of steel.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon, where carbon acts as the primary strengthening element. The carbon content in steel typically ranges between 02% and 2.14%, affecting its hardness, strength, and ductility. So, statement 1 is correct.
The addition of chromium and nickel enhances both hardness and corrosion resistance. Chromium forms a passive oxide layer on the surface, making stainless steel resistant to rust, while nickel improves toughness and ductility. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which of the following statement(s) regarding the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is/are correct?
- GPAI is an international initiative aimed at fostering responsible development and use of artificial intelligence (AI) based on human rights, inclusion, diversity, and economic growth.
- GPAI is a legally binding agreement among member countries that mandates AI governance policies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
France and India have significantly deepened their partnership since 1998, expanding cooperation in defence, nuclear energy, space, trade, and culture.
Now, with AI as a new frontier, France has invited India to co-chair the AI Action Summit, reaffirming their global collaboration.
The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is a multistakeholder initiative that promotes the responsible and human-centric development of AI, ensuring it aligns with principles of human rights, inclusion, diversity, and economic growth. So, statement 1 is correct.
GPAI is not a legally binding agreement. It functions as a voluntary collaboration platform where member countries, academic institutions, and industries work together to guide AI development through research, policy recommendations, and practical projects. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A country aims to shift its economic focus from industrial production to a knowledge-driven economy. It plans to measure progress using Gross Domestic Knowledge Product (GDKP) instead of traditional Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Which of the following policy measures would most effectively improve its GDKP?
Increasing investment in intellectual property, research, and higher education
Explanation :
The government is reviving its 2021 plan to supplement GDP with a new metric, the Gross Domestic Knowledge Product (GDKP), to measure the impact of knowledge on economic and social life.
GDKP would better reflect the contributions of innovation, intellectual assets, and knowledge-driven sectors to India’s economic growth.
Gross Domestic Knowledge Product (GDKP) is a proposed metric that quantifies a nation’s knowledge-based assets, including research output, innovation, intellectual property, and human capital development.
Which of the following phenomena is responsible for the formation of an Einstein Ring?
Gravitational lensing caused by a massive object bending the light from a background source
Explanation :
The European Space Agency’s (ESA) Euclid space telescope has discovered a rare Einstein ring around the galaxy NGC 6505, located 590 million light-years from Earth.
An Einstein ring is a circular ring of light formed around a galaxy, dark matter, or a cluster of galaxies due to gravitational lensing.
Gravitational lensing occurs when a massive celestial object, like a galaxy or galaxy cluster, bends and amplifies the light from a more distant object behind it but along the same line of sight.
The object causing the light to bend is called a gravitational lens.
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Explanation :
Ranveer Allahbadia, founder of Beer Biceps, and comedian Samay Raina are under investigation by Mumbai police for allegedly obscene comments made on the YouTube show India’s Got Latent.
Section 79: Deals with words or gestures intended to insult the modesty of a woman, punishable by up to 3 years of imprisonment and a fine.
Section 196: Addresses the promotion of enmity between different groups based on factors like religion, race, or place of birth, with a punishment extendable up to 5 years, a fine, or both.
Section 296: Relates to public performance of obscene acts, songs, or words, punishable by up to 3 months of imprisonment, a fine, or both.
Section 3(5): States that if more than one person acts to further a common intention, all are liable for punishment.
Consider the following statements regarding the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI):
- It was established under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.
- It has the authority to grant and revoke telecom licenses in India.
- One of its key functions is to ensure fair competition and protect consumer interests in telecom and broadcasting services.
- It has the power to direct telecom service providers regarding quality standards and tariff regulations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation :
India’s telecom regulator, TRAI, has introduced new rules under the Telecom Commercial Communications Customer Preference Regulations (TCCCPR), 2018, to curb spam calls and messages.
TRAI was established under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997 to regulate telecom services and ensure a fair and transparent policy framework. So, statement 1 is correct.
TRAI does not have the authority to grant or revoke telecom licenses. This function is performed by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Government of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
TRAI works to promote fair competition and protect consumer interests in both the telecom and broadcasting sectors. So, statement 3 is correct.
TRAI regulates telecom tariffs and ensures compliance with Quality of Service (QoS) norms by directing telecom service providers. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO):
- NATO was established in 1949 as a collective defense alliance to counter the influence of the Soviet Union.
- All decisions within NATO are made through a majority voting system, where the country with the highest military contribution has greater influence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
NATO was founded on 4th April 1949 with the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty (Washington Treaty). It was primarily created as a collective defense alliance against the Soviet Union during the Cold War. So, statement 1 is correct.
NATO operates on the principle of consensus decision-making, meaning that all member states must agree on a decision. There is no majority voting or influence based on military contribution. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Transforming Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology (TRUST) initiative between the United States and India aims to enhance cooperation in several critical and emerging technology areas. Which of the following is not a focus area of the TRUST initiative?
Textile Manufacturing
Explanation :
India and the United States have initiated the Transforming Relationship Utilizing Strategic Technology (TRUST) initiative to enhance cooperation in the recovery and processing of critical minerals, including lithium and rare earth elements (REEs).
Announced during the PM Modi’s recent visit to Washington, this partnership aims to strengthen supply chains for these essential materials.
The TRUST initiative also focuses on enhancing collaboration in critical and emerging technologies.
Key areas include Artificial Intelligence, Semiconductors, Quantum Computing, Biotechnology, Energy, and Space. Textile Manufacturing is not among the specified focus areas of this initiative.
Consider the following statements regarding the President’s Rule in India:
- President’s Rule can be imposed under Article 356 of the Constitution of India when a State government is unable to function according to constitutional provisions.
- The maximum duration of President’s Rule in a state is three years, with parliamentary approval required every six months.
- During President’s Rule, the State Legislative Assembly is automatically dissolved.
- The Governor administers the State on behalf of the President, and the Parliament legislates on State matters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
President’s Rule is imposed under Article 356 when a State government fails to comply with constitutional provisions. So, statement 1 is correct.
President’s Rule can be extended for up to three years, but it requires parliamentary approval every six months. So, statement 2 is correct.
The State Legislative Assembly is not automatically dissolved; it may either be dissolved or kept under suspension by the President. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Governor acts as the executive head on behalf of the President, and during President’s Rule, the Parliament legislates on state matters. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Foreigners Regional Registration Office (FRRO):
- The FRRO is responsible for the registration, visa extension, and exit permits of foreign nationals residing in India for long-term stays.
- Every foreign national visiting India, irrespective of the duration of their stay, must register with the FRRO within 24 hours of arrival.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs is set to introduce the Immigration and Foreigners Bill, 2025.
This comprehensive legislation aims to consolidate and modernize India’s immigration framework by repealing four existing laws.
The FRRO handles visa-related services, including registration, visa extension, exit permits, and other services for foreign nationals staying in India for the long term. So, statement 1 is correct.
Not all foreign nationals are required to register with the FRRO. Only those with long-term visas (more than 180 days) need to register, and the registration timeline varies depending on the visa type (usually within 14 days of arrival). So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which one of the following best explains why romance scams are successful in deceiving victims?
They exploit human emotions and build a sense of trust before requesting money.
Explanation :
In February, often called the “month of love,” experts and authorities warned about rising romance scams involving emotional manipulation, deceit, and financial fraud.
According to a Moody’s report, India ranked third globally in new romance scam profiles in 2024, accounting for 12% of the total, behind the US (38%) and Nigeria (14%).
Romance frauds typically occur through dating apps and social media, where scammers create fake online profiles to lure victims.
According to the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), fraudsters gain trust and then demand money, gifts, bank details, or intimate content.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs):
- SGrBs typically yield lower interest rates compared to conventional Government Securities(G-Secs).
- These bonds offer tax incentives to investors, including exemption from capital gains tax in India.
- The proceeds from SGrBscan be used for both green projects and general infrastructure development.
- RBI manages the issuance of SGrBs in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by the government to finance projects with environmental benefits, such as renewable energy, clean transportation, and sustainable water management.
As SGrBs typically yield lower interest rates compared to conventional G-Secs, the difference in interest rates between SGrBs and G-Secs is called a greenium. So, statement 1 is correct.
In India, Sovereign Green Bonds do not offer special tax incentives, unlike some other green investment instruments. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The proceeds from these bonds cannot be used for general infrastructure; they must be allocated to green projects only. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issues and manages Sovereign Green Bonds on behalf of the Government of India. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
What is the primary objective of a Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack?
To overwhelm a network or server with excessive traffic, making it unavailable
Explanation :
In January, Karnataka’s property registration portal, Kaveri 2.0, faced severe outages, disrupting citizen services.
An investigation by the Revenue and E-Governance Departments revealed that the disruption was not due to technical glitches but a deliberate Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack.
DDoS (Distributed Denial-of-Service) attacks flood a target server, website, or network with an excessive volume of traffic, causing disruptions or outages.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the India-US 123 Civil Nuclear Agreement:
- It allows India to engage in civil nuclear trade with the United States despite being a non-signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT).
- India is required to place all its nuclear reactors under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The renewed US-India nuclear cooperation signals a diplomatic win for India amid challenging trade discussions with the new US administration.
The 123 Agreement (signed in 2008) granted India an exemption from US laws that restrict nuclear trade with non-NPT signatories, allowing it to engage in civil nuclear cooperation with the US. So, statement 1 is correct.
India is not required to place all its nuclear reactors under IAEA safeguards. Instead, only civilian nuclear facilities, as identified by India, are placed under safeguards, while strategic (military) reactors remain outside IAEA oversight. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the geographical location of Qatar?
Qatar is a peninsula in the Arabian Gulf, sharing a land border with Saudi Arabia.
Explanation :
Qatar shares a sole land border with Saudi Arabia to the south and is surrounded by the Persian Gulf on all other
Consider the following statements regarding the deposit insurance in India:
- The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) provides insurance coverage for bank deposits up to a specified limit.
- Deposit insurance in India covers all types of deposits, including mutual funds and government bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The government is considering raising bank deposit insurance beyond the current ₹5 lakh. The bank deposit insurance is provided by RBI’s Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).
DICGC, a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), provides insurance coverage for bank deposits up to a specified limit (currently ₹5 lakh per depositor per bank). So, statement 1 is correct.
Deposit insurance does not cover mutual funds, government bonds, or other financial instruments. It only covers savings, fixed, current, and recurring deposits in banks. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Which one of the following best describes private sector capital expenditure (capex)?
The expenditure by private companies on assets like machinery, factories and technology to expand production capacity
Explanation :
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is set to enhance the frequency and timeliness of key macroeconomic data releases, introducing a private sector capex survey, monthly labour force reports, and a revised schedule for the factory output data from 2025-25 (FY26).
Private sector capex refers to long-term investments made by private businesses in assets like factories, equipment, and technology to expand their operations and improve productivity.
Consider the following statements regarding the Ponzi schemes:
- A Ponzi scheme operates by using funds from new investors to pay returns to earlier investors instead of generating legitimate profits.
- Ponzi schemes collapse when there are not enough new investors to sustain the promised returns.
- These schemes are regulated and approved by financial authorities like SEBI and RBI to ensure investor protection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Mumbai Police’s Economic Offences Wing (EOW) is set to auction seized properties of those accused in the Torres Ponzi scam under the MPID Act, aiming to recover around Rs 40 crore for defrauded investors within six months.
Ponzi schemes do not generate real profits. Instead, they rely on money from new investors to pay returns to earlier investors, creating the illusion of profitability. So, statement 1 is correct.
These schemes collapse when the inflow of new investors slows down because they cannot sustain payouts without fresh investments. So, statement 2 is correct.
Ponzi schemes are illegal and not regulated by SEBI, RBI, or any financial authority. In fact, financial regulators warn against and take action against such schemes. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Donbas region of Ukraine is rich in which mineral resource?
Coal
Explanation :
US President Donald Trump accused Ukraine of reneging on an unofficial deal granting the US access to 50% of its mineral resources in exchange for support against Russia.
The Donbas (Donetsk Basin) region in eastern Ukraine is well known for its extensive coal deposits, making it a major center for coal mining and heavy industry.
Consider the following statements regarding the law on remission in India:
- Remission reduces the duration of a sentence without altering the nature of the conviction.
- The President and Governors, both have the power to grant remission under Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution respectively.
- Section 473 of the BNSS empowers State governments to remit sentences at any time, with or without conditions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Supreme Court ruled that states must consider the premature release of eligible prisoners under their remission policies, even if they do not apply for it.
While certain convicts are exempt, states have the authority to grant remission under the Bharatiya Nyaya Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS) and the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (CrPC).
This ruling marks a shift in the Supreme Court’s stance on remission, departing from its 2013 judgments, which required prisoners to apply for remission.
Remission reduces the duration of imprisonment without changing the nature of the conviction. The person remains convicted but serves a shorter sentence. So, statement 1 is correct.
Under Article 72, the President has the power to grant pardon, reprieve, respite, or remission for cases related to the Union. Under Article 161, Governors have similar powers for state cases. So, statement 2 is correct.
Section 473 of the BNSS (formerly Section 432 of the CrPC) empowers state governments to remit sentences at any time, with or without conditions. So, statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG):
- LNG is natural gas that has been cooled to approximately -162°C to convert it into a liquid state for easier storage and transportation.
- LNG is heavier than water, which makes it sink in case of a spill, leading to potential environmental hazards.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India-Qatar trade is primarily driven by India’s liquefied natural gas (LNG) imports, with Qatar being its largest supplier. As both nations seek to double bilateral trade in the next five years, LNG is expected to remain a key factor in achieving this goal.
LNG is produced by cooling natural gas to about -162°C, at which point it becomes a liquid. This reduces its volume significantly, making it easier to store and transport over long distances. So, statement 1 is correct.
LNG is lighter than water and evaporates quickly when spilled. It does not mix with water but instead forms a vapor cloud that dissipates into the atmosphere, reducing environmental risks compared to oil spills. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducts a Dollar/Rupee Buy-Sell Swap Auction. Consider the following possible effects of such an auction:
- It helps manage liquidity in the banking system by temporarily injecting rupee liquidity.
- It directly influences the foreign exchange reserves of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will conduct $10-billion dollar/rupee buy-sell swap auction, aiming to address the persistent liquidity deficit in the banking system.
In a Dollar/Rupee Buy-Sell Swap Auction, the RBI buys dollars from banks and releases rupees, increasing rupee liquidity in the banking system. Later, banks repurchase the dollars, reversing the liquidity effect. So, statement 1 is correct.
The swap influences foreign exchange reserves temporarily because when the RBI buys dollars, reserves increase, and when it sells them back, reserves decrease accordingly. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the PM SHRI scheme:
- The scheme aims to develop model schools that will showcase the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
- PM SHRI schools will be newly constructed institutions, separate from existing government schools.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Government has withheld ₹2,152 crore in Samagra Shiksha funds from Tamil Nadu for refusing to join the PM SHRI scheme due to its opposition to implementing the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
While the State is willing to participate in PM SHRI, it rejects the NEP’s three-language formula, preferring its longstanding two-language policy.
The PM SHRI scheme focuses on upgrading existing schools to serve as model institutions that effectively implement the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. So, statement 1 is correct.
PM SHRI schools are not newly constructed schools but rather existing government schools (including Kendriya Vidyalayas and Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas) that will be strengthened and transformed with better infrastructure, and learning methods. So, statement 2 is not correct.
A leading automobile manufacturing company starts offering connected car services, including GPS navigation, real-time diagnostics, and remote software updates, as part of its vehicle sales. This is an example of:
Servicification of manufacturing
Explanation :
The Economic Survey 2024-25 highlighted that while corporate profits have surged in recent years, wage growth has lagged. However, the president of Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) argued that businesses are regularly increasing salaries.
He suggested that recent wage trends may not be directly comparable to the past due to the growing servicification of manufacturing, where firms increasingly integrate services with traditional manufacturing, altering employment structures and wage patterns.
Servicification of manufacturing refers to the increasing integration of services into the manufacturing process, either in production, delivery, or post-sales.
In this case, the automobile company is embedding digital and after-sales services (such as software updates and GPS) into its manufacturing process, making it a clear example of servicification.
Consider the following statements regarding Quantum Computing:
- Quantum computers use qubits, which can exist in multiple states simultaneously due to superposition.
- Entanglement in quantum computing allows qubits to be correlated in such a way that the state of one qubit can instantaneously influence the state of another, regardless of distance.
- Quantum supremacy refers to the ability of quantum computers to perform tasks that are practically impossible for classical computers.
- Current quantum computers are fully error-free.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Recently, Microsoft announced Majorana 1, a new quantum computing chip developed using engineered particles in a new state of matter, which the company sees as a breakthrough.
Though, the company has not released any performance data on its quantum chip yet.
Unlike classical bits, which can be either 0 or 1, qubits can exist in both 0 and 1 states simultaneously due to the principle of superposition, which enables quantum computers to process a vast amount of data in parallel. So, statement 1 is correct.
Quantum entanglement is a phenomenon where two or more qubits become interconnected in such a way that the state of one qubit is directly linked to the state of another, even if they are far apart. This property is key to quantum networking and secure communication. So, statement 2 is correct.
Quantum supremacy is a milestone where a quantum computer performs a task that is infeasible for the best classical computers. So, statement 3 is correct.
Current quantum computers still suffer from high error rates and decoherence, making them unsuitable for general-purpose computing. They have not yet outperformed classical computers in all computations, especially in areas like error-prone calculations and tasks with low levels of parallelism. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the UGC-CARE List:
- It is a database of high-quality and credible research journals recognized by the University Grants Commission (UGC) of India.
- Any journal included in the UGC-CARE List is permanently recognized and cannot be removed once listed.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The University Grants Commission (UGC) has decided to discontinue the UGC-CARE (Consortium for Academic and Research Ethics) list of quality academic journals, first introduced in 2018.
Instead, it will provide a set of suggestive parameters for selecting journals based on eight criteria.
The UGC-CARE List was introduced by the University Grants Commission (UGC) of India to promote high-quality research and eliminate predatory journals. It provides a credible database of journals that meet ethical and academic publishing standards. So, statement 1 is correct.
Inclusion in the UGC-CARE List is not permanent. Journals are periodically reviewed, and if a journal fails to meet the required standards or engages in unethical practices (e.g., predatory publishing, poor peer review), it can be delisted. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Muriate of Potash (MOP), Diammonium Phosphate (DAP), and Urea fertilizers:
- Muriate of Potash (MOP) is a major source of potassium in agriculture, but India largely depends on imports for its supply.
- Urea is the most widely used phosphatic fertilizer in India due to its high phosphorus content.
- Diammonium Phosphate (DAP) contains both nitrogen and phosphorus, making it a commonly used fertilizer for early plant growth.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Muriate of Potash (MOP) is an important potassium-based fertilizer, essential for plant growth, water regulation, and disease resistance. However, India does not have significant domestic production and depends on imports from countries like Canada, Russia, and Belarus. So, statement 1 is correct.
Urea is a nitrogen-based fertilizer, not a phosphatic one. It contains 46% nitrogen and is the most widely used fertilizer in India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Diammonium Phosphate (DAP) is a fertilizer that provides both nitrogen (18%) and phosphorus (46%), making it ideal for promoting root development and early plant growth. So, statement 3 is correct.
sider the following statements regarding Man-Made Fibre (MMF):
- MMFs include only synthetic fibres like polyester and nylon, and do not include regenerated fibres like viscose.
- India is the world’s largest producer and exporter of MMFs, surpassing China in production.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Man-Made Fibres (MMFs) include both synthetic fibres (like polyester, nylon, and acrylic) and regenerated fibres (like viscose and rayon). So, statement 1 is not correct.
Although India is a major producer of MMFs, it is not the world’s largest producer or exporter. China holds the top position in both production and exports of MMFs, especially in polyester and viscose. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding safeguards for arresting women at night in India:
- As per legal provisions, no woman shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise, under any circumstance.
- The arresting officer must not touch the woman unless it is a woman police officer or circumstances require it.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A woman cannot be arrested after sunset and before sunrise except in exceptional circumstances. In such cases, the arrest can only be made with prior permission from a judicial magistrate, and a female police officer must be present during the arrest. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The arresting officer must not touch the woman unless it is a woman police officer or circumstances require it. So, statement 2 is correct.
onsider the following statements regarding the National Geospatial Knowledge-based Land Survey of Urban Habitations (NAKSHA) initiative:
- NAKSHA aims to modernize urban land records in India by integrating aerial and field surveys using advanced Geographic Information System (GIS) technology.
- Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs is the nodal ministry to implement this initiative.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Rural Development Minister launched the NAKSHA initiative (NAtional geospatial Knowledge-based land Survey of urban HAbitations).
The NAKSHA initiative seeks to modernize urban land records in India by integrating aerial and field surveys with advanced Geographic Information System (GIS) technology. This approach aims to create accurate geospatial databases for urban land governance. So, Statement 1 is correct.
It is being implemented by the Department of Land Resources (DoLR), Ministry of Rural Development. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Delimitation in India:
- Delimitation is the process of fixing the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies based on the latest Census data.
- The Delimitation Commission is a temporary body constituted by the Election Commission of India (ECI) every 10 years.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Delimitation is the process of redrawing the boundaries of parliamentary and legislative assembly constituencies based on the latest Census data. This ensures proportional representation and fair distribution of seats based on population changes. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Delimitation Commission is not constituted by the Election Commission of India (ECI) but by the Government of India under the Delimitation Act. It is a temporary and independent body, usually headed by a retired Supreme Court judge, and is set up only when Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act, not every 10 years. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the EB-5 Visa Program of the United States:
- The EB-5 Visa Program allows foreign investors to obtain U.S. Green Cards by making a minimum qualifying investment in a U.S. business that creates jobs.
- The minimum investment required under the program is uniform across all areas in the U.S., regardless of whether it is a high-employment or low-employment area.
- The program mandates that each investment must create or preserve at least 10 full-time jobs for qualified U.S. workers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
US President Donald Trump introduced a new “gold card” immigration initiative, replacing the EB-5 visa program. For a $5 million investment, wealthy foreign investors can gain a path to U.S. citizenship and permanent residency.
The existing EB-5 program, established in 1990, requires a minimum investment of $1.05 million (or $800,000 in distressed areas) to create or preserve jobs.
The EB-5 Immigrant Investor Program allows foreign nationals to apply for a S. Green Card (permanent residency) by making a qualifying investment in a U.S. commercial enterprise that generates jobs. So, statement 1 is correct.
The minimum investment amount varies depending on the location. For investments in a Targeted Employment Area (TEA) (i.e., rural areas or regions with high unemployment), the minimum investment is lower than in non-TEA areas. Currently, the minimum investment is $800,000 in TEAs and $1.05 million in non-TEAs. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The program requires that each investment must create or preserve at least 10 full-time jobs for U.S. workers within two years of the investor’s admission to the U.S. as a conditional permanent resident. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Under the Hague Convention on the Service Abroad of Judicial and Extrajudicial Documents in Civil or Commercial Matters, 1965, how are summons issued to a person residing in another contracting state?
Through the Central Authority designated by the receiving country under the Convention.
Explanation :
The U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) informed a New York court that it has sought India’s assistance under the Hague Service Convention to serve summons on Gautam Adani and Sagar Adani.
The Hague Service Convention (1965) provides a mechanism for the service of judicial documents across international borders. Under this Convention, each member country designates a Central Authority, which is responsible for receiving and processing requests for service of legal documents, such as summons, from foreign courts. This ensures a formal and recognized method of service while respecting the sovereignty of the receiving state.
With reference to Union Territories (UTs) in India, consider the following statements:
- They are directly administered by the President of India.
- All UTs have a Legislative Assembly and Chief Minister.
- Delhi has special legislative powers under Article 239AA of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
UTs are directly administered by the President of India through an Administrator or Lieutenant Governor. However, some UTs have special provisions. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Not all UTs have a Legislative Assembly. Only Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir have their own elected legislatures. Others are governed directly by the Central Government. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Delhi has special legislative powers under Article 239AA, which grants it partial state-like governance, including elected governments. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding earthquakes:
- The focus of an earthquake is the point on the Earth’s surface directly above the epicentre.
- The Richter scale measures the magnitude of an earthquake, while the Moment Magnitude Scale (Mw) measures the energy released.
- The Ring of Fire is the most seismically active zone in the world.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The focus (hypocenter) is the exact location inside the Earth where an earthquake originates, whereas the epicenter is the point directly above it on the surface. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Richter scale measures magnitude, but it has been largely replaced by the Moment Magnitude Scale (Mw), which provides a more accurate measurement of the total energy released by an earthquake. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Ring of Fire, a horseshoe-shaped zone in the Pacific Ocean, is the most seismically active region in the world, where most of the world’s earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements about ethanol blending in India:
- It reduces India’s dependence on crude oil imports.
- The government has set a target of achieving 20% ethanol blending in petrol by 2025 under the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) program.
- Ethanol can be produced from sugarcane, rice and maize.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Ethanol blending reduces crude oil imports, lowering India’s dependence on fossil fuels and improving energy security. So, Statement 1 is correct.
An indicative target of 20% ethanol blending in petrol was initially set for 2030 under the EBP Programme. However, in 2020, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) advanced this target to 2025, reflecting the government’s commitment to accelerating ethanol usage. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Ethanol can also be produced from food grains such as rice, maize, and damaged grains, apart from sugarcane-based molasses. So, Statement 3 is correct.
With reference to the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, consider the following statements:
- The Act provides legal recognition to electronic records and digital signatures.
- Section 66A of the IT Act, 2000, which penalized offensive online messages, is still in force.
- It grants the government the power to block websites and online content in the interest of national security.
How many of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The IT Act, 2000 grants legal recognition to electronic documents, e-commerce transactions, and digital signatures, making them equivalent to physical documents. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Section 66A of the IT Act, which criminalized offensive online messages, was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 (Shreya Singhal v. Union of India case) as unconstitutional. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The government can block websites under Section 69A of the IT Act, 2000, for national security, public order, or sovereignty of India. So, Statement 3 is correct.
