August Flashcards
“Jhumur” is a traditional dance performed in which one of the following states?
Assam
Explanation :
The Assam government is gearing up for a grand Jhumur dance performance featuring 8,000 tea tribe artists.
About Jhumur:
It is a traditional dance of the tea tribe communities of Assam.
It is usually performed during the Autumn season in Assam.
It is also found in a few parts of West Bengal.
It is performed by young girls mostly in an open area like a field or under a tree.
The girls performed this dance, accompanied by male members to maintain the rhythm and vocals and play musical instruments.
The dance is performed to the rhythmic accompaniment of the Madal, a popular two-headed hand drum.
Further accompanying the drums are a flute, and pair of Taals that make the music more harmonious.
The girls mostly perform the dancing part, holding each other’s waist and moving hands and legs forward and backwards synchronously.
This dance incorporates songs and dialogues, which depict the joys and sorrows, yearning and aspirations of the everyday lives of the common people.
Sometimes this dance is performed as a ritual worship, sometimes for courting and lovemaking, and sometimes for prayer for rainfall by the tea tribe communities of Assam.
It is believed that Jhumur was originally a means of recreation between phases of tedious agricultural work.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/assam/story/assam-8000-tea-tribe-artists-to-perform-jhumur-in-guwahati-this-november-1061613-2024-07-31
With reference to the Mahanadi River, consider the following:
- Hasdeo
- Jonk
- Seonath
- Ong
- Mand
How many of the above are tributaries of the Mahanadi River?
All five
Explanation :
A state government official recently stated that there is no fear of flood on the Mahanadi River system.
About Mahanadi River:
It is one of the major east-flowing peninsular rivers in India.
It ranks second to the Godavari River among the peninsular rivers in respect of water potential.
It is considered to be one of the most active silt-depositing streams in India.
Course:
Origin: The river originates from the Sihawa range of hills in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh.
It flows in a southeastern direction through Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
Length: It flows a total of 860 km by distance before it ends up in the Bay of Bengal.
The catchment area of the basin extends over major parts of Chhattisgarh and Odisha and comparatively smaller portions of Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh.
It passes through several major cities and towns, including Raipur, Sambalpur, and Cuttack.
The Mahanadi basin extends over an area of 141,589 sq. km, which represents 4.3% of the total geographical area of the country.
The river is bounded in the north by Central India hills, in the south and east by the Eastern Ghats, and the west by the Maikal hill range.
Tributaries: The main tributaries of Mahanadi are the Seonath River, Jonk River, Hasdeo River, Mand River, Ib River, Ong River, and Telen River.
Hirakud Dam:
The Hirakud Dam, the world’s longest earthen dam (26km), is constructed across the Mahanadi River, about 15 km from Sambalpur in Odisha.
The dam is used for irrigation, flood control, and power generation.
Chilika Lake: Chilika, named a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention, gets 61% of its inland flow from the Mahanadi River system, mainly from its distributaries - Daya and Bhargabi.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.deccanherald.com/india/odisha/no-flood-threat-in-mahanadi-river-system-odisha-official-3129216
Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following states?
Assam
Explanation :
An approval by the Union Environment Ministry for exploratory oil and gas drilling in parts of Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary may put the endangered Hoolock gibbon at further risk.
About Hoollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is an isolated protected area of evergreen forest located in the Jorhat district of Assam, India.
It was given the status of a wildlife sanctuary in the year 1997 by the Assam Government.
It is the only sanctuary in India named after a gibbon due to its distinction for containing the densest gibbon populations in Assam.
Situated at an altitude between 100 and 120 m (330 and 390 ft), the topography gently slopes downward from southeast to northwest.
River: The Bhogdoi River creates a waterlogged region dominated by semi-hydrophytic plants along the border of the sanctuary.
Flora:
The upper canopy of the forest is dominated by the Hollong tree, while the Nahar dominates the middle canopy.
The lower canopy consists of evergreen shrubs and herbs.
Fauna:
It contains India’s only gibbons– the hoolock gibbons, and Northeastern India’s only nocturnal primate– the Bengal slow loris.
Also found at the sanctuary are Indian elephants, tigers, leopards, jungle cats, wild boar, three types of civet, four types of squirrels, stump-tailed macaque, northern pig-tailed macaque, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/oil-and-gas-exploration-likely-to-threaten-hoolock-gibbon-habitat-in-assam-101722278823930.html
Consider the following statements regarding Parkinson’s Disease:
- It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects the nervous system.
- Women are more likely to be affected by Parkinson’s than men.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers recently said that a higher-than-expected prevalence of gene mutations in Parkinson’s disease patients indicates that genetic testing should be offered to them more broadly.
About Parkinson’s Disease:
It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves.
It is a condition in which a patient has limited or no control over his movements and body balance.
The risk of developing Parkinson’s disease naturally increases with age, and the average age at which it starts is 60 years old.
Many studies have suggested that men are more likely to be affected by Parkinson’s than women.
Cause:
It is caused by the degeneration of nerve cells in the part of the brain called the substantia nigra, which controls movement.
These nerve cells die or become impaired, losing the ability to produce an important chemical called dopamine.
Dopamine operates with other neurotransmitters to help coordinate the millions of nerve and muscle cells involved in the movement.
Lack of dopamine causes the slowed movements and tremors symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
Symptoms:
Parkinson’s disease symptoms can be different for everyone.
Early symptoms may be mild and go unnoticed.
Symptoms often begin on one side of the body and usually remain worse on that side.
Parkinson’s symptoms may include:
Tremors (trembling in the hands, arms, legs, and jaw); rigidity (stiffness of the limbs); slowness of movement; and impaired balance and coordination.
Patients may also experience other symptoms such as difficulty in swallowing, chewing, and speaking, urinary problems, constipation, skin problems, depression, emotional changes, and sleep disruption.
Diagnosis: Currently, no blood laboratory or radiological tests are available to diagnose Parkinson’s disease.
Treatment: There’s no cure for this disease, but treatments can help significantly improve your symptoms.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/higher-than-expected-rate-of-gene-mutations-seen-in-parkinsons-patients-researchers/article68468570.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Tejas Light Combat Aircraft:
- It is a single-seat supersonic multirole fighter aircraft designed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It is India’s first indigenous fighter jet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force is grappling with significant delays in the delivery of Tejas light combat aircraft (LCA) from the state-run Hindustan Aeronautics Limited, raising concerns over its combat readiness and operational capabilities.
About Tejas Light Combat Aircraft:
It is a 4.5-generation single-seat supersonic multirole fighter aircraft.
The Defence Research and Development Organisation’s (DRDO) Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) led the design and development of the aircraft under the light combat aircraft (LCA) programme, with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) working as the prime industrial contractor.
LCA programme was envisioned in the late 1980s to replace the MiG-21 and Su-7 fleet.
It entered service with the Indian Air Force (IAF) in July 2016.
It is India’s second indigenous fighter jet after the HAL HF-24 Marut.
It is designed for offensive air support, close combat, and ground attack roles.
It has three production models: Tejas Mark 1, Mark 1A, and trainer variant.
Features:
It is the smallest and lightest in its class of contemporary supersonic combat aircraft.
It features a fin but lacks a horizontal tail.
The aircraft weighs approximately 5,450 kg and has a maximum take-off weight of 13,500 kg.
It is powered by a single uprated General Electric F404-GE-IN20 engine.
It is designed to carry a range of air-to-air, air-to-surface, precision-guided, weapons.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.indiasentinels.com/air-force/tejas-lca-fighter-indian-air-force-faces-further-delays-in-warplanes-deliveries-from-hal-6389
The term “kindlins”, recently seen in the news, refers to:
adapter proteins that exist inside the cells
Explanation :
A recent study of kidlins has revealed a novel path way to cancer treatment.
These are adapter proteins that exist inside the cells attached to the cell membranes of almost all types of cells in vertebrates.
The Kindlin family of proteins contains three members: Kindlin 1, 2, and 3 with distinct amino acid sequences and tissue distribution.
They transfer extracellular mechanical cues to biochemical signals inside the cells and play a pivotal role in conveying extracellular signals by physically interacting with structural proteins, receptors and transcription factors, triggering a cascade of chemical signals within the cell.
Structural disruptions in these proteins can have a global impact on mechano-chemical signalling, leading to disruptions in the state of balance among all the body systems needed for the body to survive and function correctly.
Kindlins may undergo mutations under the influence of innumerable chemical and physical carcinogens like nicotine, ultraviolet rays and many more.
Mutated Kindlin can potentially disrupt global mechanical homeostasis within cells.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2039090
Consider the following statements with reference to the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority:
- It is set up to fix and revise the prices of controlled bulk drugs.
- It works under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Minister of State for Chemicals and Fertilizers informed the Rajya Sabha that many pharmaceutical companies received notices from the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) and govt recovered of Rs 73 crore in violation of the Drug Price Control Order.
It was set up in 1997 to fix and revise the prices of controlled bulk drugs, and formulations and to enforce prices and availability of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order, 1995.
It is an independent Regulator for the pricing of drugs and to ensure availability and accessibility of medicines at affordable prices.
Functions
To implement and enforce the provisions of the Drugs (Prices Control) Order in accordance with the powers delegated to it.
To deal with all legal matters arising out of the decisions of the Authority.
To monitor the availability of drugs, identify shortages, if any, and to take remedial steps
To collect/ maintain data on production, exports and imports, market share of individual companies, profitability of companies etc, for bulk drugs and formulations
To undertake and/ or sponsor relevant studies in respect of the pricing of drugs/ pharmaceuticals
To help the Central Government in parliamentary matters relating to drugs.
Nodal Ministry: It is an attached office of the Department of Pharmaceuticals (DoP), Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/business/2024/Jul/30/govt-claims-recovery-of-rs-73-crore-for-drug-price-violations-in-fy24what-about-the-rest
With reference to the National Apprenticeship Training Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It is one of the flagship programmes for Skilling Indian Youth in Trade disciplines.
- All apprentices are issued a Certificate of Proficiency by the Government under this scheme.
- It provides a guarantee of employment after completion of training as an apprentice.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Education Minister launched the National Apprenticeship Training Scheme (NATS) 2.0 Portal and disbursed Rs 100 crore stipends to apprentices through the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mode.
It is one of the flagship programmes of the Government of India for Skilling Indian Youth in Trade disciplines.
The National Apprenticeship Training Scheme under the provisions of the Apprentices Act, 1961 amended in 1973.
It offers Graduate and diploma students and Vocational certificate holders; practical, hands-on On-the-Job-Training (OJT) based skilling opportunities.
Duration: Ranging from 6 months to 1 year.
During the period of apprenticeship, the apprentices are paid a stipend amount, 50% of which is reimbursable to the employer from the Government of India.
At the end of the training period the apprentices are issued a Certificate of Proficiency by the Government of India which can be registered at all employment exchanges across India as valid employment experience.
There is no guarantee of employment after completion of training as an apprentice.
National Apprenticeship Training Scheme (NATS) 2.0 Portal
It facilitates the registration and application process for apprenticeships, allowing industries to manage vacancies and contracts.
This provides young graduates and diploma holders with essential employability skills and a guaranteed monthly stipend.
It manages the entire apprenticeship lifecycle, including student registration, vacancy advertisements, applications, contract creation, certification, reporting, and stipend disbursal through DBT.
It is developed by the Ministry of Education with AICTE and the Board of Apprenticeship Training/Practical Training (BoATs/BoPT).
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/education/education-minister-launches-nats-2-0-portal-disburses-rs-100-crore-stipends-6229122#:~:text=The%20NATS%202.0%20portal%2C%20developed,and%20stipend%20disbursal%20through%20DBT
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sturgeon:
- These are endangered fish species.
- These are mainly found in both river systems and coastal waters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the World-Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) report said that poaching and trafficking are threatening the survival of four species of sturgeon.
It is among the most endangered fish species globally.
These species have been around since the age of the dinosaurs.
Distribution: These northern hemisphere fishes can be found in large river systems, lakes, coastal waters and inner seas throughout Azerbaijan, Bulgaria, other European countries and North America.
Since 1998, international trade in all species of sturgeons has been regulated under CITES owing to concerns over the impact of unsustainable harvesting of and illegal trade in sturgeon populations in the wild.
Threats: Sturgeons are heavily exploited globally for their roe/eggs (caviar) and meat. This has led to a steep decline in populations worldwide.
Highlights of the report
Of the six sturgeon species formerly native to the Danube River, two — the European sturgeon (Acipenser sturio) and the ship sturgeon (A. nudiventris) — are considered locally extinct.
The four sturgeon species in the Danube Basin are listed as Threatened by the IUCN Red List.
The stellate sturgeon (A. stellatus), the Russian sturgeon (A. gueldenstaedtii) and beluga (Huso huso) are Critically Endangered;
While the sterlet (A. ruthenus) was recently raised to a higher threat category and has been listed as Endangered since 2022,”
The Lower Danube Basin is among the last European regions with self-reproducing sturgeon populations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/sturgeon-among-the-worlds-most-endangered-fish-are-being-heavily-poached-trafficked-in-the-lower-danube-their-last-stronghold-wwf
Exercise Tarang Shakti, recently seen in the news, is an:
air exercise
Explanation :
India will host the international air exercise ‘Tarang Shakti’ in two phases, taking place in Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan.
It will be the largest international air exercise ever conducted in India, with invitations extended to 51 countries.
This exercise aims to strengthen strategic relations with our friends from the international community.
Objective: The plan is to invite friendly foreign countries with whom the IAF interacts regularly and has a certain degree of interoperability.
Participating countries: Fifty-one countries were invited to take part in the exercise and nearly 30 of them will be taking part in it
Phase one of the exercise will be conducted at Sulur in Tamil Nadu from August 6 to August 14 and four countries including France, Germany, Spain and the United Kingdom will participate with their assets.
Phase two will be held at Jodhpur in Rajasthan from September 1 to 14 and it will see participation from Australia, Bangladesh, Greece, Singapore, UAE and the USA with their assets.
It represents a unique opportunity for these nations to collaborate and enhance their tactical and operational capabilities.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/what-is-tarang-shakti-the-largest-military-exercise-that-india-will-host-101722435902901.html
Which one of the following best describes ‘Schistura sonarengaensis’, recently seen in the news?
A new species of bottom-dwelling fish found in Northeast India.
Explanation :
A group of scientists recently identified a new species of loach, named Schistura sonarengaensis, in Meghalaya’s South Garo Hills district, near the Bangladesh border.
About Schistura sonarengaensis:
It is a new species of loach recently discovered.
Loach is a freshwater bottom-dwelling fish found across rivers in Southeast Asia.
The new species is described from three cave-dwelling populations (Barak-Surma-Meghna drainage) in the South Garo Hills district of Meghalaya.
Features:
The species is distinguished by its prominent eyes and 13-26 vertically elongated to circular black blotches on a greyish-black mid-lateral stripe, over a dull white or pale-beige body.
Despite lacking the typical adaptations for subterranean life, such as complete loss of eyes or pigmentation, this species shows reduced pigmentation compared to surface-dwelling relatives.
While these cave-dwelling fish are somewhat pale, they are not blind like other cave species found in Jaintia and Khasi Hills.
The new species retains prominent eyes and is distinct from other Schistura species in the Barak-Surma-Meghna and adjacent river drainages of northeast India, except for Schistura syngkai.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://theprint.in/india/new-cave-fish-discovered-in-meghalaya/2202448/
With reference to Disaster Management (Amendment Bill), 2024, consider the following statements:
- It makes provision for the constitution of the “Urban Disaster Management Authority” for State capitals and large cities having municipal corporations.
- It empowers the National Disaster Management Authority (NDM) to prepare the disaster plan at both the national and state level.
- It seeks to make provision for a “State Disaster Response Force” by the State Governments.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Government recently introduced the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill 2024 in the Lok Sabha.
About Disaster Management (Amendment Bill), 2024:
The bill seeks to amend the Disaster Management Act, 2005, which was enacted to provide for the effective management of disasters.
The bill makes provision for the constitution of “Urban Disaster Management Authority” for State capitals and large cities having municipal corporations, except the union territories of Delhi and Chandigarh.
The bill empowers the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and the State Disaster Management Authorities to prepare the disaster plan at the national level and state level, respectively, instead of the plans made by the National Executive Committee and the State Executive Committees earlier.
Furthermore, the NDMA will have the authority to appoint experts and consultants as necessary to fulfil its functions effectively.
It seeks to create a “disaster database at the national and State level.
The database will include disaster assessment, fund allocation detail, expenditure, preparedness and mitigation plan, risk register according to type and severity of risk, and such other relevant matters, following such policy, as may be determined by the Union government.
The bill will grant statutory recognition to existing bodies like the National Crisis Management Committee and the High-Level Committee.
It also seeks to make provision for a “State Disaster Response Force” by the State Governments.
A new Section 60A will be added to empower both the central and State Governments to direct individuals to take necessary actions or refrain from them to mitigate disaster impacts, with penalties for non-compliance not exceeding ₹10,000.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-to-introduce-bill-to-amend-disaster-management-act-plans-on-for-creation-of-disaster-database-at-national-state-level/article68471722.ece
Which one of the following is an example of surrogate advertising?
Advertising a new soda using the brand name of a well-known liquor brand.
Explanation :
The Health Ministry recently asked both the Sports Authority of India (SAI) and the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) to bring in measures to prevent surrogate advertisement of tobacco and or alcohol-related products by sportspersons.
About Surrogate Advertising:
It refers to a form of advertisement that duplicates the brand image of one product to promote another product of the same brand.
The word surrogate means a ‘substitute’. Usually, brands use surrogate advertising to promote products that cannot be advertised directly due to legal or social restrictions.
Surrogate goods could either resemble a similar commodity or an entirely different product. Meaning, that companies advertise their products and services by disguising them for some other product under the same brand name.
From liquor to tobacco-related products, several brands have embraced this form of advertising to spread their word and uphold their image in the industry.
In India, surrogate ads are common and used across several media platforms. For example, liquor brands use their brand names and logos to promote products like music CDs, soda, and more.
While the target audience knows a particular brand’s niche, surrogate advertising helps you get your message across subtly and legally.
The motive behind doing so is to ensure that the customers can recall the original product in the disguise of another advertised product. This process is also called “brand extension”.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/health-ministry-asks-bcci-sai-to-bring-in-measures-to-prevent-tobacco-and-alcohol-advertisements/article68474360.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS):
- Under OMSS, the Food Corporation of India (FCI) sells surplus food grains from the central pool in the open market through e-auctions.
- There is no upper limit on the quantity an eligible bidder can bid for under the OMSS.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Centre recently allowed state governments to directly buy rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI) without participating in e-auction under the open market sale scheme (domestic).
About Open Market Sale Scheme (OMSS):
The Food Corporation of India (FCI), on instructions from the government from time to time, sells surplus food grains from the central pool, especially wheat and rice, in the open market to traders, bulk consumers, retail chains, etc., at pre-determined prices.
This is in addition to maintaining buffer stocks and making a provision for meeting the requirements of the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS),
The FCI does this through e-auctions, where open market bidders can buy specified quantities.
An eligible bidder can bid for a minimum quantity of 10 metric tons (MT) to a maximum of 100 MT in the case of wheat. In the case of rice, traders are eligible and can bid a minimum quantity of 10 MT and a maximum quantity of 1000 MT.
States are also allowed to procure food grains through the OMSS without participating in the auctions, for their needs.
This will be beyond what they get from the central pool to distribute to NFSA beneficiaries.
The OMSS aims to enhance the supply of food grains (ensuring food security) during the lean season and thereby moderate the open market prices (controlling inflation), especially in the deficit regions.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Aug/02/states-allowed-to-buy-rice-from-fci-without-e-auction-at-rs-2800quintal
What is a unique feature of Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH) plants compared to conventional hydropower plants?
They can use the same water repeatedly.
Explanation :
Budget 2024-25 promised that “a policy for promoting pumped storage projects will be brought out for electricity storage.
About Pumped Storage Hydropower (PSH):
PSH is a type of hydroelectric energy storage.
PSH is a fundamentally simple system that consists of two water reservoirs at different elevations.
Working:
When there is excess electricity available, such as during off-peak hours or from renewable sources like solar and wind, it is used to pump water from the lower reservoir to the upper reservoir.
When there is an electricity demand, the water is released from the upper reservoir back down to the lower reservoir, passing through turbines that generate electricity.
The system also requires power as it pumps water back into the upper reservoir (recharge).
PSH plants operate much like conventional hydropower plants, except PSH can use the same water over and over again.
The technology absorbs surplus energy at times of low demand and releases it when demand is high.
The energy storage capacity of a PSH depends on the size of its two reservoirs, while the amount of power generated is linked to the size of the turbine.
There are two main types of PSH:
Open-loop: with either an upper or lower reservoir that is continuously connected to a naturally flowing water source such as a river.
Closed-loop: an ‘off-river’ site that produces power from water pumped to an upper reservoir without a significant natural inflow.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/budget/heres-why-union-budget-2024-promised-policy-on-pumped-storage/article68471636.ece
“Axis of Resistance”, recently seen in the news, is related to the:
Iran
Explanation :
Hamas leader Ismail Haniyeh was assassinated in an air strike in Tehran and experts believe that Iran could hike up attacks against Israel through its allies - the Axis of Resistance.
It is a coalition of Iranian-backed groups.
The coalition’s name is said to be inspired by former US President George W Bush’s use of the term ‘axis of evil’ — referring to Iran, Iraq and North Korea.
Formation
The roots of the ‘axis of resistance’ go back to the Iranian Revolution of 1979, which paved the way for radical Shia Muslim clerics to come to power.
To expand its political and military influence in a region where most powers — such as US-ally Saudi Arabia — are Sunni-majority nations, Iran’s new regime began to support non-state actors.
Another reason for this was to deter threats from Israel and the US — Iran has seen Israel’s creation in 1948 as a means for the US (and the West) to influence the region for its strategic interests.
Group members
Hezbollah - Shiite militant organization
Hamas - Palestinian Sunni militant group in Gaza
Palestinian Islamic Jihad (PIJ) - Sunni Islamist militant group, in Palestine
Houthis - Zaydi Shia militant group, Yemen
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-axis-of-resistance-9487863/
Consider the following statements regarding Mozambique:
- It is a country in Southern Africa which shares a maritime border with the Indian Ocean.
- It is drained by the largest river Nile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The shipments of Tur/Pigeon peas from Nacala Port in Mozambique, disrupted by an “anti-India” group, have resumed after the Ministry of Consumer Affairs raised the issue with the Ministry of External Affairs.
Location: It is a country in Southern Africa and is located in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth.
The country also has a coastline on the Indian Ocean to the east.
The island countries and territories of Madagascar, Comoros, and Mayotte are separated from Mozambique by the Mozambique Channel.
Bordering countries: Zimbabwe, Eswatini, South Africa, Zambia, Malawi, and Tanzania.
Rivers: It is drained by several significant rivers, with the Zambezi being the largest and other rivers are Limpopo, Licungo, Lurio, Rovuma etc.
Major Lakes: Lake Malawi (Nyasa) is the country’s major lake.
Highest Peak: Mount Binga
Capital: Maputo is the country’s capital while the largest city is Matola.
Natural Resources: The country’s principal natural resources are natural gas, coal, minerals, sand, hydropower, and most likely oil.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/import-of-tur-dal-from-mozambique-resumes-after-centres-intervention-9487724/
With reference to the Sloth bear, consider the following:
- It is found in a variety of dry and moist forests.
- It is a nocturnal and myrmecophagous species.
- It is listed as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Scientist suggested that a careful study of sloth bears behaviour during their encounters with tigers can help people across South Asia avert deadly attacks.
Sloth bears are one of the eight bear species found across the world.
They are myrmecophagous, meaning, they find bugs and termites to be their most sought-after meal.
Habitat: They live in a variety of dry and moist forests and in some tall grasslands, where boulders, scattered shrubs and trees provide shelter.
Distribution: They mainly inhabit the region of India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and presumably Bhutan.
Appearance: They have long, shaggy dark brown or black fur and curved claws, which are the longest out of any of the bear species.
These bears are mostly nocturnal, foraging for food at night and resting in secluded locations
Sloth Bear Sanctuaries in India: Daroji Sloth Bear Sanctuary (Karnataka)
, Jessore Sloth Bear Sanctuary (Gujarat).
Conservation Status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule 1
CITES: Appendix I
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/how-can-people-across-the-indian-subcontinent-prevent-fatal-encounters-with-sloth-bears-learn-from-species-behaviour-towards-tigers-advise-scientists
Consider the following statements with reference to the Vampire Stars:
- They are found in clusters and appear younger than their neighbours.
- They are known as Blue Straggler Stars (BSS) and are identified easily in star clusters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Researchers have made a groundbreaking discovery of a vampire star in the star cluster M67 located in the constellation Cancer, that has been rejuvenating its youth by sucking up material from a companion.
These are known to astronomers as Blue Straggler Stars (BSS) and are identified easily in star clusters.
These stars, found in clusters, appear younger than their neighbours, defying simple models of stellar evolution.
The mystery behind their youthful appearance has long puzzled astronomers, with theories suggesting they might be consuming material from companion stars.
They are also known as Symbiotic Binaries because they are normally in pairs.
The Vampire star will start as the smaller star but, nearing the end of the sucking process will inevitably be the larger of the two.
The sucking star, when it has consumed a large amount from its victim, will become a blue star, also known as a blue straggler.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2040159
Consider the following statements regarding the Women Entrepreneurship Program:
- It is designed to address the distinct challenges that women face when starting and growing businesses.
- It offers financial grants and features its products on the Skill India Digital Hub.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) unveiled the Women Entrepreneurship Program to empower women entrepreneurs and spur economic growth.
It is designed to address the distinct challenges that women face when starting and growing businesses.
This initiative aims to empower approximately 25 lakh women across India, providing them with the skills, knowledge, and resources needed to start and grow successful businesses.
It is in partnership with Britannia Industries Limited.
The initiative will also offer financial grants and feature their products and services on the Skill India Digital Hub, reflecting a strong commitment to fostering an inclusive environment for women entrepreneurs.
NSDC, with support from the National Institute for Entrepreneurship and Small Business Development (NIESBUD), will offer free online self-learning entrepreneurship courses through the Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH).
These courses, available in multiple languages, will cover crucial topics such as entrepreneurial skills, enterprise setup, finance basics, digital skills, and market analysis.
Key facts about the National Skill Development Corporation
It was established on July 31, 2008, as a not-for-profit public limited company under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956.
It operates as a unique Public Private Partnership (PPP) model under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2039876#
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Thanatourism’?
Visiting locations associated with death, suffering, or tragedy.
Explanation :
Kerala Police recently asked people to desist from dark tourism, which could hinder rescue efforts in Wayanad.
About Dark Tourism:
Dark tourism, also known as black tourism, thanatourism, or grief tourism, refers to the practice of visiting locations associated with death, suffering, tragedy, or something unusual.
An early definition defined by John Lennon and Malcolm Foley defines dark tourism as “the representation of inhuman acts and how these are interpreted for visitors”.
Dark tourism sites are all associated with tragic history. These sites might include cemeteries, mausoleums, disaster zones, battlefields, memorials, prisons, execution sites, and crime scenes.
As a more specific component of dark tourism, “disaster tourism” denotes situations where the tourism product is generated within, and from, the aftermath of a major disaster or traumatic event”.
Prominent dark tourism sites include Auschwitz Concentration Camp in Poland, Chernobyl in Ukraine, Ground Zero in New York, Hiroshima Peace Memorial Park in Japan, etc.
The act of dark tourism is somewhat controversial, with some viewing it as an act of respect and others as an unethical practice.
Dark tourism appeals to many because it offers an emotional connection to sites of tragedy.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/dark-tourism-warning-kerala-police-wayanad-landslide-killed-143-what-is-dark-tourism-global-hotspots-tragedy-tourists-2574337-2024-07-31
With reference to Graphene, consider the following statements:
- It is a two-atom thick layer of carbon atoms.
- It is the thinnest material known to man.
- It is an excellent conductor of heat and electricity.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recent research unveiled the presence of naturally occurring few-layer graphene flakes in moon soil.
About Graphene:
It is a one-atom-thick layer of carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal lattice.
It is the building block of Graphite (which is used, among other things, in pencil tips). 1mm of graphite contains some 3 million layers of graphene.
Graphene was first isolated in 2004. Since then, graphene has found hundreds of innovative applications, from sensors and electronics to energy storage and healthcare.
Properties:
It is the thinnest material known to man at one atom thick. It is one million times thinner than human hair.
It is also incredibly strong- about 200 times stronger than steel.
Graphene has an extremely high surface area-to-mass ratio. Each gram of graphene has a surface area greater than 2,600 square meters.
It is an excellent conductor of heat and electricity. It conducts electricity better than copper.
It is almost perfectly transparent since it only absorbs 2% of light.
It is impermeable to gases, even those as light as hydrogen or helium.
Graphene is also very flexible, which makes us dream of applications in wearable devices and foldable electronics.
Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct.
News:https://www.earth.com/news/graphene-new-wonder-material-earth-technology-found-moon-soil/
The ‘INS Shalki’, recently seen in the news, is a:
diesel-electric submarine
Explanation :
c
The Indian Naval Submarine (INS) Shalki recently arrived at the port of Colombo for a two-day formal visit.
About INS Shalki:
It is a Shishumar-class diesel-electric submarine.
It is also the first-ever submarine that was built in India.
It was constructed under licence by the Mazgaon Dock Limited in Mumbai.
It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on 7 February 1992.
Specifications:
It has a 6.5 m (21 ft) beam, 6 m (20 ft) draught, and is 64.4 m (211 ft) in length.
It carries 40 people on board including 8 officers.
The displacement of INS Shalki is 1450 tons on surfaces, 1850 tons submerged.
Its range is snorting 8,000 nautical miles (15,000 km) at 8 kn (15 km/h).
The speed ranges from 11 knots surfaced (i.e., 20 km/h) and 22 knots submerged (41 km/h).
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/indian-navy-submarine-ins-shalki-arrives-in-colombo-for-formal-visit-124080200613_1.html
Beas River ultimately merges with which one of the following?
Sutlej
Explanation :
Visuals from Himachal Pradesh showed the Beas River flowing to the brim as heavy rains continued to lash the Himalayan state.
About Beas River:
It is a river in Himachal Pradesh and Punjab states, northwestern India.
It is one of the five rivers that give the Punjab (“Five Rivers”) its name.
The Beas River was the approximate eastern limit of Alexander the Great’s invasion of India in 326 BC.
Course:
It rises at an elevation of 14,308 feet (4,361 metres) at Rohtang Pass in the western Himalayas, in central Himachal Pradesh.
From there it flows south through the Kullu Valley, receiving tributaries from the flanking mountains, and then turns west to flow past Mandi into the Kangra Valley.
After crossing the valley, the Beas enters Punjab state and veers south and then southwest to its confluence with the Sutlej River at Harike.
Its total length is 470 kilometres (290 mi), and its drainage basin is 20,303 square kilometres (7,839 sq mi) large.
Major Tributaries: The major tributaries of the Beas River are Bain, Banganga, Luni, and Uhal, along with Banner, Chakki, Gaj, Harla, Mamuni, Parvati, Patlikuhlal, Sainj, Suketi, and Tirthan.
The Beas forms the world-famous valleys of Kullu and Kangra.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/beas-river-in-spate-as-himachal-pradesh-hit-by-cloudburst-heavy-rain-watch-101722484683997.html
Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following states?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
Alarming cases of tiger deaths and hunting incidents in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve and its surrounding forest divisions have been reported by a top official.
About Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve:
It is located between the Vindhyan and Satpura ranges in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh.
It was declared a national park in 1968 and then became Tiger Reserve in 1993.
The habitat is characterized by valleys, hills, and plains, with the Bandhavgarh fort prominently seen as a major landmark.
The Bandhavgarh fort was said to be given by Hindu Lord Rama to his brother Lakshmana to keep a watch on Lanka. Hence the name Bandhavgarh (Sanskrit: Brother’s Fort).
Vegetation:
It consists of tropical moist, deciduous forests with sal, mixed forest, and grasslands.
Bamboo stretches on the lower slopes of the region.
Flora: Some of the most famous floral species include Saj (Terminaliatomentosa), Dhaora (Anogeissuslatifolia), Tendu, Arjun (Terminaliaarjuna), Amla (Emblicaofficinalis), Palas (Buteamonosperma), etc.
Fauna:
It is known for the Royal Bengal Tigers. The density of the tiger population at Bandhavgarh is the highest known in India as well as in the world.
Other important species include leopard, wild dog, wolf, jackal, chital, sambhar, barking deer, nilgai, chinkara, wild pig, chowsingha, etc.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/alarming-rise-in-tiger-deaths-in-madhya-pradesh-reserve-report-6241674
legionnaires’ disease, recently in the news is caused by:
Bacteria
Explanation :
Australia’s Victoria has recorded 71 confirmed cases of legionnaires’ disease and a woman died from the disease.
It is caused by the Legionella bacteria, which can only be found in natural bodies of water such as lakes and hot springs.
It is a severe form of pneumonia — lung inflammation usually caused by infection. It’s caused by a bacterium known as legionella.
This bacterium is found in lakes and ponds, but they can also develop in tanks and other water systems.
Transmission: The most common form of transmission of Legionella is inhalation of contaminated aerosols from contaminated water.
It is not contagious, meaning it is not spread from person to person.
Symptoms: The main symptoms are fever, chills, headache, malaise and muscle pain (myalgia).
Treatment: Treatments exist, but there is no vaccine currently available for Legionnaires’ disease.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/legionnaires-disease-outbreak-australias-victoria-reports-71-confirmed-cases/articleshow/112221964.cms
Consider the following statements with reference to the Osmolytes:
- These are high molecular weight organic molecules built up in tissues during stress.
- They help proteins in maintaining the stability of protein structures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A research team used a technique called covalent magnetic tweezers to observe how individual protein molecules fold and unfold under different conditions and interact with osmolytes which can help treat Alzheimer’s & Parkinson’s.
These are low molecular weight organic molecules usually built up in tissues at a quite high amount during stress or any pathological condition.
These are small molecules that help cells survive stress by stabilizing proteins and preventing them from misfolding.
They help proteins maintain their structure and function under stressful conditions.
Misfolded proteins can’t perform their functions properly, leading to diseases.
Osmolytes are crucial in maintaining the stability of protein structures, making them potential targets for new drugs.
Key facts about Parkinson’s disease
It is a progressive neurological disorder that affects the nervous system and the parts of the body controlled by the nerves.
The risk of developing Parkinson’s disease naturally increases with age, and the average age at which it starts is 60 years old.
Many studies have suggested that men are more likely to be affected by Parkinson’s than women.
Cause:
It is caused by the degeneration of nerve cells in the part of the brain called the substantia nigra, which controls movement.
These nerve cells die or become impaired, losing the ability to produce an important chemical called dopamine.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://dst.gov.in/osmolyte-protein-interaction-study-can-help-treatments-alzheimers-parkinsons#
With reference to Metal-air batteries, consider the following:
- It has a higher energy density than a lithium-ion battery.
- It is not recyclable and poses environmental hazards.
- It can be used in large-scale stationary energy storage applications.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers from CSIR-CMERI, Durgapur synthesised a cathode material which can be used as a catalyst in Metal-air batteries.
It is an energy storage system based on electrochemical charge/discharge reactions that occur between a positive “Air Electrode” (cathode) and a negative “Metal Electrode” (anode).
The negative electrode is typically made of metals such as Li, Zn, Al, Fe, or Na, while the positive usually contains some form of porous carbon material and a catalyst.
Advantages :
These batteries have higher energy density than a lithium-ion battery.
Accessibility: Metal-air batteries use readily available metals in India, making them more accessible than lithium-ion batteries.
Cost-Effective: Producing these batteries locally reduces imports.
Environment-Friendly: Metal-air batteries are recyclable, offering a safer alternative to lithium-ion batteries that pose environmental hazards.
Lightweight: Metals like aluminum are lightweight and can provide comparable or even higher energy density than lithium-ion batteries, making them an attractive choice.
Applications: Due to their high scalability and energy density, M-Air batteries can be used in a large variety of applications:
It is used in large-scale stationary energy storage applications
Transportation
Renewable generation
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2039699#
Consider the following statements regarding the Bhartiya Beej Sahkari Samiti Limited:
- It is set up under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act, 2002.
- It works under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Cooperation informed the Rajya Sabha about Bhartiya Beej Sahkari Samiti Limited (BBSSL).
It was set up under the Multi-State Cooperative Societies (MSCS) Act, 2002.
It is promoted by IFFCO, KRIBHCO, NAFED, National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and NCDC.
The initial paid up capital of BBSSL is Rs. 250 Cr with the contribution of Rs. 50 Cr each by the five promoters and the authorized share capital is Rs. 500 Cr.
Functions
It will undertake the production, procurement & distribution of quality seeds under a single brand through a network of cooperatives to improve crop yield and develop a system for the preservation and promotion of indigenous natural seeds.
It will help in increasing the seed replacement rate, and varietal replacement rate by ensuring the role of farmers in the production of certified seeds.
This society will focus on the production, testing, certification, procurement, processing, storage, branding, labelling and packaging of two generations of seeds i.e. foundation and certified through Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) by leveraging various schemes and policies of different ministries of Government of India.
Nodal agency: Ministry of Cooperation.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2039581
Consider the following statements with reference to the Fin whale:
- It is found in all major oceans of the temperate and polar zones.
- It is categorized as a vulnerable species under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Japan has expanded its commercial whaling to include fin whales, a decision criticised by Australia’s government.
It is the second-largest animal species on the planet, second only to the blue whale.
It gets its name from an easy-to-spot fin on its back, near its tail.
It is the fastest swimming of the large whales, known as the greyhound of the seas.
Distribution:
Fin whales inhabit the temperate and polar zones of all major oceans and open seas and, less commonly, in tropical oceans and seas.
Some populations are migratory, moving into colder waters during the spring and summer months to feed. In autumn, they return to temperate or tropical oceans.
Features
They have a distinct ridge along their back behind the dorsal fin, which gives them the nickname “razorback.
Fin whales have a very unusual feature: the lower right jaw is bright white and the lower left jaw is black.
Lifespan: They can live for 80 to 90 years and females are slightly longer than males.
Conservation status
IUCN: Vulnerable
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/japan-to-now-hunt-second-largest-whale-species-6240349
Consider the following statements regarding the Standardised Precipitation Index:
- It is calculated based on the long-term precipitation record for a particular location and long-term period.
- It measures both the wet and dry conditions of an area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the India Meteorological Department has analysed trends for precipitation and drought-like conditions over India using the ‘Standardised Precipitation Index’ (SPI).
It is used for estimating wet or dry conditions based on precipitation variables.
The SPI calculation is based on the long-term precipitation record for a particular location and long-term period (longer than 30 years is desirable).
This index is negative for drought and positive for wet conditions. As the dry or wet conditions become more severe, the index becomes more negative or positive respectively.
Time scale: It includes timescales of 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 12, 24, 36, 48, 60 and 72 months.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2040030
Consider the following:
- Sunflower Oil
- Rubber crop
- Sugar
- Coffee
How many of the above commodity prices are monitored by the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution & New and Renewable Energy launched Version 4.0 of Price Monitoring System (PMS) Mobile app.
Price Monitoring Division (PMD) in the Department of Consumer Affairs is responsible for monitoring prices of selected essential commodities.
To improve the quality of price data, the department launched a Mobile App in 2021 - the PMS App - for the reporting of daily prices by the price reporting centres.
Source of price data: Retail and wholesale prices of commodities from 550 centers are received daily from the State Civil Supplies Departments of the respective State Governments through Mobile App developed by the Department.
Total commodities monitored
At present the price is monitored for 22 essential commodities (Rice, Wheat, Atta, Gram Dal, Tur (Arhar) Dal, Urad Dal, Moong Dal, Masur Dal, Sugar, Gur, Groundnut Oil, Mustard Oil, Vanaspati, Sunflower Oil, Soya Oil, Palm Oil, Tea, Milk, Potato, Onion, Tomato and Salt).
The newly added 16 items included are Bajra, Jowar, Ragi, Suji (wheat), Maida (wheat), Besan, Ghee, Butter, Brinjal, Egg, Black Pepper, Coriander, Cummin seed, red chilies, Turmeric powder and Banana.
The 38 commodities constitute close to 31% of the total CPI weights as against 26.5% of CPI weights captured by the 22 commodities.
Significance: The price data monitored by the Department provides advance inputs for policy decision for the Government, RBI and analysts regarding the CPI inflation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2040121
Consider the following statements regarding Giant Radio Source:
- It helps to understand about the distribution and behaviour of matter in the cosmos.
- It represents the initial stage of radio galaxy evolution due to their enormous sizes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, a team led by Indian radio astronomers have reported the discovery of 34 new giant radio sources (GRSs) using the giant metrewave radio telescope (GMRT).
The Giant Radio Sources are among the largest objects in the Universe.
These are powered by a super massive black hole, typically with a mass ranging from ten million to one billion times that of the Sun.
These super black holes releases jets of hot plasma produce massive lobes of radio emissions, spanning much greater distances than the visible size of the galaxy.
Astronomers believe that GRSs represent the final stage of radio galaxy evolution due to their enormous sizes.
Significance
They help in understanding the evolution of radio sources and studying the intergalactic medium that confines the lobes far from the parent galaxy.
The study of giant radio galaxies helps scientists to comprehend the relationship exsisting between the the black hole activity and evolution of radio galaxies.
It also helps scientists understand more about the distribution and behaviour of matter in the cosmos.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/pune/indian-astronomers-discover-giant-radio-sources-9489547/
Four-ringed butterfly, recently seen in the news was discovered in:
Namdapha National Park
Explanation :
Recently, a four-ringed butterfly was rediscovered in the Namdapha National Park after 61 years.
The great four-ring (Ypthima cantliei), a species of Satyrinae butterfly.
It was photographed during a survey to document the butterfly diversity in the Miao range of the Namdapha National Park during 2018-19.
It was identified based on general morphological patterns and habitat.
It was last reported in 1957 from (eastern) Assam’s Margherita.
It is considered a rich genus of the family Nymphalidae which has some 6,000 species of butterflies. Of the 35 Ypthima species recorded in India, 23 have been reported from the northeast.
The highest Ypthima diversity is in China, particularly in the Yunnan and Sichuan provinces. The diversity is also vast in Nepal, Bhutan, and Myanmar apart from the northeastern part of India.
Key facts about the Namdapha National Park
It is located in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
It is flanked by the Patkai hills to the south and south-east and by the Himalayas to the north.
It is located between the Dapha Bum range of the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range. The region is a part of both the Palearctic and Indo-Malayan biogeographic areas.
Namdapha is the name of a river which originates from Daphabum and meets the Noa-Dehing river.
This river flows right across in a North-South direction of the National Park and hence the name Namdapha has been given.
Fauna: It is only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat namely the Tiger (Panthera Tigris), Leopard (Panthera Pardus), Snow Leopard (Panthera Uncia) and Clouded Leopard (Neofelis Nebulosa) and numbers of Lesser cats.
Flora: Evergreen Forests, Moist deciduous forests, sub-tropical forests, Temperate Forests and Alpine.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/four-ringed-butterfly-resurfaces-in-india/article68480656.ece#:~:text=The%20great%20four%2Dring%20has,species%20of%20the%20genus%20Ypthima.
The Maritime Partnership Exercise, recently seen in the news was held between India and:
Russia
Explanation :
Recently, a maritime partnership exercise (MPX) was conducted between India and Russia in St. Petersburg.
It was conducted between Russia and India on the occasion of the 328th Russian Navy Day.
Participating Naval ships: It involved INS Tabar naval ship from India and Soobrazitelny from Russia.
It marks a significant milestone in the maritime cooperation between India and Russia, reinforcing the commitment of both nations to maintain peace, stability and security in the region.
The MPX involved a series of complex naval manoeuvers, including communication drills, Search & Rescue tactics and Replenishment at Sea serials. Ships from both navies demonstrated high levels of professionalism and interoperability.
The Indian Navy remains committed to fostering partnerships with navies across the world.
Significance: The MPX with the Russian Navy reinforces the strong bilateral naval ties, further strengthening our resolve and commitment towards ensuring enhanced cooperation in the maritime domain.
Key facts about INS Tabar
It is a stealth frigate built for the Indian Navy in Russia.
It is the third of the Talwar-class frigate of the Indian Navy.
The frigate was commissioned on 19 April 2004 in Kaliningrad, Russia.
It can handle air/surface/sub-surface missions or defend itself, operating either independently on maritime missions or supporting a larger naval task force.
It is part of the Indian Navy’s Western Fleet, which is based in Mumbai under the Western Naval Command.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2040892
With reference to Article 311 of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
- It states that no government employee can be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank except after an inquiry by a competent authority.
- Conduct involving moral turpitude is a ground for the dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of government employees.
- The decisions made under the provisions of Article 311 are not subject to judicial review.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The Jammu and Kashmir Lieutenant-Governor recently invoked Article 311 of the Constitution and terminated the services of six government employees.
About Article 311 of Indian Constitution:
Article 311 lays down the procedure and safeguards to be followed before a government employee can be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank.
It acts as a shield against arbitrary actions by the government and upholds the principles of natural justice.
The article states that no government employee can be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which they have been informed of the charges against them and given a reasonable opportunity to defend themselves.
Under Article 311, a civil servant can only be removed from his/her services by the authority who appointed him/her or some other person who has the same authority or rank as the appointing authority.
Article 311 provides for the dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of government employees on two grounds:
Efficiency of the employee: If the employee’s performance or conduct is found to be unsatisfactory or detrimental to the efficient functioning of the government.
Conduct involving moral turpitude: If the employee is involved in any act of corruption, bribery, fraud, or any other offense involving moral turpitude.
Before taking any action against a government employee, the following procedure must be followed:
Formulation of charges: The competent authority must formulate the charges against the employee, clearly stating the allegations and grounds for disciplinary action.
It is important to note that the grounds for dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank should be based on valid and justifiable reasons.
Providing the employee an opportunity to respond: The employee must be given a reasonable opportunity to respond to the charges and present their defense.
They have the right to be heard and to produce evidence in their favor.
Conducting an inquiry: An impartial inquiry should be conducted by a competent authority.
The employee must be given a fair chance to present their case and cross-examine any witnesses or evidence presented against them.
Consideration of inquiry report: After the inquiry, a report should be prepared, taking into account all the evidence and submissions made during the inquiry.
Decision-making: Based on the inquiry report, the competent authority should make a decision regarding the dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank of the employee.
The decision should be reasoned and communicated to the employee.
The decision must be reasonable, fair, and in accordance with the principles of natural justice.
Exceptions to Article 311:
Security of the State: If the employee’s activities are deemed prejudicial to the security of the State, the President or the Governor, as the case may be, can dispense with the inquiry and take immediate action.
Efficiency in public service: If the President or the Governor is satisfied that it is in the interest of the security or efficiency of public service to do so, they can dispense with the inquiry and take appropriate action.
Probationary employees: Probationary employees, who have not yet acquired the right to hold a permanent position, can be dismissed or removed without an inquiry.
Judicial Review: Article 311 also provides for judicial review of the decisions made under its provisions.
Remedies available to an aggrieved employee may include reinstatement, back wages, or any other relief deemed appropriate by the court.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/dark-tourism-warning-kerala-police-wayanad-landslide-killed-143-what-is-dark-tourism-global-hotspots-tragedy-tourists-2574337-2024-07-31
Which one of the following best describes the term “Genetic Screening”?
A tool used to identify individuals at higher risk of developing certain disorders.
Explanation :
Genetic screening, an emerging science, is becoming popular among sportspersons.
About Genetic Screening:
It is a tool used to identify individuals who are at a higher risk of developing a particular disorder or who carry a specific gene for a disorder.
It is a type of genetic testing, used to identify changes in an individual’s genetic material, such as their chromosomes, genes, or proteins.
Genetic material carries information that is important for determining various traits, like one’s hair or eye color, and can be passed down from parents to children.
Some genes may be altered in an individual, which may then increase an individual’s risk of developing a certain disease/condition.
Genetic screening seeks to identify altered genes in individuals in order to determine any risk and provide preventive measures and early treatment options accordingly.
Genetic Testing in Sports:
Genetic tests, initially used for detecting diseases or predispositions, entered the sporting world in the late 1990s, when scientists began to gather evidence that genes influence various aspects of athletic performance, including endurance, flexibility, and psychological traits.
Scientists study genetic variants, which are differences that arise from mutations in specific DNA sequences. These mutations contribute to unique athletic characteristics and traits.
On average, 66 percent of differences in athlete status can be explained by genetic factors, with the remaining shaped by environmental factors such as practice, nutrition, birthplace, and the availability of medical and social support.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/olympics-special-genetics-at-pla
The WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (WHO GCTM) is located in which one of the following states?
Gujarat
Explanation :
India has committed $85 million over 10 years, 2022–2032, to support the programming of the World Health Organization (WHO) Global Traditional Medicine Centre.
About WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre (WHO GCTM):
WHO GCTM in Jamnagar, Gujarat, is a knowledge centre for traditional medicine.
The Indian Prime Minister laid the foundation stone for the centre in the presence of the WHO Director-General in April 2022.
It is the first global outpost centre for traditional medicine across the globe and was established under the Ministry of AYUSH.
The primary objective of WHO GCTM is to harness the potential of traditional medicine from across the world through modern science and technology and improve the overall health of the communities’ world over.
It will concentrate on building a solid evidence base for policies and standards on traditional medicine practices and products and help countries integrate it as appropriate into their health systems and regulate its quality and safety for optimal and sustainable impact.
The new centre focuses on four main strategic areas:
Evidence and learning.
Data and analytics.
Sustainability and equity.
Innovation and technology to optimise the contribution of traditional medicine to global health and sustainable development.
At the same time, respect for local heritages, resources, and rights is a guiding principle.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/india-commits-85-million-to-who-global-traditional-medicine-centre/article68472058.ece
Which one of the following is the primary purpose of the Kamaz-53949 Typhoon-K?
Safe transportation of troops and military cargo in high-risk areas
Explanation :
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) has successfully conducted a demonstration and trial of the formidable Typhoon vehicle at its Transport Battalion in Chandigarh.
About Typhoon-K Vehicle:
Kamaz-53949 Typhoon-K is a Russian-made 4x4 Mine-Resistant Ambush Protected (MRAP) vehicle.
It was developed by Remdiesel, a subsidiary of KamAZ.
It was developed for the safe transportation of troops and military cargo in areas with a high risk of mines.
It can also be configured as a command post vehicle, ambulance, and logistics support vehicle.
Features:
It measures 6.7 m long, 2.5 m wide, and 2.8 m high. It has a curb weight of 13,700 kg and can carry a payload of 2,000 kg.
It has a maximum road speed of 100 km/h and a range of up to 1,000 km without refueling.
The vehicle accommodates two crew members and eight fully equipped troops.
The hull features four side doors and a rear door. The roof is fitted with two hatches for observation, firing, and emergency exit purposes.
It can withstand the impact of 8 kg TNT explosion under the floor and 10kg TNT explosion under the wheels.
The vehicle also features a signature reduction package, an all-around video surveillance system, and an automatic fire-extinguishing unit.
It is fitted with a stabilised remotely controlled weapon station (RCWS). The RCWS can be armed with medium-to-heavy machine guns.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://idrw.org/itbp-to-get-russian-kamaz-typhoon-vehicle-for-lac/
With reference to the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- The scheme offers a maximum deposit facility of up to Rs 5 lakh in the name of women or girls.
- The maturity period is 2 years and partial withdrawal is not allowed under the scheme.
- There is a provision for multiple account opening under this scheme.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The Centre is unlikely to extend the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate scheme that was made available for two years beyond its March 2025 deadline, according to official sources.
About Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) Scheme:
This is a one-time scheme announced in Budget 2023 and will remain available for a two-year period, i.e., up to March 2025.
It is a risk-free scheme dedicated towards women and girls of all age groups.
The scheme offers a maximum deposit facility of up to Rs 2 lakh in the name of women or girls for a tenure of 2 years.
Benefit: It will encourage more women to adopt formal financial saving instruments.
Features:
Eligibility:
Any individual women.
The minor account can also be opened by the guardian.
Investment:
The deposit amount under this scheme is limited.
A minimum of Rs. 1000 and any sum in multiples of one hundred rupees may be deposited in an account subject to a maximum of Rs. 2 lakhs.
Interest Rate: It offers a fixed interest rate of 7.5 percent. Interest shall be compounded on a quarterly basis and credited to the account.
The Maturity period/Lock-in period of the scheme is 2 years from the date of opening of the account.
However, the account holder can withdraw up to 40% of the account balance after one year from the account opening date as a partial withdrawal.
There is a provision for multiple account opening under this scheme with a condition that a woman can open a second MSSC account after a minimum gap of three months from the opening of the existing account.
However, the total deposit, including all the accounts, should not exceed Rs 2 lakh.
There are no tax benefits.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/govt-may-not-extend-mahila-samman-savings-certificate-scheme-beyond-fy25-124080201375_1.html
Which of the following major industrial town is located near the confluence of the Sankh and South Koel rivers that form the Brahmani River?
Rourkela
Explanation :
Residents of low-lying areas in Rourkela city are living in fear as the Brahmani River is in spate as owing to incessant rains for the last few days.
About Brahmani River:
It is a major inter-state east-flowing river amongst the peninsular rivers in India.
The river is known as Dhamra in its lower reaches.
Origin:
It is formed by the confluence of the Sankh and South Koel rivers near the major industrial town of Rourkela in Odisha.
Both the sources of the Brahmani River are on the Chota Nagpur Plateau.
The Sankh River has its origins near the Jharkhand-Chhattisgarh border, along with the South Koel River, which also rises in Jharkhand.
Course:
The basin flows through Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Orissa States, draining a total area of 39,033 sq. km. before its outfalls into the Bay of Bengal.
It winds generally south-southeast past Bonaigarh and Talcher in Odisha and then turns east to join the northern branches of the Mahanadi River, which then empties into the Bay of Bengalat Palmyras Point.
The Brahmani delta that is formed at this point is the site of the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, famous for its estuarine crocodiles.
Length: The total length of its run is about 799 km, of which 541 km are in Odisha itself.
The Brahmani River basin is bounded in the north by the Chhotanagpur plateau, in the west and south by the Mahanadi basin, and in the east by the Bay of Bengal.
It is one of the few rivers that cut across the Eastern Ghats and has formed a minor gorge at Rengali in Odisha, where a dam has been built.
Tributaries: The principal tributaries of this river are Sankh, Tikra, and Karo.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Aug/05/worry-grips-rourkela-residents-as-brahmani-river-swells-no-flood-scare-yet
Consider the following statements regarding Glioblastoma:
- It is a type of cancer that starts as a growth of cells in the brain or spinal cord.
- There’s no cure for glioblastoma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In an innovative new study of glioblastoma, scientists used artificial intelligence (AI) to reprogram cancer cells, converting them into dendritic cells (DCs), which can identify cancer cells and direct other immune cells to kill them.
About Glioblastoma:
It is a type of cancer that starts as a growth of cells in the brain or spinal cord.
Like all cancers, glioblastoma is caused by DNA mutations that result in uncontrolled cell growth. The underlying causes for these genetic cell mutations are largely unknown.
Glioblastoma forms from cells called astrocytes that support nerve cells.
Astrocytes help give your brain the nutrients it needs.
Glioblastoma tumours make their own blood supply, which helps them grow. It’s easy for them to invade normal brain tissue.
It grows quickly and can invade and destroy healthy tissue.
It can happen at any age. However, it tends to happen more often in older adults.
It accounts for almost half of all cancerous brain tumors in adults.
Symptoms:
Glioblastoma symptoms may include headaches that keep getting worse, nausea and vomiting, blurred or double vision, trouble speaking, altered sense of touch, and seizures.
There also may be trouble with balance, coordination, and moving parts of the face or body.
Treatment:
There’s no cure for glioblastoma. Treatments might slow cancer growth and reduce symptoms.
The main treatments for glioblastomas are surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.news-medical.net/news/20240731/AI-reprograms-glioblastoma-cells-into-dendritic-cells-for-cancer-immunotherapy.aspx
Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following states?
Assam
Explanation :
A mahout from Darrang district met a grisly end at the Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary after a wild elephant trampled him to death.
About Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary:
Location: It is located on the southern bank of the river Brahmaputra in Morigaon district, adjacent to Guwahati in Assam.
It was declared a reserve forest in 1971 and a wildlife sanctuary in 1987.
It is home to the highest population density of the Indian One-Horned Rhinoceros species (around 102 rhinos in an area of 38.8 sq. km).
Landscape: It is dominated by alluvial lowlands and marshland.
The Brahmaputra River offers a natural boundary to the premises of the sanctuary on the north, while the Garanga Beel offers a natural boundary to its south.
Flora:
72% of Pobitora consists of the wet savannah of Arundo donax, Erianthus ravennae, Phragmites karka, Imperata cylindrica, and Saccharum spp.
Water hyacinth (Eichornia crassipes) is a major problem, especially to waterfowl, as it forms thick mats on the water surface.
Fauna:
Besides rhinoceros, the other animals are leopards, wild boar, Barking deer, wild buffalo, etc.
It is also home to more than 375 species of resident and migratory birds, such as the Indian pied Hornbill, Osprey, Hill Myna, Kalij Pheasant, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/assam/video/assam-mahout-trampled-to-death-by-elephant-at-pobitora-wildlife-sanctuary-1061164-2024-07-31
Consider the following statements regarding the Astra Missile:
- It is a surface-to-surface ballistic missile.
- It is indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Air Force (IAF) has given clearance to the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) to produce 200 Astra air-to-air missiles for its Su-3O and LCA Tejas fighter aircraft.
About Astra Missile:
Astra is a beyond-visual-range (BVR) air-to-air missile designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft.
It is indigenously developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and manufactured by Bharat Dynamics Ltd. (BDL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
The missile was built to engage and destroy aerial targets, which have high maneuverability and supersonic speed.
The missile is capable of advanced air combat, which allows it to engage in multiple high-performance targets.
It is the best in its class of weapon systems in the world in the category of air-to-air missiles.
The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements.
Features of ASTRA Mk-I:
Astra is 3.6 m long and with a diameter of 178 mm, weighing 154 kg.
It has a range of 80 to 110 km in a head-on chase and can travel at 4.5 Mach speed (almost hypersonic).
The missile uses an inertial guidance system driven by a fibre optic gyroscope with terminal guidance through active radar homing.
It offers the pilot the option to choose between “Lock on Before Launch – LOBL” and “Lock on After Launch – LOAL” and later allows the aircraft to shoot and scoot to safety after firing the missile in the direction of the target.
It is based on an advanced solid-fuel ducted ramjet (SFDR) engine technology.
It is capable of operating under all weather conditions, both day and night and offers high overall reliability and a very high ”Single Shot Kill Probability – SSKP”.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/indian-air-force-navy-drdo-bdl-astra-missile-tejas-2576878-2024-08-05
Thadou people are primarily located in which one of the following states?
Manipur
Explanation :
A section of the Thadou tribes represented by the Manipur-based Thadou Students’ Association (TSA) has formed a global platform to look into critical issues facing the community, particularly in Manipur.
About Thadou people:
The Thadou are indigenous people who live in the hill country adjacent to the Imphal Valley in the northeastern Indian state of Manipur.
They are the second largest in terms of population in Manipur, next to Meitei, according to the Manipur Census 2011.
They are also found in Assam, Nagaland, and Mizoram in India, and in Chin State and Sagaing Division in Burma/Myanmar.
The Thadou language belongs to the Tibeto-Burman family of the Sino-Tibetan languages.
Thadou subsistence activities include animal, cultivation, hunting, and fishing. Jhum (slash-and-burn) agriculture is predominant.
Thadou settlements are located in forests. Sites on the tops of ridges or just below ridges are preferred.
Villages are not arranged according to an established urban plan, and there is no marking of the perimeter of a village.
Almost all Thadou claim to be followers of Christianity.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/will-represent-voice-of-suppressed-says-manipurs-thadou-tribe-on-new-global-body-6263597
Consider the following statements regarding Bailey bridge:
- It is a type of modular bridge which needs minimal construction work and can be assembled quickly.
- It can be used in disaster relief situations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Army’s Madras Engineer Group or Madras Sappers built a “Bailey bridge”, which was assembled at Chooralmala, to reach Mundakkai village — one of the sites worst hit by the landslides.
It is a type of modular bridge, one whose parts are pre-built so that they need minimal construction work and can be assembled quickly when needed.
Origin: A US Army Engineer School manual notes that the Bailey Bridge originated during wartime. Donald Coleman Bailey, an English civil engineer, invented it during World War 2 (1939-45).
How does the Bailey bridge work?
The pre-fabricated parts in a Bailey bridge include light steel panels linked through pins, which are big, screw-like objects.
These help establish the guardrails of the bridge. Through the guardrails on either side, workers place beams to form the deck or path of the bridge.
All beams were constructed such that they would lock in on the guardrails to ensure stability.
After that, the bridge can be extended, and the lightness of the parts allows it to be mobile.
No heavy installation equipment is needed. In disaster relief situations, this is ideal because parts can be transported in small trucks — something also of use during wartime.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/bailey-bridge-wayanad-landslides-9494949/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Geckos:
- They rely on external sources of heat to regulate their body temperature.
- They are only found in the Himalayan foothill region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, scientists from India and the United Kingdom have described six new species of bent-toed geckos from Northeast India.
The bent-toed geckos of the genus Cyrtodactylus are diverse.
They are commonly known as bow-fingered geckos, and forest geckos.
Geckos are ectothermic, meaning they rely on external sources of heat to regulate their body temperature.
Reproduction in this gecko species typically occurs during the warm and wet seasons.
Distribution: Bent-toed geckos have about 346 species distributed across multiple biogeographic zones in Peninsular India, Sri Lanka, the Himalayan foothills, Northeast India, Southeast Asia and the Solomon Islands.
Highlights about the new species
Namdapha bent-toed gecko: It was documented from the Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh and is widespread within lowland evergreen forests of the Namdapha and Kamlang Tiger Reserves.
Siang Valley Bent-Toed Gecko (Arunachal Pradesh): It was discovered in the Siang River valley, renowned for its unique biodiversity.
Ngengpui bent-toed gecko (Mizoram): It was discovered from the Ngengpui Wildlife Sanctuary of Lawngtlai district. The site is located in one of the easternmost protected areas of the country.
Manipur bent-toed gecko: It was discovered near the Lamdan Kabui village of Manipur.
Kiphire bent-toed gecko and Barail Hill bent-toed gecko (Nagaland): These two were discovered in Nagaland.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/scientists-discover-six-new-lineages-of-bent-toed-geckos-from-the-northeast
With reference to Lyme disease, consider the following:
- It is a vector-borne infectious disease caused by the bacterium.
- It is spread to humans through the bite of an infected mosquito.
- It is most prevalent in North America and Europe.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Lyme disease is a significant public health concern, affecting approximately 476,000 individuals in the US each year.
It is a vector-borne infectious disease caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi.
Transmission: It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected black-legged ticks, often referred to as deer ticks.
It cannot spread between humans, from pets to humans, through air, food, or water or lice, mosquitoes, fleas, and flies also do not transmit it.
It is prevalent in wooded and grassy areas worldwide, particularly during warmer months. It is most commonly reported in North America, Europe, and some parts of Asia.
Symptoms:
It starts between 3 to 30 days after an infected tick bites you.
It commonly manifests with symptoms such as fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic “bull’s-eye” red rash called erythema migrans (EM).
Erythema migrans serve as a hallmark sign, aiding in the early diagnosis and management of this tick-borne illness.
If it is left untreated, it can lead to more severe complications affecting the joints, heart, and nervous system.
Treatment: The standard treatment for Lyme disease is antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, especially in the early stages.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/health/the-growing-threat-of-lyme-disease-the-complex-illness-thats-hard-to-diagnose-9493414/
Consider the following statements regarding the Bagata tribes:
- They are mainly resided in the Western Himalayan region.
- They perform the Dhimsa dance in which all age people participate from this tribe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Bagata tribal people who worked for the Lower Sileru Hydro-Electric Project construction continue to reel under darkness even as they fight on the back foot, for electricity.
The Bagatas cite the historic origin of their community name as the devoted warriors (Bhaktas) of the then rulers.
They are also called Bagatha, Bagat, Bagodi, Bogad or Bhakta.
Location: They live in the state of Odisha and also in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
Festivals: Dhimsa is one of the dances and Bagata tribes of all ages enjoy energetic dancing, and all ages take part. The dances of the Bagata are called Sankidi Kelbar.
Family life: Nuclear families are commonly found in their society. They prefer cross-cousin marriage and consider marriage by negotiation as the ideal type of matrimony.
Language: They speak with one another in the form of the Oriya language. One of their main languages is Telugu. Their local dialect is Adivasi Oriya.
The Bagata tribes have undertaken the profession of farming in order to sustain the requirements of their day-to-day living.
They worship Hindu gods and goddesses in addition to their family and tribal gods.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/in-dark-shadow-of-a-powerhouse-tribes-who-built-andhra-pradesh-power-project-live-in-darkness-50-years/article68468772.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Ol Doinyo Lengai volcano:
- It is located at the southern end of Lake Natron in Tanzania.
- It is the only volcano which has actively erupting and extremely runny carbonatite magma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to a new study, the Ol Doinyo Lengai volcano which is filled with magma has been erupting beyond the ground hose and at the same time sinking for the past 10 years.
Location: It is located in northern Tanzania, at the southern end of Lake Natron.
It is known to the local Maasai people as the “Mountain of God.
It is an active stratovolcano with unique geological characteristics.
It rises to an elevation of 9,442 feet (2,878 metres) and is one of the many volcanoes situated along the East African Rift System.
It contains basalts rich in sodium and potassium and is so alkaline that its lavas resemble washing soda.
The volcano has more than one active centre and most of the recent eruptions were from its northern crater.
Why it is a rare volcano? This volcano is the only one existing on Earth which has an actively erupting and extremely runny carbonatite magma. The magma is saturated with alkali elements, like calcium and sodium and is poor in silica.
Details of the study
As per the new study, the crater’s upper slopes have started sinking since 2013 and the likely cause for this sinking volcano was the deflating magma reservoir, which is located 3,300 feet (1,000 m) under the volcano.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/this-volcano-with-continuous-eruption-of-the-magma-is-sinking-inside-earth-heres-why-747008
Consider the following statements regarding Dark Patterns:
- They are deceptive and manipulative user interface (UI) design techniques.
- They exploit cognitive biases and psychological principles to influence user behavior.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recent research reveals that mobile apps often use deceptive design tactics, known as dark patterns, to manipulate users into unintended actions.
About Dark Patterns:
Dark patterns are deceptive and manipulative user interface (UI) design techniques employed by websites, apps, and other digital platforms to trick or manipulate users into taking actions they may not intend to take or to make decisions that are not in their best interest.
It is a deceptive practice employed to influence user behaviour in a way that benefits the company implementing it.
The term “dark patterns” was coined in 2010 by Harry Brignull, a user experience specialist.
These patterns are often used to encourage users to sign up for services, make purchases, or share personal information, among other things.
Dark patterns exploit cognitive biases and psychological principles to influence user behavior.
They can range from subtle and mildly misleading to overtly aggressive tactics.
There are different kinds of dark patterns: Friend spam, forced continuity, disguised ads, confirm shaming, bait and switch, hidden costs, roach motel, privacy zuckering, misdirection, price comparison prevention, trick questions, and sneak into basket.
For Example: ‘Confirm shaming’ means using a phrase, video, audio, or any other means to create a sense of fear, shame, ridicule, or guilt in the mind of the user so as to nudge the user to act in a certain way.
In November 2023, the Department of Consumer Affairs, Government of India, released guidelines for 13 dark patterns.
According to these guidelines, the use of any of these prescribed dark patterns amounts to a misleading advertisement, an unfair trade practice, or a violation of consumer rights.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://news24online.com/tech/exposing-dark-patterns-how-mobile-apps-manipulate-users-through-deceptive-design/315080/
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Alliance for Improved Nutrition (GAIN):
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations to tackle the human suffering caused by malnutrition.
- It mobilizes public-private partnerships and provides financial and technical support to deliver nutritious foods to those people most at risk of malnutrition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A recent report by the Global Alliance for Improved Nutrition (GAIN) calls for nutrition investments in the agri-food sector, which it argues, can reduce gender inequalities, increase productivity, and enhance business resilience.
About Global Alliance for Improved Nutrition (GAIN):
It is a Swiss-based foundation launched at the United Nations in 2002 to tackle the human suffering caused by malnutrition.
Headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, GAIN has offices in countries with high levels of malnutrition.
Working with governments, businesses, and civil society, GAIN aims at making healthier food choices more affordable, more available, and more desirable.
GAIN’s purpose is to improve nutrition outcomes by improving the consumption of nutritious and safe food for all people, especially the most vulnerable.
It mobilizes public-private partnerships and provides financial and technical support to deliver nutritious foods to those people most at risk of malnutrition.
The organization also supports improved maternal and infant health by promoting breastfeeding and specialised products for infants over six months and young children.
In addition, they partner with local businesses to improve the quality of food along agricultural value chains.
GAIN-supported nutrition programs are reaching an estimated 667 million vulnerable people in more than 30 countries.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.downtoearth.org.in/governance/nutrition-investments-in-agri-food-sector-can-reduce-gender-inequalities-report
Consider the following statements regarding Asset Management Companies (AMCs):
- They are financial institutions that pool funds from multiple investors and invest in various financial instruments to generate returns for the investors in exchange for a fee.
- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) governs and controls every AMC in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
CEOs, Managing Directors (MD), or any equivalent officials of asset management companies (AMC) will be held responsible and accountable for implementing mechanisms to deter potential market abuse, SEBI said in a circular recently.
About Asset Management Companies (AMCs):
An AMC is a financial institution that pools funds from multiple investors and invests in various financial instruments, such as stocks, bonds, and real estate, to generate returns for the investors in exchange for a fee.
AMCs are commonly referred to as money managers or money management firms.
AMCs come in many different forms and structures, such as:
Hedge funds
Mutual funds
Index funds
Exchange-traded funds
Private equity funds
Other funds
Those that offer public mutual funds, or ETFs, are also known as investment companies or mutual fund companies.
In addition, they invest on behalf of various types of clients, such as:
Retail investors
Institutional investors
Public sector (government organizations)
Private sector
High-net-worth clients
The role of an AMC is to make investment decisions on its investors’ behalf and manage the assets in their portfolios. This involves choosing a suitable mix of investments and helping investors grow their money.
To achieve this, an asset management company appoints professionally qualified fund managers with investment expertise and experience to manage the assets.
Fund managers employ investment strategies and use financial tools, such as risk management techniques, to help manage the portfolio and protect investors’ assets.
Additionally, AMCs have a support system in place in the form of research analysts who assist the fund managers.
The distinguishing factor for AMCs is their assets under management (AUM). It indicates the total value of investments that the AMC manages on investors’ behalf.
When the AUM of an AMC grows, it represents the faith and confidence that investors have in the AMC to manage their money.
SEBI is the Indian Capital Market Regulator which governs and controls every AMC in India.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/incoming/amc-heads-to-be-pulled-up-for-abusive-market-practices-sebi/article68489639.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Siris:
- It is a tropical tree endemic to the Eastern Ghats of India.
- It is capable of fixing nitrogen from the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A pall of gloom descended on Kumaradevam gram panchayat, located in the East Godavari district, after the death of the century-old Indian siris tree.
About Indian Siris:
Indian Siris, also known as Albizia lebbeck, is a tropical tree native to India and Southeast Asia.
It belongs to the Fabaceae family and is a deciduous tree with a wide range of uses.
They require a warm and humid climate and can be grown in a variety of soil types, including clay, loam, and sandy soil.
Features:
It grows up to a maximum height of 15-20 meters and has a wide-spreading,umbrella-shaped canopy.
The tree trunk is typically straight, with a diameter of up to 1 meter.
Its leaves are green and fern-like and can grow up to 25 cm long.
It has a moderate to dense branching pattern, with branches that spread outwards and upwards from the trunk.
It produces small, white, and fragrant flowers in clusters.
Ecological Role:
The tree is capable of fixing nitrogen from the atmosphere, which helps to enrich the soil and support other plant species.
The extensive, shallow root system makes it a good soil binder and suited to soil conservation and erosion control.
Henceonly statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/village-mourns-the-death-of-century-old-tree-on-the-bank-of-akhanda-godavari/article68488916.ece
‘C-130J Super Hercules’, recently seen in the news is a/an:
turboprop military transport aircraft
Explanation :
A Bangladesh-registered C-130J Hercules jet became the most tracked flight on Flightradar24.com amid reports of Bangladesh Prime Minister quitting and leaving her country.
About C-130J Super Hercules:
It is a four-engine turboprop military transport aircraft.
It is the US Air Force’s principal tactical cargo and personnel transport aircraft.
It was developed byLockheed Martin, a US security and aerospace company.
The C-130J is the newest generation of the C-130 Hercules, which primarily performs the tactical portion of the airlift mission.
The aircraft is capable of operating from rough, dirt strips and is the prime transport for airdropping troops and equipment into hostile areas.
The largest operators are the US Air Force, US Marine Corps, Australia, Canada, India,Italy, and the United Kingdom.
Features:
It has reduced crew requirements. A minimal crew of three men is required to operate this aircraft, including two pilots and one loadmaster.
It has a payload capacity of 19 tons.
It is powered by four Rolls-Royce AE 2100D3 turboprop engines.
It has digital avionics, including Head-Up Display (HUD) for each pilot.
Range: 6,852 km (no payload)
Speed: 644 km/hr
Endurance: 20+ hours
It is capable of short takeoffs and landings from unprepared runways.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/world/story/all-about-flight-ajax1431-carrying-sheikh-hasina-after-escape-from-dhaka-2577156-2024-08-05
Consider the following statements regarding Sariska Tiger Reserve:
- It is located in Rajasthan.
- It consists of Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests and Northern Tropical Thorn Forest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court-mandated Central Empowered Committee has flagged serious harm to wildlife in the Sariska Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan, primarily due to unchecked tourism and traffic, and recommended a blanket ban on private vehicles.
It is located in the state of Rajasthan.
It is well nestled in the Aravali Hills, covering an area of 800 sq km.
It was once a hunting ground of the Maharaja of Alwar before being proclaimed a natural reserve in 1955 and a national park in 1979.
It is the first reserve in the world to successfully relocate tigers.
It is also famous for old temples, palaces, and lakes such as Pandu Pol, Bhangarh Fort, Ajabgarh, Pratapgarh, Siliserh Lake, and Jai Samand Lake.
Topography: It possesses a rocky landscape, scrub thorn arid forests, grasses, hilly cliffs, and semi deciduous wood.
Vegetation: The vegetation of Sariska corresponds to Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests and Northern Tropical Thorn Forest.
Flora: The area of this reserve is covered with dhok trees. Other species found include salar, kadaya, gol, ber, Banyan, gugal, bamboo, kair, adusta, etc.
Fauna: A variety of other wild animals, like the leopard, sambhar, chital, nilgai, four-horned antelope, wild boar etc are found in the reserve apart from the tiger.
Hence both statements are correct
News: https://theprint.in/india/unchecked-traffic-seriously-affecting-wildlife-in-sariska-tiger-reserve-report/2208486/
Consider the following statements regarding National Handloom Day:
- It is celebrated every year on 7th August since 2015.
- It aims to recognise the efforts and skills of the community of weavers engaged in this sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
VIRAASAT”, a fortnight long exhibition dedicated to celebrating 10th National Handloom Day began at Handloom Haat in Janpath recently.
It is organized by the National Handloom Development Corporation Ltd (NHDC) under the Ministry of Textiles.
The series “VIRAASAT”- the “Exclusive Handloom Expo” is a continuation of celebrations held during previous years around the National Handloom Day.
Focus: The event focuses on the glorious tradition of Handloom and Handicrafts. It also provides a market connected to the handloom weavers and artisans.
The unique products such as Banarasi, Jamdani, Baluchari, Madhubani, Kosa, Ikkat, Patola, Tussar Silk, Maheshwari, Moirang Phee, Baluchari, Phulkari, Laheriya, Khandua and Tangaliya will be featured in this exhibition.
Key facts about the National Handloom Day
Historical context: The Swadeshi Movement which was launched on 7th August, 1905 had encouraged indigenous industries and in particular handloom weavers.
Since 2015, the Government of India has decided to commemorate the 7th of August every year as the National Handloom Day.
The first National Handloom Day was held on 7th August 2015 in Chennai.
It aims to recognise the efforts and skills of the community of weavers engaged in this sector.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2041230
With reference to Methylocucumis oryzae, consider the following:
- It is a bacteria found in the wetlands and rice fields.
- It has a strict mesophilic nature and cannot grow above 37ºC.
- It prohibits the growth of rice plants by inhibiting early flowering.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers have isolated and described India’s first cultures of indigenous methanotroph Methylocucumis oryzae from rice fields and wetlands, mainly from Western India.
It is a bacterium which exists in nature in abundance in wetlands and rice fields.
It had a characteristic oval and elongated shape, similar to that of a cucumber, and hence the name ‘methane eating cucumbers’ was given to this novel genus.
Features
It is found to be an important methanotroph component.
It has a remarkably large size compared to other bacteria and is equal to the size of a small yeast (3-6 µm).
Another unique feature of this bacterium is that it has a strict mesophilic nature and cannot grow above 37ºC while most of the other methanotrophs can tolerate or grow at 37ºC or even at 40ºC.
The bacterium forms light pale pink colored colonies, and the genome is indicative of a carotenoid pathway.
In recent years, this methanotroph was also found to promote the growth of rice plants by inducing early flowering and increased grain yield.
The current constraints with Methylocucumis are slow growth which limits growing this culture on a larger scale, needed for mitigation and biotechnological applications.
What are methanotrophs?
Methanotrophs or methane oxidizing bacteria oxidize this methane and build up their biomass, breathing oxygen and producing CO2 and H2O as we do.
These are natural methane mitigating agents and are present in all the environments where methane and oxygen both are available.
Habitat: Wetlands, rice fields, ponds and other water bodies are the habitats where these grow in abundance.
Hence only 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2041799
Consider the following statements regarding Commemorative stamps:
- These are issued for commemorating important events, prominent personalities in various fields.
- These stamps can be issued on a living personality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the department of Posts released a set of commemorative postage stamps to celebrate the Paris Olympics.
Commemorative stamps are issued commemorating important events, prominent personalities in various fields, aspects of nature, beautiful or rare flora and fauna, environmental issues, agricultural activities, national/international issues, games etc.
These stamps are only available at Philatelic Bureaux and counters or under the Philatelic Deposit Account Scheme.
They are printed in limited quantities.
Some of the rules for issuing Commemorative Postage Stamps
Proposals for issue of Commemorative Postage Stamps may be sent by any citizen of India.
Stamps shall be issued only on the apex institution/organization, on its 100th /125th /150th anniversary and not on the branches of any institution or organization.
The institution/organization should have national or international stature with significant and well recognised contribution in their respective fields.
No stamp will be issued on a living personality. The personalities on whom commemorative postage stamps may be issued should be of national or international importance.
The occasion to be commemorated must be the birth centenary or 10th /25th /50th /100th death anniversary. Stamps can be issued no sooner than ten years after an individual’s death.
Exceptions in this regard will however be considered to be made for personality from the field of Art, Culture and Music.
A stamp on the building, monument etc. may be issued on its centenary/125th anniversary/150th anniversary etc. The building, to be so honoured must be a Heritage site of national/international importance or site recognized by ASI of national/international importance.
These are released by the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2041317
Consider the following statements regarding Miombo forest:
- It is a biome which includes subtropical grasslands and savannahs.
- It is mainly present in the European continent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the Italian Agency for Development Cooperation (AICS) have signed two agreements for the implementation of projects aimed at protecting the miombo forest.
The Miombo is a biome that includes tropical and subtropical grasslands, bushlands, and savannahs.
It is a vast African dryland forest ecosystem covering close to 2.7 million square kilometres across southern Africa, including Angola, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Malawi, Mozambique, Tanzania, Zambia and Zimbabwe.
The woodlands are characterized by the dominance of Brachystegia species, either alone or in association with Julbernardia and Isoberlinia species.
It also encompasses four bio-regions and is responsible for maintaining the Greater Zambezi, one of the most important transnational river basins.
It is facilitating trade in the border region between Mozambique and Zimbabwe.
Significance of this forest: This forest is vital for millions of people in rural areas, providing essential resources such as firewood, food, and water.
Key facts about the Food and Agriculture Organization
It is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
Its goal is to achieve food security for all and make sure that people have regular access to enough high-quality food to lead active, healthy lives.
Member countries: With 195 members - 194 countries and the European Union, FAO works in over 130 countries worldwide.
Its sister bodies are the World Food Programme (WFP) and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD).
Headquarter: Rome (Italy).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/new-projects-to-safeguard-miombo-forest-boost-food-security-in-mozambique-zimbabwe
Consider the following statements with reference to the Sone River:
- It is a principal tributary of the Narmada River.
- It originates in the Amarkantak highlands in Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
More than 40 people trapped in the flooded Sone River in Garhwa districts of Jharkhand were rescued by the State Disaster Relief Force (SDRF) recently.
About Sone River:
It is a principal southern tributary of the Ganges (Ganga) River after the Yamuna River.
Course:
It originates in the Amarkantak highlands in Madhya Pradesh, in the east direction of the origin of the Narmada River.
It then flows in the north-northwest direction through Madhya Pradesh before turning in the east direction where it meets the Kaimur range.
The river starts flowing in the parallel direction of the Kaimur range in the east-northeast direction through Uttar Pradesh and Bihar and joins the Ganga River just above Patna, the capital of Bihar.
Total Length: 784 km
It is a wide and shallow river and forms pools of water in the remaining parts of the river.
The floodplain of the river is narrow and is only 3 to 5 kilometers wide.
The river’s flow is seasonal, and the Sone is unimportant for navigation.
The Sone valley is geologically almost a continuation of that of the Narmada River to the southwest. It is largely forested and sparsely populated.
The valley is bordered by the Kaimur Range to the north and the Chota Nagpur plateau to the south.
Tributaries: The main tributaries of the Sone River are the Rihand River and the Koel River.The other tributaries are the Gopad River and the Kanhar River.
Dehri is the major town situated on the Sone River.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Aug/06/sone-river-in-spate-40-rescued-in-jharkhand
Consider the following statements with reference to Sucralose :
- It is a no-calorie sweetener that is about hundred times sweeter than regular table sugar.
- The majority of the consumed sucralose is not absorbed by the body and is excreted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
A recent study from India examining the effects of replacing sucrose or table sugar with an artificial sweetener, sucralose, found no adverse impact on glucose or HbA1c levels and in fact indicated a slight improvement in body mass index (BMI).
About Sucralose:
Sucralose is a no-calorie sweetener that can be used to lower one’s intake of added sugars while still providing satisfaction from enjoying the taste of something sweet.
While some types of sweeteners in this category are considered low-calorie (e.g., aspartame) and others are no-calorie (e.g., sucralose, monk fruit sweeteners, and stevia sweeteners). Collectively, they are often referred to as sugar substitutes, high-intensity sweeteners, nonnutritive sweeteners, or low-calorie sweeteners.
Like other no-calorie sweeteners, sucralose is intensely sweet. It is about 600 times sweeter than sugar.
It can be used as an ingredient in any type of food or beverage.
Sucralose is exceptionally stable, so foods and beverages sweetened with sucralose stay sweet under a wide range of conditions.
Production:
Sucralose is made from a process that begins with regular table sugar (sucrose); however, sucralose is not sugar.
Three select hydroxyl groups on the sucrose molecule are replaced with three chlorine atoms.
Sucralose’s structure prevents enzymes in the digestive tract from breaking it down, which is an inherent part of its safety.
After Consumption:
Most (about 85 percent) of consumed sucralose is not absorbed by the body and is excreted, unchanged, in the feces.
Of the small amount that is absorbed (about 15 percent), none is broken down for energy—therefore, sucralose does not provide any calories.
All absorbed sucralose is excreted quickly in the urine.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/judicious-use-of-sucralose-as-sugar-substitute-has-benefits-for-diabetics-says-study/article68492489.ece
Consider the following statements with reference to the Auroville Township:
- It is an international cultural township located in Karnataka.
- It is under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Education.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Union Government has referred a range of complaints in Auroville to the appropriate bodies and agencies, the Minister of State for Education has said in Parliament recently.
About Auroville:
Auroville was founded by Mirra Alfassa, known as the ‘Mother’, the spiritual collaborator of Sri Aurobindo on the 28th of February, 1968, as an international cultural township.
It is the largest and oldest surviving international intentional community in the world.
Location: It is located on the outskirts of Puducherry, in the Villupuram District of Tamil Nadu.
3300 people from 58 nations, including India, live together as one community and engage themselves in cultural, educational, scientific, and other pursuits aimed at human unity.
It has flourished from a barren desert to a 3,000-acre township and bioregion in which more than 3 million trees have been planted, home to rich biodiversity, 9 schools, multiple social enterprises, etc.
UNESCO had endorsed the project of Auroville through four resolutions in 1966, 1968, 1970, and 1983.
The township has been under the administrative control of the Ministry of Education since 1980 and is administered as per the provisions of the Auroville Foundation Act, 1988, passed by the Parliament of India.
According to the provisions of the Auroville Foundation Act, the Government of Indiaprovides partial fundingin the form of grants to the Foundation for meeting its expenditure on the establishment, maintenance, and development of Auroville.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/puducherry/range-of-complaints-regarding-auroville-referred-to-agencies-says-mos/article68491655.ece
With reference to Bluetongue Disease, consider the following statements:
- It is an infectious, non-contagious disease that affects wild and domestic ruminants.
- It is a vector-borne disease caused by a bacterium.
- Vaccination is the most effective and practical measure to minimize losses related to the disease.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Bluetongue disease has been confirmed in all 12 Dutch provinces, according to official data released recently.
About Bluetongue Disease:
It is an infectious, non-contagious, vector-borne viral disease that affects wild and domestic ruminants such as sheep, goats, cattle, buffaloes, deer, most species of African antelope, and camels.
Transmission:
The bluetongue virus is transmitted by biting midges (Culicoides spp.).
It is not transmitted through contact with animals or wool, or through consumption of milk.
Infections range from mild to severe, depending on the species affected.
Most infections in cattle are asymptomatic.
Sheep are most likely to show symptoms.
In infected sheep, bluetongue damages the blood vessels, resulting in hemorrhage (internal bleeding), lack of oxygen in the blood, and necrosis (death) of affected tissues.
Infections are more obvious in young lambs, and the mortality rate can be high (up to 30 percent).
Vaccination is used as the most effective and practical measure to minimize losses related to the disease and to potentially interrupt the cycle from infected animal to vector along with insect control measures.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.uniindia.com/~/bluetongue-disease-reported-in-all-dutch-provinces/World/news/3256261.html
With reference to the Guidelines for Organ Transport in India through air, consider the following statements:
- Airlines carrying the organs can request the Air Traffic Control for aircraft’s priority takeoff and landing.
- Airport officials should establish a “green corridor” and provide a trolley for transporting the organ box.
- The airline crew can guide and assist the accompanying medical personnel in carrying the organ box.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Union Health Ministry for the first time has come out with Standard Operating Procedure (SOPs) for transporting organs through various modes of travel such as air, road, railways and waterways.
About Guidelines for Organ Transport in India:
Organ transportation is required when the organ donor and recipient are in different hospitals or cities.
As per the new SOPs, in the case of air transportation,airlines carrying the organs can request the Air Traffic Control for aircraft’s priority takeoff and landing and arrange front-row seats.
They can also request priority reservations and provisions for late check-in for medical personnel transporting organs.
The source airport will notify the destination airport to facilitate the arrival process.
The flight captain may announce inflight that human organs are being transported.
Arrangements for carrying the organ box on trolley from the aircraft to the ambulance post arrival can also be made by the airport and airline staff.
Additionally, when the ambulance is only permitted up to the runway, the airline crew can guide and assist the accompanying medical personnel in carrying the organ box directly from the aircraft via the staircase to the waiting ambulance on the runway.
Green corridor at airports:
The SOPs specify that airport officials should establish a “green corridor” and provide a trolley for transporting the organ box from the ambulance to the aircraft at the departure airport and vice versa at the destination airport.
They also say that the green corridor may be provided on the request of specific authorities or agencies.
Sensitising traffic police:
The SOPs also emphasize the importance of sensitising state traffic police across various states about organ donation and transplant.
They highlight the crucial role of traffic police in expediting organ transport through the creation of green corridors.
Organ transportation via Metro:
Metro Traffic Control must give priority transit for the metro carrying the live human organs.
The metro security staff should escort the clinical team carrying the organ box up to their boarding at the metro station.
Additionally, a metro official should accompany the clinical team on the metro and secure the necessary area for the organ box.
They add that the Security Hold Area (SHA) should be notified by metro security regarding the transport of live human organs to avoid any delay during security checks.
Additionally, the relevant metro personnel at the destination should be informed to ensure proper arrangements for carrying the organs.
Organ box should be kept in an incorrect position and orientation i.e. upright straight vertical at 90 degrees to the surface during transport, and the label of “handle with care” can be put on the organ box.
The organ box should be secured with a seat belt for greater safety.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/centre-issues-first-ever-guidelines-organ-transport-travel-modes-2576535-2024-08-04
Consider the following statements regarding the Earth Observation Satellite-8:
- It consists of Electro Optical Infrared Payload which captures images in the mid and Long-Wave IR bands.
- It is developed by ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
ISRO’s Earth Observation Satellite-8 (EOS-8) is expected to be launched by the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)-D3 on August 15 from Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
It will be launched by the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)-D3.
Objective: The primary objectives of the EOS-08 mission include designing and developing a microsatellite, creating payload instruments compatible with the microsatellite bus, and incorporating new technologies required for future operational satellites.
It is built on the Microsat/IMS-1 bus and it carries three payloads:
Electro Optical Infrared Payload (EOIR): It is designed to capture images in the Mid-Wave IR (MIR) and Long-Wave IR (LWIR) bands, both during the day and night, for applications such as satellite-based surveillance, disaster monitoring, environmental monitoring, fire detection, volcanic activity observation, and industrial and power plant disaster monitoring.
Global Navigation Satellite System-Reflectometry payload (GNSS-R): It demonstrates the capability of using GNSS-R-based remote sensing for applications such as ocean surface wind analysis, soil moisture assessment, cryosphere studies over the Himalayan region, flood detection, and inland waterbody detection.
SiC UV Dosimeter: It monitors UV irradiance at the viewport of the Crew Module in the Gaganyaan Mission and serves as a high-dose alarm sensor for gamma radiation. The spacecraft has a mission life of one year.
Hence both statements are correct
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/isro-likely-launch-earth-observation-satellite-8-august-15-9498854/
Consider the following statements with reference to the e-rupee:
- It is a digital currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India.
- The central bank pays interest on e-rupees which are kept in users’ wallets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Fintech companies including are looking to join the Indian central bank’s digital currency project by allowing their users to transact in e-rupee via Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
The e-rupee, or the digital rupee, is a digital currency issued by the RBI.
The digital rupee was launched on a pilot basis in December 2022. At the time, the currency was offered by a select group of public and private banks in a few major cities and could be used for both person-to-person and person-to-merchant transactions.
It is aimed at creating an additional option for using money. The digital rupee is available entirely in electronic form and does not leave a computer network.
It is like banknotes issued by the RBI and is a legal tender that can be used to make transactions. The only difference is that they can only be transacted online.
The digital rupee in users’ wallets does not attract interest payments from the central bank. However, deposits held in banks can be converted into digital rupees and vice versa for ease of use.
RBI has demarcated the digital rupee into two broad categories: general purpose (retail) and wholesale.
This demarcation is based on the usage and the functions performed by the digital rupee and considering the different levels of accessibility.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/what-is-e-rupee-and-why-do-google-pay-phonepe-want-to-join-rbis-digital-rupee-project/article68495234.ece
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘carry trade’?
It is a trade strategy which involves borrowing at a low rate and investing in a higher-yielding asset.
Explanation :
Recently, major stock markets across the world experienced their sharpest decline in decades and the yen carry trade was one reason behind this decline.
A carry trade is a trading strategy that involves borrowing at a low-interest rate and investing in an asset that provides a higher rate of return.
It is typically based on borrowing in a low-interest rate currency and converting the borrowed amount into another currency.
Generally, the proceeds would be deposited in the second currency if it offers a higher interest rate.
The proceeds also could be deployed into assets such as stocks, commodities, bonds, or real estate that are denominated in the second currency.
Yen Carry trade
The Japanese yen is considered one of the most widely used currencies for this purpose.
In yen carry trade, investors, including retail Japanese investors borrow at a low interest rate at home and purchase assets in another country with higher returns, such as overseas equities and bonds.
The yen has been popular for carry trades because Japan has maintained a zero-interest rate policy for over two decades.
The idea behind low interest rates is to stimulate economic activity.
For instance, such low interest rates incentivise investors to borrow cheaply in yen and invest in other countries (such as Brazil, Mexico, India and even the US) in a bid to earn better returns. Such carry trades are called yen carry trades.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/yen-carry-trade-stock-markets-crash-9498775/
Consider the following statements regarding the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission:
- It is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1998.
- It issue licences to persons to function as transmission licensee and electricity trader.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Central Government of India appointed Shri Harish Dudani as Member in Central Electricity Regulatory Commission.
It is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the provisions of the Electricity Regulatory Commissions Act, 1998.
It is the Central Commission for the purposes of the Electricity Act, 2003, which has repealed the ERC Act, 1998.
Composition: The Commission consists of a Chairperson and four other members including the Chairperson, Central Electricity Authority, who is an ex-officio Member of the Commission.
The Commission intends to promote competition, efficiency, and economy in bulk power markets, improve the quality of supply, promote investments, and advise government on the removal of institutional barriers to bridge the demand supply gap and thus foster the interests of consumers.
Functions:
To regulate the tariff of generating companies owned or controlled by the Central Government;
To regulate the tariff of generating companies other than those owned or controlled by the Central Government specified in clause (a), if such generating companies enter into or otherwise have a composite scheme for generation and sale of electricity in more than one State;
To regulate the inter-State transmission of electricity;
To determine tariff for inter-State transmission of electricity;
To issue licences to persons to function as transmission licensee and electricity trader with respect to their inter-State operations;
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2042163
Consider the following statements regarding Quality Council of India’s (QCI) Surajya Recognition & Ranking Framework:
- It aims to recognise and reward states and organizations that excel in quality and innovation.
- It is categorized under two pillars namely Education and Governance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Quality Council of India introduced QCI Surajya Recognition & Ranking Framework to Drive Excellence in Key Sectors.
It is an empowering initiative designed to drive excellence among states to improve quality of life of citizens for a Viksit Bharat.
It aims to create a developed India by recognizing and rewarding states and organizations that excel in quality and innovation.
This framework is categorized under four pillars: Shiksha (Education), Swasthya (Health), Samriddhi (Prosperity), and Sushasan (Governance).
The Surajya Recognition acknowledges the outstanding performance and commitment to quality by states and organisations in these vital areas.
The August rankings focus on Shiksha, Swasthya, and Samriddhi, with Sushasan to feature in future editions.
In the Shiksha Rankings, Uttar Pradesh leads with the highest number of accreditations, assessments, and ratings. Delhi, as a union territory, also ranks prominently.
In the Swasthya category, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan, Mizoram and Manipur stand out with complete certification in the Ayushman Arogya Yojana (NABH), while Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra lead in the Medical Entry Level Testing Labs (MELT) rankings (NABL).
Among the union territories, Chandigarh excels with 100% certification in Ayushman Arogya Yojana, and Jammu & Kashmir shows commendable performance with a 71.43% certification rate. Delhi, followed by Jammu & Kashmir, excels in MELT.
In the Samriddhi category, Gujarat, Karnataka, and Rajasthan lead with the highest number of ZED certifications, particularly in the Micro category. Jammu & Kashmir and Delhi also achieved significant certifications in ZED. For the MSME Competitive LEAN Scheme, Maharashtra and Bihar are the top performers.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2042065
Consider the following statements with reference to the Neutron Stars:
- Rotating radio transients (RRATs) are neutron stars that emit pulses of radiation at very regular intervals.
- Magnetars are neutron stars with an ultrahigh magnetic field that is much stronger than the terrestrial magnetic field.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Astronomers recently discovered ten strange dead stars, or “neutron stars,” lurking near the heart of the Milky Way.
About Neutron Stars:
Neutron stars are extremely dense and compact celestial objects formed when a massive star runs out of fuel and collapses.
The very central region of the star, ‘the core’, collapses, crushing together every proton and electron into a neutron.
If the core of the collapsing star is between about 1 and 3 solar masses, these newly-created neutrons can stop the collapse, leaving behind a neutron star. (Stars with higher masses will continue to collapse into stellar-mass black holes).
Since neutron stars began their existence as stars, they are scattered throughout the galaxy in the same places where we find stars. And like stars, they can be found by themselves or in binary systems with a companion.
Neutron stars are typically about 20 km (12 miles) in diameter.
Their masses range between 1.18 and 1.97 times that of the Sun, but most are 1.35 times that of the Sun.
Many neutron stars are likely undetectable because they simply do not emit enough radiation.
Most neutron stars are observed as pulsars.
Pulsars are rotating neutron stars observed to have pulses of radiation at very regular intervals that typically range from milliseconds to seconds.
Pulsars have very strong magnetic fields, which funnel jets of particles out along the two magnetic poles.
These accelerated particles produce very powerful beams of light.
Neutron stars are also seen as objects called rotating radio transients (RRATs) and as magnetars.
The RRATs are sources that emit single radio bursts but at irregular intervals ranging from four minutes to three hours. The cause of the RRAT phenomenon is unknown.
Magnetars are neutron stars having an ultrahigh magnetic field that is much stronger than the terrestrial magnetic field.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.space.com/pulsars-terzan-5-neutron-stars
What type of pathogen is Candida auris (C. auris)?
Fungal
Explanation :
Researchers recently discovered a new clade (or type) of Candida auris, bringing the number of clades known globally to a total of six.
About Candida Auris (C. auris):
It is a fungal pathogen that is often multi-drug-resistant.
It is capable of causing invasive infections in the human body.
It can cause a range of infections,from superficial (skin) infections to more severe, life-threatening infections, such as bloodstream infections.
It can cause infection in different parts of the body, like the blood, wounds, and ears.
It was first identified in Japan in 2009.
How is it contracted?
Most cases of the fungus have been reported in healthcare settings, such as hospitals and nursing homes.
It is generally thought to be spread through contact with contaminated surfaces or by person-to-person transmission.
People who are already suffering from other medical conditions, recent hospital stays, and invasive devices are most at risk of contracting the fungus.
How does the fungus act on the body? There are two ways C. auris can affect the body,
The fungus can either live on a specific region, such as the skin, rectum, or mouth, in a process called “asymptomatic colonization,” where a patient has no symptomsbut can spread it to other people.
It can enter the bloodstream or wounds, where it can cause severe invasive infections.
Symptoms:
Its symptoms are often similar to those of other common diseases, and hence diagnosis is difficult.
The most common symptoms of C.auris include fever and chills that don’t go away after treatment with antibiotics.
Mortality Rate: It is estimated to be between 30-60%.
Treatment:
Most C. auris infections are treatable with antifungal drugs called echinocandins.
However, some C. auris infections are resistant to the main types of antifungal medications, making them more difficult to treat.
In this situation, multiple antifungals at high doses may be required to treat the infection.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-08-candida-auris-global-health-threat.html
With reference to Waqf, consider the following statements:
- It refers to a property dedicated in the name of God for religious and charitable purposes.
- It can be established through a deed or instrument.
- Waqfs in India are regulated by the Waqf Act, 1995.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A contentious bill to amend 44 sections of the Waqf Act of 1995 - including changing it to ensure representation of non-Muslim individuals and Muslim women in central and state Waqf bodies - is likely to be tabled in the Lok Sabha.
About Waqf:
Under the Waqf Act of 1954, a Waqf refers to a property dedicated in the name of God for religious and charitable purposes.
Legally, it is the permanent dedication by a Muslim of any movable or immovable propertyfor purposes recognised by Muslim law as pious, religious, or charitable.
A Waqf can be established through a deed or instrument, or a property can be considered a Waqf if it has been used for religious or charitable purposes over a long period.
The proceeds from a Waqf typically fund educational institutions, graveyards, mosques, and shelter homes.
Once a property is designated as a Waqf, it becomes non-transferable and is detained perpetually as a charitable act toward God, essentially transferring ownership to God.
Waqfs can be either public, serving charitable ends, or private, benefiting the property owner’s direct descendants.
To create a Waqf, one must be of sound mind and hold valid ownership of the property.
The creator of a Waqf, known as the Waqif, does not have to be a Muslim, as long as they profess belief in Islamic principles.
How is a Waqf governed?
Waqfs in India are regulated by the Waqf Act, 1995.
A survey commissionerlists all properties declared as Waqf by conducting local investigations, summoning witnesses, and requisitioning public documents.
The Waqf is managed by a mutawali, who acts as a supervisor.
Unlike trusts established under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882, which can serve broader purposes and be dissolved by the board, Waqfs are specifically forreligious and charitableuses and are intended to be perpetual.
What is a Waqf Board?
A Waqf board is a legal entitycapable of acquiring, holding, and transferring property.
It can sue and be sued in court.
Each state has a Waqf Board led by a chairperson, including nominees from the state government, Muslim legislators, parliamentarians, members of the state Bar Council, Islamic scholars, and mutawalis (managers) of Waqfs with an annual income of Rs 1 lakh and above.
The Waqf Board administers Waqf properties, recovers lost properties, and sanctions the transfer of immovable Waqf properties through sale, gift, mortgage, exchange, or lease, with at least two-thirds of the board membersvotingin favour of the transaction.
The boardappoints custodians to ensure the Waqf and its revenue are used for their designated purposes.
The Central Waqf Council (CWC), established in 1964, oversees and advises state-level Waqf Boards across India.
Waqf Act 1995:
It is comprehensive legislation enacted by the Indian government to improve the administration and management of waqf properties.
It establishes the Central Waqf Council and State Waqf Boards, distributingpowers between Chief Executive Officers and Waqf Boards.
Key provisions include the mandatory registration of all Waqfs with the Waqf Board, the maintenance of a central register of Waqfs, the authority of Waqf Boards to appoint executive officers, the removal of encroachments from Waqf properties, the preparation of annual budgets for waqf maintenance, and the maintenance of records and inspection of Waqf properties.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/waqf-act-amendment-explainer-women-non-muslims-on-boards-council-cant-claim-land-waqf-act-changes-6282656
With reference to different categories of Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP), consider the following statements:
- The Vigyan Shri (VS) award will recognize lifetime achievements and contributions made in any field of science and technology.
- The Vigyan Ratna (VR) award will recognize distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology.
- The Vigyan Team (VT) award is given to a team comprising three or more scientists who have made an exceptional contribution in any field of science and technology.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
The central government recently announced the full list of the first-ever Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP) 2024 awardees.
About Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (RVP):
It is a new set of awards introduced by the Government of India in the field of Science, Technology, and Innovation.
Objective: To recognize the notable and inspiring contributions made by scientists, technologists, and innovators individually or in teams in various fields of science, technology, and technology-led innovation.
It is one of the highest recognitions in the field of science, technology, and innovation in India.
Eligibility:
Scientists/ technologists/innovators working in government, private sector organizations,or any individual working outside any organization who have made distinguished contributions in terms of path-breaking research, innovation, or discovery in any field of science, technology, or technology- led innovation shall be eligible for the awards.
People of Indian origin staying abroad with exceptional contributions benefitingIndian communities or society shall also be eligible for the awards.
Scientists will be selected across 13 domains, namely Physics, Chemistry, Biological Sciences, Mathematics & Computer Science, Earth Science, Medicine, Engineering Sciences, Agricultural Science, Environmental Science, Technology & Innovation, Atomic Energy, Space Science and Technology, and Others.
The representation from each domain/field, including gender parity will be ensured.
The awards shall be given in following four categories:
Vigyan Ratna (VR) award will recognize lifetime achievements and contributions made in any field of science and technology.
Vigyan Shri (VS) award will recognize distinguished contributions in any field of science and technology.
Vigyan Yuva-Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (VY-SSB) award will recognize and encourage young scientists up to the age of 45 years who made an exceptional contribution in any field of science and technology.
Vigyan Team (VT) award to be given to a team comprising three or more scientists/researchers/innovators who have made an exceptional contribution working in a team in any field of science and technology.
All nominations received for the RVP awards are placed before the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Committee (RVPC), headed by the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India.
The award ceremony for all categories of awards will be held on 23rd August (National Space Day). All Awards will have a Sanad and a medal.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://news.abplive.com/news/india/rashtriya-vigyan-puraskar-2024-isro-chandrayaan-3-national-space-day-1708675
Consider the following statements regarding Clouded Leopard:
- It is a wild cat endemic to the Himalayas.
- It is classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The Mizoram governor drew attention to the critical challenges in wildlife conservation during a function to observe International Clouded Leopard Day recently.
About Clouded Leopard:
It is a wild cat inhabiting dense forests of the Himalayas through mainland Southeast Asia into South China.
There are two species of clouded leopards: the clouded leopard (Neofelis nebulosa) and the Sunda clouded leopard (Neofelis diardi).
Habitat and Distribution:
It is found across Southeast Asia and the Himalayas in the following countries: southern China, Bhutan, Nepal, northeast India, Burma, Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia, Cambodia, Laos, and Bangladesh.
Throughout its range, the clouded leopard spends most of the time in the tropical evergreen rainforests but can also be found in dry tropical forests and mangrove swamps.
It has been found at relatively high altitudesin the Himalayas.
In India, it is found in Sikkim, northern West Bengal, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram, Manipur, Assam, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.
It is the State animal of Meghalaya.
Features:
It is a medium-sized cat, 60 to 110 cm long and weighing between 11 and 20kg.
It is named after the distinctive ‘clouds’ on its coat - ellipses partially edged in black, with the insides a darker colour than the background colour of the pelt.
The base of the fur is a pale yellow to rich brown, making the darker cloud-like markings look even more distinctive.
It has an exceptionally long tail for balancing, which can be as long as the body itself, thick with black ring markings.
It has a stocky build and, proportionately, the longest canine teeth of any living feline.
It has relatively short legs and broad paws which make it excellent at climbing trees and creeping through thick forest.
It can climb while hanging upside-down under branches and descend tree trunks head-first.
It is a solitary animal.
Conservation status: Both the species are classified as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUC Red List.
Hence both statements are not correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/mizoram-guv-calls-for-protecting-rare-species-on-clouded-leopard-day/articleshow/112313895.cms
Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is situated in which one of the following States?
Chhattisgarh
Explanation :
The Chhattisgarh government on Wednesday announced that it would establish a new tiger reserve and named it as Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve.
It is located in the northern part of the state Chhattisgarh, bordering Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand.
This will be the fourth Tiger Reserve in Chhattisgarh, after the Udanti-Sitanadi, Achanakmar, and Indravati Reserves.
It is spread across the combined areas of the Guru Ghasidas National Park and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary in Chhattisgarh.
Fauna: This area is home to various mammal species, including tigers, leopards, hyenas, jackals, wolves, sloth bears, barking deer, chinkara, and chital.
Rivers: It serves as the origin of significant rivers such as Hasdeo Gopad and Baranga and a catchment area for rivers like Neur, Bijadhur, Banas, Rehand, and numerous smaller rivers and rivulets.
Guru Ghasidas National Park
It connects Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh and provides a corridor for tigers to move between the Bandhavgarh and Palamau Tiger Reserves.
It was originally part of the Sanjay Dubri National Park, Guru Ghasidas Park was created as a separate entity in Chhattisgarh’s Sarguja region after the formation of the state in 2001.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/chhattisgarh/chhattisgarh-govt-to-develop-fourth-tiger-reserve-in-state/article68497808.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Pyrocumulonimbus clouds:
- These are formed because of extremely hot wildfires or volcanic eruptions.
- These clouds cause heavy rainfall.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The wildfires currently raging in the United States and Canada are so intense that they have created ‘pyrocumulonimbus’ clouds, which have the potential to spit out thunder and spark more fires.
They occur only when there is an extremely hot wildfire and volcanic eruptions can also lead to the formation of pyrocumulonimbus clouds.
Formation
The intense heat from the fire warms the surrounding air which moves upward into the atmosphere.
As this hot and very buoyant air — carrying water vapour, smoke, and ash — rises, it expands and cools down. Once it is cool enough, water vapour condenses on ash, forming a grey or brown cloud.
At this stage, the cloud is known as a pyrocumulus cloud, also known as ‘fire cloud’.
If there is sufficient water vapour available and the upward movement of hot air intensifies, pyrocumulus clouds can evolve into a pyrocumulonimbus cloud.
These clouds can reach heights of 50,000 feet and generate their own systems of thunderstorms.
Although pyrocumulonimbus clouds can produce lighting, they do not generate much rain.
As a result, they can spark new wildfires many kilometres away from the main blaze. These clouds can also trigger strong winds that can make the spread of the wildfire faster and unpredictable.
Scientists believe that climate change could have a role to play in the increase of their frequency.
Studies have shown that with temperatures soaring across the world, wildfires are becoming more common and intense.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Coastal Mission Scheme:
- It aims to address the impact of climate change on coastal and marine ecosystems.
- It is implemented by the State Governments of Coastal States and Union Territory (UT) Administrations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of State for Environment, Forest and Climate Change informed the Lok Sabha about the National Coastal Mission Scheme.
It was launched in 2014.
It has been envisaged under the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
It aims to address impact of climate change on coastal and marine ecosystems, infrastructure and communities in coastal areas through a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures
It is under the National Coastal Management Program is implemented with the following components:
Management Action Plan on Conservation of Mangroves and Coral Reefs
Research & Development in Marine and Coastal ecosystem
Sustainable Development of Beaches under Beach Environment & Aesthetic Management Service
Capacity Building / Outreach Programme of Coastal States/UTs on conservation of marine and coastal ecosystems including beach cleaning drive.
Implementation: The implementing agencies of NCM are the State Governments of Coastal States and Union Territory (UT) Administrations.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2041455
Consider the following statements regarding the Eta Carinae:
- It is a hypergiant star located in the Carina Nebula.
- It is the only known star to emit natural laser light.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Astronomers are closely monitoring Eta Carinae, as it may be on the verge of a spectacular explosion.
It is a hypergiant star with a mass approximately 100 times that of our Sun.
Location: It is located about 7,500 light-years away in the Carina Nebula, Eta Carinae is one of the most massive and luminous stars known to science, making it an excellent candidate for a supernova.
Historical records reveal that about 170 years ago, the star underwent a significant outburst, known as the Great Eruption, which temporarily made it one of the brightest stars in the southern sky.
This event created the Homunculus Nebula, a distinctive hourglass-shaped cloud of gas and dust that surrounds the star.
Unique characteristics
It is the only known star to emit natural laser light, adding to its enigmatic nature.
Recently the Hubble Space Telescope highlighted the intricate details of the surrounding nebula, including diffraction spikes and radial streaks, which remain unexplained.
Eta Carinae’s eventual supernova will be a monumental event, potentially outshining any supernova observed in recent history, including SN 2006gy.
When it does explode, it will provide an extraordinary light show visible from Earth and offer invaluable insights into the life cycles of massive stars.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/star-100-times-greater-than-the-sun-is-rearing-to-explode-anytime-2578260-2024-08-07
Bhoj Wetland, recently in news is located in:
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Government denied that the international Ramsar site, Bhoj Wetland in Bhopal faces no threat of delisting from Ramsar Convention list of wetlands of International importance.
Location: It is located in the city of Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
It consists of two contiguous human-made reservoirs, the upper and lower lakes.
The Upper lake is called Bhojtal (Bada Talaab) and the Lower Lake is known as Chhota Talaab.
The Upper Lake is surrounded by Van Vihar National Park on the south, human settlements on the east and north, and agriculture fields on the west.
The Upper Lake is a major source of potable water for Bhopal.
Fauna: The lakes are very rich in biodiversity, particularly for macrophytes, phytoplankton and zooplankton.
It has more than 15 kinds of fish and several vulnerable species, including turtles, amphibians and aquatic invertebrates.
It was designated as the Ramsar site in 2002.
What is the Ramsar Convention?
This convention was signed on 2nd February 1971 to preserve the ecological character of their wetlands of international importance.
It is named after Ramsar, the Iranian city where the treaty was signed in 1971, and places chosen for conservation under it are given the tag ‘Ramsar site’.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Aug/06/bhoj-wetland-in-bhopal-faces-no-threat
What is the primary function of the Cheque Truncation System (CTS), recently seen in the news?
To capture cheque images and transmit them electronically for clearing.
Explanation :
For expeditious clearance of cheques, the RBI recently announced measures on Continuous Clearing of Cheques under Cheque Truncation System (CTS).
About Cheque Truncation System (CTS):
What is Cheque Truncation? Truncation is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque issued by a drawer at some point by the presenting bank en-route to the paying bank branch.
What is CTS?It is an online image-based cheque clearing system where cheque images and Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (MICR) data are captured at the collecting bank branch and transmitted electronically,eliminating the actual cheque movement.
Security: CTS is protected by a comprehensive PKI-based security architecture which incorporates basic security and authentication controls such as dual access control, user ID, and passwords with cryptobox and smart card interfaces.
Only CTS-2010 standards compliant instruments can be presented for clearing through CTS.
CTS-2010 standards contain certain benchmarks towards achieving standardization of cheques issued by banks across the country.
These include provision of mandatory minimum-security features on cheque forms like quality of paper, watermark, bank’s logo in invisible ink, void pantograph, etc., and standardisation of field placements on cheques.
The minimum-security features and standardisation help presenting banks while scrutinising / recognising cheques of drawee banks in an image-based processing scenario.
Benefits.
Realisation of proceeds of cheque possible within the same day.
Data storage and retrieval becomes easy.
Minimizes risks and introduces a secured cheque clearing system.
Will result in cost savings due to lower cost in the physical movement of cheques.
Minimizing bottlenecks and delays between presentation and realization time.
Provides shorter clearing cycles and a centralized image archival system.
CTS currently processes cheques with a clearing cycle of up to two working days. Once the newly announced measures by RBI on Continuous Clearing of Cheques under CTS are implemented, cheques would be cleared within hours of submission instead of two days.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-announces-continuous-clearing-of-cheques-under-cts/article68500069.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Kasturi Cotton Bharat:
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Textiles.
- A blockchain-based software platform is being used to ensure traceability and certification of Kasturi Cotton Bharat-tagged bales.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The ministry of textiles has empowered cotton ginners across the country to produce Kasturi Cotton Bharat brand, based on the QR code certification technology, as per stipulated protocol.
About Kasturi Cotton Bharat:
It is an initiative of the Ministry of Textiles, Textile Trade Bodies, and Industry with the objective of creating premium value for cotton grown in India as per benchmarked specifications.
It is a pioneering effort in traceability, certification, and branding of Indian cotton.
It was formalised through the signing of a memorandum of understanding (MoU)between the Cotton Corporation of India and the Cotton Textiles Export Promotion Council on 15 December 2022.
To provide complete traceability of Kasturi Cotton Bharat-tagged bales across the supply chain, QR-based certification technology is being used at each stage of the processing, and a Block-chain based software platform will provide end-to-end traceability and transaction certificates.
In this regard, Microsites with QR code verification and Blockchain technology have been developed.
The Kasturi Cotton Bharat programme is operational at the national level, and its promotion is being made at national and international platforms. Hence, the allocation of funds is not at state level.
Ginners across the country have been empowered to produce Kasturi Cotton Bharat brand as per stipulated protocol.
What is Ginning?
It is one of the most important steps of the spinning process.
After collecting seed cotton from the farm or field, cotton moves to nearby Gins for separation of seed, lint, and any other foreign particles.
Ginning is the process to get the cleaned cotton by separating or removing the seeds, dust, or any other foreign particles, so that better cotton can be offered for the cotton spinning mills.
It was traditionally done by hand, but nowadays, machines are used.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.domain-b.com/economy/government-policies/ginners-across-the-country-empowered-to-produce-kasturi-cotton-bharat-brand-minister
With reference to Monkeypox (Mpox), consider the following statements:
- It is a viral zoonotic disease.
- The mortality rate associated with it is above 90%.
- There is no specific treatment for this disease.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The World Health Organisation (WHO) recently called an emergency meeting to discuss the outbreak of monkeypox (Mpox) amid the recent surge in cases from Congo.
About Monkeypox (Mpox):
It is a viral zoonotic disease caused by the monkeypox virus.
This virus is part of the same family as the virus that causes smallpox.
The first human case of mpox was recorded in 1970 in the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC).
Despite being named “monkeypox” originally, the source of the disease remains unknown.
There are two known types (clades) of mpox virus — one that originated in Central Africa (Clade I) and one that originated in West Africa (Clade II).
It’s found mostly in areas of Africa, but has been seen in other regions of the world.
Symptoms: Common symptoms of mpox are a skin rash or mucosal lesions, which can last 2–4 weeksaccompanied by fever, headache, muscle aches, back pain, low energy, and swollen lymph nodes.
The mortality rate of mpox ranges from 0-11% in outbreaks, with young children being the most affected.
Transmission:
Mpox spreads when you come into contact with an animal or a person infected with the virus.
Human-to-human transmission of mpox occurs through direct contact withbody fluids, lesions, prolonged face-to-face contact, including sexual contact, and indirect contact with contaminated materials.
Treatment:
There are no specific treatments for Mpox virus infection.
Early and supportive care is important to help manage symptoms and avoid further problems.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/monkeypox-outbreak-who-calls-emergency-meeting-to-assess-global-concern-all-you-need-to-know-101723108569064.html
The city of Kursk, recently seen in the news, is located in which one of the following countries?
Russia
Explanation :
A state of emergency has been declared in Kursk following a Ukrainian incursion into the Russian border region.
About Kursk Region:
Kursk is a city and administrative centre of Kursk oblast (region) located on the south-western border of Russia.
It is situated in the centre of the European part of Russia.
It lies along the upper Seym River, about 280 miles (450 km) south of Moscow.
It is located in the area known as the Black Earth territory due to its fertile soil.
The climate is moderately continental.
History:
Kursk is one of the oldest cities in Russia. It was first mentioned in documents from 1032.
Completely destroyed by the Tatars in 1240, it was not rebuilt until 1586, when it became a military outpost to protect the advancing Russian colonization from Tatar attack.
The town, however, lost much of its importance at the beginning of the 18th century when the Russian border was moved farther south.
In World War II, fierce fighting took place around Kursk and the city was severely damaged; the Battle of Kursk in July–August 1943, the largest tank battle in World War II, ended in the defeat of the Germans.
Industries:
Kursk’s industries include machine building, food processing, and the manufacture of electronic equipment and synthetic fibers.
A large nuclear power station was completed in 1979.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.cnbc.com/2024/08/08/state-of-emergency-declared-in-kursk-as-ukrainians-and-russians-clash.html
Dudhwa Tiger Reserve lies in which one of the following states?
Uttar Pradesh
Explanation :
A 45-year-old man who entered Dudhwa Tiger Reserve (DTR) forest area to collect wild mushrooms was killed by a herd of elephants recently.
About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located on the Indo-Nepal border in the district Lakhimpur-Kheri in Uttar Pradesh.
It includes the Dudhwa National Park, and two nearby Sanctuaries, viz. Kishanpur and Katerniaghat, besides forest areas of North Kheri, South Kheri, and Shahjahanpur forest divisions in its buffer.
It is a typical Tarai-Bhabar habitat of the upper Gangetic plains Biogeographic province.
Rivers: The Sharda River flows by the Kishanpur WL Sanctuary, the Geruwa River flows through the Katerniaghat WL Sanctuary, and the Suheli and Mohana streams flow in the Dudhwa National Park, all of which are tributaries of the mighty Ghagra River.
Vegetation: The vegetation is of the North Indian Moist Deciduous type, containing some of the finest examples of Sal forests (Shorea robusta) in India.
Flora: The flora is predominantly Sal Forest along with its associate tree species like Terminalia alata (Asna), Lagerstroemia parviflora (Asidha), Adina cordifolia (Haldu), Mitragyna parviflora (Faldu), Gmelina arborea (Gahmhar), Holoptelea integrifolia (Kanju), etc.
Fauna:
The major mammals include: Guldar, Tiger, Fishing cat, Monkey, Langur, Mongoose, Small Indian Mongoose, small Indian civet, Jackal, etc.
Birds include a wide variety of species, which include migratory and resident ones like Dabchick, spot billed pelican, Large cormorant, little cormorant, Grey Heron, White stork, Black storck, White Ibis, etc.
Reptiles include: Mugger, Gharial, Python, Sandboa, Banded krait, Russel’s viper, Rat snake, etc.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bareilly/man-trampled-to-death-by-elephants-in-dudhwa-tiger-reserve/articleshow/112388963.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Nandini Sahakar Scheme:
- It is aimed at assisting women cooperatives under the purview of the National Cooperative Development Corporation.
- Under this maximum financial assistance of 25 lakh rupees is provided to women cooperatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Minister of Cooperation informed the Rajya Sabha about the Nandini Sahakar Scheme.
It is aimed at assisting women cooperatives to take up business model based activities under the purview of the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).
It is a women focused framework of financial assistance, project formulation, hand-holding and capacity development.
Funding: There is no minimum or maximum limit on financial assistance to projects by women cooperatives.
NCDC provides 2% interest subvention on its rate of interest on term loan portion for new and innovative activities.
1% interest subvention on its rate of interest on term loan portion for all other activities resulting in lower borrowing costs of women cooperatives.
Eligibility
Any cooperative society with three months in operation is eligible to apply for assistance which will be in the form of credit linkage for infrastructure term loan.
Women cooperatives are those which are registered as women cooperatives under any State / Central Act or those cooperatives which have minimum 50% women as primary members.
Significance
The scheme is a framework of assistance to improve socio-economic status of women.
It supports entrepreneurial dynamism of women through women cooperatives.
It converges critical inputs of women’s enterprise, business plan formulation, capacity development, credit and subsidy and interest subvention of other schemes.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2042682
Consider the following statements regarding the Triboelectric Nanogenerator (TENG) Technology:
- It is a self-powered, feasible solution to convert mechanical energy into electricity.
- It can be used to track the location of senior citizens suffering from Alzheimer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Indore has designed special shoes for soldiers equipped with a Triboelectric Nanogenerator (TENG) Technology.
It is a self-powered, feasible solution to convert mechanical energy into electricity.
The electricity will get stored in a device fixed in the soles and can be used to operate small appliances
Features: It is equipped with a global positioning system (GPS) and radio frequency identification (RFID) technologies, these shoes can help determine the location of personnel in real-time.
Applications
The TENG technology can be used to track the location of senior citizens suffering from Alzheimer’s, school children and climbers and can help monitor the attendance and work of workers in factories
These shoes can also accurately analyse the movements of sportspersons to improve their performance.
For trekking and mountaineering enthusiasts, the shoes provide reliable tracking during expeditions with their self-powered GPS feature, ensuring safety and efficient navigation.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/education/news/iit-indore-develops-shoes-that-generate-electricity-track-location-in-real-time-for-armed-forces-101722931777680.html
Consider the following statements regarding Gout:
- It is a common form of arthritis that can affect anyone.
- It results from increased uric acid in the blood serum of the human body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Lucknow based CSIR-NBRI has developed a herbal product called ‘NBRI-Gout Out’ which is a combination of five medicinal plants, to address the problem of Gout.
It is a common and complex form of arthritis that can affect anyone.
Cause: It is resulting from increased uric acid in blood serum.
It occurs more often in men, primarily because women tend to have lower uric acid levels.
Certain things can increase the body’s levels of uric acid, which may lead to gout includes:
Obesity, certain medicines, such as water pills (or diuretics), foods and drinks that are high in purines (a chemical compound that the body turns into uric acid) such as alcohol, sugary drinks etc
Symptoms
Intense joint pain: It usually affects the big toe, but it can occur in any joint. Other commonly affected joints include the ankles, knees, elbows, wrists and fingers.
Inflammation and redness. The affected joint or joints become swollen, tender, warm and red.
Treatment: Drugs such as allopurinol (Aloprim, Lopurin, Zyloprim) and febuxostat (Uloric) help limit the amount of uric acid your body makes.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2043237
Consider the following statements regarding the Homo floresiensis:
- They are a species of small archaic human inhabited the Indonesian island of Flores.
- They used bronze tools for hunting animals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A microscopic analysis of a 700,000-year-old miniature human arm and dental fossils has put an end to the debate on the origins of Homo floresiensis.
They are a species of small archaic human that inhabited the Indonesian island of Flores around 60,000 years ago.
They are nicknamed as ‘Hobbit’ and have so far only been found on the Island of Flores.
The fossils of H. floresiensis date to between about 100,000 and 60,000 years ago, and stone tools made by this species date to between about 190,000 and 50,000 years old.
Features:
Appearance: H. floresiensis individuals stood approximately 3 feet 6 inches tall, had tiny brains, large teeth for their small size, shrugged-forward shoulders, no chins, receding foreheads, and relatively large feet due to their short legs.
Tools used: Despite their small body and brain size, they made and used stone tools, hunted small elephants and large rodents, coped with predators such as giant Komodo dragons, and may have used fire.
The diminutive stature and small brain of them may have resulted from island dwarfism (an evolutionary process that results from long-term isolation on a small island with limited food resources and a lack of predators).
The smallest known species of Homo and Stegodon elephant are both found on the island of Flores, Indonesia.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/science/tinier-arm-shows-scientists-where-early-humans-hobbit-cousins-came-from-nature-study/2214510/
Lake Turkana, recently in news is located in:
Kenya
Explanation :
Recently, Lake Turkana was comprehensively surveyed by a team of scientists.
Location: It is located in the remote northern region of Kenya.
It lies in the Eastern Rift Valley with its far northern end extending to Ethiopia.
Three rivers, including Omo, Turkwel, and Kerio flow into the lake, but only the Omo River is perennial, contributing 90 percent of the inflow of water each year.
It stands as Africa’s fourth-largest lake and the largest permanent desert lake in the world.
It is designated as the UNESCO World Heritage site and is renowned for its unique biodiversity and cultural significance.
It is lying in a hot, arid, and remote region, provides resources for communities on the lakeshore and surrounding areas.
The estimated population of the Turkana region is approximately 1 million people, whose livelihoods are based on pastoralism, fishing, and, to a lesser extent, crop farming.
Issues: Its semi-saline waters, driven by high evaporation rates and fluctuating lake levels of up to 8 meters per decade, have historically hindered sustainable development initiatives.
Several past attempts to commercialize the fishery have largely failed, mainly due to a lack of understanding of the volatile conditions of this capricious lake.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.unesco.org/en/articles/lake-turkana-first-comprehensive-survey-50-years-highlights-key-findings
Lake Bolsena, the largest volcanic lake in Europe, is located in which one of the following countries?
Italy
Explanation :
An ancient clay figurine dating to the Iron Age has been found in Lake Bolsena, Italy.
About Lake Bolsena:
It is a volcanic lake located in the northern part of the province of Viterbo in the Lazio region of Italy.
It is the largest volcanic lake in Europe, covering a total area of 113.5 sq.km.
It is 13.5 km (8.4 miles) in length and 12 km (7.5 miles) in diameter.
Its formation began 370,000 years ago following the collapse of a caldera of the Vulsini volcano, which stayed active until 104 BC.
It is known for a strange phenomenon,known locally as “sessa”, which causes tidal-like movements in the lake.
The two islands, Martana and Bisentina, in the southern part of the lake were formed by underwater eruptions.
The shores of the lake are characterised by almost untouched nature, with forests, reed beds, and quiet coves, as well as cultivated fields, olive groves, and vineyards.
Towns Bordering: Capodimonte and Bolsena
What is a Volcanic Lake?
A volcanic lake is a body of water that forms within a volcanic crater, caldera, or a volcanic depression.
These lakes can develop after a volcanic eruption when the crater or caldera left behind fills with water, either from precipitation, groundwater, or melting ice and snow.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/travel-news/italy-ancient-3000-year-old-clay-figurine-discovered-underwater-with-fresh-finger-prints/amp_articleshow/112400480.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Hoverflies:
- They are soft-bodied insects that use their piercing sucking mouthparts to feed on plant sap.
- They are found worldwide, from temperate regions to tropical environments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Three Kashmiri scientists recently discovered a new species of hoverfly that mimics the wasp in the high-altitude alpine forests.
About Hoverflies:
Hoverflies, sometimes called ‘flower flies’ or ‘syrphid flies’, are any member of a family that contains about 6,000 species of insects in the fly order, Diptera.
Their various common names refer to the behaviour of hovering around flowers.
They are found worldwide, from temperate regions to tropical environments.
Hoverflies, with their yellow markings, resemble wasps or bees but do not bite or sting.
They can be readily distinguished from wasps and bees by their single pair of wings.
They are distinguished from other flies by a false (spurious) vein that closely parallels the fourth longitudinal wing vein.
The species vary from small, elongated, and slender to large, hairy, and yellow and black.
They also have a typical fly head with short antennae and bulbous eyes.
Beneficial insect:
Adults feed on nectar and pollen, making them important pollinators in a variety of habitats.
The larvae of many species feed on aphids (soft-bodied insects that use their piercing sucking mouthparts to feed on plant sap), mites and small insects helping to control populations of these pests.
Others are efficient nutrient recyclers.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/3-kashmiri-scientists-discover-new-species-of-hoverfly-6293851
With reference to the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), consider the following statements:
- It serves as the final fact-finding body in tax disputes, offering both taxpayers and the income tax authorities a convenient platform to resolve disputes.
- The orders passed by the ITAT are final, and an appeal lies to the High Court only if a substantial question of law arises for determination.
- It functions under the regional High Court’s jurisdiction and must adhere to the rules of the same.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Supreme Court, in a plea filed by news portal NewsClick for a stay on the income tax demand, directed that pending disposal of the appeal filed before the ITAT, there shall be a stay of further recovery of an outstanding amount.
About Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT):
It is a quasi-judicial institution set up in January, 1941 and specializes in dealing with appeals under the Direct Taxes Acts.
Starting in 1941 with six Members constituting three Benches - one each at Delhi, Kolkata (Calcutta), and Mumbai (Bombay), the numbers of Benches have progressively increased, and presently ITAT has 63 Benches at 27 different cities,covering almost all the cities having a seat of the High Court.
Each bench as an accountant member and a judicial member.
The Presidentof the ITAT constitutes a bench from among the members of the ITAT.
In some cases, a special bench with three or more members may be constituted to dispose of income tax appeals.
ITAT serves as the final fact-finding body in tax disputes, offering both taxpayers and the income tax authorities a convenient platform to resolve disputes.
It adjudicates appeals made under the Income Tax Act of 1961.
It functions under the Ministry of Law and Justice.
Who can file an appeal in ITAT?
A tax appeal can be filed by a taxpayer who does not agree with the assessment order or any other order, passed by an income-tax authority.
An appeal before the ITAT is generally filed by the taxpayer to contest any order passed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals).
Similarly, an income-tax department can also file an appeal against any order passed by the Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals) before the ITAT.
The orders passed by the ITAT are final. An appeal lies to the High Court only if a substantial question of law arises for determination.
ITAT functions under the regional High Court’s jurisdiction and must adhere to the rules of the same.
ITAT is subordinate to both the region’s High Court and the Indian Supreme Court.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-disposes-newsclicks-plea-stays-tax-recovery-until-disposal-of-itat-appeal-266269
Consider the following statements regarding Pinaka-MK3 weapon system:
- It is a Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL).
- It delivers lethal and responsive fire against a variety of area targets located within a range of 2000 km.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is equipping India with a formidable new weapon: the Pinaka-MK3, which is currently under development.
What is Pinaka?
Pinaka is a Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher (MBRL).
It is designed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a laboratory of the DRDO.
It delivers lethal and responsive fire against a variety of area targets, such as exposed enemy troops, armoured and soft-skin vehicles, communication centres, air terminal complexes, and fuel and ammunition dumps.
Features:
It consists of a multi-tube launcher vehicle, a replenishment-cum-loader vehicle, a replenishment vehicle, and a command post vehicle.
The rocket launcher has two pods containing six rockets each and can neutralise an area of 700 × 500 square meters within 48 seconds.
The 214 mm Pinaka rocket features a payload of 100 kilograms (220 pounds), with the option of a range of warheads such as anti-tank mines and blast-cum-pre-fragmented high explosives.
The launcher system is supported on four hydraulically actuated outriggers at the time of firing.
The system is mounted on a Tatra truck for mobility.
India already has several versions of the Pinaka rocket launcher system.
The range of the Pinaka Mk-1 is 48 kilometers, the Pinaka Mk-I Enhanced has a range of 60 kilometers and the Pinaka Mk-II has a range of 90 kilometers.
About Pinaka-MK3:
The advanced version follows in the footsteps of the original Pinaka system.
DRDO is working on two variants of the Pinaka-MK3 rocket launcher.
The first variant is expected to have a range of 120 kilometers or even more.
The range of the subsequent variants will be 300 kilometers.
The speed of the Pinaka-MK3 is 5757.70 kilometers per hour.
It has the capability to attack distant enemies and air attacks.
It can operate in any weather, making it an all-weather equipment.
Henceonly statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.news9live.com/india/drdo-developing-pinaka-mk3-long-range-rocket-launcher-to-boost-indias-strike-range-to-300-km-2649894
The Juanga tribe, recently seen in the news, primarily lives in which one of the following Indian states?
Odisha
Explanation :
The District Level Committee of Keonjhar in Odisha cleared the hurdle for habitat right under the Forest Rights Act (FRA) to the Juanga, a particularly vulnerable tribal group, by approving the claim recently.
About Juanga Tribe:
The Juanga, or Juang, is an indigenous community in India concentrated in Odisha’s Keonjhar district.
It is one of the 13 particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTG) of the total 62 tribes found in Odisha.
Originally known as Patuas because of their traditional attire of leaf skirts, the Juang now prefer clothing bought from local markets.
Language: Juang (Mundari). It belongs to the Austroasiatic language family.
Occupation:
Originally practitioners of shifting cultivation, some of them are now moving to settled agriculture.
Hunting is done occasionally, and Juangs of Pallahara are skilled basket weavers also.
They are skilled in the making of decorative combs and tobacco cases, and have also taken to domesticating fowl, pigs, goats and cows to supplement their income.
Political Council:
They have retained their effective traditional political council.
Pradhan is the formal headman of the political council, the post of which is not hereditary, and any senior person having manoeuvring capacity can be selected by the villagers.
Pradhan is expected to offer the final decision in aII secular matters.
Population: Odisha has 47,095 Juang population as per the Census 2011.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odisha/district-level-committee-in-odishas-keonjhar-district-approves-habitat-right-of-juanga-tribe/article68497213.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Trichophyton indotineae:
- It is a dermatophyte commonly known as ringworm.
- It can be treated by using itraconazole with close monitoring by healthcare providers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The rise of drug-resistant fungal infections, notably Trichophyton indotineae, is emerging as a significant health concern in India.
It is a dermatophyte commonly known as ringworm or jock itch.
First identified in India, this fungus has now spread to several countries worldwide.
It belongs to genotype VIII within the T. mentagrophytes/T. interdigitale species complex.
The inappropriate use of steroid creams has exacerbated the problem, making this strain particularly hard to treat.
Challenges and Symptoms
Patients often present with persistent, treatment-resistant rashes that can easily be mistaken for eczema or other skin conditions, delaying effective treatment.
The misdiagnosis of these infections often leads to the use of ineffective treatments, which not only prolongs patient suffering but also allows the infection to worsen.
Misdiagnosis and delayed treatment can lead to the spread of the infection, not only worsening the individual’s condition but also increasing the risk of transmission within the community.
Treatment
For infections resistant to standard antifungal medications, alternative treatments such as itraconazole are available but will require close monitoring by healthcare providers.
In addition to antifungal medications, integrating comprehensive skin care regimens can enhance treatment efficacy.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/is-there-an-emerging-threat-of-drug-resistant-fungal-infections-the-jock-itch-case-study/article68496013.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Clean Plant Programme:
- It prioritizes affordable access to clean plant material for all farmers, regardless of their landholding size.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister approved the Clean Plant Programme (CPP) proposed by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
It will prioritize affordable access to clean plant material for all farmers, regardless of their landholding size or socioeconomic status.
The Programme will actively engage women farmers in its planning and implementation, ensuring their access to resources, training and decision-making opportunities.
Also it will address the diverse agro-climatic conditions across India by developing region-specific clean plant varieties and technologies.
Core Components:
Clean Plant Centers (CPCs): Nine world class state-of-the-art CPCs, equipped with advanced diagnostic therapeutics and tissue culture labs, will be established across India.
These include Grapes (NRC, Pune), Temperate Fruits - Apple, Almond, Walnuts etc. (CITH, Srinagar &Mukteshwar), Citrus Fruits (CCRI, Nagpur & CIAH, Bikaner), Mango/Guava/Avacado (IIHR, Bangaluru), Mango/Guava/Litchi (CISH, Lucknow), Pomegranate (NRC, Sholapur) and Tropical/Sub-Tropical Fruits in Eastern India.
These centers will play a crucial role in producing and maintaining virus-free planting material meant for larger propagation.
Certification and Legal Framework: A robust certification system will be implemented, supported by a regulatory framework under the Seeds Act 1966, to ensure thorough accountability and traceability in planting material production and sale.
Enhanced Infrastructure: Support will be provided to large-scale nurseries for the development of infrastructure, facilitating the efficient multiplication of clean planting material.
Implementation: This programme will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board in association with Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2043920
Consider the following statements regarding Overnight Index Swap:
- It is a derivative instrument where returns under a fixed rate asset are swapped against a predetermined rate.
- It allows financial institutions to swap the interest rates by changing the terms of their existing loan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said that RBI has been reviewing the investment limit for foreign investors in the overnight index swap (OIS) market.
It is a derivative instrument where returns under a fixed rate asset are swapped against a predetermined published index of a daily overnight reference rate for an agreed period of time.
Purpose: The primary purpose of an OIS is to manage interest rate risk, particularly the risk associated with fluctuations in the overnight lending rate.
An overnight index swap rate is calculated each day.
This interest rate is based on the average interest rate institutions with loans based on the overnight rate have paid for that day.
How does an OIS work?
These are instruments that allow financial institutions to swap the interest rates they are paying without having to refinance or change the terms of their existing loan.
When two financial institutions create an overnight index swap, one of the institutions is swapping an overnight (floating) interest rate and the other institution is swapping a fixed short-term interest rate.
To get the swap rolling, both the firms would agree to continue servicing their loans, but at the end of a specified time period whoever ends up paying less interest will make up the difference to the other firm.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/rbi-to-review-fpi-investment-limit-in-overnight-index-swap-market-patra-124080801435_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Perseid meteor shower:
- It occurs every year in the month of August.
- They often generate fireballs which are big bursts of light and last longer than a regular shooting star.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Perseid meteor shower which is this year’s most-awaited meteor shower is set to peak on August 11.
The name Perseid is believed to be derived from the Perseus constellation.
It peaks during mid-August each year and is considered to be among the best meteor showers. Perseids, usually swift and bright, leave a trail of light and colour behind them as they traverse through the night sky.
It is also one of the most plentiful showers with nearly 100 meteors seen per hour.
The Perseids are special because they often generate fireballs.
Fireballs are big bursts of light and color that last longer than a regular shooting star.
This happens because fireballs come from larger pieces of material from comets.
Key facts about Meteor Shower
A meteor is a space rock that comes into Earth’s atmosphere.
As it falls, the air makes it really hot because of the friction.
The bright streak we see is not the rock itself, but the hot air around it.
When many space rocks hit the atmosphere over Earth together, we call it a meteor shower.
These meteors travel at incredible speeds, reaching tens of thousands of kilometers per hour before disintegrating due to the intense heat generated by friction with the atmosphere.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/perseid-meteor-shower-2024-origin-story-livestream-9504184/
Exercise Mitra Shakti, was conducted between India and:
Sri Lanka
Explanation :
The Indian Army and the Sri Lankan Army will kick off their joint exercise, “Mitra Shakti,” at Maduru Oya in Sri Lanka’s Southern Province.
It is a joint military exercise between India and the Sri Lankan army.
This year it is the 10th edition of the exercise.
A unit of 120 soldiers from the Indian Army’s Rajputana Rifles (Raj Rif) will participate in this exercise.
The focus of this year’s exercise is on joint operations in semi-urban environments, aligning with Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter, which deals with actions regarding threats to peace and security.
It aims to improve the operational proficiency of both armies by facilitating the exchange of skills, experiences, and best practices.
This collaboration is designed to enhance the armies’ abilities to handle contemporary security challenges, such as counter-terrorism and urban warfare.
An official noted that this exercise plays a significant role in strengthening defence ties and improving coordination between the Indian and Sri Lankan armed forces.
This annual event is crucial for fostering cooperation and enhancing interoperability between the two nations’ armed forces.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.financialexpress.com/business/defence-mitra-shakti-indian-and-sri-lankan-armies-to-begin-joint-exercise-3576341/
Consider the following statements regarding the Great Barrier Reef:
- It is located off the northeastern coast of Indonesia.
- It is the longest and largest reef complex in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Water temperatures in and around Australia’s Great Barrier Reef have risen to their warmest in 400 years over the past decade, according to a new study.
About Great Barrier Reef:
It is a complex of coral reefs, shoals, and islets in the Pacific Ocean.
It is located off the northeastern coast of Australia in the Coral Sea.
It is the longest and largest reef complex in the world. It is the largest living structure on Earth.
It extends in roughly a northwest-southeast direction for more than 2,300 km, at an offshore distance ranging from 16 to 160 km, and its width ranges from 60 to 250 km.
It has an area of some 350,000 square km.
The reef, which is large enough to be visible from space, is made up of nearly 3,000 individual reefs and over 900 islands.
UNESCO declared the Great Barrier Reef a World Heritage Site in 1981.
Much of the Great Barrier Reef is a marine protected area, managed by the Great Barrier Reef Marine Park Authority of Australia.
Biodiversity:
It is estimated that the reef is home to around 2000 species of fish and around 600 different coral species.
It is home to 4,000 mollusk species and over 250 different shrimp species.
The reef is also home to six of the seven known species of sea turtles, more than a dozen sea snakes, and nearly two dozen species of birds.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/ocean-temperatures-australia-great-barrier-reef-9506296/
Asceua tertia, recently seen in the news is a:
spider
Explanation :
A new species of ground-dwelling spider, Asceua tertia, was recently discovered in the Western Ghats.
About Asceua tertia:
It is a new species of ground-dwelling spider discovered from the Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary, which forms part of the Western Ghats.
It is the third species of the genus Asceua to be documented in India, the others being Asceua cingulata (Simon, 1905) and Asceua thrippalurensis (Sankaran, 2023).
This genus belongs to the ant-eating spider family Zodariidae and is distinguished by its small size, laterally compressed bulbs, well-developed cymbial folds, long and convoluted copulatory ducts, and dual femoral glands.
Features of Asceua tertia:
The size ranges from 2.54 mm in males to 3.2 mm in females.
The males of the species have a yellow-brown prosoma with creamy white to yellow-brown leg and palp segments featuring broad brown patches and narrow longitudinal stripes.
The abdomen displays three pairs of narrow, creamy white stripes arranged obliquely, a white dot near the rear, and numerous tiny creamy white spots on the sides.
The females have a dark brown prosoma and a wide, oval abdomen with four pairs of creamy white stripes, along with small anterior and broad posterior creamy white patches on the sides.
Key Facts about Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is a protected area located in the Western Ghats of India, in the Kollam district of Kerala.
This sanctuary derives its name from Chenkurinji (Gluta travancorica), a tree species endemic to this region.
It comes under the control of the Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve.
Flora: Tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests cover a major area of the sanctuary.
Fauna: Includes tigers, gaurs, elephants, sambar deers, sloth bears, Malabar Raven, Malabar banded swallowtail, Red-disc Bushbrown, etc.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-ground-dwelling-spider-species-discovered-in-western-ghats/article68509566.ece
With reference to the Yamuna River, consider the following:
- Chambal
- Hindon
- Betwa
- Sarda
How many of the above are tributaries of the Yamuna River?
All four
Explanation :
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has sought explanations from DDA, the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and several other agencies regarding construction on the Yamuna floodplain.
About Yamuna River:
Yamuna River (also known as Jumna) is the major tributary of the Ganges River.
Origin: It rises in the high Himalaya, in the Yamunotri Glacier, at the height of 4,421 meters.
Course:
The 1,376 km long Yamuna flows solely through India, crossing three states: Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Haryana.
After rising in the high himalayas, it flows in a southerly direction swiftly through the Himalayan foothills and, exiting Uttarakhand, onto the Indo-Gangetic Plain, along the border between Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana state to the west. The Eastern and Western Yamuna canals are fed from the river at that point.
The Yamuna then passes Delhi, where it feeds the Agra Canal.
South of Delhi, and now wholly within Uttar Pradesh, it turns southeastward.
Near Prayagraj (Allahabad), after a course of about 855 miles (1,376 km), the Yamuna joins the Ganges River.
The confluence of the two rivers is an especially sacred place to Hindus and is the site of annual festivals as well as the Kumbh Mela, which is held every 12 years.
Tributaries:
Near Dehradun, the capital city of Uttarakhand, the Yamuna is joined by its biggest tributary, the Tons River.
The Chambal River is Yamuna’s biggest tributary on the right.
Other important tributaries of the Yamuna include the Hindon, Sarda, and Giri rivers on the right and Betwa and Sindh on the left.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/delhi/ngt-seeks-reply-on-yamuna-floodplain-construction/articleshow/112434536.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Fruit Rot Disease, recently seen in the news:
- It is a plant disease caused by a number of different fungi, bacteria and viruses.
- Continuous heavy rainfall coupled with low temperature, high relative humidity and intermittent rain and sunshine hours favour the occurrence of fruit rot.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Central Plantation Crops Research Institute (CPCRI), Kasaragod, recently issued an advisory to farmers to control ‘kole roga’ (fruit rot disease) in arecanut plantations.
About Fruit Rot Disease:
It is a plant disease that can cause significant losses for farmers, as it can reduce the quality of the crop and make it unmarketable.
In some cases, fruit rot can also lead to the death of the plant.
It is caused by a number of different fungi, bacteria, and viruses, and it can be difficult to prevent and treat.
Continuous heavy rainfall coupled with low temperature (20 to 23 °C), high relative humidity (>90%), and intermittent rain and sunshine hours favour the occurrence of fruit rot.
Symptoms:
Brown or black spots on the fruit
Softening of the fruit
Shrivelling of the fruit
Mould growth on the fruit
There are many different types of fungi that can cause fruit rot, but the most common type is Botrytis cinerea.
This fungus affects a wide range of fruits, including grapes, strawberries, tomatoes, and peppers.
The fungus enters the plant through wounds in the leaves or fruit lesions, and it proliferates in humid conditions.
Once established, the fruit infections can spread rapidly through the crop, causing rot.
The fungi that cause fruit rot can also produce toxins that are harmful to humans and animals.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Mangalore/cpcri-issues-advisory-to-control-koleroga-disease-in-arecanut-plantations/article68506079.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Mount Kilimanjaro:
- It is Africa’s tallest mountain and the world’s largest free-standing mountain.
- It is located in southern Ethiopia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A team of climbers from the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute (HMI) in Darjeeling scaled Uhuru Peak, the highest peak of Mt. Kilimanjaro in Tanzania, recently.
About Mount Kilimanjaro:
It is Africa’s tallest mountain and the world’s largest free-standing mountain (which means not part of a mountain range).
It is located in northeastern Tanzania, near the Kenya border.
It extends approximately east-west for 50 miles (80 km).
Also called a stratovolcano, Kilimanjaro is made up of three cones: Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira.
Kibo is the tallest of the three volcanic formations, which is also a dormant volcano, while the other two are extinct volcanoes.
Uhuru Peak, the highest free-standing peak in Africa, is located on the volcanic cone Kibo.
Kilimanjaro is also known for its snow-capped peak.
The mountain has five main vegetation zones, from the lowest to the highest point: Lower slopes, montane forest, heath and moorland, alpine desert, and summit.
The Kilimanjaro National Park was named a United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) World Heritage Site in 1987.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/west-bengal/climbers-from-himalayan-mountaineering-institute-unfurl-tricolour-atop-mt-kilimanjaro/cid/2040166
Ceropegia Shivrayiana, recently seen in news, is a/an:
flowering plant
Explanation :
Recently, a new flowering plant species from ‘ceropegia’ genus has been discovered inside the Vishalgad premises in Maharashtra and named it as Ceropegia Shivrayiana.
It is a flowering plant species named in a nod to Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
The plant was discovered in one of his renowned forts, Vishalgad.
It consists of unique, tubular flowers, which are specially adapted to attract moths for pollination.
Habitat: This plant thrives in rocky terrains and is capable of growing in less nutrient-or poor soils.
It belongs to the Asclepiadaceae family, which includes many medicinal plants, with significant ecological importance.
Threats: Its conservation is essential due to the ongoing threat of habitat loss.
Key facts about Vishalgad Fort
It is an ancient fort situated at Vishalgad village in Kolhapur district of Maharashtra.
Also called Khelna or Khilna by the locals, Vishalgad Fort was one of the important forts of the Maratha Empire.
It was built in the year 1058 by Shilahara king Marsinh and was initially known as Khilgil.
The fort was under the rule of Seuna Yadavas of Devagiri, Allauddin Khilji, the Vijayanagar Empire, and then the Adil Shahi dynasty.
In 1659, Shivaji captured the fort from Adil shah and renamed the fort ‘Vishalgad’.
Famous structures in the fort
The famous Dargah of Hazrat Sayed Malik Rehan Meera Saheb, which is visited by thousands of tourists, is located in the fort.
Temples: Amruteshwar Temple, Shri Nrusinha Temple, and Sati`s Vrindavan.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/kolhapur/new-flowering-plant-species-ceropegia-shivrayiana-discovered-near-vishalgad/articleshow/112330305.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Nankai Trough:
- It is an underwater subduction zone located in the Pacific Ocean.
- It is formed due to the collision of the Australian tectonic plate and Philippine Sea Plate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Japan’s meteorological agency said the likelihood of strong shaking and large tsunamis is higher than normal on the Nankai Trough.
It is a “subduction zone” between two tectonic plates in the Pacific Ocean, where massive earthquakes have hit in the past.
This underwater subduction zone (nearly 900 km long) where the Eurasian Plate collides with the Philippine Sea Plate, pushing the latter under the former and into the Earth’s mantle.
Location: It runs from Shizuoka, west of Tokyo, to the southern tip of Kyushu Island.
It has been the site of destructive quakes of magnitude eight or nine every century or two.
These so-called “megathrust quakes”, which often occur in pairs, have been known to unleash dangerous tsunamis along Japan’s southern coast.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/japan-megaquake-advisory-9506703/
With reference to Neelakurinji Plant, consider the following:
- It is a flowering shrub which blooms once in 12 years.
- It is categorised as critically endangered species under the IUCN Red list.
- It is endemic to the high-altitude shola grassland ecosystems of southwest India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, Neelakurinji, the purplish flowering shrub has been included on the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) official Red List of threatened species.
It is the purplish flowering shrub which blooms once in 12 years.
Habitat: It is an endemic shrub of three-metre height, seen only in the high-altitude shola grassland ecosystems of five mountain landscapes of southwest India at an elevation of 1,340–2,600 m.
Distribution:
The species has 34 subpopulations within 14 ecoregions of the high-altitude mountain ranges of southwest India. There are 33 subpopulations in the Western Ghats and one in the Eastern Ghats (Yercaud, Shevaroy Hills).
They are semelparous with showy synchronous blooming and fruiting at every 12 years at the end of the life cycle, which has been reported since 1832.
Cultural significance:
Nilgiri Hills (Literally meaning the blue mountains), got their name from the blue flowers of Neelakurinji.
The Paliyan tribes (in Tamil Nadu) use it as a reference to calculate their age.
Threats: It is threatened mainly due to its fragile habitat in the montane high altitude grasslands that has been under pressure of conversion for tea and softwood plantations, and urbanization.
Recent Global assessment of Neelakurinji :
This is the first ever Global Red List assessment for this flagship species of the montane grasslands of southwest India.
Conservation status: The latest global assessment confirms its threatened status in the Vulnerable (Criteria A2c) category of the IUCN.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/neelakurinji-becomes-a-threatened-species-officially/article68501589.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Polar Coupled Analysis and Prediction for Services Project:
- It aims to increase and improve weather and climate information about the Arctic and Antarctic.
- It is an initiative of the World Meteorological Organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the World Meteorological Organization launched the project Polar Coupled Analysis and Prediction for Services.
Aim: It aims to increase and improve weather, water, ice, and climate information about the Arctic and Antarctic.
The project will help develop observation systems and Earth system models and advocate for improved forecasting services.
It is part of WMO’s World Weather Research Programme (WWRP).
Key facts about World Weather Research Programme
It promotes research to improve weather prediction, and its impacts on society, for minutes to months ahead.
WWRP’s key objectives are:
Advance research of the Earth system on times scales from minutes to months.
This research, through the science-for-services value cycle approach, in providing locally and regionally actionable weather information,
Improve the warning process to account for increasing risks and the evolving nature of extreme weather impacts, and
Quantify and reduce uncertainty in predictions on time scales from minutes to months.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://wmo.int/media/news/new-wmo-project-improve-weather-forecasts-arctic-and-antarctic
Exercise Udara Shakti, was conducted between India and:
Malaysia
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Air Force and Royal Malaysian Air Force participated in Exercise Udara Shakti 2024.
The joint air exercise was conducted in collaboration with the Royal Malaysian Air Force (RMAF) at Kuantan, Malaysia.
It was aimed at bolstering operational efficiency, technical experts of both Air Forces engaged in exchange of their maintenance practices.
During the exercise, IAF’s Su-30MKI fighter jets engaged in air combat missions alongside the RMAF’s Su-30MKM fighters, enabling the crew of both air forces to familiarize with each other’s operational protocols, thereby enhancing interoperability, commonality and overall effectiveness in Su-30 aircraft operations.
Key facts about Su-30MKI
The Sukhoi Su-30MKI is a multirole combat fighter aircraft.
It is jointly developed by the Sukhoi Design Bureau and Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
Based on the Su-30 fighter aircraft, Su-30MKI is equipped with thrust vectoring control and canards.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2044075
A confession made in police custody under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is admissible if:
it leads to the discovery of a fact
Explanation :
The Supreme Court recently held that the disclosure made by an accused under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is irrelevant if the fact was previously known to the police.
About Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act:
This section creates an exception to the admissibility of confession made by the accused to a police officer while in custody.
Sections 25 and 26 establish protection against self-incrimination and abuse of power by the police authority, deeming confessions made in police custody without the presence of a magistrate as inadmissible before a court of law.
However, Section 27 provides an exception to this rule, allowing the admission of confession that leads to the discovery of facts.
Section 27 states: “Provided that, when any fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from a person accused of any offence, in the custody of a police officer, so much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered, may be proved.”
In simpler terms, any confession made by a person while in police custody that leads to the revelation of a fact is considered admissible in court.
The confession must provide information that was not previously known to the police and that led to the recovery of evidence or the identification of witnesses.
The confession must be directly related to the fact discovered. This means that the information provided in the confession must be specific and relevant to the discovery.
The confession must be made voluntarily. This means that the person must not have been coerced or threatened into making the confession.
The basic idea embedded in Section 27 of the Evidence Act is the doctrine of confirmation by subsequent events.
This doctrine is founded on the principle that every part of the statement made at the instance of the accused, in a police custody should necessarily be confirmed by the subsequent events of discovery, to make it admissible in court.
In the case of Asar Mohd. v. State of U.P, the Supreme Court held that the concept of “fact” mentioned in Section 27 is not limited to physical objects alone but also includes essential psychological or mental facts that may be directly relevant to the case.
The confession cannot be used to prove the guilt of the accused unless it is corroborated by other evidence.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/s-27-evidence-act-statement-of-accused-inadmissible-if-no-new-fact-is-discovered-pursuant-to-disclosure-supreme-court-266344
Consider the following statements regarding Tantalum:
- It is a rare metal that is virtually resistant to corrosion.
- Australia is the largest producer of Tantalum in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Central Government recently notified a list of 24 minerals, including Tantalum, in Part D of the First Schedule of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act (MMDR) Act, 1957, as Critical and Strategic minerals.
About Tantalum:
It is a rare metal with symbol Ta and atomic number 73.
Occurrence: Raw tantalum rarely occurs in nature. Instead, it is typically found in the ore columbite-tantalite (usually referred to as coltan).
Major Producers: Democratic Republic of the Congo, Rwanda, Brazil, and Nigeria.
Properties:
Classified as a transition metal, Tantalum is a solid at room temperature.
It is a shiny, silvery metal which is soft when it is pure.
It is almost immune to chemical attackat temperatures below 150-degreecelsius.
Tantalum is virtually resistant to corrosion due to an oxide film on its surface.
When pure, tantalum is ductile, meaning it can be stretched, pulled, or drawn into a thin wire or thread without breaking.
It belongs to a class of metals known as refractory metals, which are defined by their strong resistance to heat and wear.
It has an extremely high melting point, exceeded only by tungsten and rhenium.
Applications:
It is most prominently used in the electronic sector.
The capacitors made from tantalum are capable of storing more electricity in smaller sizes without much leakage than any other type of capacitor.
This makes them ideal for use in portable electronic devices such as smartphones, laptops, and digital cameras.
As tantalum has a high melting point, it is frequently used as a substitute for platinum, which is more expensive.
It is also used to make components for chemical plants, nuclear power plants, aeroplanes, and missiles.
It does not react with bodily fluids and is used to make surgical equipment and implants, like artificial joints.
A composite consisting of tantalum carbide (TaC) and graphite is one of the hardest materials known and is used on the cutting edges of high-speed machine tools.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2042603#:~:text=In%20order%20to%20strengthen%20the,Coal%20and%20Mines%20Shri%20G.
‘Smithophis mizoramensis’, recently seen in the news is a species of:
snake
Explanation :
Scientists from Mizoram University and Max Planck Institute recently identified a new snake species named Smithophis mizoramensis in the northeastern Indian state of Mizoram.
About Smithophis mizoramensis:
It is a new species of snake identified from Mizoram.
It is named Smithophis mizoramensis after its place of discovery.
The new species is also given a Mizo name “Tuithiangrul” or “Mizo Brook Snake.”
This discovery brings the total number of known Smithophis species worldwide to five.
Two other species from this genus, Smithophis atemporalis and Smithophis bicolor, were previously recorded in Mizoram.
The newly identified snake has been under study for 15 years due to its close resemblance to related species.
Genetic analysis reveals a 10-14% DNA difference from its nearest relatives.
The snake also exhibits unique colouration and scale patterns.
It inhabits both lowland and highland areas of Mizoram, particularly near rivers and their surroundings.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/mizoram/story/new-snake-species-discovered-in-mizoram-named-after-the-state-1069371-2024-08-11
With reference to Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds, consider the following statements:
- They are thunder clouds created by intense heat from the Earth’s surface.
- They look much darker than typical clouds.
- They are responsible for several aerosol pollutants trapped in the stratosphere and upper atmosphere.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Studies have shown that with temperatures soaring across the world, wildfires are becoming more common and intense, which could be spiking the occurrence of pyrocumulonimbus clouds.
What is a Cumulonimbus Cloud (Cb)?
It is a heavy and dense cloud of considerable vertical extent in the form of a mountain or huge tower, often associated with heavy precipitation, lightning, and thunder.
More commonly known as thunderclouds, cumulonimbus is the only cloud type that can produce hail, thunder, and lightning.
The base of the cloud is often flat, with a very dark wall-like feature hanging underneath, and may only lie a few hundred feet above the Earth’s surface.
The vertical extent of Cumulonimbus ranges from 3 km to rarely more than 15 km (10 000 – 50 000 ft).
Cb forms when three conditions are met:
There must be a deep layer of unstable air.
The air must be warm and moist.
A trigger mechanism must cause the warm, moist air to rise:
Heating of the layer of air close to the surface.
Rising ground forcing the air upwards (orographic uplift).
A front forcing the air upwards.
About Pyrocumulonimbus Clouds:
They are thunder clouds created by intense heat from the Earth’s surface.
They are formed similarly to cumulonimbus clouds, but the intense heat that results in the vigorous updraft comes from fire, either large wildfires or volcanic eruptions.
So it is, for this reason, the prefix ‘pyro’ is used – meaning fire in Greek.
They look much darker than typical clouds because of their large amounts of smoke and ash.
Pyrocumulonimbus clouds are thought to be responsible for several aerosol pollutants (such as smoke and ash) trapped in the stratosphere and upper atmosphere.
And sometimes, lightning strikes generated from them can even ignite additional fires.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/pyrocumulonimbus-cloud-when-wildfires-spit-storms-lightning-9501605/
The Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project is located in which one of the following states?
Madhya Pradesh
Explanation :
Madhya Pradesh has commissioned the largest floating solar project in central and north India, generating 90 MW at Omkareshwar.
About Omkareshwar Floating Solar Project:
It is located at Omkareshwar in District Khandwa, Madhya Pradesh.
The floating power plant was developed on the backwaters of Omkareshwar dam (it is a gravity dam on the Narmada River).
It is the biggest solar park in India and the largest floating solar project in central and north India,generating 90 MW energy.
This project was developed under the Union Ministry of Renewable Energy.
The project is executed by SJVN Green Energy Limited (SGEL), a wholly owned subsidiary of SJVN, a joint venture between the Government of India and the Government of Himachal Pradesh.
Project Cost: Rs. 646 crores
It is projected to generate 196.5 million units of electricity in its initial year of operation and a cumulative 4,629.3 million units over 25 years.
On commissioning, it will reduce 2.3 lakh tons of carbon emissions and will significantly contribute to the Government of India’s mission of net zero carbon emissions by 2070.
The project will also help in water conservationby reducing water evaporation.
The project has been developed through competitive tariff bidding on Build Own and Operate basis for 25 years at a rate of Rs 3.26 per unit.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/business/india-business/north-indias-largest-floating-solar-project-commissioned-in-mps-omkareshwar-minister/articleshow/112420476.cms
NEOWISE Telescope, recently seen in news, was launched by:
NASA
Explanation :
Nasa’s Near-Earth Object Wide-field Infrared Survey Explorer (NEOWISE) has concluded its mission, marking the end of a journey spanned over a decade.
It was launched in 2009 by NASA as the Wide-Field Infrared Survey Explorer, or WISE.
The space telescope was originally designed to survey the sky in infrared, detecting asteroids, stars and some of the faintest galaxies in space.
It completed its primary mission in February 2011.
Observations resumed in December 2013, when the telescope was taken out of hibernation and re-purposed for the NEOWISE project as an instrument to study near-Earth objects, or NEOs, as well as more distant asteroids and comets.
It was formerly orbited at an altitude of 310 miles, NEOWISE now sits just 217 miles above Earth’s surface, its descent spurred by increasing solar activity.
During its primary mission, NEOWISE detected more than 158,000 minor planets, 34,000 of which had never been discovered previously.
Significance of its data: NEOWISE data have been used to set limits on the numbers, orbits, sizes, and probable compositions of asteroids throughout our solar system, and enabled the discovery of the first known Earth Trojan asteroid.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/nasa-closes-wise-aging-eyes-orbiting-telescope-9507802/
Consider the following statements regarding the Grain ATM:
- It is designed and developed by the World Food Programme India.
- It is an automated multi-commodity dispensing solution that provides fast and precise access to commodities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, India’s first round-the-clock grain ATM was opened at Mancheswar in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
It is known as Annapurti Grain ATM which is designed and developed by the World Food Programme India.
The Annapurti provides universal access: anyone with a Public Distribution System ration card valid in India, regardless of the State and Union Territory, can access their entitlement.
It can dispense grain up to 50 kilograms in five minutes 24 hours a day, reducing waiting time by 70 percent.
It is an automated multi-commodity dispensing solution that provides fast, clean and precise access to commodities (rice, wheat, grains) to beneficiaries, post biometric authentication.
Once biometric authentication is completed, it provides consistent access to the full food ration.
The modular design allows easy assembly based on available space. Annapurti is energy efficient, and can be connected to solar panels for automatic refilling.
Benefits
Eliminates long queues at traditional distribution points.
Reduces issues related to theft and black marketing.
Ensures accurate weight and prevents potential cheating.
24/7 access to rice, reducing waiting times by 70%.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/india-s-first-round-the-clock-grain-atm-opened-at-mancheswar-in-odisha-124080900090_1.html
Panikkar Seamount, Raman ridge and Chandragupt ridge, which have been seen in news, are present in:
Indian Ocean
Explanation :
Recently, three underwater geographical structures located in the Indian Ocean for which the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO) and UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) have awarded names originally proposed by India.
It promotes international cooperation in marine sciences to improve management of the ocean, coasts and marine resources.
The IOC enables its 150 Member States, and India has been a member of this commission since 1946.
It works together by coordinating programmes in capacity development, ocean observations and services, ocean science, tsunami warning and ocean literacy.
The IOC is in charge of coordinating the United Nations Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development 2021-2030, the “Ocean Decade”.
Key facts about the underwater structures
There are now seven structures in the Indian Ocean named mainly after Indian scientists or bear names proposed by India in this region of the Indian Ocean.
All the three recently named structures were discovered by oceanographers from the National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa.
These are located along the Southwest Indian Ridge area of the Indian Ocean and were discovered during an international survey exploration programme.
Since 2004, India has been undertaking the Indian Southern Ocean Research Programme with NCPOR being the nodal agency.
Previously named structures are
Raman ridge (accepted in 1992): It was discovered in 1951 by a US oil vessel. It was named after Physicist and Nobel Laureate Sir CV Raman.
Panikkar Seamount (accepted in 1993): It was discovered by India research vessel Sagar Kanya. It is named after NK Panikkar, a renowned oceanographer.
Sagar Kanya ridge (accepted in 1991): A seamount was named after the research vessel itself.
DN Wadia Guyot: It was named after a geologist DN Wadia when an underwater volcanic mountain, known as guyot, was discovered in 1992 by Sagar Kanya.
Recently two structures were named after the rulers of the Mauryan dynasty namely Ashoka seamount and the Chandragupt ridge and one more was named as Kalpataru ridge in the Indian Ocean.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/indian-ocean-structures-named-ashoka-chandragupt-kalpataru-9503174/
Consider the following statements regarding Silicosis:
- It is a respiratory disease which causes a hardening of the lungs.
- It is caused by silica dust or silica crystals, which are found in soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, researchers warned that silicosis could become as big a health problem as exposure to asbestos.
It is a respiratory disease which causes a hardening of the lungs.
Causes: It is caused by silica dust or silica crystals, which are found in soil, sand, concrete, mortar, granite and artificial stone.
It is common in construction, mining, oil and gas extraction, kitchen engineering, dentistry, pottery and sculpting.
People working in these industries are often exposed to silica every day, and are at higher risk of developing silicosis as a result.
It can take a long time for silicosis to develop — typically 10 to 20 years of occupational exposure to silica dust.
The main symptoms of silicosis are: a persistent cough, persistent shortness of breath weakness and tiredness etc.
Types of Silicosis
Acute Silicosis: The symptoms of acute silicosis are cough, weight loss, and fatigue within a few weeks or years of exposure to inhaled silica.
Accelerated Silicosis: It occurs within 10 years of high-level exposure to the inhaled silica.
Chronic Silicosis: It occurs from 10 to 30 years after exposure and affects upper lungs and sometimes causes extensive scarring
Silicosis is a progressive disease and has no cure.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/silica-dust-asbestos-health-risk-silicosis-9504526/
Consider the following statements regarding Investor Education and Protection Fund:
- It was established under the Companies Act, 1956.
- It is managed by the Reserve Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Union Finance Minister introduced the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 which proposes to enable the transfer of unclaimed dividends, shares, and interest or redemption of bonds to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF).
It has been established under Section 205C of the Companies Act, 1956 by way of the Companies (Amendment) Act, 1999.
The following amounts that remained unpaid and unclaimed for a period of seven years from the date they became due for payment are credited to the Fund:
Amounts in the unpaid dividend accounts of the companies
The application money received by companies for allotment of any securities and due for refund
Matured deposits with companies
Matured debentures with companies
Grants and donations are given to the fund by the Central Government, State Governments, companies or any other institutions for the purposes of the Fund
The interest or other income received out of the investments made from the fund
This fund is managed by the Investor Education Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA)
IEPFA was established in 2016 under the Companies Act, of 2013.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/business/banking-law-amendments-propose-four-nominees-to-an-account-3145284
Consider the following statements regarding the Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas (KGBV) Scheme:
- It provides the facility to have at least one residential school for girls from Classes VI-XII in every educationally backward block (EBB) of the country.
- It provides for 100% reservation of the seats for girls belonging to SC, ST, OBC, or minority communities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Lack of transparency in the utilisation of funds, weak infrastructure, shortage of teachers, low salaries, and concerns over student safety are among the challenges identified in an evaluation of 254 Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas (KGBV) by the NCERT.
About Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas:
KGBV Scheme was launched by the Government of India in August, 2004 for setting up residential schools at upper primary level for girls belonging predominantly to the Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Other Backward Classes (OBC), and Minority Communities in difficult areas.
KGBV is being implemented in educationally backward blocks (EBBs) of the country where the female rural literacy is below the national average and the gender gap in literacy is above the national average.
The scheme provides for a minimum reservation of 75% of the seats for girls belonging to SC, ST, OBC, or minority communities, and priority for the remaining 25% is accorded to girls from families below the poverty line.
The objective of KGBV is to ensure access and quality education to the girls of disadvantaged groups of society by setting up residential schools at upper primary level.
The scope of the scheme is the setup of schools in areas with:
Concentration of tribal population,
With low female literacy and/or a large number of girls out of school;
Concentration of SC, OBC, and minority populations,
Areas with a large number of small, scattered habitations that do not qualify for a school;
Eligibility Criteria:
Girls belonging to disadvantaged groups such as
SC,
ST,
OBC,
Minority and
Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
Girl students in the age group of 14 to 18 years.
Girls living in areas with low female literacy.
Girls in difficult circumstances who are unable to complete primary education can be enrolled under exceptional cases.
KGBV scheme was merged with Sarva Shiksha (SSA) in the 12th Plan with effect from 1st April, 2007.
SSA itself has been absorbed in the newly launched Integrated Scheme of School Education- Samagra Shiksha, effective from the year 2018-19, and along with this development provision has been made to upgrade the existing KGBVs at upper primary level to up to senior secondary level with a capacity of 150-250 girls in convergence with the erstwhile Girls Hostel Scheme.
Thus, the Scheme now provides for access and quality education to girls from disadvantaged groups of girls in the age group of 10-18 years aspiring to study in Classes VI to XII.
KGBV provides the facility to have at least one residential school for girls from Classes VI-XII in every EBBs.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/lack-of-transparency-in-spending-weak-infrastructure-safety-concerns-ncert-report-highlights-issues-in-kgbv-schools/article68517216.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Canine Distemper disease:
- It is a contagious and serious viral disease that mainly infects dogs.
- There is no cure and no antiviral drugs have been approved to combat the infection.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Stray dogs in villages within two-kilometre radius of the Corbett Tiger Reserve’s boundaries in Uttarakhand will be vaccinated against the canine distemper virus.
About Canine Distember:
It is a contagious and serious disease caused by the canine distemper virus (CDV).
The virus attacks the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and nervous systems of dogs.
All dogs are at risk of canine distemper. Those at particular risk include puppies younger than four months and dogs that have not been vaccinated against CDV.
In addition to dogs, CDV can infect ferrets as well as a wide range of other mammals, especially carnivores.
These include several wildlife species such as wild canines (e.g., foxes and wolves), raccoons, and skunks. Cats also may become infected but are unlikely to get sick.
Transmission:
It is spread through direct contact or airborne exposure.
The virus does not last long in the environment and can be destroyed by most disinfectants.
However, the distemper-infected dogs can shed the virus for up to several months, putting dogs around them at risk.
Symptoms:
Once a dog is infected, the virus quickly spreads throughout the entire body and significantly weakens the immune system, leaving them susceptible to secondary infections.
The skin, respiratory, gastrointestinal (GI), and central nervous systems can all be affected.
Coughing is the most common symptom. They usually develop fever and discharge from the eyes and/or nose.
The disease can also cause disorientation, tremors, twitches, and seizures.
Treatment:
There is no cure, and no antiviral drugs have been approved to combat the infection.
The best way to prevent canine distemper is through vaccination.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/elections/uttarakhand/stray-dogs-within-2-km-radius-of-corbett-tiger-reserves-boundaries-to-be-vaccinated-3147180
Consider the following statements regarding the Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) Attack:
- Its primary goal is to steal sensitive data from the target’s server.
- It achieves effectiveness by utilizing multiple compromised computer systems as sources of attack traffic.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Tech billionaire Elon Musk has flagged a “massive DDOS attack” on X that disrupted the airing of his interview with former US President Donald Trump.
About Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) Attack:
A DDoS attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal traffic of a targeted server, service, or network by overwhelming the target or its surrounding infrastructure with a flood of Internet traffic.
It is a cybercrime to prevent users from accessing connected online services and sites.
DDoS attacks achieve effectiveness by utilizing multiple compromised computer systems as sources of attack traffic.
Exploited machines can include computers and other networked resources, such as IoT devices.
Unlike other kinds of cyberattacks, DDoS assaults don’t attempt to breach your security perimeter. Rather, a DDoS attack aims to make your website and servers unavailable to legitimate users.
DDoS can also be used as a smokescreen for other malicious activities and to take down security appliances, breaching the target’s security perimeter.
How does a DDoS attack work?
DDoS attacks are carried out with networks of Internet-connected machines.
These networks consist of computers and other devices (such as IoT devices) which have been infected with malware, allowing them to be controlled remotely by an attacker.
These individual devices are referred to as bots (or zombies), and a group of bots is called a botnet.
Once a botnet has been established, the attacker is able to direct an attack by sending remote instructions to each bot.
When a victim’s server or network is targeted by the botnet, each bot sends requests to the target’s IP address, potentially causing the server or network to become overwhelmed, resulting in a denial of service to normal traffic.
Because each bot is a legitimate Internet device, separating the attack traffic from normal traffic can be difficult.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/what-is-ddos-attack-flagged-by-elon-musk-that-hit-donald-trump-interview-6324982
Tungabhadra Dam is located in which one of the following states?
Karnataka
Explanation :
The 19th crest gate of the 71-year-old Tungabhadra dam was recently collapsed, triggering a flood alert in Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
About Tungabhadra Dam:
Tungabhadra Dam, also known as Pampa Sagar, is a multipurpose dam constructed across the Tungabhadra River, a tributary of the Krishna River.
The dam is near the town of Hospet in Karnataka.
This was a joint project of erstwhile Hyderabad state and erstwhile Madras Presidency when the construction was started; later it became a joint project of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh after its completion in 1953.
Tunga Bhadra reservoir has a storage capacity of 101 TMC with a catchment area spreading to 28000 sq. km.
The dam is about 49.5 meters in height and has about 33 crest gates.
The Tungabhadra reservoir and the Mullaperiyar dam in Kerala hold the unique distinction of being the only two reservoirs in the country that were built using a combination of mud and limestone.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bengaluru/how-did-tungabhadra-dams-19th-crest-gate-fail-explained/articleshow/112456650.cms
INS Arighat, recently seen in the news is a:
nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine
Explanation :
India is now all set to commission its second nuclear-powered submarine, INS Arighat, armed with nuclear missiles for strategic deterrence.
About INS Arighat:
It is India’s second indigenously built nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN), following India’s first nuclear submarine, INS Arihant, commissioned in 2018.
It was constructed at the Indian Navy’s Ship Building Centre (SBC) in Visakhapatnam.
It represents a critical component of India’s nuclear triad, enabling the nation to launch nuclear missiles from land, air, and sea.
Features:
It measures 111.6 meters in length, has a beam of 11 meters, a draught of 9.5 meters, and a displacement of 6,000 tonnes.
It will have one seven-blade propeller powered by a pressurised water reactor.
It can achieve a maximum speed of 12–15 knots (22–28 km/h) when on surface and 24 knots (44 km/h) when submerged.
It can carry up to four nuclear-capable K-4 SLBMs (Submarine Launched ballistic Missile) with a range of over 3500 kilometers or twelve conventional warhead K-15 SLBMs with a range of about 750 kilometers.
The K-15 can also carry a strategic nuclear warhead.
It also carries torpedoes and mines.
Additional safety measures include two standby auxiliary engines and a retractable thruster for emergency power and mobility.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/india-fully-ready-to-add-to-fleet-2nd-sub-with-n-tipped-missiles/articleshow/112433199.cms
Gotipua dance, recently seen in news, is mainly performed in:
Odisha
Explanation :
Gotipua child artistes, who experience the world as their stage and applause as a constant companion, face an uncertain future when they hit puberty.
It is the majestic folk dance of Odisha which is the precursor to the classical Odissi dance form.
In Odishs language, “Goti” means “single” and “Pua” means “boy”.
In this children are trained in singing, dancing, yoga, and acrobatics within gurukuls or akhadas .
They dress as girls and perform at temple festivals, social gatherings, and religious ceremonies.
Origin:
In ancient times, the temples of Orissa had female dancers called “Devadasi or Mahari (in Orissa)” who were devoted to Lord Jagannath.
During the time of Bhoi king Rama Chandra Dev with the decline of the Mahari dancers, the class of these boy dancers came into existence in Orissa, to carry out the tradition.
In its present form, the Gotipua Dance is more precise and systematic in its conception.
Its performance includes Vandana (prayer to God, or a guru), Abhinaya (the enactment of a song) and Bandha Nritya (rhythms of acrobatic postures)
Bandha Nritya is a demonstration of physical prowess requiring great agility and flexibility. Preferably performed in adolescence, with age, this dance form becomes increasingly difficult to execute.
The dancers make extensive use of their hands and feet.
Musical accompaniment to the Gotipua Dance is provided by the mardala (a pakhawaj), gini (small cymbals), harmonium, violin and flute.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odisha/the-dancers-who-stumble-from-boyhood-stardom-to-adulthood-anonymity/article68512086.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Diamond Imprest Licence:
- It allows eligible exporters to import cut and polished diamonds.
- Under this, exporters can import diamonds up to 5 per cent of their average turnover from the past three years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Commerce & Industry announced the introduction of Diamond Imprest Licence at the 40th edition of India International Jewellery Show (IIJS) 2024 organised by the Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council (GJEPC).
The licence allows eligible exporters to import cut and polished diamonds, including semi-processed, half-cut, and broken diamonds.
Under this exporters can import diamonds up to 5 per cent of their average turnover from the past three years, with a requirement to add 10 per cent value.
These imports must be used by the importer and cannot be transferred, even after exports are completed.
This licence was earlier there in the foreign trade policy of 2002 and 2009.
Significance: This will provide level-playing field for Indian MSME diamond exporters. It will stop flight of investment and also introduce more employment opportunities.
Key facts about the Gem & Jewellery Export Promotion Council
It was set up by the Ministry of Commerce, Government of India (GoI) in 1966.
It is one of several Export Promotion Councils (EPCs) launched by the Indian Government, to boost the country’s export thrust, when India’s post-Independence economy began making forays in the international markets.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2044109
Consider the following statements regarding Xerogel:
- It is a solid form of a gel obtained by drying under standard conditions.
- It has thermal stability and cannot be easily modified.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers have developed a porous composite xerogel dressing incorporating Silica Nanoparticles and calcium that can help blood clot rapidly and provide relief for uncontrolled hemorrhage.
It is a solid form of a gel obtained by drying it with unhindered shrinkage.
The drying process of xerogels involves solvent evaporation under standard conditions using conventional methods.
Xerogels are mesoporous materials having high thermal stability.
The most important properties of xerogel are as follows: nontoxic, cost-effective, biocompatible and high surface area, high porosity and can easily be modified.
The most common examples of xerogels are carbon-based xerogels and silica-based aerogels.
Application: It is used as catalysts, adsorbents, sensors, membranes, and also in drug delivery systems.
What is the Difference Between Aerogel and Xerogel?
Aerogels form when the liquid from the gel is extracted at a supercritical state, whereas xerogel forms when the liquid from the gel is evaporated at room temperature.
Moreover, aerogel has a comparatively larger surface area than xerogel.
Highlights of the research
Recently, researchers have developed a highly porous spongy xerogel hemostatic dressing supplemented with substances that bind to a receptor inside a cell (agonists) like silica nanoparticles (SiNPs) and calcium.
This material increased the blood clotting index by 13-fold in comparison to commercial dressing clotting capacity.
The well-characterized xerogel showed presence of multiple pores of around 30 µm size that contributed to the high absorbance capacity of the dressing. The supplements improved the clotting capacity and resulted in quick absorbance of blood.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2044556
With reference to the Model Solar Village initiative, consider the following statements:
- It aims to create one Model Solar Village per district across India.
- It is implemented by the Union Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
- A revenue village with a population size above 5,000 is eligible to participate in this initiative.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Scheme Guidelines for implementation of ‘Model Solar Village’ under PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana have been notified by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
It aims to create one Model Solar Village per district across India.
Goal: With the goal of promoting solar energy adoption and enabling village communities to become self-reliant in meeting their energy needs.
Funding: A total financial outlay of ₹800 crore has been allocated for this component, providing ₹1 crore per selected Model Solar Village.
Criteria:
In order to be considered a village under the competition mode, a village must be a revenue village with a population size above 5,000 (or 2,000 for special category states).
The selection process involves a competitive mode where villages are assessed on their overall distributed renewable energy (RE) capacity installed on 6 months after the declaration of the potential candidate by District Level Committee (DLC).
The winning village in each district, with the highest RE capacity, will receive a central financial assistance grant of ₹1 crore.
Implementation: The implementation of this scheme will be done by State/UT Renewable Energy Development Agency under the supervision of District Level Committee (DLC).
Key facts about the PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana
In this scheme, the central government will provide 300 units of free electricity per month to its beneficiaries by investing worth ₹75,000 crores.
Target: It aims to light up 1 crore households.
Under the scheme, Urban Local Bodies and Panchayats shall be incentivised to promote rooftop solar systems in their jurisdictions.
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2044454
Consider the following statements regarding the National Institutional Ranking Framework ranking:
- It was launched in November 2015 by the Ministry of Education.
- It is given to State Public Universities and Open Universities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, Union Minister for Education released the India Rankings 2024, which implements the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) drafted for this purpose by the Ministry of Education in 2015.
Indian Institute of Technology Madras retains its 1st position in Overall Category for the sixth consecutive year, i.e. 2019 to 2024 and in Engineering for 9th consecutive year, , i.e. from 2016 to 2024.
Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru tops the Universities Category for ninth consecutive year, i.e. from 2016 to 2024. It stood first in Research Institutions Category for the fourth consecutive year, i.e. from 2021 to 2024.
IIM Ahmedabad tops in Management subject retaining its first position for fifth consecutive year, i.e. from 2020 to 2024.
All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi occupies the top slot in Medical for the seventh consecutive year, i.e. from 2018 to 2024.
Jamia Hamdard, New Delhi tops the ranking in Pharmacy this year.
National Law School of India University, Bengaluru retains its first position in Law.
Key points about the National Institutional Ranking Framework
It was first launched in November 2015 by the Ministry of Education.
Five broad categories of parameters identified in the NIRF and their weightage on scale of 10 are: Teaching, Learning & Resources , Research and Professional Practice, Graduation Outcome, Outreach and Inclusivity, Perception
Four distinct additions to 2024 edition of India Rankings are as follows:
Introduction of three new categories namely State Public Universities, Open Universities, and Skill Universities; and
Integration of “Innovation” ranking into the India Rankings using NIRF framework.
With the addition of three categories, i.e. Open Universities, State Public Universities and Skill Universities, the existing portfolio of India Rankings has increased to 16 categories and subject domains that have been ranked in India Rankings 2024.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2044661
The primary objective of the Jiyo Parsi Scheme is to:
reverse the declining trend of the Parsi population in India
Explanation :
The Minister for Minority Affairs recently launched the Jiyo Parsi Scheme portal.
About Jiyo Parsi Scheme:
It is a unique Central Sector Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs for arresting the population decline of the Parsi Community in India.
The scheme was launched in 2013-14.
The objective of the scheme is to reverse the declining trend of the Parsi population by adopting scientific protocols and structured interventions to stabilize their population in India.
The scheme has three components: Medical Assistance, Advocacy, and Health of Community.
Under the Medical Component of the scheme, financial assistance is provided to Parsi Couples for medical treatment under standard medical protocol.
Under the Health of Community Component, financial assistance is provided to Parsi Couples for child care and assistance of elderly people.
Under the Advocacy Component, advocacy/outreach programmes are conducted to generate awareness among the Parsi population.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kiren-rijiju-launches-portal-for-jiyo-parsi-scheme/article68520734.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Dysbiosis:
- It is a condition in the human immune system that mistakenly damages healthy cells.
- It makes the immune system more vulnerable to infections from germs living inside and outside the body.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Antibiotics, especially the broad-spectrum ones, can wipe out a large portion of the gut bacteria, a disruption known as dysbiosis.
About Dysbiosis:
Dysbiosis is an imbalance within a community of microorganisms living together — a microbiome.
Our bodies are host to several distinct microbiomes — communities of microorganisms that live with us and assist us in various ways.
A balanced microbiome is one where there’s a healthy diversity of microorganisms, where no single bacteria, virus or fungus dominates.
Dysbiosis means there’s a lack of diversity and balance. When they’re imbalanced, it changes how they function in your body.
Dysbiosis typically occurs when the bacteria in your gastrointestinal (GI) tract — which includes your stomach and intestines — become unbalanced.
Cause: It can arise from infections, antibiotic use, or some aspects of a person’s diet.
How does dysbiosis affect us?
In any microbiome, a lack of diversity and balance can pave the way for one type of microorganism to take over.
Dysbiosis makes us more vulnerable to infections from germs living inside and outside of our bodies.
It can also interfere with other important services that our microbiomes normally provide for us.
Symptoms: Though it is sometimes asymptomatic, dysbiosis may manifest in abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting.
Dysbiosis is also common on your skin. It can be caused by exposure to harmful bacteria or an overgrowth of a single type of bacteria.
Treatment:
The main premise of treatment is to increase gut microbiome biodiversity. Scientists have developed several ways of treating dysbiosis, including:
Fecal microbiota transplantation
Probiotic therapy
Microbial metabolic pathway therapy
If an underlying disease or condition causes it, you’ll need specific treatment for that condition.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/hidden-dangers-of-irrational-use-of-antibiotics-on-microbiome/article68506009.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Corbett Tiger Reserve:
- It is located on the foothills of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh.
- The vegetation comprises of sal and mixed forests, interspersed with grasslands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Corbett Tiger Reserve recently ran an awareness campaign to celebrate World Elephant Day.
About Corbett Tiger Reserve:
It is located on the foothills of the Himalayas in Uttarakhand, spread over three districts, viz., Pauri, Nainital, and Almora.
Establishment:
Corbett is the first national park of India, established in 1936. It was named Hailey National Park then.
In 1957, the park was rechristened Corbett National Park in memory of the late Jim Corbett, a great naturalist and eminent conservationist.
Today, after the addition of areas to the originally declared National Park, the total area of Tiger Reserve extends to 1288.31 sq. km.
The terrain is undulating with several valleys. The rivers Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi flow through the valleys.
By and large, the reserve is spread over the Bhabar and lower Shivalik regions with a deep-water table.
The tract is porous with boulders and sand deposits.
Flora:
In general, the vegetation comprises sal and mixed forests, interspersed with grasslands and riparian vegetation.
The grasslands are locally known as ‘Chaur’, which are an outcome of abandoned settlements or past clearings.
Evergreen Sal and its combined trees, the Sheesham, and the Kanju are found extensively on the ridges.
One plant, (actually a weed), which is a major irritant to the reserve authorities and is widespread in the jungle,is the Lantana.
Fauna: Tigers and elephants are the charismatic mammals, besides a large array of co-predators (leopards, small carnivores), ungulates (sambar, hog deer, spotted deer), birds, reptiles (gharials, crocodile), and fishes.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://www.deccanchronicle.com/videos/ramnagar-corbett-tiger-reserve-runs-awareness-campaign-to-celebrate-world-elephant-day-1816013
Why is ballast water important for ships?
It provides stability and maneuverability during a voyage.
Explanation :
The Tamil Nadu Water Resources Department (WRD) has charged that Kamarajar Port is the main reason for the spread of the invasive species by not regulating the ballast water from ships.
About Ballast Water:
Ballast water is fresh or saltwater held in the ballast tanks and cargo holds of ships.
It is used to provide stability and maneuverability during a voyage when ships are not carrying cargo, not carrying heavy enough cargo, or when more stability is required due to rough seas.
Ballast water may also be used to add weight so that a ship sinks low enough in the water to pass under bridges and other structures.
Usually, ballast water is pumped into ballast tanks when a ship has delivered cargo to a port and is departing with less cargo or no cargo.
It is then transported and released at the next port-of-call, where the ship picks up more cargo.
If a ship is receiving or delivering cargo to a number of ports, it may release or take on a portion of ballast water at each port.
In such cases, the ship’s ballast water contains a mix of waters from multiple ports.
The release of ballast water may introduce non-native organisms into the port of discharge.
These introduced species, or bioinvaders, are also referred to as exotic species,alien species, and nonindigenous species.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/does-india-have-laws-against-invasive-species-from-ballast-water/article68522092.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Amrit Bharat Station Scheme:
- It is an ongoing Indian Railways mission to redevelop railway stations across India.
- It shall cater for the introduction of new amenities as well as the upgradation and replacement of existing amenities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Western Railway has announced the inclusion of Kandivali and Dahisar railway stations in the recently launched Amrit Bharat Station Scheme (ABSS).
About Amrit Bharat Station Scheme:
It is an ongoing Indian Railways mission launched in February 2023 by the Ministry of Railways to redevelop railway stations across India.
It is designed for the ongoing development of railway stations with a long-term perspective.
It involves the creation of master plans and their phased implementation to improve various aspects of station facilities.
The development plan takes into account the unique needs of each station, promoting a holistic approach to railway station enhancement.
The scheme aims to transform railway stations into modern, well-equipped hubs with improved passenger amenities, better traffic circulation, inter-modal integration, and enhanced signage.
The scheme shall cater for the introduction of new amenities as well as the upgradation and replacement of existing amenities.
The ultimate goal is to transform these stations into vibrant city centres over the long term.
Key Features:
Modern passenger amenities: This includes providing clean and hygienic waiting areas, restrooms, Special amenities for the disabled, and food and beverage outlets.
Improved traffic circulation: This includes creating separate entry and exit points for passengers and vehicles, widening roads and footpaths, and providing adequate parking facilities.
Inter-modal integration: This includes providing seamless connectivity between railway stations and other modes of transport, such as buses, taxis, and auto rickshaws.
Upgraded signage: This includes providing clear and visible signage in multiple languages to guide passengers.
Sustainability: This includes using energy-efficient lighting and appliances.
Eco-friendliness:
Rainwater harvesting systems and green spaces
Ballastless tracks, which reduce noise and vibration
Roof plazas, where available, provide additional space for commercial activities and passenger amenities.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/western-railway-adds-kandivali-and-dahisar-to-amrit-bharat-station-scheme/articleshow/112501112.cms
Consider the following statements regarding St Martin’s Island:
- It is located in the northeastern region of the Bay of Bengal.
- It is the only coral island that belongs to Bangladesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
According to the alleged statement, former Prime Minister of Bangladesh Hasina said she could have continued to remain in power if she had given Bangladesh’s “St Martin’s Island and Bay of Bengal to America”.
It is located in the northeastern region of the Bay of Bengal, close to the border between Bangladesh and Myanmar.
It is nine kilometres away from the southern tip of Bangladesh’s Cox’s Bazar-Teknaf peninsula.
Geography: It is mostly flat and sits at an elevation of 3.6 metres above the mean sea level. It is Bangladesh’s only coral island — there are reefs from 10-15 km to the west-northwest — and is also a breeding ground for sea turtles.
What is the history of the island?
The island was once part of the Teknaf peninsula (around 5,000 years ago) but gradually got submerged into the sea.
Around 450 years ago, the southern suburbs of present-day St Martin’s Island resurfaced — the northern and rest of the parts of the island rose above sea level in the following 100 years.
The Arab merchants were among the first ones to settle on the island. They began to arrive there in the 18th Century.
The merchants initially named the island “Jazira” (meaning “the island” or “the peninsula”) and later changed it to “Narikel Jinjira” or “Coconut Island”.
In 1900, British India annexed the island during a land survey. By then, some fishermen had settled on the island — they were either Bengali or from the Rakhine community (who were based in present-day Myanmar).
During the British occupation, the island came to be known as St Martin’s Island, named after then Deputy Commissioner of Chittagong Martin.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/bangladesh-st-martin-island-9511920/
Consider the following statements regarding of Long Range Glide Bomb (GAURAV):
- It is an Air to Surface LRGB with conventional warheads.
- It is developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has carried out a successful maiden flight test of Long Range Glide Bomb (LRGB), GAURAV from Su-30 MK-I platform of the Indian Air Force (IAF).
It is an air launched 1,000 kg class glide bomb capable of hitting targets at long distance.
Features
It is an Air to Surface LRGB with conventional warheads to destroy enemy air strips, bunkers, hard installations, buildings etc.
It is designed to integrate with fighter aircrafts.
It consists of an Inertial Navigation based guidance system with Digital Control.
GAURAV has been designed and developed indigenously by the Research Centre Imarat (RCI), Hyderabad.
After being launched, the glide bomb steers towards the target using a highly accurate hybrid navigation scheme with a combination of INS and GPS data.
During the flight test, the glide bomb hit the target erected at Long Wheeler’s island with pinpoint accuracy.
Complete flight data during the test launch was captured by Telemetry and Electro optical tracking systems deployed by Integrated Test Range along the coastline.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2044995
With reference to Gurmar Plant, consider the following:
- It is a perennial plant known for its anti diabetic properties.
- It is only found in the Himalayan region of India.
- It contains flavonoids and saponins which help regulate lipid metabolism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, a team of researchers has uncovered an array of medicinal plants at Brahmayoni Hill in Gaya, Bihar, with Gymnema sylvestre (commonly known as Gurmar).
It is a perennial plant and known as anti-diabetic herb.
Common names: Gymnema, Australian cowplant, and Periploca of the woods.
Distribution:
It is a tropical plant that is indigenous to India and grows wild in the tropical forests of central, western and southern parts of the country.
The medicinal herb also grows in the tropical areas of Africa, Australia, and China.
Properties
It is rich in several active compounds like gymnemic acid, gymnemasides, anthraquinones, flavones, hentriacontane, pentatriacontane, phytin, resins, tartaric acid, formic acid etc.
It is known for its unique ability to reduce blood sugar levels due to the presence of gymnemic acid which works by occupying receptor sites in the outer lining of the intestine, thereby curbing cravings for sweetness.
In addition, the plant contains flavonoids and saponins, which help regulate lipid metabolism. Flavonoids have antioxidant properties, while saponins help lower cholesterol levels.
Applications
It was used to develop anti-diabetic drug BGR-34 by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
News: https://www.livemint.com/news/india/antidiabetic-herb-gurmar-found-on-gaya-s-brahmayoni-hill-11723442108779.html
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘FloodWatch India’ Application:
- It provides information related to the flood situation and forecasts up to 7 days on a real-time basis.
- It is developed by the Central Water Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Jal Shakti launched the Version 2.0 of the ‘FloodWatch India’ mobile application developed by the Central Water Commission (CWC).
It gives information related to the flood situation and forecasts up to 7 days on a real-time basis to the public.
The in-house developed user-friendly app has readable and audio broadcast and all the information is available in 2 languages, viz. English and Hindi.
Another feature of the app includes real-time flood monitoring where users can check up-to-date flood situations throughout the country.
It utilizes near real-time river flow data from various sources.
It also provides flood forecasts at the nearest location where users can check the flood advisory at the station nearest to them on the Home Page itself.
The app will also provide State-wise/Basin-wise Flood Forecast (up to 24 hours) or Flood Advisory (up to 7 days) which can be accessed by selecting specific stations, state wise or basin wise from the dropdown menu.
This app utilizes advanced technologies such as satellite data analysis, mathematical modelling, and real-time monitoring to deliver accurate and timely flood forecasts.
New features in FloodWatch India 2.0
It provides current information at additional 392 flood monitoring stations, taking up the total number of stations to 592, thus imparting users with an extensive and detailed overview of flood conditions across the country.
It also provides additional information regarding the storage positions of 150 major reservoirs in the country which shall help in better understanding of the possible flood situation in their downstream areas.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2044887
Chandaka wildlife sanctuary, recently seen in news, is located in:
Odisha
Explanation :
As a part of augmentation sambar and a barking deer will be released in the Chandaka wildlife sanctuary on Independence Day.
Location: It is located in Khurda district of Odisha represents the north-eastern limits of Eastern Ghats.
It is also a home to a number of threatened wild animals and birds.
This landscape got sanctuary status in 1982.
Climate: The climate of the area is tropical with three distinct and well marked seasons i.e. summer, Rainy season and winter.
Flora is moderately diverse with intimate mixture of evergreen and deciduous Vegetation: elements. The area comes under semi-evergreen forest zone but the interplay of biotic factors has changed the original character of the vegetation.
Flora: Dhaman (Grewia Tiliaefolia), Bankapasia (Kydia calycina), Jamu (Syzyggium Cuminii), Gandhana (Premna mucronata), Kansa (Hymenodictyon excelsum), Kusum (Schleichera oleosa), Marua (Vitex pinnata), Sidha (Lagerstroemia parviflora), Karanja, Thorny bamboo etc.
Fauna: Elephants, Chital, Barking Deer, Wild Boar, Rhesus Monkey, Pangolin, Sloth Bear, Indian Wolf, Hyena and other mammals.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/sambar-and-barking-deer-release-in-chandaka-wildlife-sanctuary-on-independence-day/articleshow/112508469.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the AIM-174B Missile of US Navy:
Statement-I:
The missile aims to counter China’s aerial dominance in the Indo-Pacific region.
Statement-II:
It is a long-range anti-ship missile, surpassing the range of China’s PL-15 missile.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Statement-I is correct but Statement-ll is incorrect
Explanation :
AIM-174B Missile is an air-launched variant of the versatile SM-6 missile of US Navy.
It becomes operational since July, 2024 and is derived by Raytheon, an Aerospace and defense company.
It is a long-range air-to-air missile.
It is capable of striking targets up to 400 km (250 miles) away and it surpasses the range of China’s PL-15 missile.
It has been deployed in the Indo-Pacific region. This deployment is part of a broader strategy to enhance US power projection as tensions in the region escalate.
It is and engaging high-priority ground targets, such as air defence sites and warships, functioning in a quasi-ballistic manner.
The AIM-174B allowing the US to keep PLA carrier-hunting aircraft out of firing range and even threaten Chinese planes attacking Taiwan.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/us-navy-unveils-longest-range-missile-will-aim-174b-be-a-game-changer-in-indo-pacific-tensions/articleshow/112537942.cms
The Geneva Conventions are a set of four treaties. The rules of the Convention are related to:
- treatment of prisoners of war
- means and methods of warfare
- biological and chemical weapons
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 only
Explanation :
The Geneva Conventions are a set of four treaties which include more than 400 articles, setting out detailed rules for the treatment of prisoners, protecting hospitals and medical staff, allowing humanitarian aid and prohibiting torture, rape and sexual violence.
It was formalised in 1949 by United Nations.
There are three additional protocols, the first two of which were formalised in 1977 and the third in 2005.
The focus of the Conventions is the treatment of non-combatants and prisoners of war and not the means and methods of warfare and use of conventional or biological and chemical weapons, the use of which is governed respectively by The Hague Conventions and the Geneva Protocol.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/world/2024/Aug/13/the-geneva-conventions-at-75-do-the-laws-of-war-still-have-a-fighting-chance-in-todays-bloody-world-2
Recently, Gastrodia indica has been discovered in Sikkim, India. It is the species of which flower?
Orchid
Explanation :
Gastrodia indica
It is the first orchid from India that never opens its flower.
The orchid was found at an elevation of 1,950–2,100 metres above sea level.
This is the first cleistogamous species of the genus Gastrodia discovered from India.
It is morphologically allied to G. exilis & G.dyeriana but critical examination revealed considerable differences in floral morphological characters.
This new species thrives in dense, rotten leaf litter and is associated with trees such as Magnolia doltsopa, Acer campbelli, and Quercus lamellose.
The discovery adds to India’s botanical diversity, bringing the total number of Gastrodia species in the country to 10.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.eastmojo.com/sikkim/2024/08/15/a-orchid-that-never-opens-its-flower-discovered-in-sikkim/
Consider the following statements regarding the per-and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS):
- The super strong molecular bonds of these substances is the reason for difficulties in tracking them.
- These substances are also known as Forever chemicals.
- They contribute to environmental degradation which adversely impacts the health of all organisms including human beings.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Researchers used a technique which involves magnetic fields and radio waves to track the spread of forever chemicals in the ecosystems across the globe.
The technique involves passing samples through a strong magnetic field then reading the burst of radio waves their atoms emit.
Forever chemicals are scientifically known as per-and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS).
These chemicals are generally useful in applications such as water-proofing, heat resistance, detergents, food packaging and non-stick technologies.
They are known to stay in the environment virtually forever and contribute to environmental degradation which adversely impacts the health of all organisms including human beings.
The super strong molecular bonds keep them from breaking down in the environment. The molecular bonds of the chemicals also make them difficult to trace.
Hence, all statements are correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/science-technology/remnants-of-the-present-forever-chemicals-can-now-be-tracked-and-managed-from-source-to-destination
Consider the following statements regarding the Prerana Programme, launched by the Ministry of Education:
- It is a week-long residential program for selected students of class IX to XII.
- The programme is run by the school of which the current Prime Minister of India is an alumnus.
- The curriculum of the school has been prepared by IIM Ahmadabad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Prerana Programme
Ministry of Education launched the programme aiming to offer a meaningful, unique, and inspiring experience to all participants, thereby empowering them with leadership qualities.
It is driven by a strong commitment to integrate principles of Indian education system and the philosophy of value-based education which is a corner stone of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
It is a week-long residential program for selected students of class IX to XII. It is an experiential and inspirational learning program for students with the best-in-class technology where heritage meets innovation. A batch of 20 selected students (10 boys and 10 girls) will attend the program, every week from various parts of the country.
It runs from a Vernacular School, established in 1888, in one of the oldest living cities of India, Vadnagar, Gujarat. The Hon’ble Prime Minister is an alumnus of the school.
The curriculum of Prerana School prepared by IIT Gandhi Nagar is rooted in nine value-based themes: Swabhiman and Vinay, Shaurya and Sahas, Parishram and Samarpan, Karuna and Sewa, Vividhta and Ekta, Satyanishtha and Shuchita, Navachar and Jigyasa, Shraddha aur Vishwas, and Swatantrata and Kartavya.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1993086
Consider the following statements regarding Prokaryotes:
- They are single-celled organisms that lack a distinct nucleus and other membrane.
- They can thrive on land as well as in water.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Scientists found prokaryotes are remarkably resilient to climate change – and as a result, could increasingly dominate marine environments.
They are single-celled organisms that lack a distinct nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
Features:
Shape: They come in various shapes and sizes (0.5-5 µm), with four basic shapes being rod-like (bacillus), spherical (coccus), comma-shaped (vibrio), and spiral (spirillum).
Cell organisation: Prokaryotic cells have a basic structural organisation, which includes a cell wall (except in mycoplasma), cytoplasm, and a plasma membrane. However, they lack a well-defined nucleus.
Organelles: They lack membrane-bound organelles, except for ribosomes.
They do have unique structures called mesosomes, which are extensions of the plasma membrane used for various functions.
Reproduction: Prokaryotic cells reproduce primarily through binary fission, a type of asexual reproduction.
DNA: Most prokaryotic cells have a single chromosome, which carries hereditary genes in the form of DNA.
Prokaryotes include bacteria and “archaea”, another type of single-celled organism.
These organisms are thought to be the oldest cell-based lifeforms on Earth.
Habitat: They thrive across the entire planet – on land and in water, from the tropics to the poles.
Ecological significance: They play a crucial role in the world’s food chains, helping support the nutrient needs of fish humans catch and eat.
Marine prokaryotes grow extremely fast – a process that emits a lot of carbon.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/earths-oldest-tiniest-creatures-are-poised-to-be-climate-change-winners/article68523779.ece
Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary, a new Ramsar site is located in:
Tamil Nadu
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change informed that three more wetlands from India have been added to the list of Ramsar sites.
Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
It is situated along the north-eastern region of Uthukuli Taluk of Tiruppur District in Tamil Nadu.
The lake falls under two villages (Sarkar Periyapalayam and Neruperichal).
The lake got its name from the fact that it was repaired and restored by King Nanjarayan who ruled the region many centuries ago.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2045232
With reference to Biosurfactants, consider the following statements:
- They are surface-active molecules produced by microorganisms.
- They are very stable in a wide range of pH and temperatures.
- They cannot be used in food industries because of their toxic effects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
A research group critically analyzed the application of biosurfactants in food industries, highlighting the challenges in the large-scale commercialization of biosurfactants.
Biosurfactants are surface-active molecules produced by microorganisms, either on the cell surface or secreted extracellularly.
They form a thin film on the surface of microorganisms and help in their detachment or attachment to other cell surfaces.
They are involved in regulating the motility of bacteria and quorum sensing.
Features:
Microbial biosurfactants obtained from various microbial sources exhibit high emulsification, solubilization, foaming, adsorption, and other physical characteristics.
They are very stable in a wide range of pH, temperature, and salinity, making them suitable for food applications.
These are eco-friendly biomolecules and do not impart toxic effects; therefore, they can be considered safe for human consumption.
Applications
These are used in the food industry like bakeries and salad dressings.
These can be used for heavy metal removal from vegetables to boost immunity in fish, providing a protective effect against the pathogen.
Also, it can be employed in food products as a natural antioxidant to prevent early spoilage.
What are surfactants?
These are molecules that slither across surfaces of oil and water, water and oil, or air and water to form an emulsion.
Surfactants are very useful in the food industry as lubricants and foamers to emulsify fats in batters, improve shelf life, as dispersing agents and retain moisture.
Issues: However, the accelerated usage of synthetic food additives and emulsifiers in dietary goods has led to imbalances in the microbiome of the body, and gut-related disorders and affect the intestinal barrier permeability leading to the declination of beneficial microbiota.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2045272
Consider the following statements regarding the Captagon drug:
- It contains fenethylline which is metabolized by the body into amphetamine and theophylline.
- It was used to treat attention deficit disorders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the trial of four men accused of being behind a record-breaking Captagon drug bust worth €58 million has begun in Germany.
It is a highly addictive amphetamine-type drug, which is produced mainly in Syria.
The original Captagon contained fenetylline, a synthetic drug of the phenethylamine family to which amphetamine also belongs.
It was commercially sold in several countries until the 1980s and was banned due to fears of its highly addictive nature.
It is commonly known as “poor man’s cocaine,” has emerged as the drug of choice among young adults throughout the Middle East and North Africa.
It is a synthetic drug which was originally manufactured in Germany in the 1960s and 1970s where it was intended to treat attention deficit disorders.
The pill contains fenethylline, a synthetic amphetamine, caffeine, and other stimulants.
Fenethylline is metabolized by the body into two molecules: amphetamine and theophylline, both of which are stimulants.
It was made illegal in 1986 in most countries and discontinued in medical markets.
Concern: It has become a major concern for countries in the Middle East like Jordan, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/drug-captagon-germany-link-explained-9513706/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Californium:
- It is a radioactive metal that belongs to the actinide series in the periodic table.
- It is naturally found in environments across the globe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Bihar police have seized approximately 50 grams of californium, a highly radioactive element.
It is a silvery-white synthetic radioactive metal with the atomic number 98 on the periodic table.
It was first synthesised in 1950 by a team at the University of California, Berkeley.
The element is named after the American state of California and the university where it was discovered.
It is not found naturally and is produced through nuclear reactions, specifically by bombarding curium with helium ions.
Properties
It is known for its intense radioactivity and is considered both valuable and hazardous.
Californium is a member of the actinide series in the periodic table.
The element’s most notable isotopes include Cf-251, which has a half-life of 898 years and is the most stable, and Cf-249 and Cf-250, which have shorter half-lives.
Applications
It is a very strong neutron emitter and is used in portable metal detectors for identifying gold and silver ores, to help identify water and oil layers in oil wells, and to detect metal fatigue and stress in aeroplanes.
Its primary applications include starting nuclear reactors, optimising coal power plants, and treating certain cancers.
It is also used in radiography, gold prospecting, and as a neutron source in various industrial applications.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/californium-radioactive-substance-bihar-gopalganj-police-9516216/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS), recently seen in the news:
- It is a digital initiative leveraging Artificial Intelligence (AI) to provide timely pest management advisories to farmers across the country.
- It provides quick solutions to pest attacks and crop diseases, and thus improving productivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS)
It is a digital initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare leveraging Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Machine Learning (ML) to provide timely pest management advisories to farmers across the country.
It promises to reshape pest management practices and empower farmers across India.
The primary goal of NPSS is to reduce farmers’ reliance on pesticide retailers and foster a scientific approach to pest control.
The system comprises a user-friendly mobile app and a web portal, ensuring accessibility for all farmers.
By leveraging real-time data and advanced analytics, NPSS enables accurate pest identification, monitoring, and management.
Farmers will greatly benefit from NPSS as it provides quick solutions to pest attacks and crop diseases, reducing crop losses and thus improving productivity.
The system’s comprehensive pest incidence data and automated advisories will empower farmers with actionable insights, helping them make informed decisions and take proactive measures to protect their crops.
Hence both statements are correct.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/new-ai-platform-will-connect-farmers-and-scientists-over-phone-aid-in-pest-control/article68530026.ece
Consider the following statements:
- It is located in Arunachal Pradesh, surrounded by Myanmar on the Southeast.
- It is located at the junction of the Indian Sub-Continent Biogeographic Region and the Indo-China Biogeographic Region.
- It is home to the Hoolock Gibbons, the only ape species found in India.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following protected areas?
Namdapha National Park and Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
Namdapha National Park and Tiger Reserve
Recently, fifty-seven casual employees of Namdapha National Park and Tiger Reserve have been reinstated three months after their services were terminated.
It is located in the Changlang District of Arunachal Pradesh, surrounded by Myanmar on the Southeast.
It is located at the junction of the Indian Sub-Continent Biogeographic Region and the Indo-China Biogeographic Region. As a result of this, extensive diversity of flora and fauna is observed in this belt.
This protected area is wedged between the Dapha Bum ridge of Mishmi Hills, of North Eastern Himalayas and the Patkai Ranges.
It has a common boundary with Kamlang Wildlife Sanctuary (Lohit District) and Nampong Forest Division on the south-western side (Changlang District) of Arunachal Pradesh.
Namdapha is the name of a river which originates from Dapha Bumand meets the Noa-Dehing river (a tributary of the Brahmaputra River).
Vegetation: The Biomes recognized are evergreen Forests, Moist deciduous forests, sub-tropical forests, Temperate Forests and Alpine.
Flora:
As many as 150 timber species are found here, with species like Pinus Merkusi and Abies Delavavi being exclusive to the park.
Blue Vanda, a rare and endangered orchard, is also found here.
Then there are medicinal plants like Mishimi Teeta (Copti teeta), which is used by the local tribes to treat different types of diseases.
Fauna:
It is only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat namely the Tiger, Leopard, Snow Leopard, and Clouded Leopard, and numbers of Lesser cats.
It is also home to the distinctive Hoolock Gibbons, highly endangered and only ‘ape’ species found in India.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/arunachal-pradesh/arunachal-tiger-reserve-employees-reinstated/article68528528.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Solar Cycle:
- It is the cycle that the Sun’s magnetic field goes through approximately every 11 years.
- The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar maximum, when the Sun has the most sunspots.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Astronomers from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) have found a new method to predict the amplitude of the upcoming solar cycle.
About Solar Cycle
Our Sun is a huge ball of electrically charged hot gas.
This charged gas moves, generating a powerful magnetic field.
The Sun’s magnetic field goes through a cycle called the solar cycle.
Every 11 years or so, the Sun’s magnetic field completely flips. This means that the Sun’s north and south poles switch places.
Then it takes about another 11 years for the Sun’s north and south poles to flip back again.
One way to track the solar cycle is by counting the number of sunspots.
The beginning of a solar cycle is a solar minimum, or when the Sun has the least sunspots.
Over time, solar activity—and the number of sunspots—increases.
The middle of the solar cycle is the solar maximum, or when the Sun has the most sunspots.
As the cycle ends, it fades back to the solar minimum, and then a new cycle begins.
Giant eruptions on the Sun, such as solar flares and coronal mass ejections, also increase during the solar cycle.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iia-astronomers-find-new-method-to-predict-amplitude-of-upcoming-solar-cycle/article68528868.ece
With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements:
- It has been established for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation.
- It is guided by principles of natural justice.
- It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The southern bench of National Green Tribunal has set aside the environmental clearance granted to a pharmaceutical company to expand its unit in Krishnapatnam Industrial Area in Nellore, Andhra Pradesh.
About National Green Tribunal (NGT)
NGT has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
New Delhi is the principal place of sitting of the tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai shall be the other four places of sitting of the tribunal.
The NGT has the power to hear all civil cases relating to environmental issues and questions that are linked to the implementation of laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act. These include the following:
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974;
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977;
The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980;
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981;
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986;
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991;
The Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
NGT has appellate jurisdiction to hear appeals as a Court.
The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/chennai/ngt-sets-aside-environmental-clearance-for-pharma-company-in-nellore/articleshow/112553707.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Panama Canal:
- It is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
- The canal is under the operational control of the United States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Panama Canal is struggling to persuade traders in liquefied natural gas and food commodities such as grains to return to the trade route after they were forced out by a historic drought last year.
About Panama Canal
It is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean.
The canal cuts across the Isthmus of Panama and is a conduit for maritime trade.
It was cut through one of the narrowest saddles of the isthmus that joins North and South America.
It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal.
History:
France began work on the canal in 1881, but financial troubles and diseases made the initiative fail.
The United States took over the project on May 4, 1904, and opened the canal on August 15, 1914, and then managed the waterway until 1999.
On December 31, 1999, Panama took over full operation, administration, and maintenance of the Canal, in compliance with the Torrijos-Carter Treaties negotiated with the United States in 1977.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.ft.com/content/15ed10db-71d2-45ed-bd69-6f584b97b623
Consider the following statements regarding Malabar Tree Toad:
- It has the unique capability to climb trees and dwell unlike the majority of the toads in its habitat.
- It is endemic to India’s Eastern Ghats region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
According to a study climate change may decrease the distribution range of the Malabar Tree Toad (MTT) by up to 68.7 per cent of the current estimated distribution in India’s protected areas (PAs).
About Malabar Tree Toad
It is the only species in the monotypic genus Pedostibes.
It was first discovered in 1876 and the species was not sighted for more than 100 years.
It was later rediscovered in 1980 at Silent Valley National Park in Kerala.
Distribution: It is endemic to India’s Western Ghats.
Habitat: It can be found along streams, on trees, and in tree cavities at a height of about 30 cm –10 m above the ground, in evergreen to moist deciduous forests at an altitude ranging from 50 m to over 1000 m above sea level.
It is the only arboreal species in India, having the unique capability to climb trees and dwell unlike the majority of the toads in the region that are ground-dwelling.
It comes to the ground to breed in water pools at the edges of the streams generated during the monsoon.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/endemic-malabar-tree-toad-populations-may-decline-687-due-to-climate-change-study
Consider the following statements regarding Multidimensional Vulnerability Index:
- It is international quantitative benchmark to measure structural vulnerability and the lack of structural resilience.
- It helps small island nations gain access to the concessional financing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the UN General Assembly officially launched a new data-driven “vulnerability” index that would help small island states and developing nations gain access to low-interest financing.
It is a new international quantitative benchmark to measure structural vulnerability and the lack of structural resilience across multiple dimensions of sustainable development at the national level.
It is set to act as a complement to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and other development metrics.
It aims to capture exogenous vulnerabilities and lack of resilience to exogenous shocks of all developing countries, so as to ensure credibility and comparability.
It incorporates indicators linked to a state’s structural vulnerabilities and lack of economic, environmental and social resilience.
It is a vital tool to help Small Island nations gain access to the concessional financing that they need to survive the climate catastrophe, to improve their long-term national planning, service their debts, and sign up to insurance and compensation schemes that may be their last hope when the waters rise.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/business/un-launches-new-way-to-measure-nations-economic-vulnerability/article68524619.ece
With reference to International Earth Sciences Olympiad, consider the following:
- It aims to generate awareness of collaboration and exchanging of ideas about earth sciences.
- It is an annual competition for secondary school students from across the globe.
- India has participated in this Olympiad since 2023.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian student team has bagged multiple prestigious medals at the 17th edition of the International Earth Sciences Olympiad (IESO) held in Beijing, China, from August 08-16, 2024.
It was established in 2003 at the International Geoscience Education Organization Council Meeting in Calgary, Canada.
It is an annual competition for secondary school students from across the globe.
It aims to generate awareness of earth sciences through teamwork, collaboration, exchanging ideas, and competition.
The overall vision is to generate interest of the young in various fields of earth system sciences, with a focus on promoting awareness and solution-centric discussions around environmental challenges.
It is one of the most successful student-centric programs facilitated under the REACHOUT (Research, Education, Training and Outreach) scheme of the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
India has participated in the IESO since 2007 and hosted its 10th edition in Mysore.
India’s Initiative
To encourage the participation of Indian students (of grades 9 to 12), the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) supports the Indian National Earth Science Olympiad (INESO) held in various schools across India.
The INESO is a national-level prelude to the IESO, organised annually by the Geological Society of India in collaboration with MoES and select educational bodies in the country.
The topics for assessment for students include geology, meteorology, oceanography, and environmental sciences.
Top-performing participants from INESO get to represent India at the IESO, which also receives support from the MoES.
The MoES supports the INESO and IESO as part of the REACHOUT scheme under the PRITHVI (PRITHvi Vigyan) scheme approved by the Union Cabinet in January 2024.
The scheme’s goal is to improve understanding of Earth system sciences through research and development activities and to provide reliable services to the country.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2046223
Consider the following statements regarding the Krishi-Decision Support System:
- It is a geospatial platform specifically designed for Indian agriculture.
- It is developed jointly by the Ministry of Agriculture and the Department of Space.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union government launched a unique digital geospatial platform called Krishi-Decision Support System (Krishi-DSS).
It is a first-of-its-kind geospatial platform specifically designed for Indian agriculture.
Features
It captures minute details from the vast expanse of fields to the smallest soil particle.
The platform provides seamless access to comprehensive data including satellite images, weather information, reservoir storage, groundwater levels and soil health information, which can be easily accessed from anywhere at any time.
It’ll also give near real-time information on various indicators such as soil moisture, water storage, crop condition, dry spells, etc.
One nation-one soil information system of Krishi-DSS will give comprehensive soil data with embedded information on soil type, soil pH (potential of hydrogen), soil health, etc.
Significance
It will enable the government to understand cropping patterns by analysing parcel-level crop maps of different years.
The feature on drought monitoring in this platform will help the government to stay ahead of drought.
It will enable the government to accurately identify field-parcel units, which will help in understanding each parcel’s unique needs, and cropping patterns, for targeted interventions.
Soil data will help the government in assessing crop suitability and land capability for implementing soil-water conservation measures, officials said.
That apart, the ground-truth data library of Krishi-DSS will help in fostering innovation by providing essential resources for different crops to researchers and the industry.
By integrating data sources available on Krishi-DSS, various farmer-centric solutions — such as right individual advisories to farmers, early disaster warnings like pest attacks, heavy rain, hailstorms, etc. — can be developed.
It is developed jointly by the Ministry of Agriculture and the Department of Space.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2045987
Consider the following statements regarding Small Satellite Launch Vehicle:
- It is a two-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages.
- It can launch satellites weighing up to 500 kg.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launched the EOS-08 Earth Observation Satellite onboard the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)-D3 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
It is a three-stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages.
It also has a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage, which can help adjust the velocity as it prepares to place the satellite.
Aim: The aim behind SSLVs is to produce low-cost launch vehicles with short turnaround times and minimal infrastructural requirements.
It can launch satellites weighing up to 500 kg and accommodate multiple satellites.
Before SSLVs, smaller payloads had to be sent into Space using other launch vehicles carrying multiple, bigger satellites. They depended upon the launch schedules of those satellites.
The rocket provides low-cost access to space, offers low turn-around time and flexibility in accommodating multiple satellites, and demands minimal launch infrastructure.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/isro-sslv-launch-vehicle-features-9517682/
Mera Peak, recently seen in the news, is located in which country?
Nepal
Explanation :
A British man recently set a new Guinness World Record for the highest altitude ski BASE jump, leaping 18,753 feet from a cliff on Mera Peak.
About Mera Peak
It is located in the Khumbu region of Nepal.
It lies at 6,476m above sea level. It is the highest trekking peak in Nepal.
It dominates the watershed between the heavily wooded valleys of the Hinku and Hongu Drangkas.
It is known as the gateway to Everest. It sits on the southeastern side of the Everest region.
Generally, trekkers climb to Mera Central, although the highest one is Mera North Peak.
Mera Peak was first climbed in 1953 by Col. Jimmy Roberts and Sen Tenzing.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.republicworld.com/viral/uk-man-jumps-18753-feet-off-himalayan-peak-sets-world-record
It is a major river in North America. Rises from the Rocky Mountains, it drains into the Gulf of California. Hoover Dam, built for electricity, and the Grand Canyon are the major landmarks of the river.
Which of the following rivers is being described above?
Colorado
Explanation :
About Colorado River
It is a major river in North America.
Course:
Origin: It rises in the Rocky Mountains of Colorado, United States.
It flows through the US states of Colorado, Utah, Arizona, Nevada, and California, and the Mexican states of Baja California and Sonora.
It drains into the Gulf of California (an arm of the Pacific Ocean) in northwestern Mexico.
The Green River is the longest river feeding into the Colorado River.
Farther downstream, the lower Colorado is flanked by two great deserts, the Mojave and the Sonoran.
The river’s most famous landmark is the Grand Canyon in Arizona.
The river has several dams. The Hoover Dam is used to produce electricity.
It also forms Lake Mead, one of the largest artificial lakes in the world.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News:https://www.earth.com/news/where-is-the-colorado-river-water-going/
Consider the following diseases:
- Yellow Fever
- Kyasanur Forest Disease
- Hepatitis C
- Japanese Encephalitis
How many of the above diseases are caused by flaviviruses?
All four
Explanation :
A recent study has now identified a protein named importin-7 (IPO7), as a carrier that transports flavivirus core protein through the nuclear membrane and into the nucleus.
About Flaviviruses:
Flavivirus is any virus belonging to the family Flaviviridae.
Flaviviruses have enveloped and spherical virions (virus particles) that are between 40 and 60 nanometers in diameter.
The flavivirus genome consists of non-segmented single-stranded positive-sense RNA (ribonucleic acid).
Flaviviruses, when introduced into the human body, cause diseases, including neuro-infections, that can lead to serious metabolic consequences and even death.
Among the most dangerous and deadly members of the Flavivirus Family are Yellow Fever virus, Dengue virus, Zika virus, West Nile virus, Japanese Encephalitis virus, Tick-Borne Encephalitis virus, Kyasanur Forest virus, Alkhurma virus, and Omsk virus.
Aedes mosquitoes are the main vectors of many Flaviviruses and are primarily responsible for the spread of viral outbreaks of Dengue, Zika, and Yellow Fever.
Mosquitoes are not the only carriers, however. Ticks and other flying insects can also transmit these and other Flaviviruses from person to person and from animals to people.
Hepatitis C, the only non-vector-borne member of the Flavivirus family, is transmitted exclusively through direct blood-to-blood contact between humans.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://phys.org/news/2024-08-newly-mechanism-propagation-flaviviruses-reveals.html
With reference to Zebrafish, consider the following statements:
- It is a small freshwater fish, native to Africa.
- It has adequate regeneration capacity of almost all its organs.
- The majority of zebrafish genes are also present in a similar form in humans.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A new study maps out a detailed atlas of all the cells involved in regenerating the zebrafish spinal cord.
About Zebrafish
It is a small (2-3 cm long) freshwater fish found in tropical and subtropical regions.
The vertebrate takes its name from the horizontal blue stripes running the length of its body.
It is native to South Asia’s Indo-Gangetic plains, where they are mostly found in the paddy fields and even in stagnant water and streams.
Why do researchers investigate zebrafish?
It attracts developmental biologists due to its adequate regeneration capacity of almost all its organs, including the brain, heart, eye, and spinal cord.
It possesses several advantages over rodent models in the study of vertebrate development and disease.
They are easily bred in large numbers with a relatively low maintenance cost.
Approximately 70 percent of zebrafish genes are also present in a similar form in humans.
Over 80 percent of genes that are known to trigger disease in humans are also present in this fish.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/95643/OPS/GL0D79EOC.1+GB1D7AVRE.1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Aarogya Maitri Health Cube, recently seen in the news:
- It is the world’s first underwater hospital.
- It was designed indigenously under Project BHISHM (Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Indian Army and Air Force recently conducted a first-of-its-kind paradrop of the Aarogya Maitri Health Cube, the indigenously-made world’s first portable hospital, at 15,000 feet elevation.
About Aarogya Maitri Health Cube
It is the world’s first portable hospital.
It was designed indigenously under Project BHISHM (Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri),
It contains medical equipment and supplies such as a mini-ICU, an operation theatre, a cooking station, food, water, a power generator, blood test equipment, power generator, an X-ray machine, and more.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/video/army-air-force-airdrop-portable-hospital-aarogya-maitri-health-cube-2583974-2024-08-18
Consider the following statements regarding Eri Silk:
- It is renowned as the world’s only vegan silk, mainly cultured in Assam.
- It has recently obtained the prestigious Oeko-Tex certification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the North Eastern Handicrafts and Handlooms Development Corporation (NEHHDC) under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER), Govt. of India, has successfully obtained the prestigious Oeko-Tex certification for its Eri Silk.
It is renowned as the world’s only vegan silk, where, unlike other silks, the moth inside the cocoon is not killed. Instead, the moth naturally exits the cocoon, leaving it behind for us to use.
This method, which does not involve killing the moth, makes Eri silk a symbol of compassion and sustainability within the textile industry.
It is the product of the domesticated silkworm, Philosamia ricini that feeds mainly on castor leaves.
In India, this culture is practiced mainly in the north-eastern states and Assam. It is also found in Bihar, West Bengal and Orissa.
It is a Geographical Indication (GI) tagged product from Assam.
Key facts about Oeko-Tex certification
It involves a rigorous standard that ensures textiles are tested for harmful substances and produced in environment friendly conditions, is a significant endorsement for Eri Silk.
This achievement further cements the silk’s status as a Geographical Indication (GI) product of Assam, highlighting its authenticity and regional importance.
This certification marks a pivotal step in bringing Eri Silk closer to penetrating the global export market, expanding its reach, and establishing a strong international presence.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2046099
Glyptobasis dentifera, recently in news, is a:
Owlfly
Explanation :
Recently, a rare species of owlfly species Glyptobasis dentifera has been rediscovered after 75 years from Kerala by researchers.
They come under Order Neuroptera, which includes holometabolous insects while the dragonflies come under Order Odonata, which includes hemimetabolous insects.
These are misidentified as dragonflies by non-taxonomists because of their morphological resemblance.
The two distinguishing characteristics of owlflies are their long, clubbed antennae (nearly as long as the body) and their bulging eyes.
Some species of owlflies develop some color in their wings after their emergence.
Adult owlflies are aerial predators feeding on other insects. When disturbed, some owlflies release a strong, musk-like chemical to deter enemies.
Usually lay their eggs in groups at the tips of limbs and twigs. The female creates a protective shield below the eggs in order to prevent predators from reaching them.
Initially, owlfly larvae are usually found in the soil, or in trees where they live in clusters for defensive purposes.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/rare-owlfly-species-rediscovered-in-kerala-after-75-years/article68536162.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Namdhari Sect in Sikhism:
- It was founded by Satguru Ram Singh on Baisakhi in 1857.
- The followers of this sect believe in a living human Guru and do not consider the Guru Granth Sahib as Supreme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, hundreds of followers of two rival groups of the Namdhari religious sect clashed violently in Rania in Haryana’s Sirsa district
The sect was founded by Satguru Ram Singh on Baisakhi in 1857. He challenged the status quo, advocated social reform, and resisted the Raj in various ways.
The Namdharis were also known as “Kukas” because of their trademark style of reciting the “Gurbani” (Sayings/Teachings of the Guru).
This style was in a high-pitched voice called “Kook” in Punjabi. Thus, the Namdharis were also called “Kukas”.
Namdhari Sikhs consider the Guru Granth Sahib as the Supreme Gurbani, but they also believe in a living human Guru.
The Namdharis consider the cow to be sacred, and avoid even tea and coffee.
The sect’s headquarters is located in Ludhiana’s Bhaini Sahib near village Raiyaan, where Ram Singh was born. The sect has its deras across Punjab and Haryana, and has a presence in a few other countries, too.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-politics/explained-dispute-namdhari-sect-9519265/
Consider the following statements regarding the Bhavishya Software:
- It is an online Pension Sanction & Payment Tracking System which was launched by the Union Ministry of Finance.
- It has been integrated with the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) module of Central Pension Accounting Office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare (DOPPW) introduced, a unique innovative centralized pension processing software called ‘Bhavishya’ for all central government Ministries/Departments.
About Bhavishya Software
It is an online Pension Sanction & Payment Tracking System, launched by the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
It was launched to address the problems of delay & clerical errors in processing the pension cases, as well as financial loss and harassment to the pensioners.
Features:
Auto Registration of Retirees: It is integrated with payroll package and would auto fill of basic data of the retiring employees and provide the necessary MIS to the various departments as well as to the DOPPW the number of employees due to retire in the next 15 months.
Strict timelines: The software has laid down strict timelines for various stages of pension processing across all stakeholders involved. The process starts online 15 months prior to retirement and the pensioner has to fill up a single form once.
Transparency and Accountability: There is complete transparency and accountability in processing of a pension case and due to this system, it becomes very easy to identify the delay points if any, and fix responsibility.
e-PPO (Electronic Pension Payment Order): It has also been integrated with the Public Financial Management System (PFMS) module of Central Pension Accounting Office (CGA) and e-PPO is transmitted by the concerned Ministry/Department’s PAO to CPAO from where it goes to the Bank.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2046070
Consider the following statements regarding the Green Tug Transition Program:
- It is designed to phase out conventional fuel-based harbour tugs operating in Indian major ports.
- The Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority act as a nodal agency of this programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Port Shipping and Waterways officially launched the Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) for Green Tug Transition Program (GTTP).
About Green Tug Transition Program
GTTP was launched on May 22, 2023, is a key initiative under the ‘Panch Karma Sankalp’.
It is designed to phase out conventional fuel-based harbour tugs operating in Indian Major Ports and replace them with green tugs powered by cleaner and more sustainable alternate fuels.
Implementation phases
Phase 1 of the GTTP will begin on October 1, 2024, and continue until December 31, 2027.
During this phase, four major ports—Jawaharlal Nehru Port Authority, Deendayal Port Authority, Paradip Port Authority, and V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority will procure or charter at least two green tugs each, based on standardized designs and specifications issued by the Standing Specification Committee (SSC).
National Centre of Excellence in Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS) will act as the nodal entity for this programme.
India aims at becoming a ‘Global Hub for Green Ship’ building by 2030 with the launch of the Green Tug Transition Programme (GTTP).
‘Green Hybrid Tugs’ will be powered by Green Hybrid Propulsion systems. These Green hybrid tugs will subsequently adopt non-fossil fuel solutions like (Methanol, Ammonia, and Hydrogen).
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2045946
Consider the following statements:
- It lies on the junction of the Aravalis and Vindhyan ranges.
- It was once a royal hunting ground for the Maharajas of Jaipur.
- It is bounded by the Chambal River in the south and the Banas River in the north.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following protected areas?
Ranthambore Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
The forest department recently imposed a penalty of Rs 1 lakh each on 14 SUV owners who illegally entered Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR) during an adventure rally.
About Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (RTR):
It lies on the junction of Aravalis and Vindhyan ranges just 14 Kilometers from Sawai Madhopur district in Eastern Rajasthan.
It is one of the largest tiger reserves in northern India and spreads over an area of 1411 sq. km.
It was once a royal hunting ground for the Maharajas of Jaipur.
The scenery changes significantly from the gentle and steep slopesof the Vindhyasto the sharp and conical hills of the Aravali valley.
The Rivers Chambal in the south and the Banas River in the north bound the tiger reserve.
The reserve is dotted with steep rocky hills, and the dominant architecture of Ranthambor Fort (built in the 10th era and a UNESCO World Heritage Site) adds to its landscape.
A major environmental feature is the ‘Great Boundary Fault’where the Vindhyas plateau meets the Aravali range.
There are several lakes in the reserve known as Padam Talab, Raj Bagh Talab, and MalikTalab.
Vegetation: Tropical dry deciduous and tropical thorn type.
Flora: Pure sands of Dhok tree (Anogeissus pendula) interspersed with grasslands at the plateaus; meadows in valleys and luxuriant foliage around the canals make the jungle.
Fauna:
The tiger is the main predator,along with Leopard.
It is also home to wild boar, sloth bear, striped hyena, rhesus macaque, southern plains grey langur, 250 avifaunal species, and many more.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/14-suv-owners-fined-1l-each-for-illegal-entry-into-ranthambore-tiger-reserve/articleshow/112598737.cms
Consider the following statements regarding the Hakki Pikki Tribe, recently seen in the news:
- They are a semi-nomadic tribe, traditionally of bird catchers and hunters.
- They primarily reside in the Indian state of Odisha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Hakki Pikki tribal community members have emerged as successful entrepreneurs in the hair oil industry.
About Hakki Pikki Tribe:
Hakki Pikkis (Hakki in Kannada means ‘bird’ and Pikki means ‘catchers’) are a semi-nomadic tribe, traditionally of bird catchers and hunters.
It is one of the major tribal communities in Karnataka. They also reside in the Western and Southern states of India, mostly near forest areas.
The community migrated from Northern India, mainly Gujarat and Rajasthan and is now mainly concentrated in Shivamogga, Davanagere and Mysuru districts of Karnataka.
They are recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in India.
Language:
Though the community lives in the southern part of India, surrounded by Dravidian languages, they speak Indo Aryan language.
Scholars named their mother tongue as ‘Vaagri’.
They speak ‘Vaagri’ at home, but they speak Kannada for their daily business.
UNESCO has listed Hakkipikki as one of the endangered languages.
Occupation:
After the implementation of stricter wildlife laws, the tribe changed its occupation from hunting to selling spices, flowers, Ayurveda formulations, and herbal oils.
They now travel globally to sell these products, especially in the African continent, where there is a demand for cheaper alternatives to Western medicine.
Rituals and customs:
The tribe follows Hindu traditions and celebrates Hindu festivals.
The tribe prefers cross-cousin marriages.
The society is matriarchal, where the groom gives a dowry to the bride’s family.
The eldest son in a family is not supposed to cut his hair so that he can be identified easily.
They are non-vegetarians.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://theprint.in/feature/hakki-pikki-tribe-has-bollywood-celebs-on-speed-dial-adivasi-hair-oil-on-promotion-drive/2228015/
Consider the following statements regarding Purandar figs, recently seen in the news:
- They are known to be one of India’s finest figs, known for their sweet taste, size and nutritional benefits.
- They are cultivated in many villages of Purandar taluk, Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
With reference to the National Coal Index (NCI), consider the following statements:
- It is a price index released quarterly by the Ministry of Coal.
- It is meant to encompass all transactions of raw coal in the Indian market.
- The downward trajectory of the NCI signifies a more equitable market, harmonizing supply and demand dynamics.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The National Coal Index (NCI) has shown a significant decline of 3.48 percent in June 2024 at 142.13 points on a provisional basis compared to 147.25 points in June 2023.
About National Coal Index (NCI):
The NCI is a price index which reflects the change in the price level of coalina particular month relative to the fixed base year.
NCI combines the prices of coal from all the sales channels-Notified Prices, Auction Prices, and Import Prices.
It has been rolled out on 4th June 2020, and the aim is to have an index that will truly reflect the market price.
The concept and design of the index as well as the representative prices have been developed by the Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata.
It is released every month by the Ministry of Coal.
The base year is FY 2017-18.
The index is meant to encompass all transactions of raw coal in the Indian market.
This includes coking and non-coking of various grades transacted in the regulated (power and fertilizer) and non-regulated sectors.
Washed coal and coal products are not included.
The NCI’s upward movement indicates rising demand for coal, which will encourage coal producers to take maximum benefit by further scaling-up domestic coal production to meet the growing energy demands.
The downward trajectory of the NCI signifies a more equitable market, harmonizing supply and demand dynamics.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/national-coal-index-declines-348-in-june-2024/article68532456.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Directorate General of Quality Assurance (DGQA):
- It is an Inter-Service Organisation functioning under the Department of Defence Production in the Ministry of Defence.
- It was formed after the 1962 Sino-India war and is responsible for second-party Quality Assurance (QA) of all defence stores and equipment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) recently handed over the Authority Holding Sealed Particulars (AHSP) of ‘Nipun’ munition to Directorate General of Quality Assurance (DGQA).
About Directorate General of Quality Assurance (DGQA):
DGQA is an Inter-Service Organisation functioning under the Department of Defence Production in the Ministry of Defence.
This organisation is more than a hundred years old and is responsible for second-party Quality Assurance (QA) of all defence stores and equipment, both imported as well as indigenous, for the Army, Navy (excluding Naval Armaments), and common user items for the Air Force procured from Private Sector, Public Sector Undertakings and Ordnance Factories.
DGQA approval implies that the products have been subjected to extensive testing, including simulations of extreme conditions.
Apart from QA activities, the organisation is responsible for import substitution and associates with DRDO in the development projects.
It also ensures Documentation, Codification and Standardisation Action for minimizing the variety of components/equipment.
The other services rendered are promotion of small-scale industries, post-procurement services, Defect Investigations and Technical Consultancy to the users, the Ministry and the production agencies.
Organisational Structure:
DGQA Organisation is structured into eleven Technical Directorates, each responsible for a distinct range of equipment.
The Technical Directorates are structured in two tiers for functional purposes, comprising of Controllerates and Field Quality Assurance Establishments.
In addition, there are Proof Establishments in Armament Discipline for carrying out proof of weapons and ammunition.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2045992
Shiveluch volcano, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Russia
Explanation :
Recently, Shiveluch volcano in Russia erupted after a 7.0 magnitude earthquake that struck off the eastern coast of the country.
Location: It is located around 280 miles from Petropavlovsk-Kamchatsky, in Russia’s Kamchatka.
It is one of the largest and most active volcanoes in Kamchatka, having erupted at least 60 times in the past 10,000 years.
It has two main parts:
Old Shiveluch, which tops 3,283 metres (10,771 ft), and
Young Shiveluch – a smaller, 2,800-metre peak protruding from its side.
Young Shiveluch lies within an ancient caldera – a large crater-like basin that likely formed when the older part underwent a catastrophic eruption at least 10,000 years ago.
The volcano has been continuously erupting since August 1999, but occasionally undergoes powerful explosive events, including in 2007.
Key facts about Kamchatka Peninsula
It lies in far eastern Russia, between the Sea of Okhotsk on the west and the Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea on the east.
It is one of the world’s most concentrated areas of geothermal activity, with about 30 active volcanoes.
It is about 1,200 km long north-south and about 480 km across at its widest.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/shiveluch-volcano-erupts-after-70-magnitude-earthquake-strikes-off-eastern-russian-coast/article68539182.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the National Film Awards:
- These awards are administered by the Directorate of Film Festivals since 1973.
- These are given in three categories namely feature Films, non-feature films and best writing in Cinema.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the winners of the 70th National Film Awards were announced by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting (I&B).
The National Film Awards were established in 1954, when the awards were given for the films of the year 1953.
It aims at encouraging the production of films of aesthetic & technical excellence and social relevance and also to increase appreciation of different cultures and communities across India.
The awards were initially called ‘State Awards’ and two President’s Gold Medals, two certificates of merit, and 12 silver medals for regional films were presented in the earlier years.
The National Film Awards are given in three sections: Feature Films, Non-Feature Films and Best Writing in Cinema.
These awards are administered by the Directorate of Film Festivals since 1973.
Key points about the Directorate of Film Festivals
It was set up under this Ministry of Information and Broadcasting in 1973.
Objectives: Promotion of Indian films and cultural exchange through organization of various events in the country and participation in various International film festivals in abroad.
Directorate of Film Festivals has been designated as Nodal Agency for scrutiny of applications received for financial assistance under the Film Promotion Fund.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/movies/70th-national-film-awards-full-list-of-winners/article68531760.ece
Guam Island, recently seen in the news, is located in:
Pacific Ocean
Explanation :
Recently, INS Shivalik reached Guam for an Operational Turnaround on successful completion of the recently concluded world’s largest Multinational Maritime Exercise RIMPAC 2024.
Guam island is the largest, most populous, and southernmost of the Mariana Islands in the Northern Pacific Ocean.
It is an island territory of the United States of America.
It was a Spanish colony till 1898, then became a US territory after the Spanish-American War.
Climate: has a pleasant tropical climate tempered by the northeast trade winds and the north equatorial ocean current that flows west across the Pacific.
Native Guamanians, ethnically called Chamorros, are of basically Malayo-Indonesian descent with a considerable admixture of Spanish, Filipino, Mexican, and other European and Asian ancestries.
Capital: The capital city is Hagatna.
Key facts about INS Shivalik
It is the firststealth multi-role frigates built for the Indian Navy.
It is built at the Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL), located in Mumbai.
It was commissioned into the Indian Navy on April 29, 2010.
Features:
Maximum Speed: 32 knots (59 km/h)
It features improved stealth and land-attacking features over the preceding Talwar-class frigates.
It is also the first Indian Navy ship to use the CODOG propulsion system.
It is equipped with a mix of Russian, Indian, and Western weapon systems.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Visakhapatnam/ins-shivalik-reaches-guam-an-island-territory-of-the-us/article68529200.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the RISE Accelerator Programme:
- It is a bilateral program led by CSIRO Australia and the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog.
- It supports start-ups and MSMEs in validating, adapting and piloting their technologies for new markets.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Atal Innovation Mission - in partnership with CSIRO, Australia - is inviting applications from start-ups and MSMEs from India and Australia for the Climate Smart Agritech cohort of the India Australia.
The India Australia Rapid Innovation and Start-up Expansion (RISE) Accelerator is a bilateral program led by CSIRO and the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog.
It addresses India and Australia’s shared challenges with a focus on environment and climate issues by supporting the expansion of innovative agritech solutions across borders.
It was launched in 2023 - has been instrumental in supporting start-ups and MSMEs in validating, adapting, and piloting their technologies for new markets.
The Rapid Innovation and Start-up Expansion (RISE) Accelerator programme is designed to support businesses aiming for international expansion between India and Australia.
This marks a significant milestone in fostering innovations that address India and Australia’s most pressing shared challenges in the agriculture sector.
The Climate Smart Agritech cohort of the RISE Accelerator will focus on
Start-ups and MSMEs with technologies and solutions that enhance agricultural productivity and resilience in the face of growing climate variability, resource scarcity and food insecurity.
The program is particularly interested in start-ups and MSMEs with solutions that prioritise farmer needs, priorities, and on-farm practices.
Over the course of the nine months of the accelerator program, the selected start-ups and MSMEs will benefit from a blend of self-paced online learning and in-person sessions, including immersion weeks in both India and Australia.
The program will also involve field trials and technology pilot in the latter half.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2046486
Consider the following statements regarding Gross Environment Product Index:
- It is integrative metric designed to evaluate ecological development caused by human interventions.
- It is determined by the condition of two main constituents namely air and water only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Uttarakhand has become the first Indian state to launch a Gross Environment Product Index.
It is presented as a novel, integrative metric designed exclusively to evaluate ecological development caused by human interventions.
It will be determined by the condition of four main constituents of the environment which are directly impacted by development activities including air and water quality, number of trees planted in a year and the measure of the area of organic soil.
The formula is, GEP index = (Air-GEP index + Water-GEP index + Soil-GEP index + Forest-GEP index)
It provides quantzierte assessments of improvements in air, water, soil, and forest quality.
Significance
It helps in assessing the impact of anthropological pressure on our ecosystem and natural resources.
It provides a robust and integrated method for assessing a state’s ecological growth, capturing various facets of environmental well-being as a result of human actions
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.theweek.in/news/india/2024/08/14/what-is-gross-environment-product-index-uttarakhand-leads-the-way-in-eco-conservation.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Bhima River:
- It is a major tributary of the Krishna River.
- The majority of its basin area lies in Karnataka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Two young lives were tragically lost in the Bhima River in Ganagapur, Kalaburagi district, recently.
About Bhima River:
The Bhima River (also known as the Chandrabagha River) is the largest tributary of the Krishna River.
Course:
It originates near Bhimashankar Temple in the Bhimashankar hills on the western side of the Western Ghats in the Pune District of Maharashtra.
Bhima flows southeast through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana.
It merges into the Krishna River in Karnataka’s Raichur district.
This 861 km-long river has the Western Ghats on the west, the Balaghat Range in the north, and the Mahadeo Hills in the south.
The total basin area of the river is 48,631 sq. km, out of which 75 per cent lies in the state of Maharashtra.
It runs in a well-entrenched valley and its banks are heavily populated.
Its water level is marked by monsoonal changes; it is flooded in August following the rains and is practically stagnant in March and April.
Tributaries: Major tributaries are the Indrayani River, Mula River, Mutha River, and Pavana River.
Pandharpur is an important pilgrimage centre located on the right bank of the Bhima River.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hubballi/tragic-drowning-incident-in-bhima-river/articleshow/112536517.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Self-Regulatory Organisations (SROs):
- It is a non-governmental entity created by members of a particular industry to help govern themselves.
- It is not subject to any of the government-imposed regulations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Reserve Bank of India recently issued a framework to recognise self-regulatory organisations in the financial markets.
About Self-Regulatory Organizations (SROs):
An SRO, is generally a non-governmental entity created by members of a particular industry or sector to help govern the companies in that industry.
An SRO sets and enforces rules and standards relating to the conduct of entities in the industry (members) to protect the customer and promote ethics, equality and professionalism.
SROs typically collaborate with all stakeholders in framing rules and regulations.
Their self-regulatory processes are administered through impartial mechanisms such that members operate in a disciplined environment and accept penal actions by the SRO.
An SRO is expected to address concerns beyond the narrow self-interests of the industry, such as to protect workers, customers, or other participants in the ecosystem.
Although SROs are private organizations, they are still subject to government-imposed regulation to a degree. However, the government does delegate some aspects of the industry oversight to SROs.
Since the SRO has some regulatory influence over an industry or profession, it can often serve as a watchdog to guard against fraud or unprofessional practices.
The ability of an SRO to exercise regulatory authority does not stem from a grant of power from the government.
Instead, SROs often accomplish control through internal mechanisms that regulate the flow of business operations.
The authority may also come from an external agreement between businesses.
The purpose of these organizations is to govern from within while avoiding ties to a country’s governance.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/self-regulatory-organisation-sro-framework-rbi-12801267.html/amp
With reference to Yaks, consider the following statements:
- They are herd animals with long, humped hair.
- The wild yak inhabits the alpine tundra while the domestic yak can survive in much lower altitudes.
- Wild Yaks are classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Around 40 Chinese yaks recently ventured into the Indian territory in the Demchok area of eastern Ladakh and are in the control of the villagers there.
About Yaks:
Yaks are found throughout the Himalayan region of south-central Asia, the Tibetan plateau, and Mongolia are herd animals with long, humped hair.
Scientific Name: Wild yaks are sometimes referred to as a separate species (Bos mutus) to differentiate them from domestic yaks (Bos grunniens), although they are freely interbred with various kinds of cattle.
Habitat:
The wild yak inhabits the alpine tundra at altitudes of 5000 to 7000 m, while the domestic yak can survive in much lower altitudes.
The habitat can vary, consisting of three areas with different vegetation: Alpine meadow, alpine steppe and desert steppe.
The yak-rearing states of India are Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and the union territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh.
Features:
Wild yaks stand about two meters tall at the shoulder. Domestic yaks are about half that height.
Both types have long, shaggy hair to insulate them from the cold.
Both sexes have curved horns, with males having more massive horns than females.
Wild yaks can be either brown or black. Domesticated ones can also be white.
Yaks’ lung capacity is about three times that of cattle, and they have more and smaller red blood cells, improving the blood’s ability to transport oxygen.
They are herbivorous.
Uses:
Domesticated yaks are kept primarily for their milk and meat.
They are also used as beasts of burden, transporting goods across mountain passes for local farmers and traders as well as in support of climbing and trekking expeditions.
They can negotiate steep mountain cliffs quite easily. They can climb up to 20,000 feet in altitude.
Wild Yaks are classified as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/chinese-yaks-stray-onto-indian-side-held-by-villagers-in-eastern-ladakh/article68544052.ece
With reference to Parvovirus B19, consider the following statements:
- It is a highly contagious illness, particularly in those with weakened immune systems.
- The virus can be spread through airborne droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
- It is a life-threatening disease with mortality rates of more than 70 percent.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The US centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recently issued a healthy advisory due to concerning rise in cases of parvovirus B19.
About Parvovirus B19:
It is a highly contagious and common illness, particularly in those with weakened immune systems.
It is commonly known as the “slapped cheek” illness due to the characteristic reddening of the cheeks it causes.
Parvovirus infection has also been known as ‘Fifth disease’ because, historically, it was fifth in a list of common childhood illnesses characterized by a rash.
Transmission:
The virus can be spread through airborne droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
It may also spread through blood or contaminated blood products.
Pregnant people with parvovirus can spread the virus to the fetus through the placenta.
Complications:
In most children, parvovirus infection is mild and needs little treatment.
But in some adults, the infection can be serious. Parvovirus infection in some pregnant women can lead to serious health problems for the fetus.
The infection is also more serious for people with some kinds of anemia or who have a compromised immune system.
Symptoms:
Most people with parvovirus infection have no signs or symptoms.
When symptoms do appear, they vary greatly depending on how old you are when you get the disease.
Common symptoms include “slapped cheek” rash in children, and joint pains in adults.
Treatment:
Parvovirus B19 infections are usually mild and will go away on their own.
Treatment usually involves relieving symptoms, such as fever, itching, and joint pain and swelling.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.india.com/health/parvovirus-b19-alert-what-is-slapped-cheek-disease-all-you-need-to-know-about-this-rising-respiratory-virus-7177719/
Consider the following statements regarding Miyawaki Method:
- It is a method of afforestation based on natural reforestation principles.
- It involves planting exotic species adapted to the local climate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Chhattisgarh Forest Department recently organised a Van Mahotsav programme in the Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur (MCB) district by planting saplings using the Miyawaki method.
About Miyawaki Method:
It is a method of afforestation developed by the Japanese botanist and plant ecology expert Professor Akira Miyawaki.
It involves planting two to four types of indigenous trees within every square meter.
Due to the dense planting, the seedlings grow quickly as they compete for sunlight.
Only native species that would occur naturally in that area without humans, given the specific climate condition, are planted.
The selection of species to plant in a given area was originally linked to the theory of Potential Natural Vegetation (PNV), in other words, the vegetation that would occur in a specific area without further human interference.
In this method, the trees become self-sustainable and grow to their full length within three years.
Miyawaki forests grow 10x faster, are 30x denser and contain 100x more biodiversity.
They are quick to establish, maintenance-free after the first two-to-three years, and can be created on sites as small as 3 sq. m.
The goals of a Miyawaki technique include improving biodiversity, sequestering carbon, increasing green cover, lowering air pollution, and preserving the water table.
Miyawaki forests are viable solutions for cities looking to rapidly build climate resilience.
It is effective because it is based on natural reforestation principles, i.e., using trees native to the area and replicating natural forest regeneration processes.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/raipur/japans-miyawaki-mini-forests-combating-urban-heat-island-and-pollution/articleshow/112638019.cms
The Hayflick Limit, recently seen in the news, explains about:
cell division in human body
Explanation :
Biomedical researcher Leonard Hayflick, who discovered that normal somatic cells can divide (and thus reproduce) only a certain number of times was died recently.
Hayflick limit refers to the maximum number of times a cell can divide.
It’s named after scientist Leonard Hayflick, who discovered this phenomenon.
The limit plays a crucial role in aging and the development of age-related diseases.
Hayflick found that cells go through three phases.
The first is rapid, healthy cell division.
In the second phase, mitosis slows. In the third stage, senescence, cells stop dividing entirely.
They remain alive for a time after they stop dividing, but sometime after cellular division ends, cells do a particularly disturbing thing: Essentially, they commit suicide.
Once a cell reaches the end of its life span, it undergoes a programmed cellular death called apoptosis.
Hayflick’s discovery got further weight after researchers in the 1970s discovered telomeres.
Telomeres are repetitive DNA sequences at the very end of these strands, meant to protect the chromosome.
Crucially, with each cell division, these telomeres get slightly shorter. Eventually, the telomere loss reaches a critical point at which cell division ends.
That said, while shortening telomeres is related to aging, the exact relationship between telomere length and lifespan remains unclear.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/hayflick-limit-why-immortality-remains-out-of-humans-reach-9522701/
Consider the following statements regarding National Geoscience Award:
- It is one of the oldest and most prestigious national awards in the field of geosciences.
- It was instituted by the Union Ministry of Earth Science.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The President of India will confer the prestigious National Geoscience Awards - 2023 at the Rashtrapati Bhavan Cultural Centre, New Delhi.
It is one of the oldest and most prestigious national awards in the field of geosciences.
This award was instituted by the Ministry of Mines, Govt. of India in the year 1966.
Before the year 2009, these awards were called as National Mineral Awards.
Objective: The objective of these Awards is to honour individuals and teams for extraordinary achievements and outstanding contributions in various fields of geosciences i.e. mineral discovery & exploration, Mining Technology & Mineral Beneficiation, fundamental/ applied geosciences.
Eligibility: Any citizen of India with significant contribution in any field of geosciences is eligible for the award.
The Ministry of Mines confers National Geoscience Awards every year in three categories:
National Geoscience Award for Lifetime Achievement
National Geoscience Award
National Young Geoscientist Award
This award is a symbol of recognition and appreciation for exceptional individuals and organizations that have demonstrated excellence, dedication and innovation in the realm of Geosciences.
For NGA 2023, after detailed deliberations, the Ministry of Mines has finally selected 12 awards which include 09 individual awards and 03 team awards.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2046669#:~
Consider the following statements regarding the Court of Arbitration for Sport:
- It hears disputes of a commercial nature as well as disciplinary nature.
- It works under the administrative and financial authority of the International Council of Arbitration for Sport (ICAS).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Court of Arbitration for Sport (CAS) upheld Vinesh Phogat’s disqualification from the Paris Olympics for exceeding the weight limit by 100 grams.
It was created in 1984 and is placed under the administrative and financial authority of the International Council of Arbitration for Sport (ICAS).
It is an institution independent of any sports organization which provides for services in order to facilitate the settlement of sports-related disputes through arbitration or mediation by means of procedural rules adapted to the specific needs of the sports world.
Functions
It has the task of resolving legal disputes in the field of sport through arbitration.
It does this pronouncing arbitral awards that have the same enforceability as judgements of ordinary courts.
It can also help parties solve their disputes on an amicable basis through mediation, when this procedure is allowed.
It sets up non-permanent tribunals, which it does for the Olympic Games, the Commonwealth Games or other similar major events.
To take into account the circumstances of such events, special procedural rules are established on each occasion.
What kinds of dispute can be submitted to the CAS?
Any disputes directly or indirectly linked to sport may be submitted to the CAS.
These may be disputes of a commercial nature (e.g. a sponsorship contract), or of a disciplinary nature following a decision by a sports organisation (e.g. a doping case).
Who can refer a case to the CAS?
Any individual or legal entity with capacity to act may have recourse to the services of the CAS.
These include athletes, clubs, sports federations, organisers of sports events, sponsors or television companies.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/sports/others/cas-arbitrator-calls-vinesh-s-axing-draconian-but-sticks-to-rules-101724090439245.html
Consider the following statements regarding Banni Grass land:
- It is located along the northern border of Gujarat.
- Chhari Dhand Conservation Reserve is part of this grassland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, in a new study, researchers in Bhuj, have assessed the suitability of different areas of Banni for sustainable grassland restoration, considering ecological value to be the primary criterion.
It is located along the northern border of Kachchh district in the state of Gujarat.
The Banni is also home to 22 ethnic groups, the majority of whom are pastoralists.
It is home to great biological diversity, having 37 grass species, 275 bird species, and domesticated animals like Buffalo, Sheep, Goat, Horses and Camel, as well as wildlife.
The Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary and Chhari Dhand Conservation Reserve are part of the Banni Grasslands.
Flora: The vegetation here mainly comprises Prosopis Juliflora, Cressa critica, Cyperus spp, Sporobolus, Dichanthium, and Aristida.
Fauna: It is home to mammals such as the Nilgai, Chinkara, Blackbuck, Wild boar, Golden Jackal, Indian Hare, Indian Wolf, Caracal, Asiatic Wildcat and Desert Fox etc.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/how-the-banni-grasslands-of-kachchh-gujarat-can-be-restored/article68544243.ece
With reference to Lungfish, consider the following statements:
- It is a freshwater species that first appeared during the Devonian Period.
- It possesses a pair of lung-like organs for breathing.
- It is mainly found in India and Bangladesh.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A recent study revealed that the South American lungfish genome grew massively during the past 100 million years.
It is a freshwater species (Lepidosiren paradoxa).
It is the nearest living relative to the first land vertebrates and closely resembles its primordial ancestors dating back more than 400 million years.
Distribution: It is mainly found in slow-moving and stagnant waters in Brazil, Argentina, Peru, Colombia, Venezuela, French Guiana and Paraguay.
It has the largest genome compared to any of the animals on the earth.
The length of the DNA in each cell of this lungfish would extend almost 60 metres. The human genome would extend a mere 2 metres.
Its genome is more than 50 times the human genome’s size.
The world’s four other lungfish species live in Africa, also with large genomes.
Its genomes are largely composed of repetitive elements – about 90% of the genome.
Key features of Lungfish
Lungfish first appeared during the Devonian Period.
It was during the Devonian that one of the most important moments in the history of life on the earth occurred: when fish possessing lungs and muscular fins evolved into the first tetrapods.
While other fish rely upon gills to breathe, lungfish also possess a pair of lung-like organs.
It lives in oxygen-starved, swampy environs of the Amazon and Parana-Paraguay River basins, and supplements the oxygen gotten from the water by breathing in oxygen from the air.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/south-american-lungfish-has-largest-genome-of-any-animal/article68536306.ece
Teesta-V Hydropower Station, recently seen in the news, lies in which one of the following states?
Sikkim
Explanation :
A landslide damaged six houses and a building of the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) at the site of its Teesta-V hydropower station in Sikkim’s Gangtok district recently.
About Teesta-V Hydropower Station:
It is a 510 MW hydropower project located on the Teesta River basin in Gangtok district, Sikkim.
This run-of-river project has an 88.6-meter high, 176.5-meter-long, concrete gravity dam impounding a regulating reservoir for daily power peaking.
It has been developed in a single phase. The project construction commenced in 1999 and subsequently entered into commercial operation in 2008.
The project is developed and owned by the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC).
Key Facts about Teesta River:
It is a trans-Himalayan River flowing through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal and Rangpur in Bangladesh.
It is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River.
This river forms a boundary between Sikkim and West Bengal.
Course:
It rises in the Himalayas near Chunthang in Sikkim (India) and flows to the south, cutting a deep gorge through the Siwalik Hills east of Darjiling (in West Bengal, India).
It turns southeast to run through the Sivok Khola pass onto the plains of West Bengal.
Originally, the river continued southward to empty directly into the upper Padma River (Ganges).
About 1787, however, the river changed its course to flow eastward, crossing the Rangpur region of Bangladesh to join the Jamuna River (Brahmaputra).
It has a total length of about 309 kilometers and it drains an area of about 12,540 square kilometers.
Major Tributaries:
Left-bank Tributaries: Lachung Chhu, Chakung Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola, Rangpo Chhu.
Right-bank Tributaries: Zemu Chhu, Rangyong Chhu, Rangit River.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/sikkim/510-mw-teesta-stage-5-dams-power-station-destroyed-by-landslide-in-sikkim/article68546273.ece
With reference to Poland, consider the following statements:
- It is a country in eastern Europe.
- It is a parliamentary republic.
- Its capital is Belgrade.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Members of the Indian community in Warsaw have expressed excitement over the Indian Prime Minister’s upcoming visit to Poland, which will be the first visit by an Indian PM to Poland in 45 years.
About Poland:
It is a country in central Europe.
Borders:
Poland’s borders have changed many times over the centuries. Its present borders were set after World War II ended in 1945.
Poland has seven neighbors: Germany, Slovakia, the Czech Republic, Lithuania, Belarus, Ukraine, and Russia.
It has a variety of striking landscapes, from the sandy beaches of the Baltic Sea coast in the north and the rolling central lowlands to the snowcapped peaks of the Carpathian and Sudeten Mountains in the south.
History:
In 1795, Poland was conquered and divided up among Russia, Prussia (now Germany), and Austria.
Poland ceased to exist as a country for 123 years.
In 1918, after World War I, Poland was restored as a country. But just 21 years later, Germany and the Soviet Union attacked, intent on dividing Poland between them.
The aggression marked the beginning of World War II.
With the fall of Nazi Germany, Poland effectively lost its independence once again, becoming a communist satellite state of the Soviet Union.
Nearly a half-century of totalitarian rule followed, though not without strong challenges on the part of Poland’s workers, who, supported by a dissident Catholic Church, called the economic failures of the Soviet system into question.
In the late 1970s, beginning in the shipyards of Gdańsk, those workers formed a nationwide movement called Solidarity (Solidarność).
In May 1989, the Polish government fell along with communist regimes throughout Eastern Europe, beginning Poland’s rapid transformation into a democracy.
Capital: Warsaw
Official Language: Polish
Money: Zloty
Area: 312,685 sq. km.
Major Mountain Ranges: Carpathians, Sudetens
Major Rivers: Vistula, Oder
Poland has more than 1,300 lakes throughout the country.
Form of Government:
Poland is a parliamentary republic with a Prime Minister who is the head of government and a President who is the head of State.
The government structure is centred on the Council of Ministers.
It is a member of both NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) and the European Union (EU).
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/waiting-to-see-him-indian-diaspora-in-warsaw-excited-for-pm-modis-visit-to-poland/articleshow/112639445.cms
Consider the following statements regarding Slow Lorises:
- They are the world’s only venomous primates.
- They are found exclusively in South and Southeast Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Villagers in Shimlabagan, located in the Shantipur area on the Indo-Bhutan border in Chirang District, Assam, have reported the sighting of a rare species of the endangered primate Slow Lorris.
About Slow Loris:
Found exclusively in South and Southeast Asia, slow lorises are the world’s only venomous primates.
They’re arboreal—meaning they live in trees—and can be spotted curling up to sleep in branches or using vines and leaves to get around.
They typically only come down to the forest floor when they need to defecate.
There are nine species of slow loris. They all belong to the same genus, with each species sharing many similar characteristics and behaviours.
The nine species include the Philippine slow loris, Bengal slow loris, greater slow loris, Kayan slow loris, Bangka slow loris, Bornean slow loris, Sumatran slow loris, Javan slow loris, and pygmy slow loris.
Bengal slow loris (Nycticebus bengalensis) is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. It is also legally protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
The range of the Bengal slow loris extends from Vietnam to China, but in India, it is confined to India’s northeast.
Features of Slow Lorises:
These small, nocturnal creatures are characterised by their large, round eyes, which are adapted for night vision.
They have compact bodies, short snouts, dense fur and distinctive facial markings.
On average, they measure 20 to 37 centimetres (or 10 to 15 inches) long.
Slow lorises each have a small bare patch under their arm that secretes oil. When they feel threatened, they lick this oil, which combines with their saliva to create a venom strong enough to kill small arthropods and mammals.
Slow lorises are skilled hunters; they use their slow and deliberate movements to catch prey like insects and small vertebrates.
They also have a specialised toothcomb—a unique structure created by their bottom front teeth—for grooming and extracting gum from trees.
They are generally solitary and territorial animals. They can stay motionless for long periods.
They are omnivores.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/amp/environment/video/assam-endangered-primate-slow-lorris-rescued-by-villagers-in-chirang-handed-over-to-forest-department-1075242-2024-08-20
The Shaheen-II Missile is a surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed by which one of the following countries?
Pakistan
Explanation :
The Pakistani military recently conducted the successful training launch of its surface-to-surface ballistic missile Shaheen-II.
About Shaheen-II Missile:
It is a Pakistani medium-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile.
It is believed that the Shaheen II is derived from the People’s Republic of China (PRC)-developed M-18, though this has not been confirmed.
Specifications:
It is a solid-fueled, two-stage missile with an estimated 1,500–2,000 km range.
It measures 17.2 m long, 1.4 m in diameter, and weighs 23,600 kg at launch.
It is designed to carry conventional or nuclear payloads.
Its separating warhead is thought to feature four small motors to improve accuracy; the missile’s accuracy is estimated at 350 m circular error probable (CEP).
It is transported and launched by a 6-axle transporter erector launcher (TEL).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/pakistan-conducts-successful-training-launch-of-shaheen-ii-ballistic-missile-6377968
Shiveluch Volcano, recently seen in the news, lies in which country?
Russia
Explanation :
Shiveluch volcano in Russia erupted after a 7.0-magnitude earthquake struck off the eastern coast of the country recently.
About Shiveluch Volcano:
It is located around 280 miles from Petropavlovsk-Kamchatsky, a coastal city that lies in Russia’s eastern region of Kamchatka.
It is a stratovolcano—a steep-sloped volcano composed of alternating layers of solidified ash, hardened lava and volcanic rocks.
One of Kamchatka’s largest volcanoes, it sports a summit reaching 3,283 meters (10,771 feet).
Many lava domes dot its outer flanks.
Shiveluch is also one of the peninsula’s most active volcanoes, with an estimated 60 substantial eruptions in the past 10,000 years.
The volcano has been continuously erupting since August 1999 but occasionally undergoes powerful explosive events, including in 2007.
Key facts about the Kamchatka Peninsula:
It lies in far eastern Russia, between the Sea of Okhotsk on the west and the Pacific Ocean and Bering Sea on the east.
It is one of the world’s most concentrated areas of geothermal activity, with about 30 active volcanoes.
It is about 1,200 km long north-south and about 480 km across at its widest.
About the size of New Zealand, it is one of the largest peninsulas in the world.
Climate: Severe, with prolonged, cold, and snowy winters and wet, cool summers.
Regional Capital: Petropavlovsk-Kamchatsky
The Kuril Island chain runs from the southern tip of the peninsula to a short distance from Japan’s northern Hokkaido Island.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.aninews.in/news/world/asia/shiveluch-volcano-erupts-after-70-magnitude-earthquake-strikes-off-eastern-russian-coast20240818061650/
With reference to the Monkeypox, consider the following statements:
- It is a rare zoonotic viral disease caused by the Orthopoxvirus genus related to smallpox.
- There is no specific treatment available for Monkeypox.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About the Monkeypox:
Mpox is a rare zoonotic viral disease caused by the Orthopoxvirus genus, related to smallpox.
First identified in monkeys in 1958, the disease is named after them.
Structure:
Virus composition: The Mpox virus features distinctive surface tubules and a dumbbell-shaped core.
Genetic makeup: It is an enveloped virus with a double-stranded DNA genome, classified under the Orthopoxvirus genus in the Poxviridae family.
Variants of the Mpox Virus:
Clade classification: The Mpox virus is categorized into two main types: Clade I and Clade II.
Clade I: Known for a higher fatality rate of approximately 10%.
Clade II (specifically Clade IIb): Responsible for the 2022-2023 outbreak, this variant is rarely fatal.
Survival rate: Over 99% of individuals infected with Clade IIb are likely to survive.
At-risk populations: Those with severely weakened immune systems and young children are at higher risk of serious illness or death.
Symptoms: Symptoms include fever, body aches, and rash. The disease is typically self-limiting, but complications like pneumonia and eye issues can occur. It can be fatal, particularly in children and immunocompromised individuals.
Transmission: Transmission occurs through direct contact with an infected animal’s bodily fluids or lesions, or prolonged face-to-face contact with an infected person.
Treatment: No specific treatment exists, but the smallpox vaccine (Vaccinia) shows 85% efficacy in preventing mpox.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Delhi/delhi-govt-directs-three-hospitals-to-set-up-isolation-rooms-for-monkeypox-cases/article68547740.ece#:~:text=%E2%80%9CThree%20Delhi%20government%20hospitals%20%E2%80%94%20Lok,isolation%20rooms%20for%20the%20disease
In which year did the World Health Organization (WHO) declare India polio-free?
2014
Explanation :
India’s polio-free status: India was declared polio-free by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2014, with the last wild poliovirus case reported in 2011.
Understanding Vaccine-Derived Polio (VDPV)
Vaccine composition: The Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) contains a weakened form of the poliovirus, which stimulates an immune response.
cVDPV development: On rare occasions, in under-immunized populations, the excreted vaccine virus can circulate, undergo genetic changes, and potentially revert to a form capable of causing paralysis. This is known as circulating vaccine-derived poliovirus (cVDPV).
Global context: Since 2000, over 10 billion doses of OPV have been administered globally, resulting in 24 cVDPV outbreaks in 21 countries, with fewer than 760 cases.
Prevention: To stop cVDPV transmission, WHO recommends multiple rounds of high-quality immunisation campaigns.
Key Facts about Polio:
Polio overview: Polio is a viral infectious disease that can cause irreversible paralysis and even death by affecting the nervous system.
Wild Poliovirus strains: There are three distinct strains of wild poliovirus:
Wild Poliovirus Type 1 (WPV1)
Wild Poliovirus Type 2 (WPV2)
Wild Poliovirus Type 3 (WPV3)
Although symptomatically similar, each strain has genetic and virological differences, necessitating separate eradication efforts.
Transmission: The virus primarily spreads through the fecal-oral route and can multiply in the intestine, where it can invade the nervous system. It predominantly affects children under five.
Available vaccines:
Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV): Administered as a birth dose, followed by three primary doses at 6, 10, and 14 weeks, and a booster dose at 16-24 months.
Injectable Polio Vaccine (IPV): This vaccine is given as an additional dose along with the third DPT (Diphtheria, Pertussis, and Tetanus) vaccine under the Universal Immunization Programme (UIP).
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-says-meghalaya-polio-case-is-vaccine-derived/article68547351.ece
With reference to the Telecommunications Act, 2023, consider the following statements:
- It supersedes the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 and the Indian Wireless Telegraph Act, 1933.
- It defines telecom services as the “transmission, emission or reception of any messages, by wire, radio, optical or other electromagnetic systems.”
- It applies to both public and private properties.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
About Telecommunications Act, 2023:
Objective:
Modernize and unify laws for the development, expansion, and operation of telecommunication services and networks.
Address spectrum assignment and related matters.
Replacement of old laws: Supersedes the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885, and the Indian Wireless Telegraph Act, 1933, due to advancements in telecom technology.
Digital implementation: Promotes digital frameworks, including online dispute resolution.
Guiding principles:
Inclusion (Samavesh)
Security (Suraksha)
Growth (Vriddhi)
Responsiveness (Tvarit)
Key features:
Clear definitions: It reduces uncertainties and boosts investor confidence, aiding ease of doing business.
Right of Way (RoW) framework: Applies to public and private properties, including government agencies, local bodies, and PPP projects like airports, seaports, and highways. Public entities must grant RoW permission promptly unless there are substantive grounds for refusal.
Telecommunication infrastructure: Considered separate from the property it is on, reducing disputes during property transactions.
Common ducts and cable corridors: Central Government to establish these in line with the PM Gati Shakti vision.
Standards and conformity assessments: Sets standards for telecommunication services, networks, and security to ensure national security and promote Indian technology.
Universal service obligation fund: Expanded to support services in underserved areas and fund R&D in telecom services and technologies.
Definition in the act: The Act defines telecom services as the “transmission, emission or reception of any messages, by wire, radio, optical or other electromagnetic systems.”
Messages are broadly defined to include “any sign, signal, writing, text, image, sound, video, data stream, intelligence or information.”
Telecom operators’ interpretation: Telecom operators argue that OTT platforms fall under the definition of telecom services and should require licensing like traditional telecom services.
The Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI) has stated that OTT communication services should be included under Access Services authorization to ensure a level playing field.
Government’s initial clarification: The government had earlier clarified that OTT platforms do not fall under the definition of telecom services.
However, this statement was made to the media and is not legally binding.
Current dispute:
Despite the government’s earlier clarification, telecom companies maintain that OTT platforms should be regulated under the Telecom Act.
TRAI is currently holding consultations on service authorizations, with telecom companies and tech companies presenting opposing views.
Opposition from tech companies:
Tech companies, represented by the Broadband India Forum (BIF), argue that requiring OTT platforms to obtain telecom licenses would stifle competition, innovation, and consumer choice.
They believe that this could create an unfair market advantage for certain entities.
Potential implications:
The outcome of this dispute could redefine market dynamics, regulatory frameworks, and the competitive landscape in India’s digital communication sector.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/broad-definitions-in-telecom-act-pit-telcos-and-otts-against-each-other-yet-again-9524443/
With reference to the production of Ethanol in India, consider the following statements:
- It is produced from sugarcane-based materials, rice and maize.
- The Department of Food and Public Distribution is the primary agency promoting the establishment of fuel-grade ethanol distilleries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
What is Ethanol Blending?
Ethanol is a biofuel produced through the fermentation of sugars by yeasts or via petrochemical processes such as ethylene hydration.
It is rich in oxygen content, enabling more efficient fuel combustion in engines.
Ethanol blending involves mixing ethanol derived from agricultural products with petrol to create a blended motor fuel.
Production of Ethanol in India:
The Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) is the primary agency promoting the establishment of fuel-grade ethanol distilleries.
Ethanol is produced from sugarcane-based materials like C & B heavy molasses, sugarcane juice, sugar syrup, surplus rice from the Food Corporation of India (FCI), and maize.
Globally, over 110 billion litres of ethanol fuel were produced in 2019, with the US and Brazil contributing 84% of this production.
Benefits of ethanol blending:
Energy security: India imports over 85% of its oil, and ethanol blending could reduce reliance on petroleum imports.
Economic savings: In 2020-21, India’s net petroleum imports amounted to 185 million tonnes at USD 551 billion. Ethanol blending can save billions in foreign exchange.
Environmental impact: Ethanol is a less polluting fuel, offering similar efficiency to petrol at a lower cost.
India’s Biofuel Policy:
The Central government amended the Biofuel Policy in 2021-22, targeting 20% ethanol and 5% biodiesel blending by 2025.
India achieved a 10% ethanol blending rate in petrol by June 2022, ahead of the November 2022 target.
The programme has saved over Rs 54,000 crore in foreign exchange and led to a reduction of 30 million tonnes of greenhouse gas emissions over the past nine years.
Ethanol blending targets:
2025-26 Target: Achieve 20% ethanol blending with petrol.
Current status: Blending rates have increased to 13%-15%, up from 8% in 2021.
Capacity expansion: India’s ethanol production capacity has grown to 1,380 crore litres.
Major contributors: Uttar Pradesh is a significant contributor to ethanol blending, with multi-fuel distilleries producing both sugarcane and grain-based ethanol.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/on-the-ethanol-blending-programme/article68547944.ece
Which one of the following significant discoveries was recently made about Mars’ outer crust by scientists?
Existence of vast amounts of liquid water
Explanation :
About the discovery of Liquid Water on Mars
Key Points:
First discovery: This discovery marks the first time that scientists have found evidence of liquid water on the Martian surface, beyond the known presence of water ice at the planet’s poles.
Study details: The study, titled “Liquid water in the Martian mid-crust,” was published in the prestigious Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences (PNAS).
The research was conducted by a team of scientists from the University of California.
Significance:
Mars’ water cycle: The discovery could deepen our understanding of Mars’ water cycle, providing insights into the planet’s climatic history, surface processes, and internal structure.
Search for Life: The presence of liquid water boosts the potential for finding habitable environments, enhancing the ongoing search for life on Mars.
Methodology:
Data source: The researchers utilized data from NASA’s InSight Lander, which operated on the Martian surface from 2018 to 2022.
Seismic analysis: The lander was equipped with a seismometer that recorded more than 1,300 Marsquakes and meteorite impacts over four years.
Geophysical modelling: By analysing the speed of the seismic waves, the researchers could infer the type of material the waves travelled through and apply a geophysical model to identify the presence of liquid water.
Key findings:
Depth and Location: The study identified a water-containing layer located at depths of 10 to 20 kilometres within the Martian crust.
Water source: The water is believed to have seeped from the surface billions of years ago when Mars had a warmer climate and more permeable upper crust, similar to groundwater infiltration on Earth.
Volume estimate: If the findings are representative of the entire planet, the amount of water trapped in these rock fractures could fill an ocean 1-2 kilometres deep across Mars.
Implications:
Potential for Life: The discovery of liquid water raises the possibility of finding life, as water is a key ingredient for life as we know it. The conditions may be similar to Earth’s deep-sea environments, which harbour life despite extreme conditions.
Colonisation challenges: Extracting water from depths of 10 to 20 kilometres poses significant challenges, complicating plans for human colonization of Mars.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/liquid-water-mars-9522348/
Consider the following statements regarding the waterspouts:
- It is a rotating column of air and water mist that can form over land or water.
- These are formed only in tropical waters.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About Waterspouts:
A waterspout is a large column of air and mist rotating over a water body. It is a weaker cousin of tornadoes and typically lasts for around five minutes — occasionally it can last up to 10 minutes. The average waterspout can be around 165 feet in diameter, with wind speeds of 100 kilometres per hour.
Although waterspouts are more common in tropical waters, they can appear anywhere. They occur when there are high levels of humidity and relatively warm water temperatures compared to the overlying air.
There are two types of waterspouts: tornadic waterspouts and fair-weather waterspouts.
Tornadic waterspouts are actual tornadoes that form over water or move from land to water. They are associated with severe thunderstorms, and are often accompanied by high winds and seas, large hail, and frequent dangerous lightning. Tornadic waterspouts can be large and may lead to considerable destruction.
Fair-weather waterspouts, which are much more common, form over only water. As their name suggests, they are formed during fair weather. They are less dangerous and usually small.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/waterspout-luxury-yacht-sicily-9524129/#:~:text=A%20waterspout%20is%20a%20large,of%20100%20kilometres%20per%20hour.
Recently, researchers have developed a new genome-editing tool called ISDra2TnpB, derived from the bacteria Deinococcus radiodurans. In this reference, consider the following statements:
- It is significantly smaller than the traditional CRISPR-associated endonuclease like Cas9 and Cas12.
- It will work more effectively in plant systems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Genome Editing- ISDra2TnpB
CRISPR and its limitations in plant genome editing:
CRISPR technology, particularly using proteins like Cas9 and Cas12, has been widely used in genome editing.
These proteins work by cutting DNA at specific locations, allowing scientists to remove, add, or replace genetic material.
However, a major limitation in plant genome editing has been the size of these proteins, which are often too large to be efficiently accommodated by plant cells.
This has created a need for smaller, more efficient genome-editing tools that can work effectively in plant systems.
The ISDra2TnpB genome editor:
Researchers have developed a new genome-editing tool called ISDra2TnpB, derived from the bacteria Deinococcus radiodurans.
This tool is significantly smaller than the traditional CRISPR-associated proteins like Cas9 and Cas12, making it more suitable for use in plant cells.
Key Features of ISDra2TnpB
Size advantage: ISDra2TnpB is less than half the size of Cas9 and Cas12, allowing for more efficient delivery and function within plant cells.
High editing efficiency: The tool has demonstrated a 33.58% editing efficiency in average plant genomes, making it a promising option for various crops.
Versatility: The researchers showed that ISDra2TnpB is effective in editing both monocot plants (like rice) and dicot plants (like Arabidopsis).
Base editing capabilities: The team further enhanced the tool by creating a hybrid base editor that can swap single nucleotides in the DNA sequence, opening up new possibilities for precise genetic modifications.
Potential applications in agriculture: The development of ISDra2TnpB has significant implications for agriculture, particularly in improving crop resilience and productivity. For example, this tool could be used to:
Reduce crop susceptibility to pests: By editing genes that make crops vulnerable to pests, ISDra2TnpB could help develop more pest-resistant varieties.
Enhance nutritional value: The tool could be used to remove anti-nutrient factors from crops, improving their nutritional content.
Increase crop resilience to environmental stress: ISDra2TnpB could help create shorter rice crops that are less prone to damage during cyclones, a common problem in cyclone-prone regions.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/icar-penn-state-team-makes-tool-small-enough-to-edit-plant-genomes/article68549229.ece
ICAR, Penn State team makes tool small enough to edit plant genomes - The Hindu
An atomic clock is a type of clock that uses the vibrations. Atoms of which elements are generally used in the atomic clocks?
Cesium
Explanation :
About Atomic clocks
Atomic clocks are the most precise timekeeping devices, critical for applications requiring extreme accuracy, such as GPS systems, telecommunications, and scientific research.
These clocks measure time using the resonant frequencies of atoms, such as cesium-133.
In atomic time, one second is defined by the time it takes for a cesium atom to vibrate 9,192,631,770 times.
The stability and accuracy of atomic vibrations make atomic clocks the most reliable devices for measuring time.
Types of Atomic Clocks
There are two primary types of atomic clocks:
Cesium atomic clocks: The most common type, used to define the international time standard, Coordinated Universal Time (UTC).
Hydrogen maser atomic clocks: Even more accurate than cesium clocks, these are primarily used in scientific research due to their exceptional precision.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/time-standard-moon-9525462/#:~:text=Why%20do%20we%20need%20a,that%20time%20is%20not%20absolute
Recently, Chandrayaan-3’s Pragyan rover has identified a rock type known as ferroan anorthosite in the lunar south pole region. The finding of this rock type suggests which of the following theory regarding the evolution of Lunar surface.
The early stage of the moon’s surface was entirely molten.
Explanation :
Chandrayaan-3’s discovery:
Chandrayaan-3’s Pragyan rover identified a rock type known as ferroan anorthosite in the lunar south pole region.
This discovery is significant as it aligns with earlier observations made by the Apollo and Luna missions, confirming the theory that these rocks are remnants of an ancient magma ocean that once covered the moon.
What is the Lunar Magma Ocean (LMO)?
The Lunar Magma Ocean is a hypothesized early stage in the moon’s history when its surface was entirely molten. This ocean of magma is believed to have formed following a catastrophic impact between the early Earth and a Mars-sized body, leading to the formation of the moon.
Ferroan Anorthosite: This rock type is crucial evidence of the LMO. As the magma began to cool and solidify, different minerals crystallized at various depths. Ferroan anorthosite, rich in calcium and aluminium, floated to the surface, forming the moon’s initial crust.
Importance of the LMO: LMO helps scientists decipher the moon’s geologic history, including its differentiation process, where heavier materials sank, and lighter materials floated, leading to the layered structure we observe today.
Scientific implications:
The presence of ferroan anorthosite supports the theory that the moon’s early crust was formed from a global magma ocean.
This discovery also suggests that the moon has not experienced significant volcanic activity or plate tectonics, unlike Earth, preserving its ancient surface.
General Relativity and Time Dilation: The discovery also ties into broader concepts like Einstein’s theory of general relativity, which explains how the moon’s lower gravity causes time to tick slightly faster than on Earth.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Chandrayaan’s Pragyan rover offers evidence of magma ocean on young moon - The Hindu
Similar to China’s “panda diplomacy”, which of the following countries has initiated the “Orangutan Diplomacy” to save the critically endangered species?
Malaysia
Explanation :
About Orangutans:
Orangutans, widely recognized for their distinctive red fur, are considered to be the largest tree-dwelling mammals. They are primarily arboreal, spending over 90% of their waking hours in trees.
Orangutans are highly intelligent and share 96.4% of their genes with humans, making their conservation even more significant.
Distribution: They inhabit the Indonesian island of Sumatra and the Malaysian and Indonesian parts of Borneo.
Orangutan Diplomacy
Malaysia’s Plantation and Commodities Minister Johari Ghani initiated “Orangutan Diplomacy” to address sustainability concerns related to palm oil-linked deforestation affecting orangutans. Ghani first announced his plans to gift orangutans to palm oil-buying countries in May this year, saying the policy was inspired by China’s “panda diplomacy” — the practice of sending pandas from China to other countries as a tool of diplomacy and wildlife conservation.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/malaysia-orangutan-diplomacy-9526229/
Consider the following states:
- Gujarat
- Karnataka
- Maharashtra
- Andhra Pradesh
Dhangar Community resides in how many of the above states?
All four
Explanation :
About Dhangar Community:
The Dhangars are a community of shepherds with populations in several states. They live in Gujrat, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh besides Maharashtra.
The Dhangar community is on the Vimukta Jati and Nomadic Tribes (VJNT) list in Maharashtra.
They live a largely isolated life and wander mainly in forests, hills and mountains.
Households and Population:
Dhangar households are typically small, close-knit units, where family plays a central role.
The community is estimated to have a population of around 1 crore, which is about 9% of Maharashtra’s total population.
Clusters and Sub-Castes:
Within the Dhangar tribe, there are around 20 sub-castes and clusters, each with its own distinct customs and traditions.
Occupation:
They are relying on their sheep and goat herding practices as a primary means of livelihood.
They practice both nomadic pastoral and semi-nomadic and agrarian lifestyles in rural areas.
Seasonal Migration: With the end of the bajra harvesting season in October, the Dhangar tribe starts their annual migration in search of greener pastures for their cattle.
Culture:
They practice a variety of customs and rituals in this journey, like-the Worship of their ancestors.
The tradition of singing songs, especially during the night, is a significant aspect of Dhangar culture and serves multiple purposes.
They use these songs sumbaran- an oral tradition of Dhangars.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/dhangars-maharashtra-elections-caste-9524048/
Similipal Tiger Reserve is located in which one of the following states?
Odisha
Explanation :
About Similipal Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located within the Mayurbhanj District, in the Northern-most part of Odisha.
It is spread over 2750 sq km and has some beautiful waterfalls like Joranda and Barehipani.
History and current status:
It was formally designated a tiger reserve under Project Tiger in May 1973.
The Government of Orissa declared Similipal as a wildlife sanctuary in 1979.
Later in 1980, the Government of Odisha proposed 303 sq. km of the sanctuary as a National Park.
UNESCO added this National Park to its list of Biosphere Reserves in May 2009.
This tiger reserve also comes under the Mayurbhanj Elephant Reserve which includes the adjacent Hadgarh and Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuaries.
High plateaus and hills surround it, the highest peak being the twin peaks of Khairiburu and Meghashini (1515m above mean sea level).
The terrain is mostly undulating and hilly, interspersed with open grasslands and wooded areas.
Vegetation: It is a mix of different forest types and habitats, with Northern tropical moist deciduous dominating some semi-evergreen patches.
Fauna:
It is known for the tiger, elephant and hill mynah.
It holds the highest tiger population in the state of Orissa.
55 species of mammals, 304 species of birds, 60 species of reptiles, 21 species of frogs, 38 species of fish and 164 species of butterflies have been recorded from the reserve.
Fauna:
An astounding 1078 species of plants, including 94 species of orchids are found here.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/amp/story/states/odisha/2024/Aug/21/similipal-tiger-reserve-to-plant-bamboo-grass-to-aid-elephants
With reference to the POCSO Act, consider the following statements:
- It was enacted to safeguard children from sexual abuse and sexual offences.
- It clearly defines a child as any person below the age of 16 years.
- It is possible for a victim to report an offence at any time, even years after the abuse has occurred.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
About POCSO Act:
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses (POCSO) Act, 2012 was enacted by Govt. of India to safeguard children from sexual abuse and sexual offences.
The Act clearly defines a child as any person below the age of 18 years.
The Act was further reviewed and amended in 2019 to introduce more stringent punishment including the death penalty for committing sexual crimes on children.
The Government of India has also notified the POCSO Rules, 2020.
Key provisions:
Gender-neutral legislation: The Act defines a child as “any person” under the age of 18.
Non-reporting is a crime: Any person in charge of an institution (excluding children) who fails to report the commission of a sexual offence involving a subordinate faces punishment.
No time limit for reporting abuse: A victim may report an offence at any time, even years after the abuse has occurred.
Keeping victim’s identity confidential: The Act forbids the disclosure of the victim’s identity in any form of media unless authorised by the special courts established by the Act.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/how-can-pocso-act-offence-be-termed-romantic-supreme-court-slams-hc-suggestion-to-decriminalise-consensual-sex-among-teens-267190
Consider the following statements regarding the Antihyperhydrogen-4:
- It consists of an antiproton, two antineutrons and one antihyperon.
- The traces of antihyperhydrogen-4 were discovered among particle tracks from 6 billion collisions at the Relativistic Heavy Ion Collider (RHIC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Why in the News?
Antihyperhydrogen-4 comprises an antiproton, two antineutrons and one antihyperon (a baryon containing a strange quark).
Physicists found traces of this antimatter among particle tracks from 6 billion collisions at the Relativistic Heavy Ion Collider (RHIC) at Brookhaven National Laboratory in New York.
Key findings:
Both hyperhydrogen-4 and its antimatter counterpart antihyperhydrogen-4 seem to wink out of existence very quickly.
The physicists didn’t find a significant difference between their lifetimes.
The scientists’ next step will be to compare the masses of the antiparticles and their particle opposites, which they hope could reveal some clues as to how our matter-heavy universe came to be.
Antimatter: Except for having opposite electric charges, antimatter has the same properties as matter, the same mass, the same lifetime before decaying and the same interactions.
What is Antiparticle?
It is a sub-atomic particle that has the same mass as another particle and equal but opposite values of some other properties. Example- The antiparticle of the electron is the positron.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.livescience.com/physics-mathematics/particle-physics/scientists-discover-the-heaviest-antimatter-particle-ever-and-it-could-hold-secrets-to-our-universes-origins
Consider the following statements with reference to the Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP):
- It is a central sector scheme administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
- There will be no income ceiling for assistance in setting up projects under PMEGP.
- It will be implemented by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
About PMEGP:
PMEGP is a central sector scheme administered by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
Objectives:
To generate employment opportunities in rural as well as urban areas of the country through setting up of new self-employment ventures/projects/micro enterprises.
To bring together widely dispersed traditional artisans, rural and urban unemployed youth and give them self-employment opportunities to the extent possible, at their place.
To provide continuous and sustainable employment to a large segment of traditional and prospective artisans and rural and urban unemployed youth in the country, so as to help arrest migration of rural youth to urban areas.
To increase the wage-earning capacity of workers and artisans and contribute to increase in the growth rate of rural and urban employment.
Eligibility:
Individuals above 18 years of age.
There will be no income ceiling for assistance in setting up projects under PMEGP.
For setting up of project costing above Rs.10 lakh in the Manufacturing sector and above Rs. 5 lakh in the Business /Service sector, the beneficiaries should possess at least VIII standard pass educational qualification.
Implementing Agency: Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
About Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)
It is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956.
It is an apex organization under the Ministry of Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises, with regard to khadi and village industries within India.
The KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/kvic-dop-sign-mou-for-physical-verification-of-pmegp/
Consider the following statements regarding the Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM):
- It is a platform for peaceful resolution of all disputes between the Government as an employer and the employees.
- It covers all regular civil employees of the Central Government and the state governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
For the first time in the last 10 years, the Prime Minister will meet the staff representatives in the national-level Joint Consultative Mechanism (JCM) of the Union government employees and the Personnel Ministry.
About Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM):
It is a platform for constructive dialogue between the representatives of the staff side and the official side for peaceful resolution of all disputes between the Government as an employer and the employees.
The scheme was introduced in 1966 with the objectives of promoting harmonious relations and securing the greatest measure of cooperation between the Central Government as the employer and the employees.
The scheme is a non-statutory one mutually agreed upon between the staff side and the official side.
The scheme covers all regular civil employees of the Central Government, except:
The Class-I services;
The Class-II services, other than the Central Secretariat Services and the other comparable services in the headquarters organization of the Government;
Persons in industrial establishments employed mainly in a managerial or administrative capacity, and those who are being employed in a supervisory capacity drawing salary going beyond grade pay of Rs.4200/- per month;
Employees of the Union Territories;
Police personnel.
Joint Councils:
The scheme provides for the setting up of joint councils at the National, Departmental and Regional / Office levels.
The National Council, chaired by the Cabinet Secretary, is the apex body.
The scope of the Joint Councils includes all matters relating to conditions of service and work, welfare of employees, and improvement of efficiency and standards of work, provided, however, that
in regard to matters of recruitment, promotion, and discipline, consultation is limited to matters of general principles only, and
individual cases are not considered.
The National Council deals only with matters affecting Central Government employees generally, such as pay of common categories of staff, allowances, etc.,
The Departmental Council deals with matters affecting only the employees in the Ministries/Departments concerned.
The Office/Regional Councils deal with regional or local issues only.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/pm-modi-to-meet-unions-of-government-employees/article68555637.ece
Which of the following statements is true regarding Quantum Nonlocality?
It supports the idea that information can travel faster than the speed of light.
Explanation :
Scientists have demonstrated that a universal standard for measuring and quantifying non-local quantum correlations is not possible.
About Quantum Nonlocality:
While classical physics assumes locality, the principle of nonlocality is a feature of many interpretations of quantum mechanics.
Nonlocality describes the apparent ability of objects to instantaneously know about each other’s state, even when separated by large distances (potentially even billions of light years), almost as if the universe at large instantaneously arranges its particles in anticipation of future events.
Thus, in the quantum world, despite what Einstein had established about the speed of light being the maximum speed for anything in the universe, instantaneous action or transfer of information does appear to be possible.
This is in direct contravention of the “principle of locality” (or what Einstein called the “principle of local action”), the idea that distant objects cannot have direct influence on one another and that an object is directly influenced only by its immediate surroundings, an idea on which almost all of physics is predicated.
Nonlocality occurs due to the phenomenon of entanglement, whereby particles that interact with each other become permanently correlated, or dependent on each other’s states and properties, to the extent that they effectively lose their individuality and, in many ways, behave as a single entity.
Nonlocality suggests that the “separate” parts of the universe are actually potentially connected in an intimate and immediate way.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://dst.gov.in/new-study-quantum-nonlocality-expands-scope-its-use
Consider the following statements regarding Glacial Lakes:
- They typically form at the foot of a glacier but may form on, in, or under it.
- They are crucial sources of freshwater for nearby rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) has finalised a list of 189 “high-risk” glacial lakes for mitigation measures to reduce the risk emanating from them.
About Glacial Lakes:
A glacial lake is a body of water that originates from a glacier.
It typically forms at the foot of a glacier, but may form on, in, or under it.
ISRO categorised glacial lakes into four broad categories based on how they were formed — moraine-dammed, ice-dammed, erosion-based, and ‘others’.
How do glacial lakes form?
As glaciers move, they erode the terrain under them, leaving depressions and grooves on the land.
When they churn up rock and soil, they etch ridges of debris known as moraines.
Most glacial lakes form when a glacier retreats and meltwater fills the hole left behind.
However, natural dams, formed out of ice and terminal moraines, can also form glacial lakes.
An ice dam forms when a surging glacier, which can move up to 100 times faster than an average glacier, may dam up meltwater as it closes off a valley or fjord and prevents it from draining.
Dams formed by moraines can be dense and stable, holding sizable lakes behind them for years.
They can also be leaky, allowing the lake to drain slowly into nearby rivers.
Glacial lakes are crucial sources of freshwater for rivers.
However, they also pose significant risks, specifically of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs).
GLOFs occur when glacial lakes release large volumes of meltwater due to the failure of natural dams, resulting in sudden and severe flooding downstream.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/top-disaster-management-body-identifies-189-glacier-lakes-for-monitoring/article68554937.ece
Which one of the following best describes ‘Gongronema sasidharanii’, recently seen in the news?
It is a new plant species discovered in the Western Ghats.
Explanation :
Gongronema sasidharanii, a new species of plant, was recently discovered from Pampadum Shola National Park in Kerala.
About Gongronema sasidharanii:
It is a new species of plant discovered in Pampadum Shola National Park, Idukki District, Kerala.
It is a plant with smooth stems and small urn-shaped creamy white to purplish-green flowers.
This is also the first time the genus Gongronema is being reported from south India.
In India, the genus Gongronema has so far been represented by just three species found in northeast India, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, and West Bengal.
Key Facts about Pampadum Shola National Park:
It is located in the eastern part of the Southern Western Ghats in Idukki District, Kerala.
Stretching over an area of around 12 sq km, the name ‘Pampadum Shola’ literally means ‘the forest where the snake dances’.
The terrain is undulating with hillocks of varying heights. The altitudes range between 1600-2400 m.
The park experiences a misty and cloudy climate throughout the year, and it receives heavy rain during the North-East monsoon.
Vegetation: It houses evergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, shola grasslands, and semi-evergreen.
Flora: It is host to 22 species of trees, 74 species of herbs and shrubs, and 16 species of climbers.
Fauna:
Tigers, leopards, giant gizzard squirrels, the rarely spotted flying squirrels, Nilgiri Tahr, and spotted deer.
The Nilgiri marten, the only species of marten found in South India, can also be spotted here.
Around 100 species of butterflies have been recorded at the park.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/plant-found-in-idukki-identified-as-new-species-of-genus-gongronema/article68539524.ece
With reference to Macrophages, consider the following statements:
- They are a type of red blood cell that plays an important role in the human immune system.
- They can be found within many organs in the body, including the liver, brain, bones, and lungs, as well as in the blood.
- They can modify themselves to form different structures to fight various microbes and invaders.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a new paper published recently, a team of scientists describes the complex interplay between diseased liver cells and macrophages.
About Macrophages:
Macrophages are a type of white blood cell that plays an important role in the human immune system.
They carry out various functions, including engulfing and digesting microorganisms, clearing out debris and dead cells, and stimulating other cells involved in immune function.
The term macrophage is formed by the combination of the Greek terms “makro” meaning big, and “phagein” meaning eat.
Formation:
Macrophages form from monocytes, which themselves derive from the bone marrow.
Monocytes circulate through the blood for one to three days before migrating into tissues, where they become macrophages or dendritic cells (i.e., a type of antigen presenting cell that plays a role in linking the innate and adaptive immunity).
Macrophages can be found within many organs in the body, including the liver, brain, bones, and lungs, as well as in the blood, particularly at sites of infection.
They are essential for the maintenance and defence of host tissues, doing so by sensing and engulfing particulate matter and, when necessary, initiating a pro-inflammatory response.
They can modify themselves to form different structures in order to fight various different microbes and invaders.
In this way, macrophages provide the first line of defense in protecting the host from infection.
They are also involved in the development of non-specific or innate immunity.
This type of immunity is a long-term immunity which is acquired when a macrophage digests a microbe and presents the microbe’s antigen on its surface to alert other white blood cells to the presence of the invading particle.
Other white blood cells then multiply and amount an immune response against the pathogen.
Macrophages produce a variety of cytokines, which are signaling molecules that communicate with other cells of the immune system.
Macrophages may have different names according to where they function in the body.
For example, macrophages present in the brain are termed microglia, and in the liver sinusoids, they are called Kupffer cells.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://medicalxpress.com/news/2024-08-macrophage-fate-fatty-liver-disease.html
Consider the following statements with reference to the Gentoo penguin:
- It is found exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere.
- It is classified as “Critically Endangered” on the IUCN Red List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, Sphen, the famous gentoo penguin known for his same-sex partnership with Magic, has died at the age of 11 in Australia.
About Gentoo penguin:
Scientific name: Pygoscelis papua
Habitat: Found exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere, primarily between 45° and 65° south latitude.
Major locations: Inhabit the Antarctic Peninsula and several sub-Antarctic islands, with a significant population on the Falkland Islands in the South Atlantic Ocean.
Distinctive features: Notable for the two white wedges around their eyes, connected by a line across the head, which distinguish them from other penguin species. Their heads are mostly black, adorned with small flecks of white feathers.
Habitat preference: Gentoo penguins are typically found along shorelines, enabling them to quickly access food sources while staying close to their nests.
Communication: They use a range of vocalisations, from honks to brays, which help partners identify each other within the colony.
Conservation status: This species is classified as “Least Concern” on the IUCN Red List, indicating a stable population.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: Gay penguin Sphen dies in Sydney, leaving behind partner Magic - The Hindu
Consider the following statements with reference to the sunspots:
- It is a region on the Sun’s surface where magnetic fields are extremely concentrated.
- It is driven by the continuous recycling of magnetic fields within the solar interior.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the IIA astronomers have pioneered a method to probe the Sun’s magnetic fields using data from the Kodaikanal Tower Tunnel Telescope.
Recent Research by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA):
Methodology:
The study focused on an active sunspot region with complex features, including multiple umbrae and a penumbra.
Simultaneous observations were conducted using the Hydrogen-alpha (6562.8 Å) and Calcium II 8662 Å spectral lines.
Findings:
These observations provided insights into the magnetic field’s stratification across different heights of the solar atmosphere.
The use of the Tunnel Telescope’s unique 3-mirror Coelostat setup enabled precise tracking of the Sun and enhanced data accuracy.
Technological insights:
Tunnel Telescope Setup: The primary mirror (M1) tracks the Sun’s movement, while the secondary (M2) and tertiary mirrors (M3) direct and align the sunlight for observation.
An achromatic doublet lens focuses the Sun’s image with high precision, allowing detailed analysis.
Limitations of traditional diagnostic probes:
While Calcium II 8542 Å and Helium I 10830 Å lines are commonly used to infer chromospheric magnetic fields, they have limitations in their applicability across various solar features.
The new method using Hydrogen-alpha and Calcium II 8662 Å lines offers a more comprehensive understanding of solar magnetic fields.
About Solar Magnetic Fields:
The Sun’s magnetism is crucial in understanding its various activities and phenomena. Magnetic fields in the Sun are generated by the movement of electrically charged particles, specifically ions and electrons.
These fields influence almost every feature observed on the Sun, including sunspots, prominences, and coronal loops.
Layers of the Solar Atmosphere: The Sun’s atmosphere consists of multiple layers: the photosphere, chromosphere, and corona.
The magnetic fields interlink these layers, channelling energy from the lower to the upper layers, contributing to processes like coronal heating.
Sunspots: Sunspots are regions on the Sun’s surface where magnetic fields are extremely concentrated. These fields break through the surface, leading to cooler areas that appear darker.
The sunspot cycle, lasting approximately 11 years, results from the recycling of these magnetic fields through the solar interior.
Chromospheric and Coronal Magnetic Fields: Magnetic field lines loop through the Sun’s atmosphere, forming complex structures in the chromosphere and corona.
While these magnetic structures are visible in the outer layers, the fields themselves are typically measured in the photosphere, the Sun’s innermost atmospheric layer.
Measurement techniques: The Sun’s magnetic field is measured by observing the energy difference in light emitted by electrons as they move between orbits within an atom.
Specialised instruments like magnetometers determine the magnetic field’s strength and direction across the Sun’s surface.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: IIA finds new way to probe deeper into the sun’s secrets - The Hindu
Which one of the following is often referred to as “living fossils,” that inhabit shallow coastal waters with soft sandy or muddy bottoms?
Horseshoe Crabs
Explanation :
Recently, the Zoological Survey of India and Odisha Forest Department have begun tagging horseshoe crabs to study their population, habitat, and migratory routes.
About Horseshoe Crabs:
Horseshoe crabs are ancient marine arthropods, often referred to as “living fossils,” that inhabit shallow coastal waters with soft sandy or muddy bottoms. They are closely related to scorpions and spiders, not crabs, despite their name.
These creatures spawn primarily on intertidal beaches during summer-spring high tides.
Species of Horseshoe Crabs:
Global distribution:
American Horseshoe Crab (Limulus polyphemus): Found along the eastern coast of the USA and in the Gulf of Mexico; listed as Vulnerable by the IUCN.
Tri-spine Horseshoe Crab (Tachypleus tridentatus): Endangered species found in the Indo-Pacific region.
Coastal Horseshoe Crab (Tachypleus gigas): An Indo-Pacific species found in the coastal waters of India, Southeast Asia, China, and Japan.
Mangrove Horseshoe Crab (Carcinoscorpius rotundicauda): Found in the Sundarbans mangroves of West Bengal and other parts of the Indo-Pacific.
India’s species:
India hosts two species: Tachypleus gigas and Carcinoscorpius rotundicauda. These species are predominantly found along the northeastern coast, particularly in Odisha and West Bengal.
Conservation Status:
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 (India): Horseshoe crabs are listed under Schedule IV, offering them legal protection.
IUCN Red List:
American Horseshoe Crab: Vulnerable
Tri-spine Horseshoe Crab: Endangered
Coastal and Mangrove Horseshoe Crabs: Currently listed as Data Deficient.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: India’s first tagging of horseshoe crabs kicked off by Zoological Survey of India and Odisha Forest Dept. - The Hindu
Which antifungal drug, produced by Streptomyces bacteria and loaded onto polymeric nanoparticles, targets chitin in fungal cell walls?
Nikkomycin
Explanation :
A new polymeric nanoparticles technique has been created to effectively deliver antifungal medications, specifically targeting fungal infections such as pulmonary aspergillosis.
About Nanoparticle-based Drug Delivery System:
Nikkomycin-loaded Nanoparticles:
Scientists have utilised Nikkomycin, a chitin synthesis inhibitor produced by Streptomyces bacteria, and loaded it onto polymeric nanoparticles to target fungal infections.
Chitin, the main component of fungal cell walls, is absent in the human body, making it an ideal target for antifungal drugs. The nanoparticle-based delivery system leverages this difference to disrupt fungal growth.
Effectiveness against Aspergillosis:
The formulation has shown significant effectiveness against Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus fumigatus, the fungi responsible for pulmonary aspergillosis.
The nanoparticle-based drug delivery system inhibits fungal growth without causing cytotoxic (cell-damaging) or hemolytic (red blood cell-damaging) effects, making it a safer treatment option.
Potential applications: The method is particularly beneficial for patients with conditions like asthma, cystic fibrosis, HIV, cancer, or those on long-term corticosteroid therapy, who are at higher risk of fungal infections.
About Nanotechnology:
Nanotechnology involves the manipulation of atoms and molecules at the nanoscale, typically within the range of 1 to 100 nanometers, to create structures, devices, and systems with unique properties.
Nanoparticles are ultra-small particles with a high surface area-to-volume ratio, which gives them unique physical and chemical characteristics.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: Drug delivery method can improve fungal infection treatment
“Karowe Diamond Mine” is located in which one of the following countries?
Botswana
Explanation :
Recently, a 2,492-carat diamond, the second-largest ever found, has been unearthed in the Karowe Diamond Mine, northeastern Botswana, by Canadian company Lucara Diamond.
Recent discovery:
The newly discovered diamond is second to the 3,106-carat Cullinan Diamond, which was found in South Africa over a century ago.
Botswana, a leading diamond producer, relies heavily on the diamond industry, which constitutes 30% of its GDP and 80% of its exports.
The diamond was unearthed using advanced X-ray transmission technology, which enhances the recovery of large stones without causing damage.
The diamond is yet to be fully assessed, and its potential to yield high-quality gems remains to be determined.
Diamond characteristics:
Formation: Diamonds form in the Earth’s mantle and are brought to the surface through volcanic activity. They are found in volcanic landforms like dykes and sills.
Uses: Diamonds are utilised in jewellery, industrial cutting tools, and polishing due to their hardness.
Diamonds in India:
Major locations:
Panna belt: Madhya Pradesh
Wajrakarur Kimberlite pipe: Anantapur district, Andhra Pradesh
Krishna River basin gravels: Andhra Pradesh
Recent discoveries: New kimberlite fields in Raichur-Gulbarga districts, Karnataka.
Processing: Modern cutting and polishing are concentrated in Surat, Navasari, Ahmedabad, and Palampur.
Global diamond production:
Leading producers: Russia, Botswana, Canada, Australia, South Africa, and the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC).
Notable producers:
Botswana: Key mines include Orapa and Jwaneng.
Australia: Known for coloured diamonds such as pink, purple, and red.
South Africa: Hosts diverse diamond deposits including kimberlite and fissure mining.
Synthetic diamonds: The US is the largest producer of synthetic industrial diamonds.
Global diamond resources:
Russia: Believed to have the largest and richest diamond resources.
Botswana: Leading in value and significant in volume.
DRC: One of Africa’s major diamond producers.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/worlds-second-largest-diamond-with-2492-carat-discovered-in-botswana-9528239/?tbref=hp
Consider the following statements regarding Marshyangdi River:
- It is a mountain river in Nepal.
- It is a tributary of the Gandaki River that joins the Ganga River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
At least 14 people lost their lives, and 16 others sustained injuries when an Indian tourist bus plunged 150 metres into the fast-flowing Marsyangdi River in central Nepal recently.
About Marshyangdi River:
It is a mountain river in Nepal with a length of 150 km.
It is also one of the major tributaries of the Gandaki River that joins the Ganga River in India.
Origin: It originates from the northern slopes of the Annapurna massif, one of the highest mountain ranges in the world.
The glaciers of the Annapurna Himalayan range, the Manaslu Himalayan range, and the Larkya Himalayan sub-range are significant sources of this river.
Flowing through the rugged landscapes of the Himalayas, the Marsyangdi River is known for its fast-paced and powerful currents.
The river cuts through deep gorges, cascades down waterfalls, and provides stunning views of the surrounding mountains, including Annapurna II, Annapurna III, and Gangapurna.
Marsyangdi and its tributaries like Nyagdi and Dorti are known for their fresh taste of snow trout.
It is famous among adventure enthusiasts, particularly for its white water rafting and kayaking opportunities.
Several hydropower projects have been established along its course.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/11-people-killed-as-indian-bus-plunges-into-nepal-s-marsyangdi-river-124082300523_1.html
In the context of the Indian Economy, which one of the following best describes the term “green shoots”?
Signs of economic recovery during a downturn
Explanation :
According to India’s startup sector, the green shoots of recovery have started to appear in the first six months of this calendar year, with niche verticals starting to draw investor interest.
About Green Shoots:
“Green shoots” is a term used to describe signs of economic recovery or positive data during an economic downturn.
The term “green shoots” is a reference to plant growth and recovery, when plants start to show signs of health and life, and, therefore, has been employed as a metaphor for a recovering economy.
UK chancellor Norman Lamont first used the term to refer to economic growth during the economic downturn in the United Kingdom in 1991.
Particularly after a recession, green shoots are welcome because the economy is slowly treading the path upward.
While there is no consensus on what exactly constitutes green shoots, the improvement in industrial production figures, rise in car sales, developments in the infrastructure sector, including the steadying of prices of cement and steel, have been seen as green shoots.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/business/green-shoots-of-recovery-sprout-among-start-ups-amid-funding-woes-investors-eye-on-niche-players/cid/2041973
With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the following statements:
- CAG is an independent authority established under Article 76 of the Indian Constitution.
- CAG can be removed from office only in the manner and on the grounds that a Judge of the Supreme Court is removed.
- The CAG is an agent of the Parliament and is responsible only to the Parliament.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) are “subject to scrutiny by Parliament, and the Government can always offer its views on the said report”, the Supreme Court said recently.
About Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):
CAG is an independent authority established under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution.
CAG is the apex authority responsible for inspecting and auditing all the expenditures and receipts of both the Central and State Governments as well as of those organizations or bodies which are significantly funded by the government.
Constitutional Provisions:
Article 148 broadly deals with the CAG appointment, oath, and conditions of service.
Article 149 deals with the duties and powers of the CAG.
Article 150 says that the accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the CAG, prescribe.
Article 151 says that the reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the President, who shall cause them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
As per Article 279, the Calculation of “net proceeds” is ascertained and certified by the CAG, whose certificate is final.
Appointment and Terms of Service:
As per Article 148 of the Constitution, there shall be a CAG who shall be appointed by the President and can be removed from office only in the manner and on the grounds that a Judge of the Supreme Court is removed.
He holds office for a period of six years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
After the retirement or resignation from his office, he is no longer eligible for any jobs or offices under the Central or State Governments.
Functions of CAG:
CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, the Consolidated Fund of each state, and UT’s having a legislative assembly.
He audits all expenditures from the Contingency Fund of India and the Public Account of India, as well as the Contingency Fund and Public Account of each state.
He audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and the state governments.
CAG audits the receipts and expenditures of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or State revenues; government companies; and other corporations and bodies, when so required by related laws.
He audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor e.g. Local bodies.
He advises the President with regard to the prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre and States shall be kept.
Reports by CAG: The CAG submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Centre to the President, who shall, in turn, place them before both houses of Parliament. He submits 3 audit reports to the President-
Audit report on appropriation accounts;
Audit report on finance accounts;
Audit report on public undertakings;
He also submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of a State to the Governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature.
The Public Accounts Committees of Parliament and State legislatures review these audits.
The CAG also oversees the Indian Audit and Accounts Service (IA&AS), ensuring government spending aligns with parliamentary sanctions and maintaining financial accountability.
The CAG is an agent of the Parliament and conducts audits of expenditure on behalf of the Parliament. Therefore, the CAG is responsible only to the Parliament.
Limitations:
The role of CAG in the auditing of public corporations is limited.
Some corporations are audited directly by the CAG. For example, ONGC, Air India, and others.
Some corporations are audited by private professional auditors who are appointed by the Central Government in consultation with CAG. If necessary, there may be a supplementary audit by CAG.
The role of the CAG in the auditing of Government Companies is also limited. They are audited by private auditors who are appointed by the Central Government on the advice of the CAG.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/cag-report-subject-to-parliament-scrutiny-says-supreme-court-9530091/
Angkor Wat, the largest religious monument in the world, is located in which one of the following countries?
Cambodia
Explanation :
Visitors are replicating the Temple Run video game at Cambodia’s Angkor Wat, sparking concerns among conservationists about potential damage to the 900-year-old site.
About Angkor Wat:
It is the largest religious monument in the world and is located in the Cambodia.
It covers an area of 200 acres.
It was built by the Khmer King Suryavarman II in the first half of the 12th century, around the year 1110-1150, making Angkor Wat almost 900 years old.
It was originally dedicated to the Hindu god Vishnu before becoming a Buddhist temple by the end of the 12th century.
In 1992, the temple complex was named a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Features:
The temple is at the top of the high classical style of Khmer architecture.
Sandstone blocks were used to build the structure.
The precision in carving and the fitting together of stones without the use of mortar is a testament to the engineering skills of the Khymer builders, and the technique used is yet to be ascertained correctly, though a section claims it to be wooden paste or a lime plaster mix.
It is protected by a 15-foot-high wall and a wide moat.
The temple can be accessed only via small bridges spanning across the moat from the eastern and western sides.
The temple has five major towers symbolising the peaks of Mount Meru, believed to be the abode of the gods in Hindu and Buddhist mythology.
Thousands of bas-reliefs depicting important deities and figures in Hindu and Buddhist religions, as well as key events in their narrative traditions, adorn the temple walls.
Where is Angkor Wat?
It is located in the northwestern province of Siem Reap in Cambodia.
The city of Angkor, home to Angkor Wat, was the capital of the Khmer Empire and thrived between the 9th and 15th centuries.
Angkor itself stretched over 400 sq.km. and is now home to the magnificent remains of a variety of temples, including Angkor Wat, Angkor Thom, Bayon Temple, and Ta Prohm.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/rest-of-world/tourists-trample-angkor-wat-mimicking-temple-run-game-for-tiktok-hits/articleshow/112726077.cms
Consider the following statements:
- It is one of the largest tiger reserves in India located in Telangana.
- Earlier, it was part of ‘Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve.
- The reserve covers a part of the Nallamala Forest, which is part of the Eastern Ghats chain.
The above statements correctly describe which one of the following tiger reserves in India?
Amrabad Tiger Reserve
Explanation :
The state government recently gave the final go ahead for the relocation of four villages from deep inside the core area of the Amrabad Tiger Reserve to an area outside.
About Amrabad Tiger Reserve (ATR):
Location: It is located in the Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts in the southern part of Telangana.
ATR covers a part of the Nallamala Forest, which is part of the Eastern Ghats chain.
Spread over 2611.4 square kilometers, it is one of the largest tiger reserves in India.
It is the second-largest Tiger Reserve in terms of core area.
Earlier, it was part of ‘Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve, but post-state bifurcation, the northern part of the reserve was vested with Telangana state and renamed ‘Amrabad Tiger Reserve’.
The southern portion continues to be ‘NSTR’ with Andhra Pradesh.
Major reservoirs like the Srishailam Dam and Nagarjunsagar Dam are fed by the river Krishna and its several perennial streams that originate in the ATR.
The Chenchu tribe is one of the major tribal communities that live in the ATR.
Flora:
Dense grass occurs in 30% of the area and is scattered in an additional 20%.
Dominant tree species include Terminalia tomentosa, Hardwickia binata, Madhuca latifolia. Diospyros melanoxylon, Gardenia latifolia, etc.
Fauna:
Major wild animals found are Tiger, Leopard, Wild dog, Indian Wolf, Indian fox, Rusty-spotted cat, Small Indian civet, Sloth bear, Honeybadger, Wild boar, etc.
Over 303 bird species have been identified in this region. Some important groups include Eagles, Pigeons, Doves, Cuckoos, Woodpeckers, Drongos, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanchronicle.com/southern-states/government-okays-relocation-of-4-villages-from-within-amrabad-tiger-reserve-1817837
Which of the following are related to the Right to Education in India?
- Unnikrishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh, 1993
- Article 51A
- Article 21A
- 91st Constitutional Amendment Act
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
About the Right to Education (RTE) Act:
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE) is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009, which describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between the age of 6 to 14 years in India under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
Background:
RTE Act originates from the 1993 Supreme Court ruling in the Unnikrishnan vs. State of Andhra Pradesh case, establishing education as a fundamental right under Article 21.
The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 introduced Article 21A, guaranteeing free and compulsory education for children aged 6-14 years.
Key Constitutional Amendments:
Article 21A: State’s responsibility to provide free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14.
Article 45: State to provide early childhood care and education until the age of six.
Article 51A: Parents’ duty to provide educational opportunities for children aged 6-14.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
News: High Court orders merger of school IDs in bid to ‘serve larger goal of RTE Act’ | Delhi News - The Indian Express
Consider the following statements regarding the PM-WANI Scheme:
- It was launched to democratise broadband access via public Wi-Fi hotspots.
- Under the Scheme, the Public Data Offices set up Wi-Fi hotspots and provide internet access.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About PM-WANI Scheme:
It was Initiated by the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) in December 2020 to provide affordable, high-speed internet connectivity, particularly in rural and remote areas, through a nationwide public Wi-Fi network.
PM-WANI Ecosystem Components:
Public Data Office (PDO): Sets up Wi-Fi hotspots and provides internet access. No license is required from DoT.
Public Data Office Aggregator (PDOA): Offers authorization, accounting services, and user interfaces for purchasing data plans and monitoring usage.
App Provider: Develops applications to help users locate and connect to nearby PM-WANI hotspots, facilitating easy internet access.
Central Registry: Managed by the Centre for Development of Telematics, maintaining records of App Providers, PDOs, and PDOAs.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: PM Wani revival: Trai proposes reduction in high Internet costs by telcos - Industry News | The Financial Express
Recently, NASA has launched the Tanager-1 Satellite for which of the following purposes?
To detect carbon dioxide (CO₂) and methane (CH₄) emissions
Explanation :
About Tanager-1 Satellite:
Recently, a satellite developed by a coalition of companies and organisations, including NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory, was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket from Vandenberg Space Force Base in California.
Known as Tanager-1, the satellite can detect major emitters of carbon dioxide and methane.
Tanager-1 carries the NASA-designed greenhouse-gas-tracking instrument, an imaging spectrometer that will provide actionable data to help reduce emissions contributing to global warming.
The satellite will use imaging spectrometer technology to measure methane and carbon dioxide point-source emissions, down to the level of individual facilities and equipment, on a global scale.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
News: Tanager-1: Why NASA has launched a satellite to track methane emissions | Explained News - The Indian Express
Consider the following pairs regarding the Ramsar sites in India:
S.No.
Ramsar sites
States
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change announced three new Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh. Now, there are 85 Ramsar Sites in India. New Sites Added:
Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary (Tamil Nadu):
Location: Northeastern Uthukuli Taluk, Tiruppur District.
Originally a reservoir for irrigation, now a vital ecosystem supporting various bird species, including migratory birds from the Central Asian Flyway.
Home to species like the Eurasian coot, spot-billed duck, and various herons.
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary (Tamil Nadu):
Location: Villupuram District, North of Pondicherry on the Coromandel Coast.
A brackish water wetland with salt marshes, mudflats, and shallow waters.
Hosts endangered species like the black-headed ibis and greater flamingo. Mangrove patches and reed beds dominate the area.
Important stopover for migratory birds along the East Asian-Australasian Flyway, contributing to flood control and groundwater recharge.
Tawa Reservoir (Madhya Pradesh):
Constructed at the confluence of the Tawa and Denwa rivers, inside the Satpura Tiger Reserve.
Provides irrigation, and drinking water, and supports local fisheries. It’s a major wintering ground for migratory birds.
Largest protected area in Madhya Pradesh, forming the western boundary of Satpura National Park and Bori Wildlife Sanctuary.
Hence only two pairs are correctly matched.
News: India adds 3 new Ramsar sites: What are wetlands, why do they matter for the environment? | Explained News - The Indian Express
What are BHISHM Cubes, recently gifted by the Prime Minister of India to the Ukrainian President?
Medical supplies for emergency care
Explanation :
What is BHISHM?
It is Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog, Hita, and Maitri, to provide compact, mobile medical units for emergency care, designed to deliver medical facilities swiftly and effectively.
Medical supplies and equipment are packed into 15-inch cubical boxes. These boxes are organized based on injury types and medical needs, making them efficient for quick deployment in emergencies.
Mother and BHISHM cubes:
36 mini cubes combine to form one mother cube.
Two mother cubes combine to form one BHISHM Cube.
Functionality of mother cubes:
One Mother Cube offers first-line care, shelter, and food for up to five people for 48 hours.
The second mother cube is equipped for surgical care, handling 10-15 basic surgeries per day.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
News: New Delhi’s gift to Kyiv: 4 BHISHM cubes for emergency medical care | India News - The Indian Express
Consider the following statements regarding Sonobuoys:
- They are small, expendable devices used in underwater acoustics and sonar systems.
- They are primarily used for mapping the ocean floor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The US recently approved a USD 52.8 million government-to-government deal for the sale of Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) Sonobuoys that will be integrated with the Indian Navy’s Romeo helicopters.
About Sonobuoys:
Sonobuoys are small, expendable devices used in underwater acoustics and sonar systems to detect and analyze sound in the ocean, particularly for tracking submarines and other underwater objects.
It is a core technology for anti-submarine warfare.
It helps to track potentially hostile submarines operating in the open ocean and in coastal areas.
Information from these systems can help enable precision attacks with air-launched torpedoes.
They were first used during the Second World War to detect German U-boats.
Deployment:
Sonobuoys are deployed by dropping them into the ocean from aircraft or launching them from ships or submarines.
They sink to a predetermined depth and begin listening for acoustic signals, helping pin-point potential submarine threats.
Multiple sonobuoys can be deployed in a pattern to determine the exact location of a target.
There are three types of sonobuoys:
Passive Sonobuoys quietly listen for and record sounds without emitting any signals. It uses a hydrophone to listen for sound energy from a target.
Active Sonobuoys emit a sound pulse and analyze the return signals (echoes) to detect and locate targets. It uses a transducer to send an acoustic signal.
Special Purpose buoys provide information about the environment, such as water temperature, ambient noise level, etc.
Components: A typical sonobuoy consists of a cylindrical or spherical buoyant housing, sensors for detecting acoustic signals, a battery or power source, and a radio transmitter or other communication system to relay data to the host platform (e.g., aircraft or ship).
Other Applications: In addition to anti-submarine warfare, they are used for scientific research and environmental studies, including studying the behavior of whales and other marine creatures.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://theprint.in/world/during-rajnath-singhs-ongoing-visit-us-approves-sale-of-anti-submarine-warfare-sonobuoys-to-india/2236585/
Consider the following statements regarding the Shompen Tribe:
- They reside in dense tropical rain forests of the Great Andaman group of Islands.
- They are one of the least studied Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The development of a port and airport in the pristine Nicobar Islands “will not disturb or displace” any of the Shompen, the Union Environment Minister said recently.
About Shompen Tribe:
They are one of the most isolated tribes on Earth.
They are one of the least studied Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India.
They reside in dense tropical rain forests of the Great Nicobar Island of Andaman and Nicobar group of Islands. Around 95% of the island is covered in rainforest.
The Shompen habitat is also an important biological hotspot and there are two National Parks and one Biosphere Reserve, namely Campbell Bay National Park, Galathea National Park, and Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve.
Population: Though according to the Census (2011), the estimated population of Shompen is 229, the exact population of Shompen is unknown till today.
Most of them remain in the forest and have little or no contact with outsiders.
They are semi-nomadic hunter-gatherers and their main sources of livelihood are hunting, gathering, fishing and a little bit of horticultural activities in a rudimentary form.
They live in small groups, whose territories are identified by the rivers that criss-cross the rainforest.
Being nomadic, they typically set up forest camps where they live for a few weeks or months, before moving to another site.
They collect a wide variety of forest plants, but their staple food is the pandanus fruit, which they call larop.
Shompen speak their own language, which has many dialects. Members of one band do not understand the dialect of the other.
They are of short to medium stature, have a round or nearly broad head shape, narrow nose, a broad facial profile, and distinctly exhibit Mongoloid features such as light brown to yellow-brown skin and oblique eye features.
Shompen have nuclear families comprising husband, wife, and their unmarried children.
A Shompen family is controlled by the eldest male member, who controls all activities of the women and kids.
Monogamy is the general rule, although polygamy is allowed too.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nicobar-project-will-not-disturb-or-displace-tribes-environment-minister-bhupendra-yadav/article68562705.ece
With reference to Humpback Whales, consider the following statements:
- They live in all oceans around the world and have one of the longest migrations of any mammal on the planet.
- They often feed in large groups and are famous for their singing ability.
- They are classified as ‘Endangered’ under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Researchers have now found that humpback whales do not just create the ‘bubble-nets’ but they manipulate this unique tool in a variety of ways to maximise their food intake.
About Humpback Whales:
They are one of the larger species of whales.
Scientific Name: Megaptera novaeangliae
The humpback whale was given its name because of the shape of the hump on its dorsal fin and the distinctive look of its back when diving.
Distribution:
They live in all oceans around the world.
They travel great distances every year and have one of the longest migrations of any mammal on the planet.
They undertake long migrations between polar feeding grounds in summer and tropical or subtropical breeding grounds in winter.
Features:
Humpbacks usually range from 12 to 16 metres in length and weigh approximately 36 metric tons.
They are mainly black or grey with white undersides to their flukes, flippers, and bellies.
Its scientific name, Megaptera, means, “large-winged,” referring to its long, white, wing-like flippers that are often as long as one-third of the animal’s total body length.
Humpbacks also have large knobs on the head, jaws, and body, each knob being associated with one or two hairs.
They often feed in large groups and are famous for their singing ability. Male humpback whales create and sing songs that can be heard up to 20 miles away.
Humpbacks use a unique method of feeding called bubble netting, in which bubbles are exhaled as the whale swims in a spiral below a patch of water dense with food.
The curtain of bubbles confines the prey to a small area in the middle of which one or more whale’s surface.
Lifespan: They can live for 80 to 90 years.
Conservation Status:
IUCN Red List: Least Concern
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://epaper.thehindu.com/ccidist-ws/th/th_delhi/issues/96621/OPS/GFCD87NVC.1+GUGD8924D.1.html
With reference to the BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment) Policy, recently seen in the news, consider the following:
- Biopolymers and enzymes
- Marine and space research
- Precision biotherapeutics
- Climate resilient agriculture
How many of the above are included under the thematic sectors of the BioE3 Policy?
All four
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently approved the ‘BioE3’ (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment) Policy, for fostering high-performance biomanufacturing of the Department of Biotechnology.
About BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment) Policy:
To be steered by the Department of Biotechnology, the policy is for fostering high-performance biomanufacturing.
High-performance biomanufacturing is the ability to produce products from medicine to materials, address farming and food challenges, and promote the manufacturing of bio-based products through the integration of advanced biotechnological processes.
The policy seeks to include innovation-driven support for research and development and entrepreneurship across thematic sectors.
This will accelerate technology development and commercialization by establishing biomanufacturing and bio-AI hubs and biofoundry.
Along with prioritising regenerative bioeconomy models of green growth, this policy will facilitate the expansion of India’s skilled workforce and provide a surge in job creation.
To address the national priorities, the BioE3 Policy would broadly focus on the following strategic/thematic sectors:
high-value bio-based chemicals;
biopolymers and enzymes;
smart proteins and functional foods;
precision biotherapeutics;
climate resilient agriculture;
carbon capture and its utilisation;
marine and space research.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/cabinet-nod-to-bioe3-policy-for-innovation-driven-support-to-r-d-124082400774_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Vigyan Dhara Scheme, recently seen in the news:
- It is a central sector scheme managed by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) designed to enhance India’s Science and Technology (S&T) capabilities through a streamlined approach.
- Focused interventions will be taken up under the scheme to enhance the participation of women in the field of Science and Technology (S&T).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet recently approved the continuation of three umbrella schemes merged into a unified central sector scheme called “Vigyan Dhara” under the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
About Vigyan Dhara Scheme:
It is a new central sector scheme unifying three umbrella schemes of the Department of Science and Technology (DST).
The scheme has three broad components:
Science and Technology (S&T) Institutional and Human Capacity Building,
Research and Development and
Innovation, Technology Development and Deployment.
These three schemes have been merged into the unified scheme ‘Vigyan Dhara’.
This initiative, managed by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), is designed to enhance India’s S&T capabilities through a streamlined approach.
The proposed outlay for the implementation of the unified scheme ‘Vigyan Dhara’ is Rs.10,579.84 crore during the 15th Finance Commission period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
The merger of the schemes into a single scheme would enhance efficiency in fund utilization and establish synchronization among the sub-schemes/programs.
The primary objective of the ‘Vigyan Dhara scheme is to promote S&T capacity building as well as research, innovation, and technology development towards strengthening the Science, Technology and Innovation ecosystem in the country.
Components:
The scheme endeavours to promote research in areas such as basic research with access to international mega facilities, translational research in sustainable energy, water, etc. and collaborative research through international bilateral and multilateral cooperation.
It will also contribute to building a critical human resource pool to strengthen the science and technology landscape and expand the R&D base of the country towards improving the Full-Time Equivalent (FTE) researcher count.
Focused interventions will be taken up to enhance the participation of women in the field of S&T with the ultimate goal of bringing gender parity in Science, Technology, and Innovation (STI).
All the programs proposed under the ‘Vigyan Dhara’ scheme would be aligned with the 5-year goals of DST towards realising the vision of Viksit Bharat 2047.
The R&D component of the scheme will be aligned in line with the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/vigyan-dhara-scheme-gets-cabinet-nod-101724523673982.html
With reference to the Unified Pension Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It promises to government employees a guaranteed lifelong monthly pension.
- There is a provision of minimum pension of ₹10,000 per month for those who complete at least 10 years of central government service.
- The scheme is non-contributory like the OPS, which will put a burden on the Government’s exchequer.
- Employees do not have the option to switch from NPS to UPS.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
About the Unified Pension Scheme:
The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) was introduced by the government on August 24, 2024, replacing the 21-year-old National Pension System (NPS) with a structure closely resembling the Old Pension Scheme (OPS).
Key Features of the Unified Pension Scheme:
Guaranteed pension: The UPS promises government employees 50% of their last drawn pay as a lifelong monthly pension.
Dearness relief: The pension includes a periodic dearness relief hike in line with inflation trends.
Family pension: In the event of a government employee’s death, the family is assured a pension equivalent to 60% of the employee’s pension.
Superannuation payout: A lump sum payment in addition to gratuity benefits will be provided at the time of retirement.
Minimum pension: A minimum pension of ₹10,000 per month is assured for those who complete at least 10 years of central government service.
Contributions under the UPS:
The scheme is contributory, requiring:
Employees are to contribute 10% of their salary.
The government is to contribute 18.5% of the salary.
The government’s contribution may be adjusted based on periodic actuarial assessments to ensure the scheme’s sustainability.
Transition from NPS to UPS:
National Pension System (NPS): Originally implemented for employees joining on or after January 1, 2004, the NPS linked pension payouts to the accumulated contributions from both the government and employees, invested in market-linked securities.
Switch option: Employees who joined after 2004, including retirees, have the option to switch from NPS to UPS, which is expected to be beneficial for approximately 99% of NPS members.
Hence only two statements are correct.
News: Assured pensions return as government backtracks on New Pension Scheme - The Hindu
Recently, the Ministry of Environment has assured that the Great Nicobar Project will not displace or disturb the indigenous tribes. For which of the following tribes, the concerns have been raised?
Shompen
Explanation :
About the Great Nicobar Project:
The Great Nicobar Project is a multi-development initiative aimed at the holistic development of Great Nicobar Island, a strategic location in the southern end of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
It was cleared by the Ministry of Environment in November 2022 and is part of a broader strategy to enhance India’s strategic presence and infrastructure in the region.
The project is expected to be developed over 30 years in a phased manner.
The project is designed to counter expansionist activities by neighbouring countries, particularly China, and to safeguard India’s maritime interests by curbing illegal activities like poaching by Myanmarese fishers.
The island is home to the Shompen, a hunter-gatherer tribe, and the Nicobarese. An estimated 237 Shompen and 1,094 Nicobarese live in a tribal reserve covering 751 sq km, of which 84 sq km is proposed to be denotified for the project.
Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
News: Nicobar project will not disturb or displace tribes: Environment Minister Bhupendra Yadav - The Hindu
Which of the following viruses has mutated from the California strain to the Michigan strain, thereby becoming more lethal to humans?
H1N1 Influenza A
Explanation :
About H1N1 Influenza:
H1N1 is a subtype of the Influenza A virus, commonly known as swine flu. It can infect both humans and pigs, primarily causing respiratory illnesses.
The virus spreads through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. It can also be contracted by touching contaminated surfaces.
First case in India: The first confirmed case of H1N1 in India was reported in May 2009. Since then, the virus has caused several outbreaks, with significant case numbers recorded in 2021, 2022, and 2023.
Punjab (41 deaths), Kerala (34 deaths), and Gujarat (28 deaths) are the states with the highest mortality rates. The highest number of cases have been reported in Delhi, Gujarat, and Kerala.
New Strain: The Pune-based National Institute of Virology observed that the virus has undergone point mutations, leading to the emergence of a new strain called the Michigan strain, which has replaced the previously prevalent California strain. This shift is linked to the increased cases and mortality rates observed in 2024.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
News: Most number of deaths by H1N1 in Punjab, Kerala, and Gujarat - The Hindu
Consider the following statements regarding the matter and antimatter.
- There are equal amounts of matter and antimatter in the universe.
- Matter and antimatter cannot remain together for long.
- Electrons and protons are antimatter to each other, due to possessing opposite charges.
- Antimatters cannot be created artificially, as it would alter the matter-energy balance of the universe.
How many statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Recently, scientists have detected the heaviest antimatter nucleus ever observed, named anti-hyperhydrogen-4, in particle accelerator experiments at the Relativistic Heavy Ion Collider (RHIC) at Brookhaven National Laboratory, New York. This discovery, resulting from over 6 billion collision events, could offer insights into the fundamental differences between matter and antimatter, helping to explain why the universe is primarily composed of matter despite the equal creation of antimatter during the Big Bang.
What is Antimatter?
Antimatter is similar to ordinary matter but with the opposite electric charge, often referred to as “mirror matter.”
The antimatter counterpart of an electron (which has a negative charge) is the positron, which has the same mass as an electron but carries a positive charge. The antimatter equivalents of protons and neutrons are known as antiprotons and antineutrons, respectively.
Both matter and antimatter were created in equal amounts during the Big Bang. However, a slight imbalance allowed more matter to survive, forming the universe as we know it.
Matter and antimatter cannot exist together for long; they annihilate each other upon contact, releasing vast amounts of energy in the form of gamma rays or elementary particles.
Scientists can create antimatter particles in high-energy environments, such as particle accelerators like the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) operated by CERN near Geneva.
Apart from laboratory conditions, antiparticles are also naturally produced sporadically throughout the universe.
Hence only one statement is correct.
News: Heaviest antimatter particle ever discovered could hold secrets to our universe’s origins | Live Science
With reference to the Virupaksha Temple, consider the following statements:
- The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- It was constructed by Krishnadev Rai of the Vijayanagara Empire.
- The current Virupaksha Temple was reconstructed by the Wodeyar Dynasty on the ruins of the earlier one.
- It is a part of the larger Group of Monuments at Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
Virupaksha Temple:
The temple is dedicated to Lord Virupaksha, a form of Lord Shiva.
Situated in Hampi, within the Vijayanagara district of Karnataka, the temple is part of the larger Group of Monuments at Hampi, a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1986.
The temple has been in continuous operation since its inception in the 7th century AD, making it one of India’s oldest functioning temples.
Originally a modest shrine, the temple was expanded to its current grandeur during the reign of the Vijayanagara kings, with further additions from the Chalukyan and Hoysala eras.
The temple complex includes a sanctum sanctorum, multiple pillared halls (the most elaborate being a hall with 100 pillars), antechambers, and grand gopurams (gateway towers).
The Virupaksha temple, Hampi is the only one, which remains intact amidst the others ruined by the Bahmani sultanates and is still in worship. Even the destruction of the Hampi in 1565 did not deter the religious sect of Virupaksha-Pampa in their worship.
Hence only two statements are correct.
News: Keeping the Vijayanagara Empire alive: What it takes to conserve Hampi | Long Reads News - The Indian Express.
Which one of the following is the primary force driving mass wasting?
Gravity
Explanation :
A new study on the high frequency of mass wasting events in the Sedongpu Gully of the Tibetan Plateau since 2017 and the rapid warming of the area could be bad signs for India, specifically the country’s Northeast.
About Mass Wasting:
It is the movement of rock and soil down slope under the influence of gravity.
Causes:
Mass wasting occurs when a slope is too steep to remain stable with existing material and conditions.
Slope stability is determined by two factors: the slope angle and the accumulated materials’ shear strength.
Mass-wasting events are triggered by changes that over steepen slope angles and weaken slope stability, such as rapid snow melt, intense rainfall, earthquake shaking, volcanic eruptions, storm waves, stream erosion, and human activities.
Excessive precipitation is the most common trigger.
Mass-wasting events are classified by their movement type and material and share common morphological surface features.
The most common types of mass-wasting events are rockfalls, slides, flows, and creep.
Geologically, landslide is a general term for mass wasting that involves fast-moving geologic material.
Loose material along with overlying soils are what typically move during a mass-wasting event.
Moving blocks of bedrock are called rock topples, rock slides, or rock falls, depending on the dominant motion of the blocks.
Movements of dominantly liquid material are called flows.
Movement by mass wasting can be slow or rapid. Rapid movement can be dangerous, such as during debris flows.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/frequent-mass-wasting-in-tibet-a-cause-for-worry-in-india/article68564709.ece
Which among the following best describes ‘INS Mumbai’, recently seen in the news?
It is a guided missile destroyer.
Explanation :
The Indian Naval Ship (INS) Mumbai will arrive at the port of Colombo for a three-day maiden visit to Sri Lanka.
About INS Mumbai:
INS Mumbai is the third of the Delhi-class guided missile destroyers, indigenously built and commissioned into the Indian Navy on 22 January 2001.
It was constructed at Mazagon Dock Limited in Mumbai.
It was adjudged the ‘Best Ship’ thrice and the ‘Most Spirited Ship’ twice, which is a rare feat for any warship.
The ship has been at the forefront of major Naval Operations like Op Parakram (2002), Op Sukoon (2006: evacuation of Indian, Nepalese, and Sri Lankan citizens from Lebanon), and Op Rahat (2015: evacuation of Indian and foreign nationals from Yemen).
The ship completed its mid-life upgrade and joined the Eastern Naval Command in Visakhapatnam on 8 December 2023.
Features:
With a displacement of over 6500 tons, the ship is manned by 350 sailors and 40 officers.
The ship, spanning 163 metres in length and 17 metres at the beam, propelled by four gas turbines, is capable of achieving speeds in excess of 32 knots.
Fitted with an enviable, state-of-the-art weapons suite, which includes Surface to surface-to-surface missiles, surface-to-air missiles, Anti-Submarine rockets, and torpedoes, the ship can unleash lethal firepower upon the enemy.
The ship also operates all kinds of helicopters in the naval inventory: its extended eyes and ears.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indian-naval-ship-ins-mumbai-to-make-first-visit-to-sri-lanka-on-august-26/article68565990.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
- It is the nodal drug law enforcement and intelligence agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
- It was constituted under the provisions of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (NDPS Act).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Home Minister recently inaugurated the zonal office of the Narcotics Control Bureau in Chhattisgarh’s Raipur.
About Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):
It is the nodal drug law enforcement and intelligence agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
It was constituted on 14th November 1985, under the provisions of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985 (NDPS Act).
It has its headquarters located in Delhi.
The NCB exercises the powers and functions of the Central Government for taking measures with respect to:
Co-ordination of actions by various offices, State Governments, and other authorities under the N.D.P.S. Act, Customs Act, Drugs and Cosmetics Act, and any other law for the time being in force in connection with the enforcement provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
Implementation of the obligation in respect of countermeasures against illicit traffic under the various international conventions and protocols that are in force at present or which may be ratified or acceded to by India in the future.
Assistance to concerned authorities in foreign countries and concerned international organisations to facilitate coordination and universal action for prevention and suppression of illicit traffic in these drugs and substances.
Coordination of actions taken by the other concerned ministries, departments, and organizations in respect of matters relating to drug abuse.
It also functions as an enforcement agency through its zonal offices.
The zonal offices collect and analyse data related to seizures of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances, study trends, modus operandi, collect and disseminate intelligence, and work in close cooperation with the Customs, State Police, and other law enforcement agencies.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/responsibility-of-all-to-make-country-narcotics-drug-free-amit-shah-124082500231_1.html
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus’, that was in the news recently?
A new species of large theropod dinosaur.
Explanation :
A new dinosaur species named Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus has been recently discovered, which walked the region of Kyrgyzstan in Central Asia around 165 million years ago.
About Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus:
It is a new species of large theropod dinosaur discovered in the Middle Jurassic Balabansai formation in the northern part of the Fergana Depression, Kyrgyzstan.
It roamed our planet during the Callovian age of the Jurassic period between 165 and 161 million years ago.
The ancient predator was 7 to 8 m in body length and had an extremely protruding ‘eyebrow’ on the so-called postorbital bone, a skull bone behind the eye-opening, which indicates the presence of a horn at this point.
It belongs to Metriacanthosauridae, a group of medium-to-large-sized allosauroid theropod dinosaurs that are characterized by high-arched skulls, plate-like elongate neural spines, and slender hindlimbs.
Theropod dinosaurs are one of the most important large groups of dinosaurs, including well-known predators such as Tyrannosaurus and Allosaurus, as well as modern birds.
Alpkarakush kyrgyzicus is also the first large Jurassic predatory dinosaur ever unearthed between central Europe and East Asia.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.wionews.com/science/new-dinosaur-species-with-bizarre-brow-bone-lived-in-kyrgyzstan-165-million-years-ago-752271
Consider the following statements regarding Wular Lake:
- It is the largest freshwater lake in India.
- It is fed by the Chenab River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The Wular Lake is slowly choking up due to the ingress of silt-laden waters gushing in the form of streams from mountains in its catchments.
About Wular Lake:
It is the largest freshwater lake in India and the second-largest freshwater lake in Asia.
It is located in the Bandipore district of Jammu and Kashmir.
It is fed by the Jhelum River.
The lake lies at an altitude of 1,580 m on the foothills of Haramuk Mountain.
It is spread over a total area of 200 sq.km., covering almost 24 km in length and 10 km in breadth.
The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity.
It is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake that existed in ancient times.
This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din.
In 1990, it was designated as a Wetland of International Importance under the Ramsar Convention.
The area is important for wintering, staging and breeding birds. Terrestrial birds observed around the lake include the black-eared kite, Eurasian sparrow hawk, short-toed eagle, Himalayan golden eagle, Himalayan monal, etc.
It is an important habitat for fish, accounting for 60 percent of the total fish production within the state.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.greaterkashmir.com/opinion/prevent-siltation-of-wular-lake/
Consider the following:
- viruses
- bacteria
- toxins
- fungi
Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) can be caused by how many of the above agents?
All four
Explanation :
About Acute Encephalitis Syndrome:
Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) including Japanese Encephalitis (JE) is a group of clinically similar neurologic manifestation caused by several different viruses, bacteria, fungus, parasites, spirochetes, chemical/ toxins etc.
There is seasonal and geographical variation in the causative organism. The outbreak of JE usually coincides with the monsoon and post monsoon period when the density of mosquitoes increases while encephalitis due to other viruses specially entero-viruses occurs throughout the year as it is a water borne disease. The encephalitis by Arbovirus of North America includes the newly introduced West Nile Encephalitis (WNE).
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/ahmedabad/gujarat-hardlook-elusive-encephalitis-syndrome-9533240/
https://ncvbdc.mohfw.gov.in/WriteReadData/l892s/Revised_guidelines_on_AES_JE.pdf
Which of the following species exhibit Sonoluminescence in nature?
Pistol shrimps
Explanation :
About Sonoluminescence:
Sonoluminescence is a fascinating phenomenon where small gas bubbles in a liquid emit a brief flash of light when exposed to intense sound waves.
This phenomenon was first observed in 1934 by two German engineers studying SONAR.
Sound wave interaction: The process begins when a tiny bubble trapped in a liquid is subjected to powerful sound waves. These waves cause the bubble to rapidly expand and contract due to alternating high and low-pressure phases.
Extreme conditions: During the contraction phase, the bubble compresses so rapidly that its internal temperature skyrockets to several thousand kelvins.
This extreme heat ionizes the gases inside the bubble, resulting in the emission of light energy for a fraction of a second—about a trillionth of a second.
Pistol Shrimp: Sonoluminescence isn’t confined to laboratory settings. In nature, the pistol shrimp (family Alpheidae) exhibits a similar effect.
This shrimp has a specialized claw that snaps shut with remarkable speed, creating a high-velocity jet of water.
This jet forms a low-pressure bubble that, upon collapsing, produces a loud sound, intense heat, and a brief flash of light.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: What is sonoluminescence? - The Hindu
Which if the following are the objectives of National Quantum Mission?
- Developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years
- Satellite-based secure quantum communications
- Inter-city quantum key distribution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
About National Quantum Mission (NQM):
The National Quantum Mission (NQM) is a visionary initiative (2023) led by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) to fortify India’s research and development in the quantum domain.
Over the next eight years (2023-2031), the mission aims to pioneer the development of intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits using cutting-edge platforms like superconducting and photonic technology.
Additionally, the mission seeks to establish satellite-based secure quantum communications spanning a range of 2000 km within India and extending to other countries, as well as to develop highly sensitive magnetometers in atomic systems and precision atomic clocks for timing, communications, and navigation.
Quantum materials development: Moreover, the mission will provide crucial support for the design and synthesis of quantum materials such as superconductors, novel semiconductor structures, and topological materials to fabricate advanced quantum devices.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: India’s first quantum computer set for launch under National Quantum Mission - The Hindu BusinessLine
Consider the following statements:
- Polygraph tests can only be administered with the accused’s consent.
- It measures the changes in the electrical field potentials produced by the sum of the neuronal activity in the brain.
- The confession of the accused is not admissible in court but the information or evidence with the help of such tests are admissible.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
About Polygraph test:
The deception detection tests (DDT) such as polygraph, narco-analysis and brain-mapping have important clinical, scientific, ethical and legal implications.
Narco-analysis: This test involves the intravenous administration of a drug (such as sodium pentothal, scopolamine and sodium amytal) that causes the subject to enter into various stages of anaesthesia. In the hypnotic stage, the subject becomes less inhibited and is more likely to divulge information, which would usually not be revealed in the conscious state. He or she may also divulge all his/her fantasies, personal wishes, impulses, instinctual drive, illusions, delusions, conflicts, misinterpretations, etc. The main drawback of this technique is that some persons are able to retain their ability to deceive even in the hypnotic state, while others can become extremely suggestible to questioning.
Polygraph: This is also called a lie detector test, but this term is a misnomer. The theory behind polygraph tests is that a guilty subject is more likely to be concerned with lying about the relevant facts about the crime, which in turn produces a hyper-arousal state which is picked up by a person trained in reading polygraph results. Measurement of hyper-arousal state is based on a number of parameters such as heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, skin conductance and electromyography. The principle behind these tests is questionable because the measured changes in arousal state are not necessarily triggered by lying or deception.
Brain mapping: It measures the changes in the electrical field potentials produced by the sum of the neuronal activity in the brain by means of electrodes placed on the surface of the skin covering the head and face. The changes directly related to specific perceptual or cognitive events are called event-related potentials
According to the Supreme Court of India’s judgment in Selvi & Ors vs State of Karnataka & Anr (2010):
Polygraph tests can only be administered with the accused’s consent.
Consent must be informed, with the accused having access to legal counsel and a thorough explanation of the test’s physical, emotional, and legal implications.
The accused’s consent should be documented before a judicial magistrate.
Any evidence or information obtained through a voluntarily consented polygraph test can be admitted in court.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Kolkata doctor rape-murder: What Sanjay Roy told CBI during polygraph test | Latest News India - Hindustan Times
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3171915/
Which of the following benefits are provided to a language is designated as a Classical Language?
- Establishment of a Centre of Excellence for Studies
- Annual international awards for scholars of eminence in the language
- Creation of the Professional Chairs in Central Universities by the University Grants Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below:”
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
About the Classical language:
India currently recognizes six languages as classical:
Tamil: Declared in 2004, Tamil was the first language to receive this status.
Sanskrit: Accorded classical language status in 2005.
Telugu: Declared in 2008.
Kannada: Also recognized in 2008.
Malayalam: Added to the list in 2013.
Odia: The latest to be recognized, was in 2014.
Criteria: The government’s current criteria for declaring a language as classical include the following:
The language should have a long history of at least 1,500-2,000 years, documented in early texts.
It should possess a body of ancient literature that is highly regarded as a cultural heritage by generations of speakers.
The literary tradition of the language should be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
The classical language and its literature should be distinct from its modern form, potentially showing a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or offshoots.
Benefits of Classical Language Status:
Once a language is designated as classical, the Ministry of Education provides various benefits to promote it, including:
Two major international awards annually for scholars of eminence in the language.
Establishment of a Centre of Excellence for Studies in the Classical Language.
Requesting the University Grants Commission (UGC) to create Professional Chairs in Central Universities dedicated to the classical language.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: Centres for promotion of classical Telugu, Odia, Kannada and Malayalam demand autonomy for proper functioning - The Hindu.
Consider the following statements regarding RHUMI-1, recently seen in the news:
- It is India’s first electric-powered rocket.
- It was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in collaboration with the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
India achieved a significant milestone in its space journey with the launch of its first reusable hybrid rocket, RHUMI-1, recently.
About RHUMI-1:
It is India’s first reusable hybrid rocket.
It was developed by the Tamil Nadu-based startup Space Zone India in collaboration with Martin Group.
It stands out for its innovative hybrid propulsion system, combining the advantages of both liquid and solid fuels.
Rhumi 1’s hybrid design, which uses solid propellant and liquid oxidizer, reduces the risk of accidental detonation by combining these components only during combustion.
This technology promises improved efficiency and reduced operational costs.
The rocket also boasts a CO2-triggered parachute system, an eco-friendly and cost-effective mechanism that ensures the safe recovery of rocket components after launch.
The RHUMI Rocket is completely free of fireworks and uses no TNT.
About the Launch:
Rhumi 1 was launched into space from the East Coast Road Beach in Thiruvidandhai in Chennai.
The rocket, carrying 3 Cube Satellites and 50 PICO Satellites, was launched into a suborbital trajectory using India’s first hydraulic mobile launch system, enabling flexible and adaptable launch operations from various locations at different angles between 0 to 120 degrees.
The Cube Satellites are tasked with monitoring and collecting data on atmospheric conditions, including cosmic radiation intensity, UV radiation intensity and air quality.
Pico Satellites will focus on analyzing environmental factors such as vibrations, accelerometer readings, altitude, ozone levels, and toxic substances, providing insights into atmospheric dynamics.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.businesstoday.in/technology/news/story/india-launches-its-first-reusable-hybrid-rocket-rhumi-1-know-all-about-it-442858-2024-08-24
Consider the following statements regarding the National Medical Register (NMR) Portal:
- It is a portal of the National Medical Commission (NMC) for the registration of all allopathic (MBBS) doctors in India.
- It is linked with the Aadhaar ID of the doctors to ensure the individual’s authenticity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Union Health Minister recently launched the National Medical Register Portal in New Delhi.
About National Medical Register (NMR) Portal:
It is a portal of the National Medical Commission (NMC) for the registration of all MBBS doctors eligible for registration in India.
The NMR is mandated under Section 31 of the NMC Act, 2019, which states that the Ethics and Medical Registration Board (EMRB) of the NMC shall maintain a National Register in electronic form containing the name, address, and all recognised qualifications possessed by a licensed medical practitioner.
NMR will be a comprehensive and dynamic database for all allopathic (MBBS) registered doctors in India.
The uniqueness of the NMR is that it is linked with the Aadhaar ID of the doctors, which ensures the individual’s authenticity.
The whole process of registration in NMR is a very simple online process, and all the medical colleges/institutions (including the Institutes of National Importance (INIs), etc.). State Medical Councils (SMCs) are interlinked on the portal.
Some data will be visible to the public and others will only be visible to the EMRB in the NMC, SMCs, the National Board of Examinations (NBE), and Medical Institutions (including INIs, etc.), and Registered Medical Practitioners (RMPs) as per the requirements.
The NMR portal offers a variety of features, including the ability to add additional qualifications, track applications, suspend licenses and issue NMR ID cards and digital doctor certificates.
NMR will be upgraded and augmented with continuous improvements in the registration process on the portal.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/union-health-minister-j-p-nadda-launches-national-medical-register-portal-in-new-delhi/
Consider the following statements regarding the New India Literacy Programme (NILP):
- It aims to support the States and Union Territories in promoting literacy among non-literates in the age group of 15 and above.
- It is based on technology and implemented predominantly through online mode.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
In a letter to all States, the Ministry of Education has defined ‘literacy,’ and what it means to achieve ‘full literacy,’ in the light of the renewed push for adult literacy under the New India Literacy Programme (NILP).
About New India Literacy Programme (NILP):
It aims to support the States and Union Territories in promoting literacy among non-literates in the age group of 15 and above.
It is a centrally sponsored scheme with a financial outlay of Rs.1037.90 crore for implementation during FYs 2022-23 to 2026-27.
It aims to onboard one crore learners per year above 15 years across all States and union territories.
The scheme has five components, namely;
Foundational Literacy and Numeracy,
Critical Life Skills (which include financial literacy, digital literacy, legal literacy, healthcare and awareness, childcare and education, family welfare, etc.),
Basic Education (includes preparatory (classes 3-5), middle (classes 6-8), and secondary stage (classes 9-12) equivalency),
Vocational Skills (skill development will be a part of the continuous learning process for neo-literates to obtain local employment),
Continuing Education (This includes engaging in holistic adult education courses in arts, sciences, technology, culture, sports and recreation, as well as other topics of interest or use to local learners).
The beneficiaries under the scheme are identified through door-to-door surveys on the mobile app by the surveyors in the States/UTs.
The nonliterate can also avail the benefit of the scheme through direct registration from any place through the mobile app.
The scheme is mainly based on volunteerism for teaching and learning. Volunteers can also register through a mobile app for this purpose.
The scheme is based on technology and implemented predominantly through online mode.
The teaching-learning material and resources have been made available on the DIKSHA platform of NCERT and can be accessed through mobile apps.
Further, other modes like TV, Radio, Samajik Chetna Kendra etc. are also to be used for the dissemination of Foundational Literacy and Numeracy.
Formation and involvement of SHGs, voluntary and user groups and other community-based organizations may be encouraged.
Definition of Literacy:
Literacy may be understood as the ability to read, write, and compute with comprehension, that is, to identify, understand, interpret, and create, along with critical life skills such as digital and financial literacy.
Full literacy (to be considered equivalent to 100% literacy) will be achieving 95% literacy in a State or Union Territory.
A non-literate person may be considered as literate under the NILP, as per the aforementioned definition, when he/she has been declared literate after taking the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment Test (FLNAT).
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/education-ministry-defines-literacy-full-literacy/article68569537.ece
With reference to Unified Lending Interface (ULI), recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It is a technological platform that aims to provide a friction-less credit by cutting down the time taken for appraisal.
- It facilitates a seamless flow of digital information, including land records of various states, from multiple data service providers to lenders.
- The entire system is based on the consent of the potential borrower.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
Positioned as a platform to transform the lending space, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is currently running a pilot of the Unified Lending Interface (ULI).
About Unified Lending Interface (ULI):
It is a technological platform that aims to provide a friction-less credit by cutting down the time taken for appraisal, especially for rural and smaller borrowers.
It serves as a bridge connecting banks, non-banking financial companies (NBFCs), fintech firms, and borrowers, enabling a more efficient and transparent credit disbursement process.
ULI is expected to cater to a large unmet demand for credit across various sectors, particularly for agricultural and MSME borrowers.
ULI facilitates a seamless flow of digital information, including land records of various states, from multiple data service providers to lenders.
It enables the borrowers to get seamless delivery of credit and quicker turnaround time without requiring extensive documentation.
The ULI architecture has common and standardised application programming interfaces (APIs) designed for a plug-and-play approach to ensure digital access to information from diverse sources, i.e., information relevant to a lender giving out a loan to a potential borrower.
The entire system is consent-based, i.e., based on the consent of the potential borrower.
This platform reduces the complexity of multiple technical integrations.
The ULI promotes transparency by allowing borrowers to track their loan applications in real time.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/banking/mc-explainer-what-you-should-know-about-rbis-unified-lending-interface-platform-article-12807125.html
With reference to Plea Bargaining in India, consider the following statements:
- It is available for offenses that are punishable with imprisonment for a term of 12 years or less.
- It can take place at any stage of the criminal justice process, from the initial charge to the trial itself.
- The accused has the right to withdraw the plea at any time before the court pronounces the sentence.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Nearly two decades after plea bargaining was introduced, its application in India remains minimal, a recent report by the Ministry of Law and Justice has revealed.
About Plea Bargaining:
Plea bargaining is a process in which a defendant in a criminal case agrees to plead guilty in exchange for some concession from the prosecutor or the court.
The concession could be a reduced sentence, a lesser charge, dropping some charges, or any other agreement that benefits the defendant.
Plea bargaining aims to resolve a criminal case without going to trial, thereby saving time, resources, and expenses for both the prosecution and the defendant.
Plea Bargaining in India:
In India, plea bargaining is governed by the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, which incorporated it in 2005.
Under the Indian legal system, plea bargaining is available for offenses that are punishable with imprisonment for a term of 7 years or less.
The accused person must voluntarily opt for plea bargaining, and the court must be satisfied that the plea has been made voluntarily and with full knowledge of its consequences.
Plea bargaining can take place at any stage of the criminal justice process, from the initial charge to the trial itself.
The process of plea bargaining in India is initiated by the accused by filing an application before the court expressing his willingness to plead guilty.
The court will then examine the application and may allow or reject it based on the facts and circumstances of the case.
If the court allows the application, it will refer the matter to the prosecutor for further negotiations.
During the negotiation process, the prosecutor may offer a reduced sentence or some other concession in exchange for the accused’s guilty plea.
The accused may accept or reject the offer, and if accepted, the court will record the plea of guilt and pronounce the sentence as per the terms of the plea-bargaining agreement.
The court has the discretion to accept or reject the plea-bargaining agreement if it deems it to be unjust, unreasonable, or contrary to the interest of justice.
Additionally, if the accused breaches the terms of the plea-bargaining agreement, the court may set aside the agreement and proceed with the trial.
The accused has the right to withdraw the plea at any time before the court pronounces the sentence. If the plea is withdrawn, the trial continues as if the plea-bargaining process had not occurred.
Once the sentence is pronounced, it becomes final, and the accused cannot appeal against it except on the grounds of manifest injustice.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/report-reveals-minimal-use-of-plea-bargaining-in-india/article68569128.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Polaris Dawn Mission:
- It is the first non-governmental mission to conduct a spacewalk, near the International Space Station.
- The mission will break the altitude record set by NASA’s Gemini 11 mission in 1966.
- The mission will involve orbiting through the Van Allen Belts.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
About Polaris Dawn Mission:
Polaris Dawn is set to be the first non-governmental mission to conduct a spacewalk, reaching an unprecedented altitude of approximately 700 kilometres (435 miles) above Earth.
This altitude surpasses that of the International Space Station (ISS), which orbits at about 400 kilometres.
It will be the second mission for spacewalk, the first such walk was done by NASA’s Gemini 11 mission in 1966, which reached 1,373 kilometres.
The mission is spearheaded by billionaire entrepreneur Jared Isaacman, who previously financed and flew on SpaceX’s Inspiration4 mission, the first civilian mission to orbit Earth.
The mission will involve orbiting through the Van Allen Belts, regions of intense radiation that astronauts typically avoid. The ability to navigate these belts is crucial for future missions to Mars.
The Van Allen Belts consist of charged particles trapped by Earth’s magnetosphere, which protects the planet from solar storms and cosmic rays.
The four astronauts on board will test new spacesuits developed by SpaceX. These suits are designed to protect against the heightened radiation found in the Van Allen Belts.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Polaris Dawn: Another small step to Mars? | Explained News - The Indian Express
Chile, one of the three countries of the Lithium Triangle, is in the news recently, regarding the fallout of lithium mining. With this reference, consider the following statements:
- The brine evaporation method used to produce lithium requires massive quantities of fresh water.
- Chemicals like sulfuric acid and sodium hydroxide used in lithium extraction contaminate the soil and water.
- The lithium mining has led to a decline in the flamingo population in the Atacama region.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
A recent study published in the journal IEEE Transactions on Geoscience and Remote Sensing reveals that Chile’s Atacama salt flat is sinking at 1 to 2 centimetres per year due to lithium brine extraction.
Lithium brine extraction is a process where salt-rich water is pumped to the surface and into evaporation ponds to extract lithium. This method is prevalent in salt flats like Chile’s Atacama, one of the world’s largest lithium sources.
The subsidence is occurring because the rate of lithium-rich brine pumping exceeds the natural recharge rate of the aquifers, leading to a downward movement of the Earth’s surface.
The most affected region is in the southwest part of the salt flat, where lithium mining operations are concentrated. The sinking area measures approximately 8 km from north to south and 5 km from east to west.
Environmental impact of Lithium Mining
Water scarcity: The extraction process is water-intensive; it requires approximately 2,000 tons of water to produce just one ton of lithium.
This is particularly problematic in the Atacama Desert, where water is already scarce, affecting indigenous communities and local wildlife.
Chemical contamination: Chemicals like sulfuric acid and sodium hydroxide used in lithium extraction contaminate the soil and water, posing a severe threat to ecosystems and endangering species.
Impact on Wildlife: A 2022 study highlighted that lithium mining has led to a decline in the flamingo population in the Atacama region due to reduced water levels, affecting their reproduction.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Chile’s Atacama salt flat sinking due to lithium mining: What a new study says | Explained News - The Indian Express
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, a flagship initiative to provide affordable credit to micro and small enterprises:
- The borrowers can avail loans from Non-Banking Financial Companies also, under this scheme.
- The minimum amount of loan that a borrower can get under the scheme is Rs. 50000.
- There is no direct subsidy under this scheme.
- The maximum amount of loan that a borrower can get under the scheme is Rs. 10 lakhs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Union Budget 2024 has increased the loan limit under the scheme’s Tarun category to Rs 20 lakh, targeting those who have successfully repaid previous MUDRA loans.
About Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY)
It is a flagship initiative by the Government of India that was launched in 2015 and aimed at providing affordable credit to micro and small enterprises.
The scheme is designed to “fund the unfunded,” enabling small borrowers to secure loans from various financial institutions including Public Sector Banks (PSBs), Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Cooperative Banks, Private Sector Banks, Foreign Banks, Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs), and Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs).
Categories of Loans:
Shishu: Loans up to ₹50,000, aimed at new and micro enterprises.
Kishore: Loans ranging from ₹50,000 to ₹5 lakh, for businesses in the growth phase.
Tarun: Loans from ₹5 lakh to ₹10 lakh, for businesses looking to expand further.
However, the Union Budget 2024 has increased the loan limit under the scheme’s Tarun category to Rs 20 lakh, targeting those who have successfully repaid previous MUDRA loans.
Subsidy: There is no direct subsidy under PMMY. However, if a loan is linked to a government scheme that provides capital subsidies, the loan can be availed under PMMY with the associated benefits.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: MUDRA 2.0 loans should target greater equity, deepen financial literacy | The Indian Express
The Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir is all set to go to polls for the first time after its bifurcation in 2019. Regarding this consider the following statements:
- The UT has 90 Assembly seats distributed across 20 districts, both Jammu and Kashmir regions have equal number of seats.
- The UT has five Parliamentary seats, each having 18 assembly seats.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Election Commission of India recently announced the schedule for the Jammu and Kashmir Assembly elections, marking the first such elections in the region since 2018.
As per the Jammu and Kashmir Delimitation, 2022, the UT has 90 Assembly seats distributed across 20 districts. 43 of them will be part of Jammu region and 47 for Kashmir region.
There are five Parliamentary Constituencies in the region. Each Parliamentary Constituency has 18 assembly seats. For this, one of the Parliamentary Constituency has been carved out combining Anantnag region in the Valley and Rajouri & Poonch of Jammu region.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/elections/assembly-election/j-k-assembly-elections-2024-voting-from-sept-18-oct-1-check-details-here-124081601172_1.html
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1822939
Consider the following statements:
- The PARIVESH 2.0 portal offers a single-window solution for managing all green clearances and monitors compliance across India.
- Any individual possessing species listed under Schedule IV of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, must report and register them on the PARIVESH 2.0 portal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has mandated the registration of exotic pets listed under Schedule IV of the Wildlife Act with state wildlife departments via the PARIVESH 2.0 portal within 6 months.
About Exotic Species:
Exotic species refer to animals or plants that are moved from their natural habitat to a new location, often due to human activities.
According to the Living Animal Species (Reporting and Registration) Rules, 2024, any individual possessing species listed under Schedule IV of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, must report and register them.
The Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has introduced Section 49 M, which mandates the registration of the possession, transfer, birth, and death of species listed in the CITES Appendices and Schedule IV of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Concerns with Exotic Species:
Many exotic species are imported and bred in India without proper registration, posing risks such as zoonotic diseases.
The COVID-19 pandemic, being zoonotic, highlighted the dangers associated with the unregulated trade and ownership of exotic animals.
Activists have raised alarms over the increasing smuggling of endangered exotic animals into India, especially from Southeast Asia. Significant seizures have been reported in Assam and Mizoram, with animals like Kangaroos, Koalas, and Lemurs being confiscated.
About the PARIVESH 2.0 Portal: PARIVESH 2.0 is a web-based workflow application developed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) for the online submission and monitoring of proposals related to environmental, forest, wildlife, and coastal regulation zone clearances.
It offers a single-window solution for managing all green clearances and monitors compliance across India.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Last Date for declaring Exotic animals listed under Schedule IV of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 is 28 August 2024.
With reference to Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE), recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It is an extremely rare but serious and often fatal infection caused by a fungus.
- It is spread to humans through the bite of infected mosquitoes.
- There are no vaccines to prevent EEE infection in people and no specific treatments for EEE disease.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
A person in New Hampshire, United States, has died after contracting the rare mosquito-borne Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE) virus, health officials reported recently.
About Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE):
It is an extremely rare but serious and often fatal infection caused by the EEE virus (EEEV).
It causes encephalitis, or inflammation of the brain.
EEEV can infect a wide range of animals, including mammals, birds, reptiles, and amphibians.
Transmission: The spread of EEEV to mammals (including humans and horses) occurs through the bite of infected mosquitoes that feed on both birds and mammals.
Human cases of EEE disease are rare but can cause serious illness.
Symptoms:
It is possible that some people who are infected with EEEV will not develop any symptoms.
Symptoms typically appear 4-10 days after being bitten by an infected mosquito.
Severe cases of EEE infection begin with the sudden onset of headache, high fever, chills, and vomiting that may progress into disorientation, seizures, encephalitis (inflammation of the brain), and coma.
About 30% of people ill from EEE die, and many who survive the infection are left with permanent neurologic damage.
Treatment:
There are no vaccines to prevent EEE infection in people and no specific treatments for EEE disease.
Treatment focuses on supportive therapy, including hospitalization, respiratory support, intravenous fluids, and prevention of other infections.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/us/new-hampshire-patient-dies-from-rare-mosquito-borne-disease/articleshow/112848024.cms
The terms “Mimetus spinatus and Mimetus parvulus”, recently seen in the news, is a species of:
spiders
Explanation :
The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) recently discovered two new species of spiders named Mimetus spinatus and Mimetus parvulus from the southern Western Ghats.
About Mimetus spinatus and Mimetus parvulus:
They are two new species of spiders discovered in the southern Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot.
Mimetus spinatus and Mimetus parvulus were collected from the Mookambika Wildlife Sanctuary, Karnataka and Ernakulam district of Kerala, respectively.
Features:
Both species belong to the spider family Mimetidae, commonly known as pirate or cannibal spiders due to their unique predatory behaviour.
These spiders infiltrate the webs of other spiders, mimicking the vibrations of prey or mates to deceive and kill the host spider.
Mimetus spinatus is characterised by its medium size, pale yellow head, and dull grey-white abdomen, with scattered light green mottling. It possesses long, black, flattened spine-like hairs on the dorsal head, which inspired its name.
In contrast, Mimetus parvulus is distinguished by its pale creamy-rose head with dense grey-black mottling and a triangular-shaped, dull grey-white abdomen.
The discovery marks the report of the genus Mimetus after 118 years of the discovery of the last Mimetus species (i.e. Mimetus indicus) from India.
The addition of two new species brings the number of Mimetus species in India to three, all of which were spotted from the southern part of the country.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.millenniumpost.in/bengal/zsi-discovers-2-new-spider-species-from-western-ghats-577325?infinitescroll=1
Which one of the following best describes a ‘geoglyph’?
A design drawn on the earth
Explanation :
The Maharashtra government recently declared 1,500 geoglyphs spread across 70 locations in a 210-square-kilometre area of the Ratnagiri district as a ‘protected monument’.
About Geoglyphs:
A geoglyph refers to a design that is drawn on the earth.
Geoglyphs are typically formed of durable elements of the landscape, such as stones, gravel, or earth.
It is usually longer than four metres.
Geoglyphs are difficult to see or even identify on the ground but are easily appreciated when seen from the sky.
There are two types of geoglyphs, namely a positive and negative geoglyph.
A positive geoglyph is formed by the arrangement and alignment of materials on the ground in a manner akin to petroforms (which are simply outlines created using boulders).
A negative geoglyph is formed by removing part of the natural ground surface to create differently coloured or textured ground in a manner akin to petroglyphs.
There is another variation of a geoglyph that involves seeding plants in a special design.
The design usually takes years to see since it depends on the plants growing. This type of geoglyph is called an arborglyph.
Another type of geoglyph often referred to as ‘chalk giants’ are those carved into hillsides, exposing the bedrock beneath.
Examples: The most famous geoglyphs are the Nasca lines in Peru and the horse and human figures cut into hillsides in southern England (e.g., the Uffington White Horse and the Cerne Giant).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://theprint.in/opinion/maharashtras-geoglyphs-discovery-is-citizen-archaeology-at-its-best-it-put-india-on-the-map/2238092/
With reference to Quasars, consider the following statements:
- They are an extremely active and luminous type of Active Galactic Nucleus (AGN).
- They are intense sources of X-rays as well as visible light.
- Most quasars have been found near the Solar system.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Using the European Southern Observatory’s (ESO) Very Large Telescope (VLT), astronomers recently identified a quasar described as the “brightest of its kind” and the “most luminous object ever observed.
About Quasar:
A quasar is an extremely active and luminous type of Active Galactic Nucleus (AGN).
An AGN is nothing more than a supermassive black hole that is active and feeding at the center of a galaxy.
All quasars are AGNs, but not all AGNs are quasars.
Quasar is short for quasi-stellar radio source because astronomers first discovered quasars in 1963 as objects that looked like stars but emitted radio waves.
Quasars are intense sources of X-rays as well as visible light. They are the most powerful type of X-ray source yet discovered.
They are among the most luminous, powerful, and vibrant objects known in the universe.
How are they formed?
Quasars are thought to form in regions of the universe where the large-scale density of matter is much higher than average.
An active galaxy is one in which the central supermassive black hole is consuming large amounts of matter.
The infall of matter into the black hole is so great that all the material can’t enter the black hole at the same time, so it forms a queue as a spiralling accretion disk.
The matter—in the form of huge clouds—falls into the disk, with the inner parts of the cloud closer to the black hole orbiting faster than the outer parts (just like planets closer to the sun orbit faster than those farther away).
This creates a shear force that twists the clouds, causing them to bump into their neighbours as they move around the black hole at velocities ranging from 10% of the speed of light up to over 80%.
This friction from fast-moving gas clouds generates heat and the disk becomes so hot—millions of degrees—that it shines brightly.
Some of the material in the disk is also funnelled away from the black hole in a highly luminous, magnetically collimated jet.
The hot accretion disk and the jet combine to make the nucleus of the active galaxy shine so brightly that it can be seen far across the universe.
The brightest quasars can outshine all of the stars in the galaxies in which they reside, which makes them visible even at distances of billions of light-years.
Most quasars have been found billions of light-years away.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.ndtv.com/science/astronomers-discover-object-500-trillion-times-brighter-than-the-sun-6430389
Talley Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which one of the following states?
Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation :
A Mumbai-based lepidopterist recently recorded as many as 85 butterfly species during a four-day expedition to the Tale Wildlife Sanctuary in Arunachal Pradesh’s Lower Subansiri district.
About Talley Valley Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is located in the Lower Subansiri district of Arunachal Pradesh.
It is a plateau and covers an area of 337 sq. km.
It is situated at an altitude of 2400 metres, with rivers like Pange, Sipu, Karing and Subansiri flowing through the sanctuary.
The sanctuary is home to the Apatani tribe, known for their unique customs, traditions, and handicrafts.
Flora:
It has a stunning spectrum of subtropical and alpine forests like silver fir trees, ferns, orchids, bamboo, and rhododendrons.
Pleioblastus simone, one of its kind of bamboo, can be found only in Talley Valley.
It is also home to several medicinal plants and herbs used by the local tribes for traditional medicine.
Fauna: It is home to a variety of animal species such as elephants, barking deer, giant squirrels, porcupines, leopards, clouded leopards, wild boars, etc.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: https://nenews.in/arunachal-pradesh/85-butterfly-species-spotted-at-arunachal-pradeshs-tale-wildlife-sanctuary/13302/
Consider the following statements regarding the Northern bald ibis:
- The bird species is endemic to the Central Europe.
- It is listed as ‘ Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
About Northern bald ibis:
Scientific Name: Geronticus eremita
Conservation status: Endangered (formerly Critically Endangered)
Historical range: Once native to Central Europe until the 17th century, also found in North Africa and the Arabian Peninsula.
Extinction in Europe: The species became extinct in Central Europe by the 17th century due to excessive hunting. Biologist Johannes Fritz and the Waldrappteam increased its population from zero to nearly 300 since 2002, moving it from “Critically Endangered” to “Endangered.”
Distinctive features: The Northern Bald Ibis is known for its black plumage with an iridescent green sheen, a bald red head adorned with black markings, and a long, downward-curved beak.
Their red beak and legs stand out against their dark feathers. There is no sexual dimorphism in this species.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: Northern bald ibis was extinct in Europe. Now it’s back, and humans must help it migrate for winter - The Hindu.
Consider the following statements:
- Unlike hurricanes, typhoons are temperate cyclones that cause heavy rains and violent winds.
- Trade winds influence tropical cyclones and move from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Typhoon Shanshan
Typhoon Shanshan has intensified into a “very strong” storm as it approaches Japan’s southwestern coast, prompting warnings from weather agencies. Both Hurricanes and Typhoons are tropical cyclones.
A tropical cyclone is a significant weather phenomenon.
These cyclones originate over warm ocean waters near the equator. Warm, moist air rises from the ocean surface, creating a low-pressure area.
Surrounding higher-pressure air moves towards this low-pressure zone, causing the air to warm up and rise further. As the rising air cools, it forms clouds.
This system of spinning clouds and wind intensifies with the ocean’s heat. As wind speeds increase, an eye forms at the centre.
Tropical cyclones move from east to west, are influenced by trade winds, and are seasonal.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: Typhoon Shanshan moves closer to Japan’s coast; rains, winds cause flight and rail disruptions | World News
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Recently, the government has banned 156 Fixed-Dose Combination (FDC) drugs.
Statement-II:
Some pharmaceutical companies create FDCs to circumvent government-imposed price controls on essential medicines.
Statement-III:
Some FDCs include combinations of antibiotics, leading to their overuse and contributing to the growing issue of antibiotic resistance.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A.
Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
B.
Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
C.
Only one of the Statements-II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
D.
Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct
Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
Explanation :
What are combination drugs?
The Indian government has recently banned 156 Fixed-Dose Combination (FDC) drugs.
What are Fixed-Dose Combination (FDC) drugs?
Fixed-dose combination (FDC) drugs are medications that combine two or more active pharmaceutical ingredients (APIs) in a single dosage form, such as a pill, capsule, or injection.
These drugs are often prescribed for conditions requiring multiple medications, such as tuberculosis, diabetes, and hypertension, to enhance patient compliance by reducing the number of pills taken daily.
The rationale for the Ban: The banned FDCs were deemed “irrational” by the central government, as they do not provide any additional therapeutic benefits.
The combinations in these FDCs may involve ingredients that either do not work synergistically or include unnecessary components that do not require simultaneous administration.
Benefits: FDCs can improve patient compliance, especially for chronic diseases where multiple medications are required.
Risks: Some FDCs may include unnecessary components, leading to patients consuming drugs they don’t need.
For example, Cheston Cold includes paracetamol, cetirizine, and phenylephrine, which are not necessary for treating bacterial infections but are used for managing cold symptoms.
Concerns with FDCs:
Overuse of antibiotics: Some FDCs include combinations of antibiotics, leading to their overuse and contributing to the growing issue of antibiotic resistance. This occurs when bacteria become resistant to commonly used antibiotics, necessitating stronger or higher doses for treatment.
Lack of therapeutic justification: Many FDCs combine drugs that do not require co-administration, potentially exposing patients to unnecessary medications, which could result in adverse effects.
Avoidance of pricing control: Some pharmaceutical companies create FDCs to circumvent government-imposed price controls on essential medicines. By introducing new combinations, they can set higher prices, undermining efforts to make essential drugs affordable.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-health/govt-ban-fdc-drugs-cheston-cold-foracet-health-ministry-fever-allergies-aches-9536556/
Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana:
- The applicant should be an Indian citizen between 18 and 59 years old to open a Jan Dhan Account.
- The government has recently decided to close the scheme as almost 100% of Indians have got banking access.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
About Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY):
Launch date: August 28, 2014
Objective: To promote financial inclusion by providing access to financial services, including banking/savings accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, and pensions, affordably.
Significance: Forms the backbone for several government economic initiatives and facilitates Direct Benefit Transfers (DBTs).
Eligibility:
The applicant should be an Indian National.
The applicant should be aged between 18 and 59 years.
If minors above ten years apply, they will require support from their legal guardians to administer their PMJDY account.
Financial Year 2024-25 target: The government aims to open an additional 3 crore PMJDY accounts.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: Over 3 crore PM Jan Dhan accounts to be opened in FY25: FM Sitharaman | Business News - The Indian Express
Consider the following statements regarding Nuclear Powered trains:
- The first nuclear-powered train movements in India are expected to focus on circuits served by the Nabinagar Thermal Power Plant.
- Thorium-based reactors are considered for their lower radiation risks compared to other nuclear materials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
About Nuclear Powered Trains Initiative:
Indian Railways is actively exploring using nuclear power through captive units as part of its strategy to increase reliance on non-fossil fuel sources.
The first nuclear-powered train movements are expected to focus on circuits served by the Nabinagar Thermal Power Plant, leveraging existing infrastructure to test and expand nuclear energy use in rail transport.
What are Nuclear-Powered Trains?
Nuclear-powered trains utilise the heat generated from a nuclear reaction to produce steam, which drives turbines. One turbine powers the train, while another generates electricity for auxiliary systems such as lighting and air conditioning.
The idea of nuclear-powered trains gained attention in the 1950s, especially in the USSR, where it became a goal of the Ministry of Transport.
How Do Nuclear-Powered Trains Function?
Design: These trains would feature a portable nuclear reactor. The reactor heats a fluid to produce steam, which then powers electric turbines. These turbines generate the necessary electricity to propel the train.
Thorium reactors: Thorium-based reactors are considered for their lower radiation risks compared to other nuclear materials. The design of the reactors incorporates advanced safety mechanisms to minimize risks and prevent potential misuse.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News: Indian Railways: Plans to go nuclear as part of its green drive - The Hindu BusinessLine
With reference to Leptospirosis, consider the following statements:
- It is a rare viral infection that affects people and animals.
- It is not spread from person to person, except in very rare cases.
- There are no specific treatments for Leptospirosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
A severe Leptospirosis outbreak has emerged as a major public health concern across Kerala.
About Leptospirosis:
Leptospirosis, also known as “rat fever”, is a rare bacterial infection that affects people and animals.
The disease is caused by a bacterium called Leptospira interrogans, or Leptospira.
It is most common in tropical areas and warmer climates with yearly rainfall.
Transmission:
The carriers of the disease can be either wild or domestic animals, including rodents, cattle, pigs, and dogs.
Infected animals spread the bacteria through their urine (pee). They may continue to urinate the bacteria into the environment for several months or years.
The bacteria can survive in contaminated water or soil for weeks to months.
It is not spread from person to person, except in very rare cases.
Symptoms: It generally takes 2-30 days to get sick after having contact with the bacteria. Leptospirosis may occur in two phases.
In the first phase, people may have a fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, vomiting, or diarrhea. The person may feel better for a while but become ill again.
Some people may suffer a more severe second phase with kidney or liver failure, or inflammation of the membrane around the brain and spinal cord (meningitis).
Treatment: It can be treated with antibiotics, including penicillin and doxycycline.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/as-nipah-threat-subsides-kerala-faces-a-new-health-challenge-a-deadly-leptospirosis-outbreak
With reference to the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It provides medium- to long-term debt financing facilities for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets.
- It is mandatory for borrowers to contribute at least 50% of the total project cost under the scheme.
- Credit guarantee coverage will be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The government recently expanded the scope of the Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme to make it more attractive, as part of its objective to strengthen farm-related infrastructure facilities in the country.
About Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Scheme:
It is a Central Sector Scheme which was launched in 2020.
Objective: The scheme shall provide a medium- to long-term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets through interest subvention and financial support.
The duration of the Scheme shall be from FY2020 to FY2032 (10 years).
Who are eligible?
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
Marketing Cooperative Societies
Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs)
Farmers
Self Help Group (SHG)
Joint Liability Groups (JLG)
Multipurpose Cooperative Societies
Agri-entrepreneurs and Startups
Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored Public-Private Partnership Projects.
Exclusions: Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) are directly not eligible under the scheme, but projects sponsored by them under PPP are eligible.
Scheduled commercial banks, scheduled cooperative banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) may participate in providing this financing facility.
If required, need-based refinance support will be made available by NABARD to all eligible lending entities, including cooperative banks and RRBs, as per its policy.
Features:
All loans up to a limit of ₹ 2 crores under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3% per annum. This subvention will be available for a maximum period of 7 years.
An applicant can put up to 25 projects in different locations, and each of such projects will be eligible under the scheme for a loan up to ₹ 2 crore.
This limit of 25 projects is applicable to private sector entities, such as farmers, Agri entrepreneurs, and start-ups.
This limitation of 25 projects will not apply to state agencies, cooperatives, national and state federations of cooperatives, FPOs, federations of FPOs, SHGs, and federations of SHGs.
Multiple projects in one location are also eligible with an overall cap of ₹2 crore.
Under the scheme, it is mandatory for borrowers to contribute at least 10% of the total project cost, irrespective of available capital subsidy.
The moratorium for repayment under this financing facility may vary, subject to a minimum of 6 months and a maximum of 2 years.
24% of total grants–in–aid under the scheme should be utilized for SC/ST entrepreneurs (16% for SC and 8% for ST).
Besides this, lending institutions would ensure adequate coverage of entrepreneurs belonging to women, and other weaker segments of society may be provided loans on a priority basis.
Credit guarantee coverage will be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility under the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme for a loan up to Rs. 2 crores. The fee for this coverage will be paid by the Government.
In the case of FPOs, the credit guarantee may be availed from the facility created under the FPO promotion scheme of the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DACFW).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/industry/agriculture/centre-approves-expansion-of-agricultural-infrastructure-fund-scheme-124082800836_1.html
Which of the following is a key mandate of the Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D)?
Promoting the use of appropriate technology in police work.
Explanation :
The Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) recently celebrated its 54th Foundation Day at its headquarters in New Delhi.
About Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D):
BPR&D was set up in 1970 under the Ministry of Home Affairs by replacing the Police Research and Advisory Council.
Headquarters: New Delhi
It was established with a mandate to:
Identify the needs and problems of the police in the country.
Undertake research projects and studies, and suggest modalities to overcome problems and challenges and meet the needs and requirements of the police.
Keep abreast of the latest developments in the fields of science and technology, both in India and abroad, to promote the use of appropriate technology in police work.
Over the years, the BPR&D has also been entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the training needs and quality of training in the States and Central Police Organisations and providing assistance for the same, as well as assisting the States in the modernization of the State Police Forces and Correctional Administration.
BPR&D has also been tasked to assist the Ministry of Home Affairs and the CPFs, etc., in the development of Standards, Quality Requirements (QRs), etc., for various types of equipment and items about infrastructure.
More recently, the BPR&D has also been entrusted with the responsibility of anchoring and coordinating the work of the National Police Mission.
The Bureau was initially established with the following two divisions; Research, Statistics & Publication and Development.
On the recommendations of the Gore Committee, the bureau created a Training Division in 1973.
The BPRD has five Central Detective Training Institutes at Kolkata, Hyderabad, Chandigarh, Ghaziabad, and Jaipur dedicated to the training of police officers and other stakeholders.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsonair.gov.in/bprd-celebrates-54th-foundation-day/
How are deepfake videos typically created?
By using machine learning models and neural networks.
Explanation :
South Korea’s president recently ordered a crackdown on an epidemic of digital sex crimes targeting women and girls who become the unwitting victims of deepfake pornography.
About Deepfakes:
Deepfakes are synthetic media, including images, videos, and audio, generated by artificial intelligence (AI) technology that portray something that does not exist in reality or events that have never occurred.
The term deepfake combines deep, taken from deep-learning technology (a type of machine learning that involves multiple levels of processing), and fake, addressing that the content is not real.
It can create people who do not exist, and it can fake real people saying and doing things they did not say or do.
Background: The origin of the word “deepfake” can be traced back to 2017, when a Reddit user with the username “deepfakes”, posted explicit videos of celebrities.
Working:
They are created by machine learning models, which use neural networks to manipulate images and videos.
To make a deepfake video of someone, a creator would first train a neural network on many hours of real video footage of the person to give it a realistic “understanding” of what he or she looks like from many angles and under different lighting.
Then they’d combine the trained network with computer graphics techniques to superimpose a copy of the person onto a different actor.
Deepfake technology is now being used for nefarious purposes like scams and hoaxes, celebrity pornography, election manipulation, social engineering, automated disinformation attacks, identity theft, and financial fraud.
Deep fakes differ from other forms of false information by being very difficult to identify as false.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.theguardian.com/world/article/2024/aug/28/south-korea-deepfake-porn-law-crackdown
SIG 716 Rifle, recently seen in the news, is manufactured by which one of the following countries?
United States
Explanation :
The Ministry of Defence recently signed a repeat order for 73,000 SIG716 rifles from Sig Sauer of the U.S., and deliveries are expected to be completed by end-2025.
About SIG 716 Rifle:
It is an American-made automatic assault rifle.
It is manufactured by the United States firearms maker, Sig Sauer.
In India, the army has extensively integrated the SIG 716 into its ranks, particularly for troops operating in mountainous areas and critical border regions.
Features:
The rifle has a total length of 34.39 inches and a barrel length of 15.98 inches.
Its total weight is 3.58 kg.
It has a higher recoil and higher calibre, meant to shoot-to-kill targets at 600 metres.
These rifles have high-powered 7.62x51mm caliber, offering longer range and greater lethality than the existing INSAS and AK-47 rifles currently in the service of Indian armed forces.
Its gas piston system enhances reliability and reduces maintenance needs.
The modularity of the SIG 716 allows for easy adaptation to various roles through the simple addition of accessories on its Picatinny rail, making this rifle extremely versatile for armed forces and specialized tactical units.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://theprint.in/defence/indian-army-orders-fresh-batch-of-73k-sig-sauer-716-rifles-from-us-under-emergency-procurement/2240975/
Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in the news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
Recently, four monkeys were found dead in the Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary in Kannur district of Kerala, raising concerns among wildlife authorities.
Location: It is located on the western slopes of Western Ghats and it is the northernmost wildlife sanctuary of Kerala.
It is contiguous with Wayanad-Brahma Giri, Wayanad’s northern slopes and the Protected Areas of Karnataka State namely the Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary and also the forests of Coorg.
Rivers: The Cheenkannipuzha River forms the main drainage system on the southern side. Other rivers Narikkadavu thodu, Kurukkathodu and Meenumuttithodu.
Vegetation: It includes West Coast tropical evergreen forests, West Coast semi-evergreen forests, South Indian moist deciduous forests, Southern hilltop evergreen forests and plantations.
It is the only protected area of the West Coast Tropical Evergreen forest of Dipterocarpus-Mesua- Palaquium type.
The highest peak of this sanctuary is Katti Betta.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/four-monkeys-found-dead-in-keralas-aralam-wildlife-sanctuary-authorities-probe-possible-infection/article68576041.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Anubhav Awards:
- It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to nation-building while working in Government.
- It requires central Government pensioners to submit their Anubhav write-ups, 8 months before retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare (DoPPW) organised the 7th Anubhav Awards ceremony to recognise the contribution made by Central Government employees while in service.
It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to nation-building while working in Government and to document the administrative history of India by written narratives.
The ANUBHAV Portal, established in March 2015, serves as an online platform for retiring and retired government employees to share their experiences.
The portal was launched by the Government of India, Ministry of personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Department of Pension & Pensioners’ welfare.
Objectives
It aims to create a database of significant suggestions and work experiences.
It channels the human resources of retiring employees for nation-building.
Enable Ministries/ Departments to take crucial steps while considering useful and replicable suggestions.
Eligibility: To participate in the scheme, retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are required to submit their Anubhav write-ups, 8 months prior to retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement.
Thereafter, the write-ups will be published after assessment by concerned Ministries/Departments. The published write-ups will be shortlisted for the Anubhav Awards and Jury Certificates.
Each ANUBHAV Awardee will be felicitated with a medal and certificate and a Prize of 10,000 rupees, whereas a Jury certificate Winner will be presented with a medal and a certificate.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2049543
Consider the following statements regarding the Qutb Shahi Tomb Complex:
- It is located in Hyderabad which consists of tombs, mosques and a mortuary bath.
- It was built in Indo-Sarsenic architectural style during the 12th century.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
After a decade-long restoration effort by the Telangana government’s Department of Heritage and Aga Khan Trust for Culture (AKTC), the Qutb Shahi Heritage Park was opened to the public.
It was built by the Qutb Shahi dynasty which ruled the region from 1518 A.D. to 1687 A.D.
This complex is located in - Ibrahim Bagh in Hyderabad.
It consists of 30 tombs, mosques and a mortuary bath. The tombs belong to the rulers of the Qutb Shahi Dynasty.
It is a 500-year-old cluster of grand mausoleums, idgah, graves, funerary mosques, a hammam (bath), and baolis (stepwells).
Architecture style:
It collectively constitutes an outstanding example of an Indo-Muslim dynastic necropolis.
These tombs are present in a large group on a raised platform. They resemble Persian, Pathan and Hindu architectural styles that make use of grey granite, with stucco ornamentation and is a one-of-its-kind place in the world where the whole dynasty is buried in a single spot.
They lie amidst beautifully landscaped gardens with intricately carved stonework.
Key facts about the Qutb Shahi dynasty
They are Muslim rulers of the kingdom of Golconda in the southeastern region of Deccan, one of the five successor states of the Bahmanī kingdom.
The founder was Qulī Quṭb Shah, a Turkish governor of the Bahmanī eastern region.
Period: 1518–1687.
Quṭb Shah declared his independence in 1518 and moved his capital to Golconda.
Toward the end of the century, Muḥammad Qulī Quṭb Shah built a new capital at Hyderabad, a few miles away.
The kingdom stretched from the Godavari River in the north, sharing a border with Tamil Nadu to the south, Bijapur to the west, and the Bay of Bengal to the east.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/hyderabad/hyderabad-qutb-shahi-tombs-restoration-9534201/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Awards to Teachers:
- It is conferred on the exemplary teachers of higher education institutions and Polytechnics.
- All teachers of age above 55 years are eligible for this award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education selected 16 teachers in HEIs and Polytechnic for National Awards to Teachers (NAT) 2024.
The purpose of this award is to celebrate the unique contribution of some of the finest teachers in the country and to honor those teachers who through their commitment and industry have not only improved the quality of school education but also enriched the lives of their students.
This award is conferred on the exemplary teachers/faculty members of higher education institutions and Polytechnics.
Eligibility: The award is open to all the faculty members of colleges/universities/higher educational institutions/polytechnics in India. The candidates should satisfy the following conditions:
The nominee should be a regular faculty member.
He must have at least five years of full-time experience (undergraduate or postgraduate level).
The nominee should not be over 55 years of age as of the last date of receiving the application for the awards.
Vice-Chancellor/Director/Principal (regular or officiating) are not eligible to apply. However, individuals who were in such positions, but below 55 years of age and still in active service are eligible.
The winners will receive a medal and a certificate worth Rs 50,000.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2049495
Consider the following statements regarding the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP):
- It aims to facilitate investments from both large anchor industries and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
- It catalyzes to achievement of the government’s ambitious goal of $2 trillion in exports by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved 12 new project proposals under the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP) with an estimated investment of Rs. 28,602 crore.
The NICDP aims to facilitate investments from both large anchor industries and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), serving as catalysts to achieve the government’s ambitious goal of $2 trillion in exports by 2030.
Under this programme the newly sanctioned industrial areas are
Khurpia in Uttarakhand, Rajpura-Patiala in Punjab, Dighi in Maharashtra, Palakkad in Kerala, Agra and Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh, Gaya in Bihar, Zaheerabad in Telangana, Orvakal and Kopparthy in Andhra Pradesh, and Jodhpur-Pali in Rajasthan.
These sites will soon host state-of-the-art industrial smart cities, each designed to foster a vibrant industrial ecosystem. The proposed industrial nodes would focus on creating regional manufacturing hubs across the country.
The development of these industrial cities is envisioned as greenfield smart cities built to global standards, embodying the ‘plug-n-play’ and ‘walk-to-work’ concepts.
This innovative approach ensures that the cities will be equipped with advanced infrastructure designed to support sustainable and efficient industrial operations.
The projects are closely aligned with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, which focuses on integrated and seamless multi-modal connectivity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2049312
With reference to Leptospirosis, consider the following statements:
- It is a rare viral infection that affects people and animals.
- It is not spread from person to person, except in very rare cases.
- There are no specific treatments for Leptospirosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
A severe Leptospirosis outbreak has emerged as a major public health concern across Kerala.
About Leptospirosis:
Leptospirosis, also known as “rat fever”, is a rare bacterial infection that affects people and animals.
The disease is caused by a bacterium called Leptospira interrogans, or Leptospira.
It is most common in tropical areas and warmer climates with yearly rainfall.
Transmission:
The carriers of the disease can be either wild or domestic animals, including rodents, cattle, pigs, and dogs.
Infected animals spread the bacteria through their urine (pee). They may continue to urinate the bacteria into the environment for several months or years.
The bacteria can survive in contaminated water or soil for weeks to months.
It is not spread from person to person, except in very rare cases.
Symptoms: It generally takes 2-30 days to get sick after having contact with the bacteria. Leptospirosis may occur in two phases.
In the first phase, people may have a fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, vomiting, or diarrhea. The person may feel better for a while but become ill again.
Some people may suffer a more severe second phase with kidney or liver failure, or inflammation of the membrane around the brain and spinal cord (meningitis).
Treatment: It can be treated with antibiotics, including penicillin and doxycycline.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/as-nipah-threat-subsides-kerala-faces-a-new-health-challenge-a-deadly-leptospirosis-outbreak
With reference to the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Scheme, consider the following statements:
- It provides medium- to long-term debt financing facilities for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets.
- It is mandatory for borrowers to contribute at least 50% of the total project cost under the scheme.
- Credit guarantee coverage will be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The government recently expanded the scope of the Agricultural Infrastructure Fund (AIF) scheme to make it more attractive, as part of its objective to strengthen farm-related infrastructure facilities in the country.
About Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Scheme:
It is a Central Sector Scheme which was launched in 2020.
Objective: The scheme shall provide a medium- to long-term debt financing facility for investment in viable projects for post-harvest management infrastructure and community farming assets through interest subvention and financial support.
The duration of the Scheme shall be from FY2020 to FY2032 (10 years).
Who are eligible?
Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS)
Marketing Cooperative Societies
Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs)
Farmers
Self Help Group (SHG)
Joint Liability Groups (JLG)
Multipurpose Cooperative Societies
Agri-entrepreneurs and Startups
Central/State agency or Local Body sponsored Public-Private Partnership Projects.
Exclusions: Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) are directly not eligible under the scheme, but projects sponsored by them under PPP are eligible.
Scheduled commercial banks, scheduled cooperative banks, Regional Rural Banks (RRBs), Small Finance Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) may participate in providing this financing facility.
If required, need-based refinance support will be made available by NABARD to all eligible lending entities, including cooperative banks and RRBs, as per its policy.
Features:
All loans up to a limit of ₹ 2 crores under this financing facility will have interest subvention of 3% per annum. This subvention will be available for a maximum period of 7 years.
An applicant can put up to 25 projects in different locations, and each of such projects will be eligible under the scheme for a loan up to ₹ 2 crore.
This limit of 25 projects is applicable to private sector entities, such as farmers, Agri entrepreneurs, and start-ups.
This limitation of 25 projects will not apply to state agencies, cooperatives, national and state federations of cooperatives, FPOs, federations of FPOs, SHGs, and federations of SHGs.
Multiple projects in one location are also eligible with an overall cap of ₹2 crore.
Under the scheme, it is mandatory for borrowers to contribute at least 10% of the total project cost, irrespective of available capital subsidy.
The moratorium for repayment under this financing facility may vary, subject to a minimum of 6 months and a maximum of 2 years.
24% of total grants–in–aid under the scheme should be utilized for SC/ST entrepreneurs (16% for SC and 8% for ST).
Besides this, lending institutions would ensure adequate coverage of entrepreneurs belonging to women, and other weaker segments of society may be provided loans on a priority basis.
Credit guarantee coverage will be available for eligible borrowers from this financing facility under the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme for a loan up to Rs. 2 crores. The fee for this coverage will be paid by the Government.
In the case of FPOs, the credit guarantee may be availed from the facility created under the FPO promotion scheme of the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DACFW).
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.business-standard.com/industry/agriculture/centre-approves-expansion-of-agricultural-infrastructure-fund-scheme-124082800836_1.html
Which of the following is a key mandate of the Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D)?
Promoting the use of appropriate technology in police work.
Explanation :
The Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) recently celebrated its 54th Foundation Day at its headquarters in New Delhi.
About Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D):
BPR&D was set up in 1970 under the Ministry of Home Affairs by replacing the Police Research and Advisory Council.
Headquarters: New Delhi
It was established with a mandate to:
Identify the needs and problems of the police in the country.
Undertake research projects and studies, and suggest modalities to overcome problems and challenges and meet the needs and requirements of the police.
Keep abreast of the latest developments in the fields of science and technology, both in India and abroad, to promote the use of appropriate technology in police work.
Over the years, the BPR&D has also been entrusted with the responsibility of monitoring the training needs and quality of training in the States and Central Police Organisations and providing assistance for the same, as well as assisting the States in the modernization of the State Police Forces and Correctional Administration.
BPR&D has also been tasked to assist the Ministry of Home Affairs and the CPFs, etc., in the development of Standards, Quality Requirements (QRs), etc., for various types of equipment and items about infrastructure.
More recently, the BPR&D has also been entrusted with the responsibility of anchoring and coordinating the work of the National Police Mission.
The Bureau was initially established with the following two divisions; Research, Statistics & Publication and Development.
On the recommendations of the Gore Committee, the bureau created a Training Division in 1973.
The BPRD has five Central Detective Training Institutes at Kolkata, Hyderabad, Chandigarh, Ghaziabad, and Jaipur dedicated to the training of police officers and other stakeholders.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newsonair.gov.in/bprd-celebrates-54th-foundation-day/
How are deepfake videos typically created?
By using machine learning models and neural networks.
Explanation :
South Korea’s president recently ordered a crackdown on an epidemic of digital sex crimes targeting women and girls who become the unwitting victims of deepfake pornography.
About Deepfakes:
Deepfakes are synthetic media, including images, videos, and audio, generated by artificial intelligence (AI) technology that portray something that does not exist in reality or events that have never occurred.
The term deepfake combines deep, taken from deep-learning technology (a type of machine learning that involves multiple levels of processing), and fake, addressing that the content is not real.
It can create people who do not exist, and it can fake real people saying and doing things they did not say or do.
Background: The origin of the word “deepfake” can be traced back to 2017, when a Reddit user with the username “deepfakes”, posted explicit videos of celebrities.
Working:
They are created by machine learning models, which use neural networks to manipulate images and videos.
To make a deepfake video of someone, a creator would first train a neural network on many hours of real video footage of the person to give it a realistic “understanding” of what he or she looks like from many angles and under different lighting.
Then they’d combine the trained network with computer graphics techniques to superimpose a copy of the person onto a different actor.
Deepfake technology is now being used for nefarious purposes like scams and hoaxes, celebrity pornography, election manipulation, social engineering, automated disinformation attacks, identity theft, and financial fraud.
Deep fakes differ from other forms of false information by being very difficult to identify as false.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://www.theguardian.com/world/article/2024/aug/28/south-korea-deepfake-porn-law-crackdown
SIG 716 Rifle, recently seen in the news, is manufactured by which one of the following countries?
United States
Explanation :
The Ministry of Defence recently signed a repeat order for 73,000 SIG716 rifles from Sig Sauer of the U.S., and deliveries are expected to be completed by end-2025.
About SIG 716 Rifle:
It is an American-made automatic assault rifle.
It is manufactured by the United States firearms maker, Sig Sauer.
In India, the army has extensively integrated the SIG 716 into its ranks, particularly for troops operating in mountainous areas and critical border regions.
Features:
The rifle has a total length of 34.39 inches and a barrel length of 15.98 inches.
Its total weight is 3.58 kg.
It has a higher recoil and higher calibre, meant to shoot-to-kill targets at 600 metres.
These rifles have high-powered 7.62x51mm caliber, offering longer range and greater lethality than the existing INSAS and AK-47 rifles currently in the service of Indian armed forces.
Its gas piston system enhances reliability and reduces maintenance needs.
The modularity of the SIG 716 allows for easy adaptation to various roles through the simple addition of accessories on its Picatinny rail, making this rifle extremely versatile for armed forces and specialized tactical units.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://theprint.in/defence/indian-army-orders-fresh-batch-of-73k-sig-sauer-716-rifles-from-us-under-emergency-procurement/2240975/
Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary, recently in the news, is located in:
Kerala
Explanation :
Recently, four monkeys were found dead in the Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary in Kannur district of Kerala, raising concerns among wildlife authorities.
Location: It is located on the western slopes of Western Ghats and it is the northernmost wildlife sanctuary of Kerala.
It is contiguous with Wayanad-Brahma Giri, Wayanad’s northern slopes and the Protected Areas of Karnataka State namely the Brahmagiri Wildlife Sanctuary and also the forests of Coorg.
Rivers: The Cheenkannipuzha River forms the main drainage system on the southern side. Other rivers Narikkadavu thodu, Kurukkathodu and Meenumuttithodu.
Vegetation: It includes West Coast tropical evergreen forests, West Coast semi-evergreen forests, South Indian moist deciduous forests, Southern hilltop evergreen forests and plantations.
It is the only protected area of the West Coast Tropical Evergreen forest of Dipterocarpus-Mesua- Palaquium type.
The highest peak of this sanctuary is Katti Betta.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/four-monkeys-found-dead-in-keralas-aralam-wildlife-sanctuary-authorities-probe-possible-infection/article68576041.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Anubhav Awards:
- It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to nation-building while working in Government.
- It requires central Government pensioners to submit their Anubhav write-ups, 8 months before retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare (DoPPW) organised the 7th Anubhav Awards ceremony to recognise the contribution made by Central Government employees while in service.
It recognizes the contribution made by Retired Officials to nation-building while working in Government and to document the administrative history of India by written narratives.
The ANUBHAV Portal, established in March 2015, serves as an online platform for retiring and retired government employees to share their experiences.
The portal was launched by the Government of India, Ministry of personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions, Department of Pension & Pensioners’ welfare.
Objectives
It aims to create a database of significant suggestions and work experiences.
It channels the human resources of retiring employees for nation-building.
Enable Ministries/ Departments to take crucial steps while considering useful and replicable suggestions.
Eligibility: To participate in the scheme, retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are required to submit their Anubhav write-ups, 8 months prior to retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement.
Thereafter, the write-ups will be published after assessment by concerned Ministries/Departments. The published write-ups will be shortlisted for the Anubhav Awards and Jury Certificates.
Each ANUBHAV Awardee will be felicitated with a medal and certificate and a Prize of 10,000 rupees, whereas a Jury certificate Winner will be presented with a medal and a certificate.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2049543
Consider the following statements regarding the Qutb Shahi Tomb Complex:
- It is located in Hyderabad which consists of tombs, mosques and a mortuary bath.
- It was built in Indo-Sarsenic architectural style during the 12th century.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
After a decade-long restoration effort by the Telangana government’s Department of Heritage and Aga Khan Trust for Culture (AKTC), the Qutb Shahi Heritage Park was opened to the public.
It was built by the Qutb Shahi dynasty which ruled the region from 1518 A.D. to 1687 A.D.
This complex is located in - Ibrahim Bagh in Hyderabad.
It consists of 30 tombs, mosques and a mortuary bath. The tombs belong to the rulers of the Qutb Shahi Dynasty.
It is a 500-year-old cluster of grand mausoleums, idgah, graves, funerary mosques, a hammam (bath), and baolis (stepwells).
Architecture style:
It collectively constitutes an outstanding example of an Indo-Muslim dynastic necropolis.
These tombs are present in a large group on a raised platform. They resemble Persian, Pathan and Hindu architectural styles that make use of grey granite, with stucco ornamentation and is a one-of-its-kind place in the world where the whole dynasty is buried in a single spot.
They lie amidst beautifully landscaped gardens with intricately carved stonework.
Key facts about the Qutb Shahi dynasty
They are Muslim rulers of the kingdom of Golconda in the southeastern region of Deccan, one of the five successor states of the Bahmanī kingdom.
The founder was Qulī Quṭb Shah, a Turkish governor of the Bahmanī eastern region.
Period: 1518–1687.
Quṭb Shah declared his independence in 1518 and moved his capital to Golconda.
Toward the end of the century, Muḥammad Qulī Quṭb Shah built a new capital at Hyderabad, a few miles away.
The kingdom stretched from the Godavari River in the north, sharing a border with Tamil Nadu to the south, Bijapur to the west, and the Bay of Bengal to the east.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/hyderabad/hyderabad-qutb-shahi-tombs-restoration-9534201/
Consider the following statements regarding the National Awards to Teachers:
- It is conferred on the exemplary teachers of higher education institutions and Polytechnics.
- All teachers of age above 55 years are eligible for this award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Recently, the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education selected 16 teachers in HEIs and Polytechnic for National Awards to Teachers (NAT) 2024.
The purpose of this award is to celebrate the unique contribution of some of the finest teachers in the country and to honor those teachers who through their commitment and industry have not only improved the quality of school education but also enriched the lives of their students.
This award is conferred on the exemplary teachers/faculty members of higher education institutions and Polytechnics.
Eligibility: The award is open to all the faculty members of colleges/universities/higher educational institutions/polytechnics in India. The candidates should satisfy the following conditions:
The nominee should be a regular faculty member.
He must have at least five years of full-time experience (undergraduate or postgraduate level).
The nominee should not be over 55 years of age as of the last date of receiving the application for the awards.
Vice-Chancellor/Director/Principal (regular or officiating) are not eligible to apply. However, individuals who were in such positions, but below 55 years of age and still in active service are eligible.
The winners will receive a medal and a certificate worth Rs 50,000.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2049495
Consider the following statements regarding the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP):
- It aims to facilitate investments from both large anchor industries and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
- It catalyzes to achievement of the government’s ambitious goal of $2 trillion in exports by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved 12 new project proposals under the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP) with an estimated investment of Rs. 28,602 crore.
The NICDP aims to facilitate investments from both large anchor industries and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), serving as catalysts to achieve the government’s ambitious goal of $2 trillion in exports by 2030.
Under this programme the newly sanctioned industrial areas are
Khurpia in Uttarakhand, Rajpura-Patiala in Punjab, Dighi in Maharashtra, Palakkad in Kerala, Agra and Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh, Gaya in Bihar, Zaheerabad in Telangana, Orvakal and Kopparthy in Andhra Pradesh, and Jodhpur-Pali in Rajasthan.
These sites will soon host state-of-the-art industrial smart cities, each designed to foster a vibrant industrial ecosystem. The proposed industrial nodes would focus on creating regional manufacturing hubs across the country.
The development of these industrial cities is envisioned as greenfield smart cities built to global standards, embodying the ‘plug-n-play’ and ‘walk-to-work’ concepts.
This innovative approach ensures that the cities will be equipped with advanced infrastructure designed to support sustainable and efficient industrial operations.
The projects are closely aligned with the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, which focuses on integrated and seamless multi-modal connectivity.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2049312
“Sabina Shoal”, recently seen in the news, is located in?
South China Sea
Explanation :
China’s natural resource ministry recently released its first survey report of the South China Sea’s disputed Sabina Shoal.
About Sabina Shoal:
Sabina Shoal, also known as Xianbin Reef, is an oceanic coral atoll that developed on top of a seamount in the eastern part of the Spratlys Islands in the South China Sea.
It is located some 75 nautical miles from the Philippine province of Palawan.
It is considered to be within the Philippine’s 200-nautical mile Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
China, however, claims the shoal and much of the South China Sea as its sovereign territory and has maintained a continuous presence there. It is located 630 nautical miles from China.
Sabina Shoal extends close to 23 km along its northwest-southeast axis.
It is composed of two main parts connected by a narrow section.
The western part measures 13 km long by 6 km wide and is larger than the eastern part, which measures 10 km by 3 km.
They both have a central lagoon surrounded by a coral ring made of discontinuous shallow sections.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.deccanherald.com/world/china-publishes-first-survey-report-of-disputed-south-china-seas-sabina-shoal-3170252
With reference to Solar Paraboloid Technology, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:
- It enhances the efficiency of solar energy capture by concentrating solar energy.
- It can operate at higher temperatures, significantly increasing thermal efficiency.
- It cannot produce energy in low-light conditions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
As the world grapples with the urgent need to transition to renewable energy, solar paraboloid technology is emerging as a potentially transformative solution.
About Solar Paraboloid Technology:
It is an advanced form of Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) technology.
It enhances the efficiency of solar energy capture and addresses the limitations that have long plagued traditional Photovoltaic (PV) systems.
Working?
Solar paraboloids operate using a Parabolic Trough Collector (PTC) system.
These systems consist of long, parabolic mirrors that focus sunlight onto a receiver tube placed at the focal line of the mirror.
The concentrated solar energy heats fluid within the receiver, which can then be used to generate electricity or provide direct heat for industrial processes.
Benefits:
Solar paraboloids are highly efficient in concentrating solar energy, which means that more electricity can be generated from the same amount of sunlight.
This efficiency could lead to lower costs per unit of electricity produced, making solar energy more competitive with traditional fossil fuels.
Another key benefit is its ability to operate at higher temperatures, up to 300°C, significantly increasing thermal efficiency. This is achieved by reducing heat losses through a smaller absorbing surface area.
The technology can produce energy even in low-light conditions, making it a versatile solution for diverse environments.
Solar paraboloid systems are scalable and can be deployed in various configurations, from small-scale applications to large solar farms.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/explainer-solar-paraboloid-technology-the-next-frontier-in-renewable-energy/112791948
With reference to the Bonus Issue, consider the following statements:
- It occurs when a company decides to divide its existing shares into multiple shares to boost the liquidity of shares.
- It will increase a company’s share capital but not its market capitalisation.
- A bonus share issue is funded by the company’s healthy profits or from its share reserves.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Reliance Industries Chairman recently announced a bonus issue for the company’s shareholders in a 1:1 criterion.
About Bonus Issue:
A bonus issue, also known as a scrip issue or a capitalisation issue, occurs when a company listed on a stock exchange decides to offer free additional shares to the existing shareholders.
The company decides the number of bonus shares to be allotted to every individual investor for holding a certain number of shares over a set period of time and accordingly rewards them.
For example, a company may give one bonus share for every five shares held.
This bonus issue aims to attract further investment and reward its existing shareholders as it improves the entity’s market image.
A bonus issue of shares will increase a company’s share capital but not its market capitalisation.
Market capitalisation is calculated by multiplying the company’s current stock price and the total number of outstanding shares. Share capital is the amount that the company raises by issuing shares.
By issuing bonus shares, the number of outstanding shares increases with a proportional decrease in the value of each share, ensuring no change in the market capitalization. However, the face value of the shares remains unchanged.
Bonus shares do not dilute shareholders’ equity because they are issued in a constant ratio that keeps the relative equity of each shareholder the same as before the issue.
A bonus share issue is funded by the company’s healthy profits reflected in its annual or quarterly results or from its share reserves.
The issuance of bonus shares is not taxable; however, shareholders must still pay capital gains tax if they sell them for a net gain.
What is a Stock Split?
A stock split is an action taken in which a company divides its existing shares into multiple shares to boost the liquidity of shares.
A split is usually undertaken when the stock price is high, making it pricey for investors to acquire.
It brings down the share price as the number of shares increases.
The market cap of the firm and the value of each shareholder’s investment stay unchanged after a stock split.
Stock Split v/s Bonus Issue:
Most people mistake stock splits for bonus concerns. This is because, similar to stock splits, bonus issues can result in a rise in the company’s share count.
In contrast to a stock split, where the face value of each share is decreased, a bonus issue offers existing owners more shares at no cost in proportion to the shares they now possess in the company.
Therefore, bonus shares raise the company’s share capital while a stock split keeps it constant.
However, in both scenarios, the number of shares rises and the share price falls accordingly.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
News: https://www.business-standard.com/markets/news/reliance-industries-to-consider-1-1-bonus-a-look-at-ril-s-bonus-history-124082900717_1.html
Consider the following statements regarding the SHe-Box Portal, recently seen in the news:
- It is a centralized platform for registering and monitoring complaints of sexual harassment of women in the workplace.
- It will also enable real-time monitoring of complaints through a designated nodal officer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Union Ministry of Women and Child Development recently launched the new SHe-Box portal.
About SHe-Box Portal:
It is a centralized platform for registering and monitoring complaints of sexual harassment of women in the workplace.
It serves as a centralized repository of information related to Internal Committees (ICs) and Local Committees (LCs) formed across the country, encompassing both the government and private sectors.
It offers a common platform to file complaints, track their status, and ensure time-bound processing of complaints by ICs.
It provides assured redressal of complaints and a streamlined process for all stakeholders.
The portal will also enable real-time monitoring of complaints through a designated nodal officer.
The portal will ensure that complaints can be safely registered without personal information being publicly accessible.
The SHe-Box portal can be accessed at https://shebox.wcd.gov.in/.
Points to Remember:
In 2017, an upgraded version of SHe-Box was launched based on The Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013, where women who are harassed at any workplace can register their cases on this, SHe-Box, file their complaint, and then two types of committees will be formed.
One, for private institutions, an internal committee will be formed, and for government institutions, a local committee will be formed under the chairmanship of the DM or DC or an officer appointed by them, and actions will be taken by them from time to time.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.news18.com/india/centre-launches-portal-to-address-sexual-harassment-at-workplaces-step-by-step-process-to-file-complaint-on-she-box-9032121.html
Consider the following statements regarding D-Voters:
- Those persons whose citizenship was doubtful or was under dispute were categorized as ‘D- Voters’ during the preparation of the National Register of Citizens in Assam.
- They are allowed to vote and permitted to run for office in the nation’s elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Assam Chief Minister recently announced that nearly 1.2 lakh people in the state have been identified as ‘D’ (Dubious or Doubtful) voters, with 41,583 declared as foreigners.
About D-Voter:
The concept of D-Voter is unique to Assam, where migration and citizenship are among the biggest political fault lines.
It was introduced in Assam in 1997 by the Election Commission, targeting those who could not prove their Indian nationality.
Those persons whose citizenship was doubtful or was under dispute were categorized as ‘D- Voters’ during the preparation of the National Register of Citizens in Assam.
‘Doubtful voter’ or ‘doubtful citizenship’ have not been defined in the Citizenship Act, 1955, or the Citizenship Rules of 2003.
The Citizenship Rules, 2003, was framed under the provisions of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003.
The rules framed in 2003 list the steps to be followed for the preparation of the National Population Register (NPR) and the National Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC).
Under subsection 4 of section 4 that deals with the preparation of NRIC, it has been only mentioned that details of individuals whose citizenship is doubtful will be entered by the Local Registrar with ‘appropriate remark in the population register for further enquiry’.
A family or individual is notified in a specific pro forma as soon as the verification process concludes whether they have been classified as a dubious citizen (D-Category).
Before deciding whether or not to add their name to the register, they are also allowed to be heard by the Taluk, or Sub-district Registrar of Citizenship. The Registrar has ninety days to complete and justify his findings.
Because their Indian citizenship has not been verified, doubtful voters are not allowed to vote in elections.
They are also not permitted to run for office in the nation’s elections.
The marking as doubtful voter is a temporary measure and cannot be prolonged. A decision in a definite period of time must be taken.
According to the documentation provided, if it is determined that the individual is a foreign national or an illegal immigrant, they may be deported or placed in a detention centre.
D- Voters also have the option to apply and get their names included in NRC.
They will be included only after they get clearance from the Foreigners Tribunals and their names are removed from electoral rolls under the ‘D’ category.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://www.indiatodayne.in/assam/story/himanta-biswa-sarma-12-lakh-d-voters-identified-41583-declared-foreigners-1081152-2024-08-28
Which of the following best describes Finternet, recently in the news?
It is multiple financial ecosystems interconnected with each other.
Explanation :
Recently, the ex-chairman of UIDAI described the idea of ‘Finternet’ at the Global Fintech Fest (GFF) in Mumbai.
It is multiple financial ecosystems interconnected with each other – much like the internet.
It would lower barriers between different financial services and systems, drastically reducing the complex clearing and messaging chains and other frictions that hinder the financial system.
Working: Finternet would be built on unified ledgers which will bring multiple financial markets such as tokenized assets, shares, bonds, real estate, on a single programmable platform.
This has the capability to enable individuals and businesses to transfer any financial asset they like, in any amount, at any time, using any device, to anyone else, anywhere in the world. Financial transactions would be cheap, secure, and near-instantaneous.
Advantages: Finternet will be user-centric, unified, which means it will cover all types of assets, with a universal infrastructure.
Significance: This would reduce the complex processes that happen behind-the-scenes today and make transactions slower and expensive.
Central banks would remain at the core of the system, ensuring trust in money, but (like today) work closely with commercial banks.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/technology/nandan-nilekani-gives-a-glimpse-of-the-next-decade-of-indias-finternet-article-12809192.html
Consider the following statements regarding the RESET Programme:
- It is aimed at empowering retired athletes on their career development journey.
- The sports persons who are aged between 20-50 years and have been winners of an International Medal are eligible for this initiative.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Union Minister of Youth Affairs & Sports and Labour & Employment launched the “Retired Sportsperson Empowerment Training” (RESET) Programme on the occasion of National Sports Day in New Delhi.
The Retired Sportsperson Empowerment Training Programme is aimed at empowering our retired sportspersons who have played for the country and brought immense laurels to the nation.
It will support retired athletes on their career development journey by empowering them with the necessary knowledge and skills and making them more employable.
It represents a significant step towards recognizing and utilizing the invaluable experience and expertise of our retired athletes.
Eligibility:
The athletes, who have retired from an active sports career and are aged between 20-50 years and who have been winners of an International Medal/participants in international events or have been National medallists/State medallists/participants in competitions recognized by National Sports Federations/Indian Olympic Association/Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports are eligible to apply for courses under RESET Programme.
Initially, the programmes will be of two levels based on educational qualifications viz., Class 12th and above and Class 11th and below.
For this pilot phase of the RESET Programme, Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education (LNIPE) will be the lead institute to implement the Programme.
The programme will be offered in hybrid mode consisting of self-paced learning through a dedicated portal, along with on-ground training and internship.
Internships will be provided in sports organizations, sporting competitions/training camps, and leagues. Further, placement assistance, guidance for entrepreneurial ventures, etc. will be provided upon successful completion of the course.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2049867
Consider the following statements regarding Piezoelectric polymer:
- It generates electric charges on the surface under pressure and converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
- It possesses a low dielectric breakdown and low operating field strength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Researchers from Centre for Nano and Soft Matter Sciences (CeNS), an autonomous institute of the Department of Science and Technology, in collaboration with scientists from the National Chemical Laboratory (CSIR-NCL), Pune have developed a security alert system based on piezoelectric polymer nanocomposite.
These are polymers that can generate electric charges on the surface under pressure/strain thus converting mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Characteristics
These polymers have much higher piezoelectric stress constants indicating that they are much better sensors than ceramics.
They have low dielectric constant, low elastic stiffness, and low density, which result in a high voltage sensitivity and low acoustic and mechanical impedance (crucial for medical and underwater applications).
Piezoelectric polymeric sensors and actuators offer the advantage of processing flexibility because they are lightweight, tough, readily manufactured into large areas, and can be cut and formed into complex shapes.
Polymers also typically possess a high dielectric breakdown and high operating field strength, which means that they can withstand much higher driving fields than ceramics.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://dst.gov.in/piezoelectric-polymer-nanocomposite-developed-can-be-used-energy-harvesting
Consider the following statements regarding the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) block mechanism:
- It is a facility that allows trading with blocked amounts similar to the Application Supported by Blocked Amount system.
- It helps clients to trade in the secondary market based on blocked funds in their bank accounts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) proposed a mandatory Unified Payments Interface (UPI) block mechanism facility for secondary market trading using the UPI-based block mechanism to their clients.
It is similar to the Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) facility that allows trading with blocked amounts.
In the primary market, the facility ensures that money from an investor gets moved only when the allotment is completed.
In the UPI block mechanism, clients can trade in the secondary market based on blocked funds in their bank accounts, instead of transferring the funds upfront to the trading member.
The facility is currently optional for investors, and not mandatory for Trading Members (TMs) to offer as a service to clients.
Significance: It provides enhanced protection to the client’s funds and securities.
Key facts about Application Supported by Blocked Amount
It was first introduced by SEBI in 2008.
It is a process for making initial public offerings (IPOs) or rights issue subscriptions.
ASBA is a facility provided by banks that allows investors to apply for an IPO or rights issue by blocking the application amount in their bank account instead of transferring the money to the issuer.
Under ASBA, the investor’s application money remains in their bank account, and only a block is created on the funds for the IPO application amount.
This blocked amount remains in the investor’s bank account until the allotment process is completed.
Once the shares are allotted to the investor, the block is released, and only the amount for the allotted shares is deducted from the investor’s account.
In public issues and rights issues, all investors have to mandatorily apply through ASBA.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/markets/sebi-proposes-mandatory-upi-block-mechanism-facility-for-secondary-market-trading/article68579642.ece
Consider the following statements regarding the Pacific Islands Forum:
- It is an intergovernmental organisation consisting of all Pacific Ocean bordering countries.
- It aims to push for economic growth and enhance political governance in the Pacific Ocean region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, the annual meeting of the Pacific Islands Forum (PIF) began on August 26 in Nuku’alofa, the capital of Tonga.
It is an intergovernmental organisation formed in 1971.
Member countries: It consists of 18 member states located in the Pacific region.
Australia, Cook Islands, Federated States of Micronesia, Fiji, French Polynesia, Kiribati, Nauru, New Caledonia, New Zealand, Niue, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Republic of Marshall Islands, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Tonga, Tuvalu, and Vanuatu.
Aim:
It aims to push for economic growth, enhance political governance and security for the region, and strengthen regional cooperation.
Its vision is for a resilient Pacific region of peace, harmony, security, social inclusion and prosperity that ensures all Pacific peoples can lead free, healthy and productive lives.
The organisation discusses priority issues at its annual meeting, where decisions made by the member states are reached by consensus.
The decisions are implemented by the Pacific Islands Forum Secretariat.
PIF members have been pushing to raise funds for climate action. Notably, the Pacific Resilience Facility (PRF) — a regional financing facility established by PIF is currently $380 million short of its $500 million target.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/the-pacific-islands-forums-annual-meeting-begins-the-organisation-and-the-issues-being-discussed-9537666/
Satkosia Tiger Reserve is located in which one of the following states?
Odisha
Explanation :
Four-and-a-half years after suspending the country’s first big cat relocation project in Satkosia Tiger Reserve, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has finally given a green signal to the state government to resume the programme.
About Satkosia Tiger Reserve:
Location: It is located in the heartland of Odisha and spread over four districts, viz. Angul, Cuttack, Boudh, and Nayagarh.
It comprises two adjoining sanctuaries, namely Baisipalli Sanctuary and Satkosia Gorge Sanctuary.
The reserve has an area of 1136.70 sq. km. with 523.61sq.km. as core area. The area is also a part of the Mahanadi Elephant Reserve.
Satkosia is the meeting point of two biogeographic regions of India; the Deccan Peninsula and the Eastern Ghats.
Landscape: The terrain is hilly, with moderate to steep slopes and narrow valleys.
The river Mahanadi flows through the valleys in the middle of the reserve.
The average elevation of the terrain varies between 37 m and 932 m, with the lowest point being at Katrang and the highest point being at Sunakhania.
Vegetation: The forest vegetation comprises of North Indian tropical moist deciduous forests and Moist peninsular low-level sal.
Flora:
The main tree species is sal, which grows in gregarious formations.
Other associate species are Asan (Terminalia alata), Dhaura (Anogeissus latifolia), Bamboo (Dendrocalamus strictus), and Simal (Bombax ceiba).
Fauna:
The reserve has a low population of tiger, leopard, elephant, spotted deer, sambar, chowsingha, barking deer, bison, wild dog, sloth bear, jackal, giant squirrel, and porcupine.
It is the natural habitat of two endangered species, viz., the freshwater crocodile and the gharial.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/odisha/2024/Aug/29/odisha-plans-to-bring-12-tigers-to-satkosia-with-national-tiger-conservation-authority-approval
Consider the following statements regarding Nazca Ridge:
- It is a submarine ridge located in the Atlantic Ocean.
- It was formed by volcanic activity and composed of a thick basaltic ocean crust.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
A team of oceanographers recently discovered and mapped a new seamount on the Nazca Ridge in international waters, 900 miles off the coast of Chile.
About Nazca Ridge:
It is a submarine ridge located in the southeastern Pacific Ocean off the coast of South America.
It is approximately 1,100 kilometers (684 miles) long and varies in width.
The ridge extends from the Nazca Plate, off the coast of Peru, and runs southwest toward Easter Island, Chile.
It was formed by volcanic activity associated with a hotspot in the Earth’s mantle.
The ridge is composed of abnormally thick basaltic ocean crust.
The ridge is tectonically active and is being subducted beneath the South American Plate at the Peru-Chile Trench.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News:https://astrobiology.com/2024/08/ocean-world-exploration-a-new-seamount-and-previously-unknown-species-discovered.html
Hrim-2, recently seen in the news, is a ballistic missile system developed by which one of the following countries?
Ukraine
Explanation :
The President of Ukraine recently announced that Ukraine has successfully tested its first ballistic missile, Hrim-2, manufactured by the country’s defence industry.
About Hrim-2:
Hrіm-2, Grim, Grom, or OTRK Sapsan, also known as Operational-Tactical Missile System Hrim is a Ukrainian short-range ballistic missile system.
It is designed to combine the features of a tactical missile system and a multiple rocket launcher.
The Hrim-2 version, developed for export, has a range limited to 280 kilometers to fall within the 300-kilometre limit set by the Missile Technology Control Regime.
However, for Ukrainian military needs, the system’s range has been extended to 700 km.
The Sapsan system comprises a 10-wheeled Transporter-Erector-Launcher (TEL) capable of carrying two containerized missiles simultaneously.
Its aero-ballistic capabilities allow evasion of modern air defenses like the S-300 and S-400, drawing parallels to the Russian 9K720 Iskander missile complex.
Hence option d is the correct answer.
News:https://defence24.com/industry/ukraine-tests-hrim-2-its-first-indigenous-ballistic-missile
With reference to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), consider the following statements:
- It is a United Nations (UN) specialized agency established in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s.
- It lends to countries with balance-of-payments difficulties and provides technical assistance and training to help countries improve economic management.
- IMF funds are often conditional on recipients making reforms to increase their growth potential and financial stability.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Sri Lankan President recently defended the International Monetary Fund bailout in his re-election campaign.
About International Monetary Fund (IMF):
It is a United Nations (UN) specialized agency, founded at the Bretton Woods Conference in 1944.
It was established in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s.
The main objectives of the IMF include supporting global monetary cooperation, securing financial stability, facilitating international trade, promoting high employment and sustainable economic growth and reducing poverty.
Through its economic surveillance, the IMF keeps track of the economic health of its member countries, alerting them to risks on the horizon and providing policy advice.
It also lends to countries with balance-of-payments difficulties and provides technical assistance and training to help countries improve economic management.
IMF funds are often conditional on recipients making reforms to increase their growth potential and financial stability.
It is currently composed of 190 member countries.
The IMF is headquartered in Washington, DC.
Structure:
At the top of its organizational structure is the Board of Governors, consisting of one governor (usually the minister of finance or the governor of the central bank) and one alternate governor from each member country.
All powers of the IMF are vested in the Board of Governors.
The day-to-day work of the IMF is overseen by its 24-member Executive Board, which represents the entire membership and is supported by IMF staff.
The Managing Director is the head of the IMF staff and Chair of the Executive Board and is assisted by four Deputy Managing Directors. The managing director is usually a European.
The IMF has 18 departments that carry out its country, policy, analytical, and technical work.
Each member contributes a sum of money called a quota subscription.
Quotas are reviewed every five years and are based on each country’s wealth and economic performance—the richer the country, the larger its quota, making the U.S., with the world’s largest economy, the largest contributor.
The quotas form a pool of loanable funds and determine how much money each member can borrow and how much voting power it will have.
Voting Powers:
Quotas of member countries are a key determinant of the voting power in IMF decisions.
Votes comprise one vote per 100,000 Special Drawing Rights (SDR) of quota plus basic votes.
SDRs are an international type of monetary reserve currency created by the IMF as a supplement to the existing money reserves of member countries.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/world-news/sri-lanka-president-defends-imf-bailout-in-campaign-launch-101724920465410.html
Consider the following statements regarding the Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW):
- It is tasked with handling India’s international intelligence affairs.
- It works under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
A 55-year-old man posing as an officer of the intelligence agency Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW) was recently arrested after the suspect was caught intimidating locals.
About Research and Analysis Wing (R&AW):
It was established in 1968 to handle India’s international intelligence affairs.
At present, R&AW is under the aegis of the Prime Minister’s Office.
Working mechanism: It collects military, economic, scientific, and political intelligence through covert and overt operations.
The agency is also charged with monitoring terrorist elements and smuggling rings that transport weapons and ammunition into India.
Formation:
Until 1968, the Intelligence Bureau (IB) was responsible for India’s internal intelligence and also handled external intelligence.
However, after the 1962 China-India war and the Indo-Pakistani war in 1965, India established a separate and distinct external intelligence organization–the R&AW.
Since its inception, RAW is credited with providing intelligence support to many significant operations on foreign soil.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News:https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/noida-news/man-posing-as-r-aw-officer-held-in-noida-fake-id-papers-seized-101725042526554.html
Consider the following statements regarding Payment Passkey Service:
- It uses device-based biometric authentication methods like fingerprints.
- It provides a non-OTP-based solution for transaction management
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Mastercard, a global technology in the payments industry announced the worldwide launch of its new Payment Passkey Service.
It uses device-based biometric authentication methods such as fingerprints or facial scans.
It will provide customers with a non-OTP-based solution for transaction management.
Working
Passkeys work using algorithms to encrypt data so users can verify their identity fast and securely.
When users first sign into an account, their device creates a pair of keys: one that is public and shared with the website to validate the passkey, and one that is private on your device to unlock the passkey to access your account.
And it can work across devices from the same operating system: If you set up a passkey for an app or website on your phone, it can work if you log in from your laptop or tablet.
Advantage: By replacing traditional passwords and OTPs, the Mastercard Payment Passkey Service makes transactions not only faster, but also more secure against fraud and scams.
Passkeys can be used for payments. Payment passkeys offer a more secure and easier way for cardholders to authenticate themselves during e-commerce transactions on web or merchant apps.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/mastercard-chooses-india-for-world-debut-of-payment-passkey-service/article68582167.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Project NAMAN:
- It is designed to provide dedicated support and services to Defence Pensioners, Veterans and their families.
- It involves the establishment of reception and facilitation centres.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Recently, the Indian Army launched the first phase of Project NAMAN, in the presence of the General President Army Wives Welfare Association (AWWA).
It is designed to provide dedicated support and services to Defence Pensioners, Veterans and their families.
It is centered around the implementation of the SPARSH (System for Pension Administration Raksha), a digital pension system, which streamlines pension-related processes for Defence Pensioners, addressing the critical need for accessible facilitation points for Veterans and Next of Kin (NOK) across the country.
It involves the establishment of reception and facilitation centres, enabled through a tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between the Indian Army’s Directorate of Indian Army Veterans Common Service Centre (CSC) e-Governance India Limited, and HDFC Bank Limited signed last year in September 2023.
These Common Service Centres are dedicated to Army Veterans, Pensioners, War Widows, and NOKs, offering SPARSH-enabled pension services, Government to Citizen (G2C) services, and Business to Consumer (B2C) services, all at a single, convenient location.
In the first phase of Project NAMAN, 14 CSCs have been established at key locations across India, including New Delhi, Jalandhar, Leh, Dehradun, Lucknow, Jodhpur, Bengdubi, Gorakhpur, Jhansi, Secunderabad, Saugor, Guntur, Ahmedabad and Bangalore.
This initiative not only delivers essential care and support to esteemed veterans but also extends services to the entire resident population of military stations and surrounding localities.
Each CSC is managed by a Village Level Entrepreneur (VLE), selected from among the veterans or NOKs by the respective Local Military Authorities (LMAs).
These VLEs are onboarded by CSC e-Governance India Limited and receive comprehensive training to deliver the required services.
Financial assistance: HDFC Bank also supports the VLEs with a monthly monetary grant of ₹ 20,000 for the first 12 months, assisting in the stabilisation and sustainability of the centres.
Hence both statements are correct.
News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2050221
With reference to Whale sharks, consider the following:
- It is mainly found in all temperate and tropical oceans around the world, except the Mediterranean Sea.
- It has specialized flaps called velums inside its mouth.
- It is categorized as a critically endangered species under the IUCN Red List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
International Whale Shark Day is observed every year on August 30 across the globe.
It is the largest fish in the world and the largest fish known to have lived on this planet.
They are one of only three species of filter-feeding sharks.
Distribution: They can be found in all temperate and tropical oceans around the world, except the Mediterranean Sea.
Appearance
They are dark gray on top and light underneath, with a series of light spots or stripes covering the dark parts of their bodies. This helps to camouflage them as they swim.
Unlike most shark species, its mouth is located at the front of the head (terminal) instead of the underside of the rostrum (subterminal).
They are filter feeders and can neither bite nor chew. They can process more than 6,000 litres of water an hour through their gills.
Inside the mouth are specialized flaps called velums. These stop the backflow of water as the whale shark closes its mouth, preventing the loss of food.
Food Habit: They feed on plankton and travel large distances to find enough food to sustain their huge size, and to reproduce.
They also eat small and large fish and mollusks, including sardines, anchovies, mackerels, squid, and even small tuna and albacore.
Conservation Status:
IUCN: Endangered
Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I
Threats: The whale sharks continue to face challenges primarily due to bycatch and accidental capture in fishing nets, illegal hunting and habitat degradation.
A global study indicates that over the past 75 years, the world’s whale shark population has decreased by 50%.
Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/international-whale-shark-day-saving-the-gentle-giants-of-the-sea-along-the-indian-coast/article68579871.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Bonda tribes:
- They are a particularly vulnerable tribal group mainly concentrated in the Western Himalayan Region.
- They belong to the Austro-Asiatic racial stock and speak the Remo dialect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Recently, a 19-year-old student cracked the National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) and is set to become the first member of the Bonda tribal community.
The Bondas are exclusively found in the Malkangiri district of Odisha and are mostly concentrated in the Khairaput block of the district.
It is a particularly vulnerable tribal group and one of the oldest tribes in India.
They are also known as Bondo, Bondas, Bonda Paraja, and Bhonda.
They belong to the Austro-Asiatic racial stock and speak Remo-an Austro-Asiatic dialect.
The Bondas are divided into two groups because of their distinct cultural practices:
The Lower Bondas, who live in the Malkangiri district in south Odisha and border Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, and
The Upper Bondas, who live in the remote villages of the district’s hilly terrain.
They have an interesting dressing style – ladies are semiclad and wear different sorts of rings and pieces of jewellery around their bodies, while the men convey deadly retires.
Occupation: They are primarily farmers, but they also hunt, gather forest products, and perform labor.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/odisha/bonda-tribe-student-set-to-pursue-mbbs-programme-in-odisha/article68580276.ece
Consider the following statements regarding Methane:
- It is a colorless, odorless and water insoluble gas.
- It is a long-lived greenhouse gas found in the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
The European Union passed a new regulation in May that will force fossil fuel companies to routinely measure, report and reduce how much methane they are emitting.
It is the primary component of natural gas and is responsible for approximately a third of the warming we are experiencing today.
Characteristics
It is a colorless odorless gas, flammable water insoluble gas.
It is also known as marsh gas or methyl hydride.
It is easily ignited. The vapors are lighter than air. Under prolonged exposure to fire or intense heat, the containers may rupture violently and rocket.
It is a powerful and short-lived greenhouse gas, with a lifetime of about a decade and a Global Warming Potential about 80 times greater than that of carbon dioxide (CO2) during the 20 years after it is released into the atmosphere.
Where does methane come from?
It sometimes comes from non-human sources like wetlands. These habitats contain things like permafrost, which is frozen ground that’s also filled with carbon from animals and plants that have been dead for hundreds of thousands of years.
As temperatures rise with global warming, wetland permafrost thaws. That unleashes carbon, previously locked in the ice, in the form of CO2 and methane.
Around 60% of the methane that makes it into the atmosphere comes from human activities.
Hence only statement 1 is correct.
News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/methane-climate-change-co2-9542004/
Consider the following statements with reference to the Minimum Support Price (MSP) regime in India:
- MSPs have statutory backing under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937.
- It is fixed at 1.5 times the cost of production for every crop covered under the scheme.
- Foodgrain procurement is distributed equitably across all states.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices —a guaranteed price to save farmers from distress sales. The MSPs are approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP, 1985). Also, MSP does not have any statutory backing in India. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Union Budget 2018-19 announcement of fixing the MSPs at a level of at least 1.5 times of the All-India weighted average Cost of Production (CoP), aiming at reasonably fair remuneration for the farmers. The expected returns to farmers over their cost of production are estimated to be highest in the case of Bajra (85%) followed by urad (65%) and tur (62%). For the rest of the crops, the return to farmers over their cost of production is estimated to be at least 50%. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The procurement of food grains is largely concentrated in a few states. Three states (Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, and Haryana) producing 46% of the wheat in the country account for 85% of its procurement. The National Food Security Act, 2013 requires the central, state, and local governments to strive to progressively realise certain objectives for advancing food and nutritional security. One of these objectives involves the geographical diversification of procurement operations. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Which of the following criteria are used by the government for the calculation of Minimum Support Price (MSP)?
- Prices of various inputs
- Prices and demand-supply in the international market
- Parity between the prices paid and the prices received by the farmers
- Inter-crop price parity
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
Minimum Support Price is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The Government of India announces the minimum support prices as per the recommendations of the Commission for the Agricultural Costs and Prices at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops.
MSP is fixed to protect the farmers against excessive falls in price during bumper production years. It is a guaranteed price by the government for their produce. Its major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution.
In formulating the recommendations in respect of the level of minimum support prices and other non-price measures, the Commission takes into account, the following factors:
Cost of production
Changes in input prices. So, point 1 is correct.
Input-output price parity
Trends in market prices
Demand and supply
Inter-crop price parity. So, point 4 is correct.
Effect on industrial cost structure
Effect on the cost of living
Effect on the general price level
International price situation. So, point 2 is correct.
The parity between prices paid and prices received by the farmers. So, point 3 is correct.
Effect on issue prices and implications for subsidy.
The Commission uses data at the micro-level and aggregates at the district, state and country level.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Price Stabilization Fund (PSF):
- It aims to manage price volatility in the crops of onion, potatoes and pulses by undertaking direct procurement from farmers.
- It is utilized for granting interest-free loans to state governments and central agencies.
- It was set up under the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Famers Welfare (DAC&FW).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Price Stabilization Fund (PSF) was set up in 2014-15 to help regulate the price volatility of important agri-horticultural commodities like onion, potatoes, and pulses were also added subsequently. The scheme provides for maintaining a strategic buffer of aforementioned commodities for subsequent calibrated release to moderate price volatility and discourage hoarding and unscrupulous speculation. For building such stock, the scheme promotes direct purchase from farmers/farmers’ associations at farm gate/Mandi. So, statement 1 is correct.
The PSF is utilized for granting interest-free advance of working capital to Central Agencies, State/UT Governments/Agencies to undertake market intervention operations. Apart from domestic procurement from farmers/wholesale mandis, import may also be undertaken with support from the Fund. So, statement 2 is correct.
The PSF scheme was initially set up under the Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Famers Welfare (DAC&FW), but was later transferred from DAC&FW to the Department of Consumer Affairs (DOCA) w.e.f. 1st April 2016. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following regarding Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA):
- It is an umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers for certain produce.
- It facilitates private procurement for all crops for which MSP is fixed by the Government.
- Under its Price Deficiency Payment Scheme, the difference between the MSP and actual selling price is directly paid into the farmer’s bank account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Pradhan Mantri AnnadataAaySanraksHan Abhiyan’ (PM-AASHA) is an umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce. So, statement 1 is correct.
Under PM-AASHA, farmers get remunerative prices for Pulses, Oilseeds and Copra and not for all crops. So, statement 2 is not correct.
PM-AASHA comprises Price Support Scheme (PSS), Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) and pilot of Private Procurement and Stockist Scheme (PPSS). In the Price Support Scheme (PSS), physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds and Copra will be done by Central Nodal Agencies with a proactive role of State governments. Price Deficiency Payment Scheme this scheme (PDPS) covers all oilseeds for which MSP is notified. In this, direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/model price will be made. For oilseeds, states have the option to roll out the PrivateProcurement Stockist Scheme (PPSS) on pilot basis in selected district/APMCs of district involving the participation of private stockists.
The Price Deficiency Payment Scheme covers all oilseeds for which MSP is notified. In this, direct payment of the difference between the MSP and the selling/model price will be made to pre-registered farmers selling their produce in the notified market yard through a transparent auction process. All payments will be done directly into the registered bank account of the farmer. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to GDP and GNP of India:
- The income generated by a Non-Resident Indian working in Saudi Arabia is included in calculating Indian GDP.
- Profits earned by a German-owned car factory located in India are counted in estimating the GNP of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
Gross domestic product refers to the final value of goods and services produced within India. Non-Resident Indians (NRI) work in other countries and their economic contribution is calculated in the GDP of their host country. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Gross National Product is a nationality-based concept. It is the final value of goods and services produced by nationals (Indians). Thus, the profits earned by a German-owned car factory located in India is not counted in the GNP of India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about GDP Deflator:
- It measures the prices of all goods and services.
- It does not include anything that is imported.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
GDP Deflator
It is a price index (PI) that focuses on showing the impact of inflation or deflation on the current prices in the economy, thereby showing how dependent and relative GDP is to price changes. GDP Deflator value is calculated using the following formula:
GDP deflator = (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) * 100
Although at first glance it may seem that CPI and GDP Deflator measure the same thing, there are a few key differences.
The GDP Deflator is a measure of the prices of all goods and services while the CPI is a measure of only goods bought by consumers. So, statement 1 is correct.
The first is that GDP Deflator includes only domestic goods and not anything that is imported. This is different because the CPI includes anything bought by consumers including foreign goods. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.
Which among the following is included in the calculation of GDP by the Expenditure Method?
- Value of Export
- Investment expenditure of the government
- Expenditure on intermediate products
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The expenditure method is a way to calculate the GDP by looking at the demand side of the products. It includes consumption, investment, government expenditure and net export. (C+I+G+NX)
Value of export is included in the calculation of GDP by expenditure method as the goods have been produced inside the country’s territories.
Investment expenditure of the government is included as it adds to producers’ income and other factors in the economy.
Expenditure on intermediate products are excluded as the expenditure on only the final consumption is included to avoid the double-counting problem.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the interior of the earth:
- The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state.
- The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called the lithosphere.
- The oceanic crust is thicker as compared to the continental crust.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
3 only
Explanation :
The core-mantle boundary is located at the depth of 2,900 km. The outer core is in liquid state while the inner core is in solid state. The core is made up of very heavy material mostly constituted by nickel and iron. It is sometimes referred to as the nife layer. So, statement 1 is correct.
The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The mantle extends from Moho’s discontinuity to a depth of 2,900 km. The crust and the uppermost part of the mantle are called lithosphere. Its thickness ranges from 10-200 km. So, statement 2 is correct.
Crust is the outermost solid part of the earth. It is brittle in nature. The thickness of the crust varies under the oceanic and continental areas. Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the continental crust. The mean thickness of the oceanic crust is 5 km whereas that of the continental is around 30 km. The continental crust is thicker in the areas of major mountain systems, it is as much as 70 km thick in the Himalayan region. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Mohorovicic Discontinuity, or “Moho,” is the boundary between the crust and the mantle. The Mohorovicic Discontinuity marks the lower limit of Earth’s crust. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Gutenberg established an accurate boundary line — or discontinuity — that separates and divides the lower mantle from the outer core. The lower mantle above the Gutenberg line is solid, but the outer core below the line is liquid molten. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Conrad Discontinuity is the boundary that separates the crust into a lower layer and an upper layer. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Lehmann Discontinuity is the boundary that occurs between Earth’s inner and outer core at a depth of roughly 5,100 km. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
With reference to major elements of the Earth’s Crust, which of the following is the correct sequence in descending order of their weight?
- Silicon
- Iron
- Aluminium
- Oxygen
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
4-1-3-2
Explanation :
The elements in the earth’s crust are rarely found exclusively but are usually combined with other elements to make various substances. These substances are recognized as minerals. About 98 % of the total crust of the earth is composed of eight elements like oxygen, silicon, aluminum, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium, and magnesium.
Earth’s crust consists of 46% of Oxygen, 27% of Silicon, 8% of Aluminum, and 5% of Iron.
Which of the following are the direct source of information for understanding about Earth’s Interior?
- Magnetic Field
- Seismic Activity
- Gravitation
- Meteorites
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
None of the above
Explanation :
Direct Sources of information about the Earth’s Interior
Volcanic Eruption: As and when the molten material (magma) is thrown onto the surface of the earth, during volcanic eruption it becomes available for laboratory analysis and gives information about the interior of Earth.
Surface Rock or Rocks from the mining areas
Indirect Sources of information about the Earth’s Interior
Magnetic field: Magnetic surveys provide information about the distribution of magnetic materials in the crustal portion, and thus, provide information about the distribution of materials in this part.
Gravitation: The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. Gravity anomalies give us information about the distribution of mass of the material in the crust of the earth.
Seismic Activity: The study of seismic waves provides a complete picture of the layered interior.
Meteorites: The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to that of the earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials same as, or similar to, our planet. Hence, this becomes yet another source of information about the earth’s interior.
Therefore option (d) is the correct answer.
Which of the following are the examples of Depositional Landforms?
- Drumlins
- Eskers
- Cirque
- Horns
Select the correct option using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Drumlins are smooth oval-shaped ridge-like features composed mainly of glacial till with some masses of gravel and sand. The long axes of drumlins are parallel to the direction of ice movement. Drumlins give an indication of the direction of glacier movement.
Eskers are ridges made of sands and gravels, deposited by glacial meltwater flowing through tunnels within and underneath glaciers, or through meltwater channels on top of glaciers. Over time, the channel or tunnel gets filled up with sediments. As the ice retreats, the sediments are left behind as a ridge in the landscape.
A cirque is an amphitheatre-like valley formed by glacial erosion. Cirques are the most common landforms in glaciated mountains. The cirques quite often are found at the heads of glacial valleys. The accumulated ice cuts these cirques while moving down the mountain tops.
Horns form through headward erosion of the cirque walls. If three or more radiating glaciers cut headward until their cirques meet, high, sharp-pointed and steep-sided peaks called horns form
Therefore option (c) is the correct answer.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Explanation:
Aretes: It is a sharp ridge of rock that is formed between glacially created valleys. The ridge is then made more defined through erosion processes such as freeze-thaw erosion. Aretes is formed by the movement of a glacier. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Lapiés: It is a weathered limestone surface found in karst regions and consisting of etched, fluted, and pitted rock pinnacles separated by deep grooves. This rugged surface is formed by the solution of rock along joints and areas of greater solubility by water containing carbonic and humic acids. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Stalagmite: Stalagmites rise up from the floor of the caves. In fact, stalagmites form due to dripping water from the surface or through the thin pipe, of the stalactite, immediately below it. Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters. Normally they are broad at their bases and taper towards the free ends showing up in a variety of forms. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Sinkholes: Small to medium-sized round to sub-rounded shallow depressions called swallow holes form on the surface of limestones through solution. Sinkholes are very common in limestone/karst areas. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
The periglacial climate is characterized by which of the following features?
- Absence of weathering and erosion
- Frequent night frosts
- Long and cool winters
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Periglacial environment is a cold climate, frequently marginal to the glacial environment, and is characteristically subject to intense cycles of freezing and thawing of superficial sediments. Permafrost commonly occurs within this periglacial environment
On average, the periglacial climate is characterized by long and cool winter with temperature below 0°C, freezing of surface and subsurface water and moisture, absence of weathering and erosion, short and relatively warm summer with the absence of night frost, thawing of surface ice, active fluvial action and solifluction for a very short duration.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to geomorphic processes:
- The Exogenic forces continuously elevate or build up parts of the earth’s surface.
- The Endogenic forces result in degradation and aggradation of the earth’s surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The differences in the internal forces operating from within the earth which built up the crust have been responsible for the variations in the outer surface of the crust. The earth’s surface is being continuously subjected to external forces induced basically by energy (sunlight). The internal forces are also still active though with different intensities. That means, the earth’s surface is being continuously subjected to by external forces originating within the earth’s atmosphere and by internal forces from within the earth.
The external forces are known as exogenic forces and the internal forces are known as endogenic forces. The actions of exogenic forces result in wearing down (degradation) of relief/elevations and filling up (aggradation) of basins/depressions, on the earth’s surface. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The endogenic forces continuously elevate or build up parts of the earth’s surface and hence the exogenic processes fail to even out the relief variations of the surface of the earth. In general terms, the endogenic forces are mainly land building forces and the exogenic processes are mainly land wearing forces. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
With reference to the Geological Time Scale, arrange the following periods in their chronological order starting from the earliest:
- Cretaceous
- Ordovician
- Silurian
- Triassic
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
2-3-4-1
Explanation :
Geological life forms are a record of the life forms and geologic events in Earth’s history. Scientists placed Earth’s rocks in order by relative age to create the geologic column. This scale is developed by studying these rock Layers and index fossils. Radioactive dating helped to determine the absolute date of the divisions in the scale. The chronological order of the evolution of the earth is as follows -
1 and 4 only
Which of the following subsidies can be categorized as ‘Product Subsidies’?
- Fertilizer subsidies
- Interest subsidies to farmers
- Subsidies to railways
- Input subsidies to farmers
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Product subsidies are paid or received per unit of product. Whereas, Production subsidies are paid or received with relation to production and are independent of the volume of actual production. It is provided to encourage the production of a specific good or service by reducing its cost of production.
Examples of Product subsidies include food, petroleum and fertilizer subsidies, interest subsidies given to farmers, households, etc. through banks.
Examples of production subsidies include subsidies to Railways, input subsidies to farmers, subsidies to the village and small industries, administrative subsidies to corporations or cooperatives, etc.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to underemployment, which one of the following statements is correct?
It is a situation in which people employed contribute less than their production capacity.
Explanation :
Unemployment may be defined as “a situation in which the person can work both physically and mentally at the existing wage rate, but does not get a job to work”.
Types of Unemployment in India:
Open Unemployment: It is a situation wherein a large section of the labour force does not get a job that may yield them a regular income. The labour force expands faster than the growth rate of the economy. Therefore, all people do not get jobs.
Disguised Unemployment: It is a situation where more people are doing work than required. Even if some are withdrawn, production does not suffer.
Structural Unemployment: This type of unemployment arises due to drastic changes in the economic structure of a country. These changes may affect either the supply of a factor or demand for a factor of production.
Underemployment: It is a situation where people employed contribute less than their production capacity. In this type of unemployment, people are not gainfully employed. They may be employed either on a part-time basis or undertake a job requiring lesser qualification. For example, a Post Graduate may work as a clerk for which only SSLC is enough.
With reference to Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS), consider the following statements:
- The maximum retail price of fertilizers is fixed by the Government.
- Urea is kept out of its purview.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) Policy is being implemented w.e.f. 1.4.2010 by the Department of Fertilizers and a fixed amount of subsidy (at the fixed rate) decided on an annual basis, is provided on each grade of subsidized Phosphatic & Potassic (P&K) fertilizers depending on its Nutrient Content. The scheme was set up to ensure the availability of phosphatic and potassic fertilizers to farmers at an affordable price, as the retail prices of such non-urea fertilisers are decontrolled and set by manufacturers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Urea is kept outside the purview of the NBS policy. Urea is kept under the Government’s price control, and it is provided to the farmers at a statutorily notified Maximum Retail Price (MRP). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
With reference to Sugarcane Sector in India, consider the following statements:
- The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane has seen a consistent decrease in the last ten years.
- The views of State Governments are considered while fixing the FRP of sugarcane.
- State Governments cannot announce State Advised Price (SAP) over and above the FRP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Significance of sugarcane and sugar industry for India’s economy can be gauged from the fact that it is the country’s second-largest agro-based industry, next to cotton. India is the largest consumer and the second-largest producer of sugar in the world.
Over the years, India has become a sugar surplus nation as reflected from the trend of sugar production and consumption. Since 2010-11, production has outstripped consumption except in 2016-17. This has been possible because of various measures undertaken by the Government. For example, the interest of the farmers is protected by the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane which has doubled in a span of ten years (from ₹ 145 per quintal in 2011-12 to ₹ 290 per quintal in 2021-22). FRP is the minimum price at which sugarcane is to be purchased by sugar mills from farmers. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Government fixes MSP of 22 mandated agricultural crops and Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane on the basis of the recommendations of Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) and after due consideration of the views of State Governments and the concerned Central Ministries/ Departments. The 22 mandated crops include 14 Kharif crops viz. paddy, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, tur (arhar), moong, urad, groundnut, soybean (yellow), sunflower seed, sesamum, niger seed, cotton and 6 Rabi crops viz. wheat, barley, gram, masur (lentil), rapeseed and mustard, safflower and 2 commercial crops viz. jute and copra. In addition to that, MSP for toria and de-husked coconut are also fixed on the basis of MSPs of rapeseed & mustard and copra respectively. So, statement 2 is correct.
In addition, some state governments announce State Advised Price (SAP) at levels higher than FRP. Additionally, sugar mills that buy sugarcane are mandated to purchase crops from farmers within a specified radius known as the Cane Reservation Area. In this way, sugarcane farmers are insured and protected against price risk. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
The term ‘Participatory Guarantee System for India (PGS-India)’, recently seen in news is related to
Certification of organic farming.
Explanation :
Participatory Guarantee System of India (PGS-India) is a process of certifying organic products, which ensures that their production takes place in accordance with laid-down quality standards. It is a quality assurance initiative that is locally relevant, emphasize the participation of stakeholders, including producers and consumers and operate outside the frame of third-party certification.
The organic certifications are given under the Large Area Certification (LAC) Scheme of the PGS-India certification programme. Under LAC, each village in the area is considered as one cluster/group. All farmers with their farmland and livestock need to adhere to the standard requirements and on being verified get certified en-mass without the need to go under conversion period. Certification is renewed on an annual basis through verification by a process of peer appraisals as per the process of PGS-India.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
On 21st June, the northern hemisphere experiences
longest day and shortest night
During the summer solstice, the days are longer than nights. The longest day for those living north of the Equator is June 21. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5-degree north latitude.
Since Earth rotates on its axis, the Northern Hemisphere gets more direct sunlight between March and September over the course of a day, which also means people living in the Northern Hemisphere experience summer during this time. The rest of the year, the Southern Hemisphere gets more sunlight.
The amount of incoming energy the Earth received from the sun on this day is 30 percent higher at the North Pole than at the Equator.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator.
Statement 2: The Coriolis force is zero at the Equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1
Explanation :
The troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator. The thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convection currents. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Coriolis force is zero at the Equator. Though the Coriolis force is useful in mathematical equations, there is actually no physical force involved. Instead, it is just the ground moving at a different speed than an object in the air. Because there is no turning of the surface of the Earth (sense of rotation) underneath a horizontally and freely moving object at the equator, there is no curving of the object’s path as measured relative to Earth’s surface. The object’s path is straight, that is, there is no Coriolis effect. So, statement 2 is correct but it is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following straits as one proceeds from south to north?
- Malacca strait
- Palk strait
- Taiwan strait
- Kerch strait
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
1-2-3-4
Explanation :
The Strait of Malacca or Straits of Malacca is a narrow stretch of water between the Malay Peninsula and the Indonesian island of Sumatra. As the main shipping channel between the Indian and Pacific oceans, it is one of the most important shipping lanes in the world.
The Palk Strait is a strait between the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Jaffna District of the Northern Province of the island nation of Sri Lanka. It connects the Bay of Bengal in the northeast with Palk Bay in the southwest.
The Taiwan Strait is a 180-kilometre-wide strait separating the island of Taiwan and continental Asia. The strait is part of the South China Sea and connects to the East China Sea to the north. China’s new maritime rules designed to control the entry of foreign vessels in what Beijing calls “Chinese territorial waters” take effect. The move is expected to escalate the existing tension with the US and its neighbours in the region.
Kerch Strait: The Kerch Strait connects the Sea of Azov with the Black Sea, and is formed by the coasts of the Russian Taman Peninsula and disputed Crimea. It is the sole access point for ships travelling to and from Ukraine’s eastern port cities, most notably Mariupol.
Only three pairs
Explanation :
In crafting a balanced system of government, the makers of the Constitution of India were open to learning from the experiments and experiences of other countries. They willingly borrowed from various constitutional traditions to create an effective framework.
British Constitution: The First Past the Post system of election is borrowed from the British Constitution. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Irish Constitution: The idea of Directive Principles of State Policy is borrowed from the Irish Constitution, not the idea of Residual power. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Canadian Constitution: The Quasi-federal form of government is borrowed from the Canadian Constitution, not the Directive Principles of State Policy. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
United States Constitution: The idea of judicial review is borrowed from the United States Constitution. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
French Constitution: The principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity are borrowed from the French Constitution. So, pair 5 is correctly matched.
Consider the following statements regarding statutory laws in India:
- Statutory laws are laws passed by the Parliament or State Legislatures.
- Statutory law cannot override constitutional law if there is a conflict between the two.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Statutory law:
Also known as statutes, is a set of written laws created by the government’s legislative branch and passed through a process of legislation.
It is formally enacted by a legislative body, such as the Parliament or State Legislatures in India. So, statement 1 is correct.
These laws are codified, meaning they are systematically arranged and recorded in legal codes or statutes.e.g.Right to Information Act, 2005.
These laws can cover a wide range of subjects, including criminal law, civil rights, taxation, environmental protection, and more.
In case of a conflict statutory laws cannot override constitutional laws. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding bye-laws:
- They typically apply only within the area or organization that created them.
- They lack legal force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Byelaw, is a rule or regulation made by a local authority or corporation to govern matters within its jurisdiction. Bye-laws are typically created to address specific issues within a community or organization, such as public health, safety, and local amenities. For example, housing societies can indeed frame their own bye-laws under Co-operative Societies Act, to govern its day-to-day functioning.
They are usually applicable only within the specific geographical area or organization that created them. So, statement 1 is correct.
They have the force of law within the area they apply to, as breaches can result in penalties (such as fines), provided they are not inconsistent with the national or state legislation. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following statements best describes secularism in the context of the Indian Constitution?
- The state treats all religions equally and does not favor or discriminate against any religion.
- The state completely separates religion from politics and does not allow any religious activities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 Only
Explanation :
Secularism means that the state treats all religions equally and does not favor or discriminate against any religion. This principle ensures freedom of religion and equal respect for all religions by the state. So, statement 1 is correct.
Unlike the concept of complete separation of religion from politics, Indian secularism allows the state to intervene in religious matters to ensure equality and social justice, such as banning practices like untouchability. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘democratic governments’:
- They prioritise individual liberty over social order.
- A vibrant civil society is essential for their healthy functioning.
- They are inherently inefficient.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Democracy does value individual liberty, but it also seeks to balance it with the need for social order and the common good. So, statement 1 is not correct.
A civil society with active participation of citizens is crucial for holding the government accountable. So, statement 2 is correct.
While democracies may have slower decision-making due to deliberation, efficiency is not the sole measure of good governance. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option b is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the features of the Indian polity:
- India is a republic with a parliamentary form of government.
- The head of state in India is directly elected by the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
India is indeed a republic with a parliamentary form of government. A republic is a state where the head of state is not a hereditary monarch, but an elected representative. So, statement 1 is correct.
The President of India is not directly elected by the people. They are elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both houses of Parliament and the state legislatures. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the concept of Justice in the Indian Constitution:
- The Constitution guarantees only legal justice, not social or economic justice.
- The Directive Principles of State Policy guide the government in promoting social justice.
- Article 32 of the Constitution guarantees the right to constitutional remedies for violation of fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Constitution guarantees legal justice through fundamental rights (e.g., right to equality, right to life), enforceable by courts. The Constitution, through DPSPs, emphasises social and economic justice. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The DPSPs are non-justiciable but serve as guiding principles for the government to promote social welfare and reduce inequalities. So, statement 2 is correct.
Article 32 mentioned in the question (Right to Constitutional Remedies) empowers individuals to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding Positive and Negative liberty:
- Positive liberty focuses on freedom from external constraints whereas Negative liberty emphasizes the ability of individuals to act autonomously.
- Negative liberty emphasizes individual autonomy, while positive liberty considers the relationship between the individual and society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 Only
Explanation :
Within political philosophy, the concept of liberty is multifaceted, encompassing both negative and positive dimensions.
Positive liberty underscores the individual’s ability to act autonomously and pursue their chosen course of action. Negative liberty prioritizes the absence of external constraints imposed by the state or other actors, allowing individuals to operate within a sphere free from arbitrary restrictions. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Positive liberty emphasizes the realization of self-directed goals, potentially requiring access to resources and capabilities that empower individuals to translate choices into actions. Negative liberty emphasizes individual autonomy and freedom from coercion. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements about formal and substantive equality:
- Formal equality guarantees equal legal rights for all individuals on paper.
- Substantive equality focuses on achieving equal outcomes for all individuals, regardless of background.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Within the discourse of jurisprudence and social justice, formal and substantive equality represent distinct approaches to realizing equal rights and opportunities.
Principle of formal equality emphasizes the jurisdictional parity enshrined in legal codes, ensuring that everyone has the same rights and protections under the law, irrespective of their social standing or background. This establishes a level playing field on paper.
Substantive equality transcends the formal framework and focuses on achieving equality of results. It aims to bridge socio-economic disparities and historical disadvantages to ensure everyone has a fair chance of success. Substantive equality might necessitate affirmative action policies or social programs to address inequalities. So, both the Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
In the context of our polity, what does the term “Sovereign” mean?
The ability India to govern itself without external interference.
Explanation :
The term “sovereign” in the context of our Constitution means that India has full autonomy and independence to govern itself without any external interference. It signifies that India is free to make its own laws, conduct its own foreign policy, and manage its own internal affairs. This concept is fundamental to the idea of nationhood, ensuring that the government of our country is the supreme authority within its territory.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The British constitution is an example of a written constitution while the American constitution is an example of the unwritten constitution
- The constitution of India is the lengthiest of all the written constitutions in the world
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Constitutions are classified into written like the American Constitution and unwritten like the British Constitution. So statement (1) is incorrect.
The Constitution of India is the lengthiest of all the written constitutions of the world:
Originally, in 1949, the Constitution contained a Preamble, 395 Articles divided into 22 parts and 8 schedules.
As of 2019, it contained a Preamble, 470 Articles divided into 25 parts and 12 schedules.
No other Constitution in the world has so many Articles and Schedules. So statement (2) is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the doctrine of Judicial Review:
- The doctrine of Judicial Review originated from the Marbury versus Madison case of 1803.
- Under this doctrine, the Judiciary can examine the constitutionality of only legislative actions and not executive orders.
- Supreme Court in Minerva Mills Case 1980 held Judicial Review to be part of the Basic structure of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Only Two
Explanation :
The Doctrine of Judicial Review originated and developed in the United States of America in early 19th century:
It was first propounded in the famous case of Marbury versus Madison 1803 by John Marshall, the then Chief Justice of the American Supreme Court. So statement (1) is correct.
Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of the legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. On examination, if such acts or orders are found in contradiction with the principles of the Constitution (Ultra vires), they can be declared as Unconstitutional and invalid. So statement (2) is incorrect.
The Indian Constitution under Article 13, 32 and 226 provides for the power of Judicial Review.
The Supreme Court has used the power of Judicial review in various cases, as for example, the Golaknath Case 1967, Kesavananda Bharati Case 1973 and Minerva Mills Case 1980.
The Supreme Court in Minerva Mills Case 1980 held that Judicial Review is part of the Basic structure. So statement (3) is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following Amendments requires simple majority for its passage in the Parliament?
- Amendment for admission or establishment of new states
- Amendment to conduct Quorum in Parliament
- Amendment of Fundamental rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Like any other written Constitution, the Constitution of India also provides for its Amendment under Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution which confers this power in the hands of Parliament.
However, Article 368 provides for two types of Amendment, that is, by a Special Majority (majority of total membership of each house of Parliament and majority of two-thirds member present and voting) such as for Amendment of Fundamental Rights, Directive Principle of State Policy etc. So, statement (3) is incorrect.
Some other articles provide for the Amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a Simple Majority (Majority of members of each house present and voting). These Amendments are deemed to be Amendment of the Constitution for the purpose of Article 368 such as:
Admission or establishment of new states
Quorum in Parliament
Rules of Procedures in Parliament
Use of English language in Parliament
Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court
Citizenship - acquisition and Termination etc
So, statements (1) and (2) are correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding the quorum of the house in the Indian Parliament:
- The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
- The quorum requirement is mentioned in Article 100 of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) is indeed one-tenth of the total number of members of the House. This ensures a minimum number of members are present for conducting official business and reflects a principle of collective decision-making. So, statement (1) is correct.
The requirement for a quorum is enshrined in Article 100 of the Indian Constitution. This article specifically deals with voting in the Houses of Parliament, the power of the Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies, and the concept. So, statement (2) is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding civil rights:
- Civil rights are protections against discrimination based on characteristics such as race, gender, and disability.
- The right to free speech is considered a civil right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Civil rights are indeed protections against discrimination based on various characteristics. This includes race, ethnicity, gender, religion, sexual orientation, disability, and other factors. These rights ensure equal treatment and opportunity under the law. So, statement (1) is correct.
The right to free speech is considered a fundamental civil right. It is typically protected by a constitution or national charter. Free speech allows individuals to express their opinions and ideas without fear of government censorship or retaliation. So, statement (2) is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements regarding legal rights:
- Legal rights can include both civil and criminal rights.
- Legal rights are the same in all countries, regardless of their legal systems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 Only
Explanation :
Legal rights encompass both civil and criminal rights.
Civil rights protect individuals from unfair treatment and guarantee equal opportunity. Examples include the right to a fair trial, freedom from discrimination, and the right to own property.
Criminal rights pertain to protections afforded to individuals accused of crimes. These include the right to remain silent, the right to an attorney, and the right to a fair trial. So, statement 1 is correct.
Legal rights are not the same in all countries. This is because:
Different legal systems exist: Common law, civil law, religious law, etc., each with its own set of principles and procedures.
National constitutions and laws vary, reflecting a country’s unique political and social context. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
On which of the following sites are the remains from all periods, ie, Paleolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic, found?
Belan valley
Explanation :
Belan Valley in Uttar Pradesh is one site where pieces of evidence of Paleolithic, Mesolithic and Neolithic sites have been found in sequence. The prehistoric sites of Belan valley include Mahgara, Chopani Mando, and Koldihwa. Koldihwa in Belan valley has provided the earliest evidence of rice cultivation.
Navdatoli is a Chalcolithic era settlement located on the Narmada River in Madhya Pradesh. Navdatoli has given evidence of the largest variety of food grains in the Chalcolithic age.
Soan River is a tributary of Indus; the name of this culture is after Soan Valley. Soan Culture (also known as Soanian / Sohan culture) are Palaeolithic sites, located in Shivalik region of current India, Pakistan and Nepal.
Jorwe in Ahmednagar of Maharashtra is a Chalcolithic site after which the Jorwe Culture has been named.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the agriculture prevalent in the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC):
- Rice was the main staple crop in IVC.
- Indus farmers used multi-cropping strategies across both seasons.
- Indus farmers were the first to use cotton.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Rice is recorded in Harappan times at Lothal in Gujarat, but whether it was wild or cultivated is not yet clear. According to recent research by the University of Cambridge, archaeologists found evidence of domesticated rice in South Asia in IVC. However, rice was not the main staple crop, and people used to eat wheat and barley. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Indus farmers were the earliest people to use multi-cropping strategies across both seasons, growing foods during summer (rice, millets and beans) and winter (wheat, barley and pulses), which required different watering regimes. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Indus people were the earliest to produce cotton. Because cotton was first produced in this area, the Greeks called it Sindon, which is derived from Sindh. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which of the following religious practices can be traced back to the Indus Valley Civilization?
- Pipal worship
- Cow worship
- Temple-based rituals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1 only
Explanation :
Explanation:
The people of IVC worshipped trees. The picture of a god is represented on a seal in the midst of the branches of the pipal tree. This tree continues to be worshipped to this day.
Animals were also worshipped in Harapan times, and many of them are represented on seals. The most important of them is the Humped Bull. However, the origin of the veneration of the cow can be traced to the Vedic period (2nd millennium–7th century BCE). The Indo-European peoples who entered India in the 2nd millennium BCE were pastoralists; cattle had major economic significance that was reflected in their religion.
The inhabitants of the Indus region worshipped gods in the form of trees, animals and human beings. But the gods were not placed in temples, a practice which was common in ancient Egypt and Mesopotamia.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following is not a Harappan site based in India?
Chanhudaro
Explanation :
Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) is one of the four earliest civilizations of the world. As per radio-carbon dating the civilization can be dated around 2500-1750 BC. Among the famous cities of IVC are primarily based in South Asian nations like Afghanistan, Pakistan and India.
Some of the IVC sites based in India are: Lothal, Kalibangan, Ropar, Dholavira, Desalpur (Kutch), Rangpur (Gujarat), Surkotada (Gujarat), Banawali and Rakhigarhi (Haryana).
IVC sites based in Pakistan are: Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Chanhudaro in Sindh, Kot Diji in Sindh, and Ali Murad.
IVC sites based in Afghanistan – Shortughai.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
Which of the present-day religious practices were also a part of religious practice of the Indus Valley Civilization?
- Swastika symbol
- Phallus Worship
- Worship of Pashupati
- Fire Altars
- Worship of Peepal tree
- Ritual Bath
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Explanation :
From the seals, terracotta figurines and copper tablets we get an idea on the religious life of the Harappans.
Swastika motif is depicted on terracotta, shell, faience, and metal tablets. It may have been associated with a protective function or auspiciousness. So, point 1 is correct.
Aspect of the fertility-related beliefs of the Harappans was the worship of male and female creative energy in the form of stone icons of lingas (Phallus) and yonis. A number of such stones were identified. So, point 2 is correct.
It is suggested that the Harappans also worshipped a male god represented on a steatite seal discovered at Mohenjodaro, usually referred to as the Pashupati seal. It shows resemblance to the Shiva of later Hindu mythology, who is also known as Mahayogi (the great yogi) and Pashupati (lord of the animals). So, point 3 is correct.
The most striking evidence suggesting ritualistic practices comes from the ‘fire altars’ found on the citadel mound at Kalibangan containing cattle bones and antlers. This suggests the practice of animal sacrifice. ‘Fire altars’ have also been reported at Banawali, Lothal, Amri, Nageshwar, and Vagad in Gujarat and at Rakhigarhi in Haryana. So, point 4 is correct.
The Harappan seals, sealings, amulets, and copper tablets depict a number of trees, plants, and animals, some of which may have had cultic significance. The pipal tree appears often and may have been venerated. Sometimes, there is a figure peering out from between its branches, possibly a tree-spirit. A seal found at Mohenjo-daro shows a row of seven figures with long braids standing in front of a pipal tree which has a horned figure standing in it. So, point 5 is correct.
Great Bath at Mohenjodaro is suggested to serve as a ritual bathing site. The floor of the Bath was made of burnt bricks. Water was drawn from a large well in an adjacent room, and an outlet from one corner of the bath led to a drain. Immediately to the north of the Great Bath is a large building consisting of eight small rooms with common bathing platforms. So, point 6 is correct.
Consider the following statements with reference to figurines of the Indus valley civilization:
- The ‘Dancing Girl’ from Mohenjodaro is the earliest bronze sculpture found in India.
- Bronze statuettes of the ‘chariot’ and the ‘bulls’ have been discovered at Burzahom.
- The bronze statues were made using the ‘lost wax’ technique.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
The ‘Dancing Girl’ from Mohenjodaro is the earliest bronze sculpture dated to 2500 BCE. The limbs and torso of this female figurine are simplified in tubular form. So, statement 1 is correct.
A similar group of bronze statuettes have been discovered from the archaeological excavation at Daimabad (Maharashtra) dating to 1500 BCE. Significant is the ‘Chariot’, the wheels of which are represented in simple circular shapes while the driver or human rider has been elongated, and the bulls in the forefront are modelled in sturdy forms. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The art of bronze-casting was practiced on a wide scale by the Harappans. Their bronze statues were made using the ‘lost wax’ technique in which the wax figures were first covered with a coating of clay and allowed to dry. Then the wax was heated and the molten wax was drained out through a tiny hole made in the clay cover. The hollow mould thus created was filled with molten metal which took the original shape of the object. Once the metal cooled, the clay cover was completely removed. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to the Home Rule Movement:
- The goal was to achieve complete independence from colonial rule.
- Separate leagues were formed by Tilak and Annie Besant.
- It saw an active participation of Muslims and Anglo-Indians from South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
The goal of the Home Rule movement was to achieve self-govt. within the British Empire, on the lines of Irish home rule leagues, by all constitutional means and to educate and organize, public opinion in the country towards the attainment of the same. It’s purpose was the building up of the complete self-government from village councils through district and Municipal Boards and provincial Legislative Assemblies to a National Parliament, equal in its powers to the legislative bodies of self-governing colonies. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Tilak’s home rule league was formally established in April 1916 at Belgaum whereas Besant’s league was started in September 1916 in Madras. However, both the organizations had common aims and worked in close correspondence. Tilak’s League was to work in Maharashtra, (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, the Central Provinces and Berar, and Annie Besant’s League was given charge of the rest of India. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Home Rule agitation was later joined by Motilal Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai, Chittaranjan Das, Saifuddin Kitchlew, Madan Mohan Malaviya and Mohammad Ali Jinnah etc. However, Anglo-Indians, most of the Muslims and non-brahmins from the South did not join as they felt Home Rule would mean the rule of the Hindu majority, and that too mainly by the high caste. But Brahmins actively participated in the movement. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to Lucknow Pact (1916), consider the following statements:
- Muslim League and Indian National Congress demanded dominion status for India.
- Congress agreed to separate electorates for Muslims in provincial elections except the Punjab and Bengal.
- It demanded that all of the members of the executive council should be Indians.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
The Congress–League Pact or the Lucknow Pact was a crucial event that brought together Congress and the Muslim League. The collective demands for constitutional reforms, representative government and dominion status for India were put forward after this pact. So, statement 1 is correct.
Key Provisions of the Lucknow Pact-
i. Four-fifths of the Central and Provincial Legislative Councils should be elected, and one-fifth nominated.
ii. Four-fifths of the Provincial and Central Legislatures were to be elected on as broad a franchise as possible.
iii. The Congress agreed to separate electorates for Muslims in provincial council elections in all provinces except the Punjab and Bengal. This pact paved the way for Hindu–Muslim cooperation in the Khilafat Movement and Gandhi’s Non–Cooperation Movement. So, statement 2 is correct.
iv. Half the executive council members, including those of the Central Executive Council were to be Indians elected by the councils themselves. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the trade during the Harappan period, consider the following statements:
- Shortughai was a Harappan trading outpost in Afghanistan.
- There is literary as well as archaeo-logical evidence for the Harappan trade with Mesopotamia.
- Lapiz lazuli was exported to the Persian Gulf from the Harappan sites in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Shortughai is a small site located near the confluence of the Oxus and its tributary, the Kokcha, in north-east Afghanistan. The discovery of multiple Harappan artifacts and manufacturing techniques proves that this site belongs to the Harappan civilization. The most important evidence of trade with Afghanistan comes from this isolated trading outpost. So, statement 1 is correct.
There is literary as well as archaeological evidence for the Harappan trade with Mesopotamia. The records of king Sargon (2334–2279 BCE) of Mesopotamian refer to ships from the lands of Dilmun, Magan, and Meluhha. Dilmun can be identified with Bahrain, and Magan with the Makran coast and Oman. Meluhha, according to scholars, to the Indus valley. The archaeological evidence for mutual trade consists mainly of a few Harappan or Harappan-related seals and carnelian beads at Mesopotamian sites such as Kish, Lagash, Nippur, and Ur. So, statement 2 is correct.
Lapis lazuli is a semiprecious gemstone that has been prized for its bright, blue color and used for inlay and intarsia as well as for pigments for cosmetics and paintings. It was not locally available in the Harappan civilization. Lapis lazuli was imported from mines of Afghanistan. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to the right to freedom of religion in India, consider the following statements:
- Right to carry kirpans by the Sikhs is a fundamental right granted by the Constitution.
- The Supreme Court cannot decide on the essential practices of a religion.
- It is subject to reasonable restrictions only on the grounds of public order and morality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Article 25 of the constitution talks about Freedom of religion to all persons. Explanation to the Article explicitly says that carrying of Kirpans by members of the Sikh religion would be constituted as the free profession of Sikh religion. The right granted under Article 25 is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restriction based on public order, morality, health etc. So, statement 1 is correct.
The doctrine of essentiality is a doctrine that has been evolved by courts to protect the essential practices of a religion. As per the doctrine, only the essential practices of religion are granted protection under Article 25 and not any practice. Thus, through this doctrine, courts try to balance religious morality with constitutional morality. The Supreme Court in Ismail Faruqui Case stated that visiting a mosque is not an essential part of religious practice and namaz can be read at any place. So, statement 2 is not correct.
These rights are subject, not just, to public order and morality, but also to health and other provisions relating to fundamental rights. Further, the State is permitted to (a) regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious practice; and (b) provide for social welfare and reform or throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following are considered to be features of ‘Parliamentary form of Government’?
- Dual Executives
- Collective Responsibility
- Strict Separation of powers
- Double membership
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation :
In a parliamentary form of government, the President is the nominal executive while the Prime Minister is the real executive. Thus, the President is the head of the state and the Prime Minister is the head of the government.
Article 75 states that the ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and Lok Sabha in particular. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the Ministry (i.e. Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
The doctrine of strict separation of power is a feature of the presidential form of government. The Executive, Legislature and Judicial powers are separated and vested in the three independent organs of the government, whereas in a parliamentary form the Legislature and Executive are together and inseparable.
The ministers are members of both the Legislature and the Executive. The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is not guaranteed under the Right to Freedom of Religion in the Indian Constitution?
Right to proclaim
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the Indian Constitution as adopted on 26th January 1950?
It consisted of a Preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
Explanation :
The Indian Constitution as adopted on November 26, 1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. The Preamble was enacted after the entire Constitution was already enacted. This adopted Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950. The constitution was first amended in 1951 which made several changes in many Articles and also added 9th Schedules to the Constitution.
Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
Liberty of Religion
Preamble of the Constitution of India presents the principles of the Constitution and indicates the sources of its authority. It was adopted on 26 November 1949 by the Constituent Assembly and came into effect on 26 January 1950.
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution states that “We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens: Justice, Social, Economic and Political; Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; Equality of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all; Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; In our Constituent Assembly this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do hereby adopt , enact and give to ourselves this Constitution”.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
With reference to the Preventive Detention in India, consider the following statements:
- Disruption of the maintenance of supplies and essential services is one of the grounds for preventive detention.
- The grounds of detention should be communicated to the person detained.
- Only the Parliament has the authority to make laws related to preventive detention.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Preventive detention means to detain a person to prevent that person from committing on any possible crime or in other words preventive detention is an action taken by the administration on the grounds of the suspicion that some wrong actions may be done by the person concerned which will be prejudicial to the state. The grounds for Preventive detention are:
Security of state, maintenance of public order.
Maintenance of supplies and essential services and defence. So, statement 1 is correct.
Foreign affairs or security of India.
Article 22 states that grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Which of the following changes were made by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978?
- ‘Right to property’ was made a constitutional right.
- A new directive principle was added to promote social order.
- Cabinet’s recommendation was made necessary to declare a national emergency.
- High Court’s power to issue writs was restored.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation :
The Constitution’s 44th Amendment changed the Constitution’s right to property by declassifying it as a fundamental right and reclassifying it as a constitutional right. Article 300A, which corresponds to Article 31(1) solely, has been put under Part XII under a separate Chapter IV ‘Right to Property,’ while Article 19 (1) (f) and Article 31 of the Constitution of India have been eliminated. So, statement 1 is correct.
In Article 38, a new directive principle has been added, stating that the State must maintain social order in order to promote the welfare of the people. So, statement 2 is correct.
Cabinet’s recommendation was made necessary to declare a national emergency. Now the President can only declare an emergency if the Prime Minister and their Cabinet affirm the crisis situation in writing and deliver it to the President. The President can remit the written dossier for an Emergency declaration to the Prime Minister and Cabinet under Article 74. If the Cabinet resends it, however, the President must comply and declare an emergency. So, statement 3 is correct.
The High Court’s ability to issue writs for purposes other than the enforcement of fundamental rights was restored by amending Article 226. The High Court’s authority of supervision over all courts and tribunals within its geographical jurisdiction was restored by amending Article 227. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to the term ‘fraternity’ in the Constitution, which of the following statements is not correct?
The ‘Objectives Resolution’ included the word fraternity in its text.
Explanation :
Fraternity means a sense of brotherhood. The Constitution instils this feeling of fraternity by the system of single citizenship.
The Objective Resolution declared: “All people of India shall be guaranteed and secured social, economic and political justice; equality of status and opportunities and equality before law; and fundamental freedoms — of speech, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action…” While these words bear a clear resemblance to the Preamble to come, they do not include the word “fraternity”.
The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble of the Constitution of India are borrowed from the French Constitution. The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure two things– the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
The Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities.
Therefore, option (b) is the answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The National Anthem was adopted before the Constitution of India came into force whereas the National Song was adopted later.
- The people of India were given an opportunity to propose amendments to the draft Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1 only
Explanation :
It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M.N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. The Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people of India on the basis of adult franchise, the Assembly comprised representatives of all sections of the Indian society–Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians, SCs, STs including women of all these sections.
Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949, itself. Rest of the provisions came into force on 26th January 1950.
In addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws, the Constituent Assembly also performed the following functions:
It ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949.
It adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947.
It adopted the national anthem on January 24, 1950.
It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950.
It elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The Drafting Committee, after taking into consideration the proposals of the various committees, prepared the first draft of the Constitution of India, which was published in February, 1948. The people of India were given eight months to discuss the draft and propose amendments. In the light of the public comments, criticisms and suggestions, the Drafting Committee prepared a second draft, which was published in October, 1948. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar introduced the final draft of the Constitution in the Assembly on November 4, 1948 (first reading). The Constitution as adopted on November 26, 1949, contained a Preamble, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules. The Preamble was enacted after the entire Constitution was already enacted. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the answer.
1 and 3 only
Hathnora village is located in Sehore district in Madhya Pradesh. Geologist Arun Sonakia discovered the only known fossil of a human ancestor from South Asia from Hathnora on the banks of the Narmada. The Narmada human, a fossil skull, belongs to the ancestor category of Homo erectus, who inhabited the earth from 1.8 million to 200,000 years ago and preceded Homo sapiens. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Daojali Hading is a neolithic site in Dima Hasao District of Assam. The excavation site at Daojali Hading occupies an important place in the archaeological history of India as the first evidence of an Eastern Asiatic Neolithic complex of double-shouldered Celts and cord-marked pottery in India was reported from there. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
Mehrgarh is a Stone Age site located at the foot of the Bolan Pass on the Kachi plain of Balochistan in modern day Pakistan. Continuously occupied between about 7000 to 2600 BC, Mehrgarh is the earliest known Neolithic site in the northwest Indian subcontinent, with early evidence of farming (wheat and barley), herding (cattle, sheep, and goats) and metallurgy. The Mehrgarh fibres (Found on copper beads) constitute the earliest known example of cotton in the Old World and put the date of the first use of this textile plant back to 6th millennium BCE. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
With reference to Neolithic period in India, consider the following statements:
- It developed simultaneously over the northern and southern India.
- Some south Indian neolithic sites have ash mounds and provide evidence of millet cultivation.
- In Burzahom, people lived in pit-houses in order to escape from the extreme cold weather of the Kashmir region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Neolithic cultures mark the end of the Stone Age. Neolithic of India constitutes an important phase. A Neolithic site was found in India in 1842 by Le Mesurie in the Raichur district of Karnataka, and later by John Lubbock in 1867 in the Brahmaputra valley of upper Assam. Extensive explorations and excavations have yielded immense amount of material about the Neolithic cultures of India. One thing to note about Indian Neolithic is that Neolithic cultures in India did not develop everywhere at the same time, nor did they end simultaneously. There were regional variations too. So, statement 1 is not correct.
There were regional variations too. For example, there is no evidence of plant cultivation in the north-east despite the sites yielding ‘Neolithic’ tools. In terms of plant crops, wheat and barley were predominant in Mehrgarh in Baluchistan, but rice was important in the central region around Prayagraj. The south Indian Neolithic is unique in the sense that it has ash mounds, with the evidence of millet cultivation.
Cow dung was periodically burnt for a long period of time. These sites might have acted as cattle pens and the cow dung was burnt periodically for various reasons. So, statement 2 is correct.
Burzahom was an important site of this culture. Two cultural periods have been identified at this site. In the Neolithic period, people lived in pit-houses (subterranean dwellings, about 4 m in depth) in order to escape from the extreme cold weather of the Kashmir region. The pit houses were oval in shape, and they were broader at the bottom and narrower on the top. Post-holes which were used for constructing a thatched roof structure were found around the pit houses. The houses were accessed by ladders and steps. They produced coarse handmade pottery. Storage pits were found near the dwellings. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
With reference to the Lucknow Pact of 1916, consider the following statements:
- Congress accepted the Muslim League’s position on separate electorates.
- It proposed that the salaries of the Secretary of State for India should be paid by the British treasury.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The Lucknow Pact between the Congress and the Muslim League could be considered an important event in the course of the nationalistic struggle for freedom. While the League agreed to present joint constitutional demands with the Congress to the government, the Congress accepted the Muslim League’s position on separate electorates which would continue till any one community demanded joint electorates. The Muslims were also granted a fixed proportion of seats in the legislatures at all-India and provincial levels. So, statement 1 is correct.
The joint demands were:
Government should declare that it would confer self-government on Indians at an early date.
The representative assemblies at the central as well as provincial-level should be further expanded with an elected majority and more powers given to them.
The term of the legislative council should be five years.
The salaries of the Secretary of State for India should be paid by the British treasury and not drawn from Indian funds. So, statement 2 is correct.
Half the members of the viceroy’s and provincial governors’ executive councils should be Indians.
With reference to Megalithic culture, consider the following statements:
- It was confined only to the Deccan region, south of river Godavari.
- It was primarily a subsistence economy based on mixed agro-pastoral activities.
- Gold, silver and bronze objects have been found in Megalithic sites.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The period from 1000 BC to 300 BC in south India and Deccan was marked by the presence of Megalithic cultures. The term “Megalithic” is derived from greek work megas i.e, huge and lithos i.e, stone. The main concentration of this culture was Deccan but they are also found in places such as Allahabad- Mirzapur- Varanasi region of Uttar Pradesh, Gufkral, Burzahom in Kashmir and Leh in Ladakh. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The economy was based on subsistence where people followed mixed agro-pastoral activities. In the beginning, they followed a pastoral way of life but after 500 BC when they started using Iron on a large scale, there was progress in agricultural activities. So, statement 2 is correct.
Iron was the major metal of the megalithic period. Besides iron, objects of gold, silver, copper have also been found on a lesser scale. Items of gold such as bangles, rings have been recovered from sites such as Adichanallur (TamilNadu) and Maski (Karnataka). So, statement 3 is correct.
The Megalithic society is composed of various social groups such as hunters and agriculturists, potters, ironsmiths, goldsmiths etc.
With reference to the concept of ‘Swaraj’ by Mahatma Gandhi, consider the following statements:
- He borrowed the term ‘swaraj’ from Vedas.
- His swaraj included participation in politics in every way.
- He wrote ‘Swadesi Samaj’ to emphasise on ‘Gram Swaraj’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 2 only
Explanation :
Mahatama Gandhi borrowed the term ‘swaraj’ from the Vedas. One meaning of swaraj is self-rule and self-control and differs from English usage, which implies freedom without restraints. It also means the “all-around awakening-social, educational, moral, economic and political” (Young India, 26 August 1926). So, statement 1 is correct
Swaraj for Gandhi also means positive freedom, to participate in the process of politics in every possible way. It implies participatory democracy as there exists an intimate relationship between the citizen and the state. So, statement 2 is correct
Freedom or swaraj, for Gandhi, is an inclusive concept - political, economic, social and moral - emphasising the utmost necessity of the human being to be as perfect as possible. He asserts in the Hind Swaraj, “real home self is self-control”.
Rabindranath Tagore wrote the essay titled ‘Swadesi Samaj’. So, statement 3 is not correct
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
With reference to Chalukyan ruler Pulakeshin ll, consider the following statements:
- He adopted the title Vikramaditya after defeating Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada River.
- Chinese traveller, Hiuen Tsang visited the Chalukyan kingdom during his reign.
- The Aihole Prashasti by poet Ravikirti records his military achievements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Western Chalukyas ruled over an extensive area in the Deccan for about two centuries (543 - 755 CE ). The most important ruler of this dynasty was Pulakesin II. A notable achievement of Pulakesin II was the defeat of Harshavardhana on the banks of the river Narmada. He adopted the title ‘Dakshinapatheshwara’ or the Lord of the South. Vikramaditya was the son and successor of Pulakeshin II. So statement 1 is not correct.
The court of Pulakeshin II was visited in 641 CE by Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese pilgrim, who was much impressed by his power, and the loyalty of his warlike vassals. Hiuen Tsang also gives a brief and indistinct account of the Ajantā caves. So, statement 2 is correct.
Aihole inscription is found at Meguti Jain Temple. It is composed by Ravikriti, the court poet of Pulakeshin II in 634 CE. The inscription is a prashasti of the Chalukyas, especially the reigning king Pulakeshin II, who is referred to as Satyashraya. His military successes are described in an Aihole inscription. These included victories against the Kadambas of Banavasi, Alupas, and Gangas of Mysore and his victory against Harshavardhana. So, statement 3 is correct.
During British rule, who among the following established the Provincial Government of India in Kabul, Afghanistan?
Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh
Explanation :
The Provisional Government of India was a provisional government-in-exile established in Kabul, Afghanistan on December 1, 1915, by Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh.
Its purpose was to gather support from the Afghan Amir as well as Russia, Germany, and Japan for India’s independence movement.
Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh declared himself as the President, and his fellow revolutionary Maulana Barkatullah of Bhopal, as the Prime Minister, of the Provisional Government.
Raja Mahendra Pratap Singh was more of a reformer who promoted education. He gave up his own residence in Mathura to be converted into a technical school named Prem Mahavidyalaya in 1909. It is said to have been the country’s first polytechnic.
With reference to the Gandhian concept of Sarvodaya, consider the following statements:
- It provides for the welfare and greatest happiness of the greatest number of people.
- The main features of Sarvodaya are trusteeship and economic equality.
- The idea of Sarvodaya was majorly influenced by John Ruskin’s work – Unto This Last.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
Sarvodaya is a Sanskrit word derived from two words, namely, sarva and udaya. Sarva means ‘all’ which includes every kind of living beings. Udaya means ‘rise,’ ‘uplift,’ ‘prosperity,’ ‘affluence,’ etc. So Sarvodaya literally means ‘the welfare of all’ or ‘the upliftment of all. By the concept Sarvodaya Gandhi really means universal uplift or the welfare of all men and women and not just the welfare, or greatest happiness, of the greatest number, which is rather a utilitarian concept. Sarvodaya is the name Gandhi gives to the new society embracing the betterment of the entire humankind and the world at large. It is a society directed towards the integral welfare of all living beings based on age and on the old spiritual and moral values of Indian and those found elsewhere. Gandhi was not the supporter of utilitarianism which aims at the greatest happiness to the greatest number. Sarvodaya aims at the integral liberation of every individual. It also stands for the well-being of the whole individual, body and soul. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The main features of Sarvodaya are trusteeship, economic equality and networking. So, statement 2 is correct.
The theory of trusteeship, elimination of exploitation in every shape or form; a classless society which offers no privileges by the birth or wealth or talent; mutual cooperation being the driving force of motivation and behaviour; and above all, securing the welfare of all without any distinction of race, religion, sex, political affiliation: these may be said to be the highlights of the Sarvodaya society envisioned by the Mahatma.
According to Gandhi economic equality is the master key to non-violent transformationary independence. Working for economic equality means abolishing the eternal conflict between capital and labour. A non-violent system of government is clearly and impossibly so long as the wide gulf between the rich and the hungry millions persists. The most disadvantaged sections of the community being the economically, the physically and the mentally poor, it is obvious that no egalitarian society could evolve without the poor taking part in the evolutionary process.
During his lifetime, Gandhi never allowed Sarvodaya organisations to be formally instituted. His thinking was that once you served people, as ‘sevakas,’ within the Sarvodaya philosophy there was no need for institutionalization. But since his demise Sarvodaya organisations have been established world-wide genuinely helping people towards building new societies from the ‘grassroots’ up. At the operational field level, the most successful Sarvodaya programmes have most often been those which, apart from being self-created and self-managed, have employed practical hands-on-learning-by-doing methods, including a lot of income generation, skills training and conscientisation; rather than the theoretical ‘talk-shop’ or workshop approach.
The socio-political philosophy of Gandhi may be termed Sarvodaya. It may, however, be noted that Gandhi was not the author of the idea of Sarvodaya. He borrowed the idea as well as the term from Ruskin. Ruskin himself had borrowed it from the Bible. Gandhi first used the word Sarvodaya in a booklet which he published in his native Gujarati after he read John Ruskin. The essay, Unto This Last, was based on a parable from the Gospel according to Matthew 20:1-16 concerning the owner of a plantation and his hiring of labourers to work in his vineyard. In his parable Jesus make the master of the vineyard declare: “I will give unto this last even as I give unto thee.” The emphasis of Ruskin’s essay, as interpreted by Gandhi, is certainly that ideal society is none in which there is concern for the welfare of all. This is the foundation for his Sarvodaya movement. Along with Unto This Last Tolstoy’s Bread Labour also influenced Gandhi. However, the credit of Gandhi lies in the fact that he devoted his entire life to the creation of a new society, a society based on the principles of Sarvodaya. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with reference to Mahatma Gandhi:
- He set up the All-India Anti-Untouchability League in 1932.
- ‘The New Economic Menace of India’ was written by him in 1922.
- He supported the Vaikom satyagraha to secure the rights of untouchables.
- He reposed his faith on constitutional and legal methods to solve the problem of untouchability.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 3 only
Explanation :
Mahatma Gandhi set up the All-India Anti-Untouchability league in September 1932. It was later renamed as Harijan Sevak Sangh. So, statement 1 is correct.
The New Economic Menace of India was written by Bipin Chandra Pal in 1920. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In 1924, Gandhi supported the Vaikom Satyagraha movement organized by the Kerala Congress Committee to secure the rights of untouchables for using the forbidden roads to the temple. So, statement 3 is correct.
Gandhi treated untouchability as a moral stigma and wanted to solve the problem by acts of atonement. He had little use of legal or constitutional methods. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Only two pairs
Explanation :
Omkareshwar is a famous pilgrimage centre that includes one of the 12 Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva. It is located on the banks of river Narmada.It is located in Khandwa in Indian state Madhya Pradesh. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Brihadeshwara Temple (also known as RajaRajeswara temple) is a Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva located in Thanjavur in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu. It is one of the largest temples in India and is an example of Dravidian architecture during the Chola period. Built by emperor Raja Raja Chola I and completed in 1010 CE, the temple is part of the UNESCO World Heritage Site known as the “Great Living Chola Temples”. It is located on the Southern banks of river Kaveri. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
The majestic Kamakhya Temple is one of the oldest temples in Guwahati, Assam dating back to the 8th century. One of the Shakti Peeths of India, it is situated atop the Nilachal Hills in the western part of Guwahati in Assam. The mighty Brahmaputra river flows through the northern banks of the temple. Ambubachi festival is held every year during Monsoon to celebrate the annual menstruation of Goddess Kamakhya. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Trimbakeshwar town is an ancient Hindu Pilgrim centre located at the source of the Godavari River, the longest river in peninsular India. Trimbakeshwar is the abode of one of the twelve Jyotirlingas. The extraordinary feature of the Jyotirlinga located here is that the Linga in the temple is in the form of a three faced embodying Tridev, Lord Brahma, Lord Vishnu and Lord Shiva. The present Trimbakeshwar temple was constructed by third Peshwa Balaji Bajirao (1740-1760) on the site of an old temple. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Consider the following statements regarding Rudradaman I, the famous Saka ruler:
- The Girnar inscription of Rudradaman I is the first elaborate inscription in the Sanskrit language, in the Brahmi script.
- He undertook repairs to improve the Sudarsana lake in the semi-arid zone of Kathiawar which had been used for irrigation for a long time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
The most famous Saka ruler in India was Rudradaman I (A D 130-150). He ruled not only over Sindh, Kutch and Gujarat, but had also recovered from the Satavahanas Konkan, the Narmada valley, Malwa and Kathiawar. He is famous in history because of the repairs he undertook to improve the Sudarsana lake in the semi-arid zone of Kathiawar. This lake has been in use for irrigation for a long time, and was as old as the time of the Mauryas. So, statement 2 is correct.
Rudradaman was a great lover of Sanskrit. The Girnar inscription of Rudradaman I is the first inscription in the Sanskrit language, in the Brahmi script. All the earlier longer inscriptions in this country were composed in Prakrit. The Girnar inscription of Rudradaman I is an interesting one as it gives us a glimpse into water management in ancient India. In ancient times, one of the important functions of the government was the construction and maintenance of canals, reservoirs and tanks. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Rudradaman inscription is in fact one of the three significant inscriptions found on the same rock, dated to be the second in chronology. The oldest inscription is a version of Ashoka edicts, while the last and third inscription is of the Gupta Emperor Skandagupta. The Rudradaman inscription is near the top, above the Ashoka edict.
With reference to Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves, consider the following statements:
- These caves carved out during the reign of King Kharavela were dedicated to Hinduism.
- These caves provide one of the earliest archaeological evidence of Odissi dance.
- Udayagiri caves are famous for the Hathigumpha inscription which mentions the military exploits of Ashoka.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2 only
Explanation :
Udayagiri and Khandagiri Caves in Odisha date back to the 2nd–1st century BC and are dedicated to Jainism and carved out during the reign of King Kharavela. The number of existing caves at Udayagiri is 18, while Khandagiri has 15. Famous caves here include Hathi Gumpha, Rani Gumpha and Ganesh Gumpha. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The caves of Udayagiri-Khandagiri provide some of the earliest examples of Odissi dance. The dance form derives its name from the ‘Odra Nritya’ mentioned in Natya Shastra. It was primarily practised by the ‘maharis’ and patronised by the Jain King Kharavela. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Hathigumpha Inscription also known as Elephant Cave Inscription was inscribed by King Kharavela during the 2nd century BC. The Hathigumpha Inscription consists of 17 lines in Prakrit language and in Brahmi script. Hathigumpha Inscription at Udayagiri Caves is the main source of information about Kalinga ruler Kharavela. The Hathigumpha Inscription is like the history of Kharavela as a king, a conqueror, a patron of culture and a champion of Jainism. Statement 3 is not correct.
With reference to ancient Indian history, the term ‘Kammakara’ refers to:
Wage labour.
Explanation:
The Mahajanapada period (6th century BCE) witnessed the emergence of the idea of private property in land. The size of landholdings varied. Household labour was inadequate for owners of large landholdings, and herein lies the origin of the practice of employing wage labour. Buddhist texts refer to dasas, dasis, kammakaras working in households and on land. The words dasa and dasi for male and female slaves are known in Vedic texts. But kammakara is new and refers to someone who hired out his labour in return for wages. The compound word dasa-kammakara is also sometimes used for labourers. The Ashtadhyayi refers to vetan (wage) and vatanika (wage earner).
2 only
Explanation :
Sittannavasal is a small hamlet in the state of Tamil Nadu. Sittannavasal rock-cut cave temple, consisting of beautiful frescoes, sculptures of Jain Tirthankaras and stone beds atop a hillock, is believed to be an ancient abode for Jains when Jainism flourished in the region till the 10th century A.D. While the numerous dolmens, stone circles and other forms of megalithic relics in the vicinity of Sittannavasal indicate the prehistoric and proto-historic antiquity of the region, the village itself dates back to the 1st century B.C. They were patronized by Pandyas. In Sittanavasal, the paintings are visible on the ceilings of shrines, in verandas, and on the brackets. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Badami is in the State of Karnataka, not in Uttarakhand. Badami was the capital of the early Chalukyan dynasty which ruled the region from 543 to 598 CE. With the decline of the Vakataka rule, the Chalukyas established their power in the Deccan. The Chalukya king, Mangalesha, patronized the excavation of the Badami caves. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
The Bagh Caves, consisting of Buddhist mural paintings, are located in Madhya Pradesh. These rock-cut cave monuments are not natural but carved over a period of time during ancient India mostly during the Satavahana period. The Bagh caves, like those at Ajanta, were excavated by master craftsmen on a perpendicular sandstone rock face of a hill out of the original nine caves, only five have survived, all of which are viharas or resting places for monks, having a quadrangular plan. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Which of the following is not correct with reference to the craft in India?
Panchmura Horse is one of the best specimens of pottery work.
Explanation :
The practice of ivory carving has been prevalent in India since the Vedic period where it was referred to as ‘danta’ probably as a signifier to the elephant’s tusk. Recent excavations have shown that during the Harappan period, ivory and objects made of ivory-like ivory dice, etc. were exported from India to Turkmenistan, Afghanistan and parts of the Persian Gulf.
Terracotta literally means ‘Baked earth’ and is a type of ceramic clay that has been semi–fired. One of the best specimens of terracotta craftsmanship is the Bankura Horse, the Panchmura Horse and the Terracotta temples situated in the Bankura district in the state of West Bengal.
The earliest non–ferrous metals used by man were copper and tin and these two were mixed to form Bronze. The earliest literary evidence about the different methods of casting bronze can be found in Matasya Purana. Later texts like Nagarjuna’s Ras Ratnakar also mentioned metal purity and distillation of zinc.
Most of the major metal crafts use techniques like embossing or Repousse that creates a raised design in relief. Other crafts use the technique of engraving, which is created by scratching and cutting lines into the other metal. Most of the metalwork is used for making pots and pans like the badla, which are semi-circular or rounded pots made in Marwar in Rajasthan by using zinc.
He was the founder of Newspapers like Prabuddh Bharat, Janata, and Mooknayak. The papers strongly criticized Congress and right-wing Hindu nationalists for their indifference to the question of caste. Many of his newspapers faced lack of funds due to his firm position on the issue of advertisement. He was
B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation :
In 1920, Ambedkar entered the world of newspapers. He started his first newspaper, Mooknayak, in 1920. Later, he went on to found three more newspapers – Bahishkrut Bharat, Janata, and Prabuddh Bharat.
The papers strongly criticized Congress and right-wing Hindu nationalists for their indifference to the question of caste. Problems of a society divided by caste were often expressed in the writings of Mooknayak and Bahishkrut Bharat.
Many of his newspapers were cursed by a lack of funds due to his firm position on the issue of advertisement. The very reason why Mooknayak and Bahishkrut Bharat were eventually shut down. In one of his editorials, he criticized newspapers that encouraged irresponsible advertisements which upheld and perpetuated inequality and ritualism. He pointed out that he would rather prefer publishing no advertisements than publishing socially immoral and vulgar advertisements.
Consider the following statements regarding the geographical position of Iran:
- Iran is bordered by the Caspian Sea to the north and the Arabian Sea to the south.
- The Zagros Mountains run along Iran’s western border, separating it from Iraq.
- Iran shares a border with Afghanistan, Pakistan, and India to the east.
- The Strait of Hormuz, a key maritime chokepoint, lies between Iran and Oman.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation :
Hamas leader Ismail Haniyeh was assassinated in the Iranian capital Tehran. The 62-year-old leader, who had been managing Hamas’s political operations from exile in Qatar, reportedly died in what Hamas described as an Israeli “strike” on his residence.
The Israeli military has not commented on the incident so far.
Iran is bordered by the Caspian Sea to the north and the Arabian Sea (through the Gulf of Oman and the Persian Gulf) to the south. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Zagros Mountains run along much of Iran’s western border, creating a natural barrier between Iran and Iraq. So, statement 2 is correct.
While Iran shares a border with Afghanistan and Pakistan to the east, it does not share a border with India. So, statement 3 is not correct.
The Strait of Hormuz is a strategic waterway that separates Iran and Oman, making it a crucial point for global oil shipments. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
During a period of heavy rainfall, a hilly region experiences a significant increase in landslides, leading to property damage and loss of life. Which of the following factors is most likely to have contributed to the occurrence of landslides in this scenario?
Steep slopes in the hilly terrain, combined with the saturation of soil due to prolonged rainfall, increasing the likelihood of slope failure and landslides.
Explanation :
Wayanad, recently reeling from the deadly landslide disaster, was among several places in Kerala identified by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in 2023 as being highly susceptible to landslides based on key socio-economic parameters.
In the Landslide Atlas of India, prepared by the National Remote Sensing Centre (a unit of ISRO) in February 2023, Wayanad ranked 13th among 147 districts across 17 States and two Union Territories.
Steep slopes, common in hilly terrain, coupled with prolonged rainfall, lead to saturation of the soil, reducing its stability and increasing the risk of slope failure and landslides.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements with respect to Sovereign Gold Bonds Scheme (SGBS):
- SGBS offers a way for investors to buy gold in a paper or digital form rather than in physical form.
- These bonds are issued by the Department of Investment under Ministry of Finance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Following the Budget announcement to cut the import duty on gold, the government plans to make a final decision regarding the future of the Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBS) scheme in September.
About SGBS
The Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBS) scheme is an initiative by the Government of India, launched in November 2015.
It offers a way for investors to buy gold in a paper or digital form rather than physical gold. So, statement 1 is correct.
Objective
The main objective of this scheme was to reduce the demand for physical gold and shift a part of the gold imported every year for investment purpose into financial savings.
Issuance
Bonds are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the government. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Article 341 of the Constitution:
- The President of India has the authority to specify the Scheduled Castes in any State or Union Territory.
- Parliament has the power to include any caste from the Scheduled Castes list through a law.
- Once a caste is included in the Scheduled Castes list, it cannot be removed.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
In a significant 6-1 majority ruling, a seven-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court declared that Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) do not form a socially homogeneous group.
The court affirmed that states have the authority to sub-classify SCs/STs to provide reservations for the more disadvantaged segments within this category.
This decision allows states to ensure that reservation benefits reach those SC/ST communities that are less privileged and have been historically marginalized within the broader SC/ST category.
Article 341(1) empowers the President of India, with respect to any State or Union territory, to specify the castes, races, or tribes, or parts of or groups within castes, races, or tribes which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that state or union territory. So, statement 1 is correct.
As per Article 341(2), Parliament has the authority to make a law to include or exclude any caste from the list of Scheduled Castes specified by the President. So, statement 2 is correct.
A caste can be removed from the Scheduled Castes list by a law made by Parliament. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Consider the following statements:
- The 8-degree channel separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands.
- The 9-degree channel separates the Lakshadweep Islands from the Minicoy Islands.
- Duncan Passage separates Rutland Island to the north and Little Andaman to the south.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
Explanation:
The Central government’s Rs 72,000 crore Great Nicobar Island (GNI) infrastructure project includes constructing an airport for civilian and defense use, an international container transshipment terminal, and a township.
The project has faced legal challenges in the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the Calcutta High Court.
Recently, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation Limited (ANIIDCO), the project’s implementing agency, submitted conclusions from a high-powered committee (HPC) formed by NGT in 2023.
The HPC concluded that the proposed transshipment port does not fall within the Island Coastal Regulation Zone-IA (ICRZ-IA), where ports are prohibited.
The 10-degree channel, not the 8-degree channel, separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The 9-degree channel separates the Lakshadweep Islands from the Minicoy Islands So, statement 2 is correct.
Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It separates Rutland Island to the north and Little Andaman to the south. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, only two statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
A 16-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea (absence of menstruation) and normal development of secondary sexual characteristics. Upon further examination, her karyotype is found to be 46,XY. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Swyer syndrome
Consider the following statements regarding the organ donation in India:
- As per the Government’s new guidelines on organ transplantation, people over the age of 65 years cannot receive organs from the deceased donors.
- States can enforce the domicile criterion for registering those seeking organs from deceased donor for transplant procedures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the following statements accurately describes the role and functions of the National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO) in India?
It manages the National Organ and Tissue Donation and Transplantation Registry, including a National Waiting List of patients requiring organ transplants.
Consider the following statements regarding the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT):
- It was launched in 2015 to provide basic civic amenities like water supply, sewerage, etc.
- The focus of the Mission is on infrastructure creation that has a direct link to provision of better services to the citizens.
- It covers 500 cities that includes all cities and towns with a population of over one lakh with notified Municipalities.
- One of the objectives of AMRUT is to reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-motorized transport.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
All four
Explanation:
Under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) 2.0, cities are expected to launch projects worth Rs 5,000 crore. These projects will focus on water supply, sewage treatment, and the rejuvenation of water bodies and parks. This initiative is part of the current government’s 100-day agenda during its third term.
AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) scheme was launched in June 2015, with its 2.0 version launched on October 1, 2021.
AMRUT was launched in 2015 to provide basic civic amenities like water supply, sewerage, urban transport, parks as to improve the quality of life for all especially the poor and the disadvantaged. So, statement 1 is correct.
The focus of the Mission is on infrastructure creation that has a direct link to provision of better services to the citizens. So, statement 2 is correct.
The objective of the mission is to:
ensure that every household has access to a tap with assured supply of water and a sewerage connection
increase the amenity value of cities by developing greenery and well-maintained open spaces e.g., parks and
reduce pollution by switching to public transport or constructing facilities for non-motorized transport e.g., walking and cycling. So, statement 4 is correct.
The Mission covers covering 500 cities that includes all cities and towns with a population of over one lakh with notified Municipalities. So, statement 3 is correct.
Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the acetolactate synthase (ALS) gene in agricultural biotechnology?
It is targeted by certain herbicides, and mutations in this gene can confer herbicide resistance to plants.
Explanation :
Agricultural scientists and policymakers have long sought methods to cultivate rice and wheat with reduced water usage and without burning leftover straw or extensive land preparation.
In this context, the recent breakthroughs are silver lining in rice and wheat production as these involve breeding rice and wheat varieties/hybrids that tolerate the herbicide Imazethapyr, which controls competing weeds.
The acetolactate synthase (ALS) gene encodes an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the biosynthesis of branched-chain amino acids in plants.
This gene is the target of several herbicides, such as imidazolinones and sulfonylureas.
Mutations in the ALS gene can lead to herbicide resistance, allowing the plants to survive herbicide application, which is an important trait in agricultural biotechnology for developing herbicide-resistant crop varieties.
The ALS gene is not primarily involved in photosynthesis. It does not play a role in nitrogen fixation. It is not associated with fruit ripening.
Arrange the following Indian states in ascending order of their length of boundary shared with Bangladesh:
- Assam
- Tripura
- West Bengal
- Meghalaya
Select the correct code using the options below
1 - 4 - 2 - 3
Which of the following laboratory chemicals is commonly used as a pH indicator and turns pink in basic solutions?
Phenolphthalein
Explanation :
Phenolphthalein is a pH indicator commonly used in titrations. It is colorless in acidic solutions and turns pink in basic solutions, typically above a pH of 8.2. This makes it a valuable tool for determining the endpoint in acid-base titrations.
Methyl Orange changes color from red in acidic solutions to yellow in alkaline solutions.
Bromothymol Blue changes color from yellow in acidic solutions to blue in basic solutions.
Litmus turns red in acidic solutions and blue in basic solutions but does not specifically turn pink.
Consider the following statements regarding the Capital Gains:
- Any gain incurred from the sale of a house property may be subject to tax under the Capital Gains head.
- Capital gains or losses may arise from sale of different types of capital assets such as stocks, mutual funds, bonds and other investments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
Following the criticism over the Budget proposal to remove the indexation benefit on long-term capital gains (LTCG), the government has decided to offer taxpayers a choice.
For properties acquired before July 23, 2024, taxpayers can either pay LTCG tax at 20% with the indexation benefit or pay LTCG tax at the new rate of 12.5% without the indexation benefit.
This change comes from amendments made by the government in the Finance Bill.
Capital Gains Tax
A capital gains tax is a tax imposed on the sale of an asset. It is calculated as the difference between the sale price of the property and its purchase price.
Any gain incurred from the sale of a house property may be subject to tax under the ‘Capital Gains’ head. So, statement 1 is correct.
Similarly, capital gains or losses may arise from sale of different types of capital assets such as stocks, mutual funds, bonds and other investments. So, statement 2 is correct.
Types
Depending of the period an asset is held with the owner, there are two types of capital gains - Short-term Capital Gains and Long-term Capital Gains.
Consider the following statements regarding the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):
- NTCA was constituted under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio chairman of the NTCA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1 only
Explanation :
Chhattisgarh has approved the creation of the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve, the third largest in India.
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has been constituted under section 38 L (1) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. So, statement 1 is correct.
Further, as per the section 38 L, sub section 2 of the said Act, the authority consists of the Minister in charge of the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Chairperson), the Minister of State in the Ministry of Environment and Forests (as Vice-Chairperson), three members of Parliament, Secretary, Ministry of Environment and Forests and other members. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the International Olympic Committee (IOC):
- The IOC is responsible for selecting the host cities for both the Summer and Winter Olympic Games.
- It is an organization established by the United Nations to oversee international sports competitions.
- The President of the IOC is elected for a term of four years and can serve a maximum of two consecutive terms.
- The IOC has the authority to include or exclude sports from the Olympic Games program.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1 and 4 only
Which of the following statements regarding the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is correct?
It operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and is the national regulatory body for Indian pharmaceuticals and medical devices.
Explanation :
Government has waived the requirement for clinical trials of certain categories of drugs in India if they are approved in the US, the UK, Japan, Australia, Canada and the European Union.
Under the Drug and Cosmetics Act, the regulation of manufacture, sale and distribution of Drugs is primarily the concern of the State authorities while the Central Authorities are responsible for approval of new drugs, clinical trials in the country, laying down the standards for drugs, control over the quality of imported drugs, coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organisations and providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and serves as the national regulatory body for pharmaceuticals and medical devices in India. It ensures the safety, efficacy, and quality of drugs, cosmetics, and medical devices.
It is responsible for regulating both pharmaceuticals (drugs) and medical devices, not just medical devices.
CDSCO does play a role in the regulation of the import and export of drugs in India, ensuring that only approved drugs enter or leave the country.
Standing deposit facility
a window for banks to borrow from the central bank in an emergency situation
Consider the following statements regarding the Clean Plant Programme (CPP):
- CPP, proposed by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, aims to enhance the quality and productivity of fruit crops across the nation.
- It will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board in association with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
- It will also actively engage women farmers in its planning and implementation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All three
Explanation :
The Cabinet has approved the Clean Plant Programme (CPP), under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH).
Clean Plant Programme (CPP)
The programme, proposed by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, aims to enhance the quality and productivity of fruit crops across the nation. So, statement 1 is correct.
It was earlier announced in the Budget speech by finance minister in February 2023.
The CPP will address virus infections in horticultural crops, affecting both productivity and quality.
Implementation of the programme
The programme will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board in association with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). So, statement 2 is correct.
Key components of the programme
Establishment of nine world-class Clean Plant Centres (CPCs) across India, equipped with advanced diagnostic therapeutics and tissue culture labs; and
implementation of a robust certification system under the Seeds Act 1966.
Other features of the programme
CPP includes infrastructure support to large-scale nurseries for efficient multiplication of clean planting material.
The programme will prioritise affordable access to clean plant material for all farmers, regardless of their landholding size or socioeconomic status.
It will also actively engage women farmers in its planning and implementation. So, statement 3 is correct.
An individual has been arrested under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) for alleged involvement in a money laundering case. Under twin conditions of bail of Section 45 of the PMLA, which of the following factors will primarily influence the court’s decision to grant bail to the accused?
The likelihood that the accused will not commit an offense while on bail.
Explanation :
The Supreme Court granted bail to former Delhi Deputy Chief Minister Manish Sisodia.
While granting the bail, the apex court emphasized that the delay in trial and a long period of pre-trial incarceration is a ground to bypass the stringent bail conditions in money laundering cases. The Court stated that under these circumstances, the right to bail should be considered as part of Section 45 of the PMLA.
The twin conditions of bail under Section 45 of the PMLA pose stringent thresholds for an accused.
For one, the person has to prove in court that he or she is prima facie innocent of the offence.
Secondly, the accused should be able to convince the judge he would not commit any offence while on bail.
Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of judges:
- No person shall be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court unless he/she has attained 45 years of age.
- Till the First Judges Case the power to appoint a judge rested with the executive.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
2 only
Explanation :
Article 124(3) of the Indian constitution prescribes following criteria to be appointed as a judge of Supreme Court:
he must be a citizen of India, and
Must have 5 years of experience as a judge in the High Court; or
Must have 10 years of experience as an advocate in High Court; or
is in the opinion of the president, a distinguished Jurist.
It should be noted that Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the SC. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The First Judge Case held that the word consultation mentioned in the Constitution does not mean concurrence. It only implies exchange of views. By this, the First Judge Case gave primacy to the executive. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following is not the objective of the WTO?
To improve the Balance of Payment situation of the member countries
Explanation :
WTO is not responsible of the improvement in the Balance of Payment of the member countries.
1G and 5G
Which one of the following statements best describes the concept of short selling in the stock market?
Borrowing shares to sell them immediately with the intention of buying them back at a lower price in the future.
Consider the following statements regarding the Civil Registration System (CRS) in India:
- CRS is responsible for the registration of births in India.
- Registration of births and deaths under the CRS is mandatory by law.
- The office of the Registrar General of India is responsible for the implementation and monitoring of the CRS.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1, 2 and 3
Consider the following statements regarding Charru Mussels (Mytella strigata):
- They are native to the coastal regions of South America.
- They are considered an invasive species in India, posing a threat to local biodiversity.
- They primarily thrive in freshwater environments.
- Their spread in Indian waters has been linked to ballast water discharge from ships.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only three
All four pairs
Explanation :
Revenue deficit: The excess of expenses over receipts on revenue account. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
Effective revenue deficit is the difference between a government’s revenue deficit and the grants it gives to create capital assets. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
Fiscal Deficit is an indication of the total borrowings needed by the government. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
A primary deficit is the difference between a government’s current year’s fiscal deficit and the interest payments on its previous borrowings. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) declared monkeypox a Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC). Which of the following statements best captures the implications of this declaration for global public health measures?
It signals a coordinated international response, including enhanced surveillance, resource mobilization, and public health interventions to control the spread.
A company based in India plans to acquire a foreign firm by making an outward direct investment. Under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), which of the following steps must the company take to ensure compliance with the regulations?
The company must ensure that the investment is within the prescribed limits under the automatic route and report the transaction to the RBI within a specified period.
Explanation :
The Department of Economic Affairs has amended the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, 2019, to support the global expansion of Indian companies through cross-border share swaps, mergers, and acquisitions.
These changes, following the Union Budget’s focus on simplifying foreign investment rules, aim to help Indian companies grow internationally.
FEMA allows Indian companies to make outward direct investments under the automatic route, subject to certain limits. The company must report the transaction to the RBI within the prescribed time frame.
Consider the following statements regarding the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV):
- It is the new small satellite launch vehicle developed by ISRO to cater for the launch of small satellites.
- It is a three-stage launch vehicle.
- SSLV missions are useful to launch satellites weighing anywhere between 10 to 500kg into the Low Earth Orbit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1, 2 and 3
Explanation :
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the third and final developmental flight of the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.
The SSLV-D3 placed the Earth observation satellite EOS-08 precisely into orbit. This also marks the completion of ISRO/Department of Space’s SSLV Development Project.
About
SSLV is the new small satellite launch vehicle developed by ISRO to cater for the launch of small satellites. So, statement 1 is correct.
It has a three-stage launch vehicle, having a lift-off weight of about 120 tonnes and is 34 metres in length and 2 metres in diameter. So, statement 2 is correct
It is a 3 stage Launch Vehicle configured with three Solid Propulsion Stages and liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) as a terminal stage.
Uses
The SSLV missions are useful to launch small-sized satellites weighing anywhere between 10 to 500kg into the Low Earth Orbit. So, statement 3 is correct.
Going by their size and weight, these are typically referred to as mini, micro or nano satellites.
Which of the following statements best reflects the concept of the “Global South” in contemporary geopolitical and economic discourse?
The Global South is a term used to describe developing and low-income countries that often share common challenges related to economic development, social inequality, and historical colonialism.
A user is trying to unsubscribe from an online service they no longer need. However, when they attempt to cancel their subscription, they are directed through multiple pages that present confusing options, misleading language, and prompts that encourage them to stay subscribed. This design technique is an example of:
Dark pattern, where the design intentionally complicates the process to discourage user actions
Explanation :
Dark patterns refer to deceptive design techniques used in user interfaces to manipulate or deceive users into taking certain actions or making specific choices online.
Such patterns are unethical user interface designs that deliberately make Internet experience harder or even exploit the users.
These patterns exploit cognitive biases and behavioural tendencies to trick or mislead users, often for the benefit of the platform or business implementing them.
Consider the following statements:
- India and Bangladesh signed an extradition treaty in 2013, amended in 2016 to streamline the process of exchanging fugitives.
- The treaty enabled India to successfully extradite Anup Chetia, a top leader of the United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA), from Bangladesh in 2015.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
Explanation :
India and Bangladesh signed an extradition treaty in 2013, amended in 2016 to streamline the process of exchanging fugitives. So, statement 1 is correct.
The treaty was established due to concerns over Indian insurgents, particularly from the North East, hiding in Bangladesh, and Bangladeshi militants.
Many Bangladeshi militants such as those from Jamaat-ul-Mujahideen Bangladesh (JMB), sought refuge in Indian states like West Bengal and Assam.
The treaty enabled India to successfully extradite Anup Chetia, a top leader of the United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA), from Bangladesh in 2015. So, statement 2 is correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Senior Advocate in India:
- A senior advocate is not permitted to appear without an Advocate-on-record or any junior.
- A senior advocate can draft pleadings or affidavits before any court.
- The process of designation of a senior advocate is governed largely by the existing tradition as there is no rule/regulation in this regard.
How many of the above statements given above are correct?
Only one
Explanation :
Recently, the Supreme Court designated 39 lawyers, including 10 women, as senior advocates.
These designations were made under new guidelines issued by a three-judge Bench in May 2023, which revised the 2018 guidelines for granting the ‘senior advocate’ designation.
Under Section 16 of the Advocates Act 1961 two classes of advocates are classified; Senior Advocate and Junior or those who are not designated as seniors.
Section 16(2) of the Advocates Act, 1961 and Rule 2(a) of Order IV of the Supreme Court Rules, 1966 provide certain guidelines to be followed for the designation of a senior advocate. So, statement 3 is not correct.
A senior advocate is not permitted to appear without an Advocate-on-record or any junior. So, statement 1 is correct.
He/she is refrained from drafting pleadings or affidavits before any court or authority mentioned under Section 30 of the act. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Consider the following statements regarding Cooperatives in India:
- The item “Cooperative Societies” is in the concurrent List of Indian Constitution.
- Provisions of the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912 regulate the formation of cooperative society on pan-India basis.
- A new ministry of cooperation is created for cooperative societies in the country.
- 97th Constitutional amendment act had made the right to form a cooperative as fundamental right.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Only two
Explanation :
The item “Cooperative Societies” is in the State List (via entry 32). So, statement 1 is not correct.
In India, a cooperative society can be formed under provisions of the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912. However, this is valid for those states/UTs which have not enacted their own laws to regulate these societies. Hence, this act does not regulate on pan-India basis. So, statement 2 is not correct.
In July 2021, a new ministry of cooperation was created for cooperative societies in the country. So, statement 3 is correct.
The 97th constitutional amendment was passed by Parliament in December 2011. It amended Article 19(1)(c) to give protection to the cooperatives by making it a fundamental right. So, statement 4 is correct.
Consider the following statements:
- Population census is listed in Union List of Seventh Schedule in Indian Constitution.
- Census is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948.
- The first synchronous census was taken under British rule in 1881.
- The responsibility of conducting the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
All four
Explanation :
The Union government has not yet decided on conducting the next Census but is actively discussing the possibility of including caste enumeration.
About Census
Population Census provides basic statistics on state of human resources, demography, culture and economic structure at local, regional and national level.
Beginning in the year 1872, when the first census was conducted non-synchronously, the census enumeration exercise in India is carried out in every 10 years.
The first synchronous census was taken under British rule in 1881, by W.C. Plowden, Census Commissioner of India. So, statement 3 is correct.
The responsibility of conducting the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs. So, statement 4 is correct.
Legal/Constitutional basis of Census
Population census is listed in Union List (entry 69) of Seventh Schedule in Indian Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct.
Census is conducted under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948. So, statement 2 is correct.
Which of the following countries does not share a land border with Ukraine?
Austria
Explanation :
Prime Minister of India arrived Warsaw for the first leg of his two-nation visit to Poland and Ukraine.
This also marks the first-ever visit by an Indian PM to Poland in 45 years.
Ukraine is bordered by the Black Sea and the Sea of Azov to the south, Russia to the east and north, Belarus to the north, Poland, Slovakia, and Hungary to the west, and Romania and Moldova to the south-west.
Consider the following statements about the geographical location of Poland:
- It shares a northern border with the Baltic Sea.
- Poland is landlocked, with no access to any major body of water.
- Poland shares its longest border with Germany.
- Poland is located in Central Europe and shares borders with seven countries.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1 and 4 only
Explanation :
Poland has a northern coastline along the Baltic Sea. So, statement 1 is correct.
Poland is not landlocked; it has access to the Baltic Sea. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Poland’s longest border is with Czech Republic, not Germany. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Poland is located in Central Europe and shares borders with seven countries: Germany, Czech Republic, Slovakia, Ukraine, Belarus, Lithuania, and Russia (Kaliningrad Oblast). So, statement 4 is correct.
A doctor prescribes a Fixed-Dose Combination (FDC) drug to a patient with both high blood pressure and high cholesterol. What should the doctor primarily consider when prescribing this FDC drug instead of separate medications?
The potential risk of drug-interactions within the FDC compared to separate medications
Explanation :
FDC drugs combine multiple active ingredients, which can be helpful for conditions like tuberculosis and diabetes but may also deliver unnecessary or harmful components.
About FDC:
Combination products, also known as Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs), are combinations of two or more active drugs in a single dosage form.
They are also referred to as cocktail drugs.
The Food and Drug Administration, USA defines a combination product as ‘a product composed of any combination of a drug and a device or a biological product and a device or a drug and a biological product or a drug, device, and a biological product’.
It is widely accepted that most drugs should be formulated as single compounds.
The doctor must ensure that the combination of drugs in the FDC does not cause adverse drug interactions and is safe for the patient.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Consider the following currencies:
- U.S. dollar
- Euro
- Chinese renminbi
- Japanese yen
- British pound sterling
Which of the above currencies form the Special Drawing Rights (SDR) basket?
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation :
The value of the SDR is based on a basket of five currencies. These currencies are - the U.S. dollar, the euro, the Chinese renminbi, the Japanese yen, and the British pound sterling.
The value of the SDR is determined on daily basis. It is based on weighted market exchange rates of the basket currencies.
Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the BHISHM Cubes, recently given by India to Ukraine?
A mobile hospital aimed at providing emergency medical care
Explanation :
Prime Minister of India met Ukrainian President in Kyiv, marking a significant diplomatic milestone amidst the Russia-Ukraine war.
PM of India presented four BHISHM Cubes to Ukraine, which include medical equipment and supplies for emergency treatment and surgery.
BHISM stands for Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita & Maitri. It is a mobile hospital aimed at providing emergency medical care to Ukraine.
Bhishm was initiated under the umbrella of Project Aarogya Maitri, a programme to provide crucial medical supplies to developing nations for humanitarian aid.
The purpose of the initiative is to deliver all basic facilities and equipment for providing emergency medical care in an easy to use and rapidly deployable manner.
In the context of Geostationary Satellites (GSAT), which of the following technical challenges must be addressed to ensure continuous and reliable communication services?
Managing latency issues due to the satellite’s high orbital altitude
Explanation :
One of the main limitations is that satellites in geostationary orbit are limited to a specific area on the Earth’s surface, typically within a range of about 40 degrees north and south of the equator. This means that they cannot provide coverage to areas near the poles, which can be a disadvantage for certain types of satellite missions.
Geostationary satellites orbit at a high altitude (~35,786 km above the Earth’s equator), which introduces latency in signal transmission, a significant challenge for real-time communication services.
Which of the following statements regarding Left Wing Extremism (LWE) is correct?
It often involves armed struggle against the state and seeks to establish a classless society through revolutionary means.
Explanation :
Union Home Minister declared that the final battle against Maoists is imminent and will be ruthless, with the goal of eradicating Left-Wing Extremism (LWE) in India by March 2026.
After a meeting in Raipur with officials from Chhattisgarh and neighboring states, the minister emphasized the need for a strong strategy to deliver a decisive blow to LWE, which he described as the biggest challenge to India’s democracy.
Left Wing Extremism typically involves armed struggle against the state and aims to establish a classless society through revolutionary means.
It opposes hierarchical structures and centralized authority, seeking to dismantle existing power structures and redistribute resources.
Consider the following statements regarding the New Pension Scheme (NPS):
- It offers pensions to government employees on the basis of their last drawn salary.
- In NPS, contributions are defined, but benefits depend on the market.
- Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) is the nodal agency responsible for the implementation of NPS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2 and 3 only
Explanation :
The Union Cabinet has approved a new Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) for Central government employees, offering an assured pension of 50% of the average salary drawn over the last 12 months of service.
The UPS is similar to the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) which guarantees government employees a lifelong monthly pension of 50% of their last drawn salary.
This scheme will be optional for existing employees under the National Pension System (NPS).
As a substitute of OPS, the NPS was introduced by the Central government in April, 2004.
This pension programme is open to employees from the public, private and even the unorganised sectors except those from the armed forces.
The scheme encourages people to invest in a pension account at regular intervals during the course of their employment.
After retirement, the subscribers can take out a certain percentage of the corpus.
The beneficiary receives the remaining amount as a monthly pension, post-retirement.
Hence, pension is not determined on the basis of last drawn salary. So, statement 1 is not correct.
NPS doesn’t guarantee fix returns as it is subjected to market volatility. In NPS, contributions are defined, but benefits depend on the market. So, statement 2 is correct.
Nodal agency: Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA). So, statement 3 is correct.
The Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) in India is tasked with combating drug trafficking and abuse. Which of the following scenarios would most likely require the NCB’s intervention, and why?
A large consignment of synthetic drugs being smuggled into India through an international border
Which of the following statements accurately reflects the criteria and obligations associated with Ramsar Sites under the Ramsar Convention?
Designation as a Ramsar Site involves a binding commitment to maintain the ecological character of the site, which includes conducting periodic reviews, reporting on conservation measures and integrating site management into national policies.
Consider the following statements regarding Vaccine-Derived Polio Virus (VDPV):
- VDPV can arise from the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) when the weakened virus in the vaccine mutates and regains neurovirulence.
- VDPV is primarily a risk in countries with high vaccination coverage and effective polio surveillance systems.
- The risk of VDPV can be mitigated by transitioning from OPV to Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) in routine immunization schedules.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
1 and 3 only
Consider the following statements regarding Unified Lending Interface (ULI):
- ULI will enable a seamless, consent-based flow of digital information, including state land records, from multiple sources to lenders.
- It is designed for a plug-and-play approach to enable quicker access to credit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Both 1 and 2
Which of the following tests are used by the Election Commission of India to decide upon the issue of allocation of original name and symbol of a political party in case of split.
- Test of Aims and Objects of the Party Constitution
- Test of Party Constitution
- Test of Majority
How many of the above test(s) is/are correct?
All three
Explanation :
EC analyses three tests mentioned in the Sadiq Ali case (supra) before deciding on the issue. The three tests are:
Test of Aims and Objects of the Party Constitution
Test of Party Constitution, and
Test of Majority
Which of the following statements accurately describes a key provision of the Prohibition of Child Marriage (PCM) Act, 2006, in India?
The Act provides for the appointment of Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) to enforce the provisions and report violations.
Explanation :
The Himachal Pradesh Assembly has passed the Prohibition of Child Marriage (Himachal Pradesh Amendment) Bill, 2024. The Bill proposed to raise the minimum age of marriage for women from 18 to 21 years.
In order to do so, the bill amended the Prohibition of Child Marriage (PCM) Act, which was passed by Parliament in 2006.
The PCM Act sets the minimum legal age for marriage at 18 years for females and 21 years for males.
The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, mandates the appointment of Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) who are responsible for enforcing the Act and reporting violations.
The PCM Act considers child marriages invalid and illegal, regardless of registration.
The Act holds parents and guardians accountable for violations.
Consider the following pollutants:
- SO2
- CO2
- O3
- NH3
Which of the above-mentioned pollutant(s) is/are monitored for determining National Air Quality Index?
1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation :
A study by the Energy Policy Institute at the University of Chicago (EPIC) found that favorable meteorological conditions and slightly reduced emissions led to a decrease in PM 2.5 pollution in India between 2021 and 2022. This, in turn, has contributed to a one-year increase in the country’s average life expectancy.
National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in October 2014 to disseminate information on air quality in an easily understandable form for the general public.
The measurement of air quality is based on eight pollutants, namely, PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb.
Hence, CO2 is not included for the measurement of air quality.
Consider the following statements regarding the gender budget in India:
- India introduced gender budgeting in 2005-06.
- The Ministry of Women and Child Development spearheaded this initiative, which was supported by the Ministry of Finance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Both 1 and 2
A naval strategist is assessing the advantages of deploying a nuclear-powered submarine in a maritime security operation. Which of the following factors is most likely to be emphasized as a key operational benefit of using a nuclear submarine over a conventional diesel-electric submarine?
Increased speed and operational range without the need for frequent refueling
Explanation :
India has got its second nuclear submarine with the commissioning of INS Arighaat into the Navy. INS Arighaat will join its predecessor INS Arihant strengthening the country’s nuclear triad — the ability to fire nuclear missiles from platforms in the air, land and sea.
Nuclear submarines have the significant advantage of high speed and extended operational range due to their ability to operate underwater for prolonged periods without refueling, which is a key benefit over diesel-electric submarines.
With reference to the draft Broadcasting Services (Regulation) Bill 2024, consider the following
statements:
- It seeks to replace the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act 1995 and is released by the Ministry
of Electronics and Information Technology.
- It seeks to regulate the broadcast of news and current affairs programmes including print news.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation :
The latest draft of the Broadcasting Services (Regulation) Bill 2024 seeks to replace the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act 1995 and is released by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The draft Bill seeks to regulate the broadcast of news and current affairs programmes (excluding print news), as they will have to comply with the prescribed programme code and advertisement code. So, statement 2 is not correct.
