December 2024 Flashcards

Question

Consider the following statements regarding Jim Corbett National Park: 1. It is located at the foothills of the Himalayas in Himachal Pradesh. 2. It is the first national park of India and the first place where Project Tiger was launched. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 1

2 only Explanation : A study has concluded that the drones and cameras originally planted in the Jim Corbett National Park for conservation activities, such as monitoring animals, are being deliberately misused by local government officials and men to surveil women without consent. About Jim Corbett National Park: It is located at the foothills of the Himalayas in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. It is the first national park of India, established in 1936. It was named Hailey National Park then. In 1957, the park was rechristened Corbett National Park in memory of the late Jim Corbett, a great naturalist and eminent conservationist. Known for housing the endangered Bengal tiger, Corbett National Park is part of the larger Corbett Tiger Reserve. It was the first place where Project Tiger was launched in 1973. The park is spread over an area of more than 500 sq.km. The park encompasses the Patli Dun valley formed by the Ramganga river. The terrain is undulating with several valleys. The rivers Ramganga, Pallaen, and Sonanadi flow through the valleys. Flora: In general, the vegetation comprises sal and mixed forests, interspersed with grasslands and riparian vegetation. The grasslands are locally known as ‘Chaur’, which are an outcome of abandoned settlements or past clearings. Evergreen Sal and its combined trees, the Sheesham and the Kanju, are found extensively on the ridges. One plant, (actually a weed), which is a major irritant to the reserve authorities and is widespread in the jungle, is the Lantana. Fauna: Tigers and elephants are the charismatic mammals, besides a large array of co-predators (leopards, small carnivores), ungulates (sambar, hog deer, spotted deer), birds, reptiles (gharials, crocodiles), and fishes. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.indiatvnews.com/news/india/cameras-installed-in-jim-corbett-national-park-misused-to-intimidate-women-says-study-surveillance-techniques-uttarakhand-investigation-latest-updates-2024-11-30-964126

Answer 2

Malaysia Explanation : The 4th edition of Exercise HARIMAU SHAKTI commenced at Bentong camp, Pahang district, Malaysia. It is a joint military exercise conducted between India and Malaysia. Indian contingent comprising personnel is being represented by a Battalion of MAHAR Regiment. It is an annual training event conducted alternatively in India and Malaysia. Last edition was conducted in Nov 2023 at Umroi Cantonment in Meghalaya, India. Aim of the Joint Exercise is to enhance joint military capability of both sides to undertake counter insurgency operations in jungle terrain under Chapter VII of the United Nations Mandate. The exercise will focus on operations in the jungle environment. The exercise will be conducted in two phases. The first phase will be focused on cross training between both the Armies including lectures, demonstrations, and practices of various drills in jungle terrain. In the final phase both the Armies will take active part in a simulated exercise, wherein troops will execute various drills including Anti-MT Ambush, Occupation of Harbour, Carrying out Recce Patrol, Ambush and an Attack on area taken over by the terrorists. Significance: It will enable both sides to share best practices in Tactics, Techniques and Procedures of conducting joint operations. It will facilitate developing inter-operability, bonhomie and camaraderie between the two armies. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2079649

Answer 3

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The 14th Asia-Oceania Meteorological Satellite Users' Conference (AOMSUC-14) is being held from December 4-6, 2024, in New Delhi, India. The first AOMSUC was held in Beijing, China, in 2010. Since then, it has been hosted annually in various locations across Asia-Oceania. The AOMSUC has become a premier event for meteorologists, earth scientists, satellite operators, and students from across the region and the globe. This year’s conference is hosted by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), Ministry of Earth Sciences, and it will feature high-quality oral and poster presentations, panel discussions, and a training workshop focused on applying current satellite data for meteorological and climatological applications. The conference aims to: Promote the importance of satellite observations Advance satellite remote sensing science Provide a platform for dialogue and collaboration between satellite operators and users Inform the community about the current status and future plans of international space programs Encourage the development of new technologies for weather satellite sensing Engage young scientists in the field Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2079584

Answer 4

Only Two Explanation : Recently, artificial intelligence was used by the researchers to discover more mysterious Nazca geoglyphs in Peru. Nazca Lines are a group of geoglyphs, or large designs made on the ground by creators using elements of the landscape such as stones, gravel, dirt or lumber. Location: These are located in the arid Peruvian coastal plain, some 400 km south of Lima. The Nazca Lines were discovered by hikers in the mid 1920s and later on Peruvian archaeologist Toribio Mejia Xesspe studied them systematically in 1926. These are believed to be the greatest known archaeological enigma, owing to their size, continuity, nature and quality. They depict creatures from both the natural world and the human imagination. They include animals such as the spider, hummingbird, monkey, lizard, pelican and even a killer whale. Ancient artisans also depicted plants, trees, flowers and oddly shaped fantastic figures, as well as geometric motifs, such as wavy lines, triangles, spirals and rectangles. The vast majority of the lines date from 200 B.C. to A.D. 500, to a time when a people referred to as the Nazca inhabited the region. The earliest lines, created with piled up stones, date as far back as 500 B.C. The Lines were declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1994. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/ai-nazca-geoglyphs-peru-9702610/

Answer 5

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has decided to treat the packaged drinking and mineral water segment as a “High Risk Food Category”. Food products that come under the “High Risk” category are subjected to mandatory risk-based inspections. They include dairy, meat, fish egg and food items intended for nutritional use, prepared food, Indian sweets and nutrients, and related preparations such as fortified rice kernels. In its order, the FSSAI has made amendments in its Risk-Based Inspection Policy to include the packaged drinking water and mineral water categories. This means that these products will now be subject to mandatory inspections and third-party audits. All centrally licensed manufacturers under high-risk food categories shall get their businesses audited annually. This aims to improve the safety and quality standards of these products for consumers. Previously, the packaged drinking water industry had called for simplified regulations, requesting the removal of dual certification requirements from both BIS and FSSAI. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/companies/fssai-classifies-packaged-drinking-water-as-high-risk-food-category/article68935349.ece

Answer 6

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Ministry of External Affairs’ proposal to establish nine One-Stop Centres (OSCs) has received approval from the Empowered Committee of the Ministry of Women and Child Development. These centres aim to provide comprehensive assistance to women in vulnerable situations, addressing their immediate needs and offering critical support. Out of the nine proposed OSCs, seven will include shelter homes and will be set up in Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, the UAE, and Saudi Arabia (with centres in both Jeddah and Riyadh). The remaining two centres, located in Toronto and Singapore, will operate without shelter home facilities. To facilitate the rollout of these initiatives, the Ministry of External Affairs has opened a dedicated budget line for these missions. The Indian Community Welfare Fund (ICWF) will play a vital role in extending welfare measures to distressed Indian nationals, particularly women. The ICWF has significantly expanded its scope to address a wide range of issues faced by overseas Indians. The fund now covers emergency assistance such as boarding and lodging, air travel for those stranded, legal aid, medical care, and the repatriation of mortal remains. The ICWF guidelines include specific provisions for legal assistance and counselling for women abandoned by their overseas Indian or foreign spouses. Legal panels have also been established in countries with large Indian diasporas to provide timely and efficient support. In cases involving minor legal infractions, the fund allows for the payment of fines to secure the release of Indian nationals. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/government-approves-global-one-stop-centres-for-indian-women-in-distress/#:~

Answer 7

1 and 3 only Explanation : Priority Sectors Lending is the role exercised by the RBI to banks, imploring them to dedicate funds for specific sectors of the economy, which are considered important for the development of the country’s basic needs. RBI sets targets and sub-targets under priority sector lending for all scheduled commercial banks operating in India to provide adequate and timely credit to those sectors. The PSL target must be met by the banks operating in India in the following way: For Domestic Commercial Banks (excluding regional rural banks and small finance banks) and foreign banks with 20 branches and above, the PSL target is 40 per cent of so-called Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) or Credit Equivalent of Off-Balance Sheet Exposures (CEOBE), whichever is higher. So, statement 1 is correct. Foreign Banks (having less than 20 branches) have to fulfil 40 per cent PSL target out of which up to 32% can be in the form of lending to Exports and not less than 8% can be to any other priority sector. For regional rural banks (RRBs) and small finance banks (SFBs), the PSL target is 75 per cent. So, statement 2 is not correct. The priority sector in India is at present the sectors—agriculture, small and medium enterprises (SMEs), start-ups, road and water transport, retail trade, small business, small housing loans (not more than ₹10 lakhs), software industries, self-help groups (SHGs), agro-processing, small and marginal farmers, artisans, distressed urban poor and indebted non-institutional debtors besides the SCs, STs and other weaker sections of society. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 8

2 only Explanation : The WMA scheme was designed to meet temporary mismatches in the receipts and payments of the government. WMA is a facility for both the Centre and states to borrow from the RBI. This facility can be availed by the government if it needs immediate cash from the RBI. The WMA is a loan facility from the RBI for 90 days which implies that the government has to vacate the facility after 90 days. So, statement 1 is not correct. The limits for WMA are mutually decided by the RBI and the Government of India. So, statement 2 is correct. The interest rate on WMA is the RBI’s repo rate, which is basically the rate at which it lends short-term money to banks. That rate is currently 4.4%. The governments are, however, allowed to draw amounts in excess of their WMA limits. The interest on such overdraft is 2 percentage points above the repo rate, which now works out to 6.4%. Further, no state can run an overdraft with the RBI for more than a certain period. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 9

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) came out with the FI-Index (announced in April 2021 and to be published annually) to capture the extent of financial inclusion across the country. This Index primarily comprises three broad parameters - Ease of access (35%), Usage of services (45%) and Quality aspects (20%). A unique feature of the Index is the Quality parameter which captures the quality aspect of financial inclusion as reflected by financial literacy, consumer protection, and inequalities and deficiencies in services. So, statement 1 is not correct. It is a comprehensive index which incorporates details of banking, investments, insurance, etc, in consultation with Government and respective sectoral regulators. The index has been created without a base year, in order to reflect cumulative efforts over the years. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 10

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Wilful defaulters are the borrowers who are unwilling to repay their debt obligations, despite having the capacity to pay. These are borrowers taking undue advantage of the existing weak legal and governance framework, although legal suits have been filed against these borrowers for recovery of debt. According to the Reserve Bank of India circular, the banks and notified All India Financial Institutions were required to submit to RBI the details of the wilful defaulters with outstandings of Rs.25 lakh and above. This was pursuant to the instructions of the Central Vigilance Commission for collection of information on wilful defaults of Rs.25 lakhs and above by RBI and dissemination to the reporting banks and FIs. So, statement 1 is correct. According to the Reserve Bank of India, the 'wilful default' is defined as a 'unit' (individual/company) which has defaulted in meeting its payment obligations. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 11

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : The SWIFT system stands for the Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication and is a secure platform for financial institutions to exchange information about global monetary transactions such as money transfers. The SWIFT network doesn’t actually transfer funds but instead, sends payment orders between banks using SWIFT codes. It’s a means to transfer money overseas quickly, accurately, and securely. So, statement 1 is not correct. Initially, SWIFT founders designed the network to facilitate communication about treasury and correspondent transactions only. Now, it is expanded to--Banks, brokerage institutes and trading houses, depositories, corporate business houses, securities dealers, clearinghouses, asset management companies, foreign exchange and money brokers, and exchanges. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 12

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) refer to insurers of such size, market importance and domestic and global interconnectedness, whose distress or failure would cause a significant dislocation in the domestic financial system. D-SIIs are perceived as insurers that are ‘too big or too important to fail’ (TBTF). This perception and the perceived expectation of government support may amplify risk taking, reduce market discipline, create competitive distortions, and increase the possibility of distress in future. These considerations require that D-SIIs should be subjected to additional regulatory measures to deal with the systemic risks and moral hazard issues. The D-SIIBs are identified by the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and fall under its regulation. So, statement 1 is not correct. There is no specific bar on the reinsurance companies to be classified as D-SIIBs. Recently, the Life Insurance Corporation of India (Life insurance Company), General Insurance Corporation of India (Reinsurance Company) and New India Assurance Co Ltd (Non-life insurance Company) were identified as D-SIIs for 2021-22 by the IRDAI. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 13

2 only Explanation : Article 366 (12A) of the Constitution as amended by 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 defines the Goods and Services tax (GST) as a tax on supply of goods or services or both, except supply of alcoholic liquor for human consumption. So, alcohol for human consumption is kept out of GST by way of definition of GST in constitution. Five petroleum products viz. petroleum crude, motor spirit (petrol), high speed diesel, natural gas and aviation turbine fuel have temporarily been kept out and the GST Council shall decide the date from which they shall be included in GST.

Answer 14

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : ‘Nidhi’ means a company that has been incorporated as a Nidhi with the object of cultivating the habit of thrift and savings amongst its members, receiving deposits from, and lending to, its members only, for their mutual benefit. These need to comply with norms prescribed by the Centre. The Nidhi companies are exempted from the provisions of Section 45-IA (Compulsory Registration with RBI), Section 45-IB (Maintenance of Liquid Assets) and Section 45-IC (Creation of Reserve Fund) of the RBI Act, 1934. So, statement 1 is correct. Nidhi’s are included under the definition of Non- Banking Financial companies or (NBFCs) which operate mainly in the unorganized money market. So, statement 2 is correct. A Nidhi company notified under section 620-A of the Companies Act is classified at present as "Mutual Benefit Financial Company" by RBI and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India for its deposit taking activities and by Ministry of Corporate Affairs for its operational matters as also the deployment of funds. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 15

3 only Explanation : Angel Investors buy shares of the company, which means that they are equity investors. Their investment model is really very simple: They buy shares at a certain price and sell them at a much higher price, at a later date, once the company has grown. The difference between the purchase and sale price of these shares is the return on their investment. These investors do not provide loan/debt with an interest rate and do not look for year-on-year dividends on their shares, but ensure that the company ploughs back surpluses into growth that will lead to a higher valuation for the firm. It is, therefore, imperative for these investors that the valuation of the company increases as that is the only way the price of their shares (and that of the company) increases. Hence, they invest in companies whose revenues are growing in a hockey stick curve and are also moving towards profitability, providing a strong foundation to the company. Angle investment is much more risky than debt financing as unlike a loan, invested capital does not have to be paid back in the event of the business failing. So, statement 1 is not correct. In India, Angel investment is taxed if the share price of issued shares is seen in excess of the fair market value of the company. It is known as Angel Tax. So, statement 2 is not correct. Angel funds in India are regulated by Securities and Exchange Board of India under the umbrella regulations for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs). So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 16

1, 3 and 5 only Explanation : There is a certain definite pattern to the location of the world’s deserts. Almost all the deserts are confined within the 15°to 30° parallels of latitude north and south of the equator. They include the great Sahara Desert: Arabian, Iranian and Thar Deserts; Kalahari. Namib, and Atacama Deserts; the Great Australian Desert and the deserts of south-west U.S.A. and northern Mexico. They lie in the trade wind belt on the western parts of the continents where Trade Winds are off-shore. They are bathed by cold currents which produce a ‘desiccating effect’ so that moisture is not easily condensed into precipitation. Such dry and arid deserts are tropical hot deserts or 'Trade Wind deserts’. So, point 1 is correct. Most of the nonpolar deserts lie within the two trade winds belts. Around 30° N. and S., the poleward flowing air begins to descend toward the surface in subtropical high-pressure belts. The sinking air is relatively dry because its moisture has already been released near the Equator above the tropical rainforests and thus, results in very low rainfall. So, pair 2 is not correct. The subtropical anticyclones cover 40% of the earth’s surface. In the regions with these systems evaporation exceeds precipitation by up to 5 mm/day. Therefore, the subtropical anticyclones are responsible for the formation of the subtropical deserts and also have great influence on monsoons. So, point 3 is correct. Cold ocean currents contribute to the formation of coastal deserts. Air blowing toward shore, chilled by contact with cold water, produces a layer of fog. This heavy fog drifts onto land. Although humidity is high, the atmospheric changes that normally cause rainfall are not present. So, point 4 is not correct. A rain shadow is a patch of land that has been forced to become a desert because mountain ranges blocked all plant-growing, rainy weather. On one side of the mountain, wet weather systems drop rain and snow. On the other side of the mountain—the rain shadow side—all that precipitation is blocked. Many deserts on the western margins of the continents fall in the rain shadow region. So, point 5 is correct.

Answer 17

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : The USSD (Unstructured Supplementary Service Data) is a service that uses a short code for making transactions or inquiries. Since it does not need a data connection, the service is used by a large majority of people, primarily feature phone users, and is therefore also used as a medium for no-frills banking transactions. The USSD service is used by many feature phone users to check balances in their bank accounts, know MMID* (Mobile Money Identifier), get mini statements etc. So statement 1 is correct. Other Financial Services includes Fund Transfer using Mobile Number and MMID of the beneficiary. Fund Transfer using IFSC and Account Number of the beneficiary. Fund Transfer using Aadhaar Number of the beneficiary. Therefore, doing peer-to-peer money transfers. So, statement 2 is correct. Cash withdrawals and deposits from banking correspondents in small towns and rural areas. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 18

2 only Explanation : As part of post-Global Financial Crisis (GFC) reforms, Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) had introduced the Liquidity Coverage Ratio (LCR). So, statement 1 is not correct. LCR requires banks to maintain High-Quality Liquid Assets (HQLAs) to meet 30 days net outgo under stressed conditions. Further, as per Banking Regulation Act, 1949, the banks in India are required to hold liquid assets to maintain Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). In view of the fact that liquid assets under SLR and HQLAs under LCR are largely the same, RBI has been allowing banks to use a progressively increasing proportion of the SLR securities for being considered as HQLAs for LCR so that the need to maintain liquid assets for both the requirements is optimised. So, statement 2 is correct. HQLAs maintained under the LCR include cash including cash reserves in excess of the required cash reserve ratio; and government securities (G-Secs) in excess of the minimum statutory liquidity ratio requirement. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 19

2 only Explanation : According to the RBI guidelines, ‘Peer to Peer Lending Platform means an intermediary providing the services of loan facilitation via online medium or otherwise, to the participants.’ In India, the P2P lending platforms are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. For the regulation of the P2P sector, Reserve Bank issued the Non-Banking Financial Company – Peer to Peer (NBFC-P2P) directions in October 2017. So, statement 1 is not correct. All P2Ps are to be registered with the RBI as an NBFC. However, an existing NBFC is not entitled to operate as an NBFC P2P. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 20

1 only Explanation : The National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID) is a statutory body set up under the provisions of the NBFID Act 2021. It aims to support the development of long-term non-recourse infrastructure financing in India including the development of the bonds and derivatives markets necessary for infrastructure financing and to carry on the business of financing infrastructure and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. So, statement 1 is correct. Unlike banks, it do not accept deposits from people. They source funds from the market, government, as well as multilateral institutions, and are often supported through government guarantees. So, statement 2 is not correct. NaBFID may raise money in the form of loans or otherwise both in Indian rupees and foreign currencies, or secure money by the issue and sale of various financial instruments including bonds and debentures. NaBFID may borrow money from: (i) central government, (ii) Reserve Bank of India (RBI), (iii) scheduled commercial banks, (iii) mutual funds, and (iv) multilateral institutions such as World Bank and Asian Development Bank. So, statement 3 is not correct. Shares of NaBFID may be held by: (i) central government, (ii) multilateral institutions, (iii) sovereign wealth funds, (iv) pension funds, (v) insurers, (vi) financial institutions, (vii) banks, and (viii) any other institution prescribed by the central government. Initially, the central government will own 100% shares of the institution which may subsequently be reduced up to 26%. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Answer 21

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : In August 2016, RBI released guidelines for on-tap licensing for universal banks. According to the guidelines, existing non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) that are controlled by residents and have a successful track record for at least 10 years are eligible to apply for a universal banking license under the ‘on tap’ Licensing of Universal Banks scheme. So, statement 1 is not correct. Individuals/professionals who are ‘residents’ and have 10 years of experience in banking and finance at a senior level are eligible to apply. The foreign shareholding in the bank can be up to the existing foreign direct investment (FDI) limit of 74 per cent. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 22

1 and 2 only Explanation : Keeping in mind the need for having a dedicated national fund with the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic, and to provide relief to the affected, a public charitable trust under the name of ‘Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund’ (PM CARES Fund)’ has been set up. Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the PM CARES Fund and Minister of Defence, Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Finance, Government of India are ex-officio Trustees of the Fund. The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support. The fund will be utilised in meeting the objectives as stated above. So, statement 1 is correct. Donations to PM CARES Fund would qualify for 80G benefits for 100% exemption under the Income Tax Act, 1961. Donations to PM CARES Fund will also qualify to be counted as Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013. So, statement 2 is correct. PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the FCRA and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. This enables PM CARES Fund to accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 23

1 only Explanation : Cooperative Banks are owned by their customers and follow the cooperative principle of one person, one vote. The Regional Rural Banks are owned by the Central, State governments and the Sponsor Bank in the ratio 50:15:35. So, statement 1 is not correct. The short-term cooperative credit structure operates with a three-tier system - Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the village level, Central Cooperative Banks (CCBs) at the district level and State Cooperative Banks (StCBs) at the State level. PACS are outside the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and hence not regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. StCBs/DCCBs are registered under the provisions of the State Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned and are regulated by the Reserve Bank. The Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2020 also exempts PACS from their purview. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 24

1, 2 and 3 only Explanation : Deposit insurance is a protection cover against losses accruing to bank deposits if a bank fails financially and has no money to pay its depositors and has to go in for liquidation. The Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation Act established the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) to provide insurance for bank deposits and guarantee credit given by banks and financial institutions. The Act was passed to ensure that in an unlikely event of a bank failure in India, a depositor has a claim to a maximum of Rs 5 lakh per account as insurance cover. Depositors with more than Rs 5 lakh in their account have no legal recourse to recover funds if a bank collapses. All commercial banks, including foreign banks in India, local area banks, regional rural banks, payment banks, small finance banks, cooperative banks, are insured by the DICGC. So, point 1, 2 and 3 are correct. The deposits with NBFCs are not insured, hence the repayment of deposits by NBFCs is not guaranteed by RBI. Similarly, the deposits with Primary cooperative societies are not insured by the DICGC. So, point 4 is not correct.

Answer 25

3 only Explanation : The government of India IN 2016 launched the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) for the exploration and production of oil and gas which replaced the New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP). OALP is a part of the Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP). So, statement 1 is not correct. Open Acreage Licensing (OALP) mechanism has been launched which allows the investors to carve out blocks of their choice by assessing Exploration and Production (E&P) data available at the National Data Repository (NDR)& by submitting an Expression of Interest (EoI). EOI can be submitted throughout the year without waiting for a formal bid round from the government. However, A total of eight blocks spread over six sedimentary basins, are being recently offered and includes five on-land blocks, two shallow-water blocks and one ultra-deepwater block. So, statement 2 is not correct. Some of the terms of these bid rounds include reduced royalty rates, no oil cess, marketing and pricing freedom, round the year bidding, a single license to cover both conventional and unconventional hydrocarbon resources and exploration permission during the entire contract period. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 26

1 and 3 only Explanation : The NITI Aayog is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established in 2015 to replace the Planning Commission. NITI Aayog aims for the actualization of the Sustainable Development Goals in India and to enhance cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach. The NITI Aayog is totally different in its approach towards fund allocations (unlike the Planning Commission it does not allocate funds to states) to the states to promote the cause of development planning. The Aayog, unlike its predecessor Planning Commission, does not have financial powers nor any say in preparing annual plans of the states. The Planning Commission used to play a key role in deciding the expenditure plans of central ministries as well as that of states. So, statement 1 is correct. The NITI Aayog is only a think tank and an advisory body to the Government, it is not vested with any executive powers; nor has any role in implementing any Central schemes. So, statement 2 is not correct. DMEO was established by the government of India on 18th September 2015 as an attached office of the NITI Aayog by merging the erstwhile Program Evaluation Office and Independent Evaluation Office. To ensure that DMEO is able to function independently, it has been given separate budgetary allocations and manpower, in addition, to complete functional autonomy So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 27

2 and 3 only Explanation : After condensation, the water vapour or the moisture in the atmosphere takes one of the following forms — dew, frost, fog and clouds. When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in the air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are the clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, the dew point must be above the freezing point.

Answer 28

Equatorial climate Explanation : The equatorial, hot, wet climate is found between 5° and 10° north and south of the equator. The most outstanding feature of the equatorial climate is its great uniformity of temperature throughout the year. The mean monthly temperatures are always around 80°F with very little variation. There is no winter. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation help to moderate the daily temperature, so that even at the equator itself, the climate is not unbearable. Regular land and sea breezes assist in maintaining a truly equable climate. The diurnal range of temperature is small, and so is the annual range. Precipitation is heavy and well distributed throughout the year. There is no month without rain, and a distinct dry season like those of the Savanna or the Tropical monsoon climate is absent. The relative humidity is constantly high (over 80 per cent) making one feel sticky and uncomfortable.

Answer 29

Stratus clouds Explanation : Stratus (St) is a very low cloud, uniformly grey and thick, which appears like a low ceiling or highland fog. These are layered clouds covering large portions of the sky. These clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures. It brings dull weather with light drizzle. It reduces the visibility of aircraft and is thus a danger. General classification of clouds: Low-level clouds (cumulus, stratus, stratocumulus) that lie below 6,500 feet (1,981 m). Middle clouds (altocumulus, nimbostratus, altostratus) that form between 6,500 and 20,000 feet (1981–6,096 m). High-level clouds (cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus) that form above 20,000 feet (6,096 m). Cumulonimbus, which tower across the low, middle, and upper atmosphere.

Answer 30

1, 3 and 4 only Explanation : The Warm Temperate Western Margin climate (Mediterranean) is found in relatively few areas in the world. They are entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses, between 30° and 45° north and south of the equator. The basic cause of this climate is the shifting of the wind belts. Though the area around the Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type, it is also found in central Chile, California, the south-western tip of Africa, southern Australia and southwest Australia. So, statement 1 and statement 4 are correct. During summer, rain-bearing winds are not likely to reach the Mediterranean lands. The prevailing Trade winds are off-shore and there is practically no rain. The air is dry, the heat is intense and the relative humidity is low. The days are excessively warm and in the interiors, prolonged droughts are common. So, statement 2 is not correct. The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift towards the equator. In the northern hemisphere, the prevailing on-shore Westerlies bring much cyclonic rain from the Atlantic to the countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea. This is the rainy season and is the most outstanding feature of the Mediterranean climate. In almost all other climate types maximum rain comes in summer. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 31

Sleet Explanation : Sleet occurs when snowflakes melt into a raindrop in a wedge of warm air well above the ground and then refreeze in a layer of freezing air just above the surface. This results in frozen raindrops, or small ice pellets. At ground level, sleet is only common during winter storms when the snow melts as it falls and the resulting water refreezes into sleet prior to hitting the ground. In thunderstorms, sleet is possible above the melting level where cloud droplets become supercooled and may instantaneously freeze when making contact with other cloud particles or debris, such as dust particles. Sleet is also called ice pellets. Snow forms mainly when water vapour turns to ice without going through the liquid stage. This process is called deposition. Snow can form in the gentle updrafts of stratus clouds or at high altitudes in very cold regions of a thunderstorm. Snowflakes that most of us are used to seeing are not individual snow crystals but are actually aggregates, or collections, of snow crystals that stick or otherwise attach to each other. Aggregates can grow to very large sizes compared to individual snow crystals. Hail is frozen precipitation that can grow to very large sizes through the collection of water that freezes onto the hailstone’s surface. Hailstones begin as embryos, which include graupel or sleet, and then grow in size. Hailstones can have a variety of shapes and include lumps and bumps that may even take the shape of small spikes. Hailstones must be at least 0.2 inches in size. Graupel is soft, small pellets formed when supercooled water droplets freeze onto a snow crystal, a process called riming. If the riming is particularly intense, the rimed snow crystal can grow to an appreciable size but remain less than 0.2 inches. Graupel is also called snow pellets or soft hail, as the graupel particles are particularly fragile and generally disintegrate when handled.

Answer 32

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Rajya Sabha recently passed the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, via a voice vote, paving the way for significant changes in India’s oil and gas exploration laws. About Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024: It is a bill to amend the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948, aiming to boost investment in oil and gas exploration and production. The bill will regulate the exploration and extraction of natural gas and petroleum. The amended bill expands the definition of mineral oils to include petroleum and natural gas in it. The amended bill includes any naturally occurring hydrocarbon, coal bed methane, and shale gas/oil in the category of mineral oils. However, it clarifies that mineral oils will not include coal, lignite, or helium. It also provides for mining leases; this will include various activities such as exploration, prospecting, production, making merchantable, and disposal of mineral oils. Prospecting is the initial stage in the search for oil and gas fields, involving the assessment of potential petroleum accumulations across large areas. The new bill will replace the mining lease with a petroleum lease to cover a similar set of activities. However, existing mining leases granted under the old Act will continue to be valid. The new bill will empower the central government to make rules on several matters, like regulating the grant of leases, terms and conditions of leases, including the minimum and the maximum area and the period of the lease, conservation and development of mineral oils, methods for producing oil, and manner of collection of royalties, fees, and taxes. It also empowers the central government to make rules on the merger and combination of petroleum leases, sharing of production and processing facilities, obligations of lessees towards protecting the environment and reducing emissions, and alternative mechanisms for resolving disputes in relation to the grant of petroleum leases. It aims to decriminalize some of the provisions of the original 1948 law by introducing "penalties, adjudication by an adjudicating authority, and appeal as against the order of the adjudicating authority". For cases of violation of rules, the bill provides to hike the punishment and penalty from a current fine of Rs 1000 to Rs 25 lakhs. In cases of exploring, prospecting, and production without a valid lease, a penalty of Rs 25 lakhs and continued violations will attract a penalty of Rs 10 lakh per day. For dispute resolution, the central government will appoint an officer of the rank of joint Secretary or above for adjudication of penalties. Appeals against the decision of the adjudication officer can be filed at the Appellate tribunal specified in the Petroleum and Natural Gas Board Regulatory Board Act, 2006. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/oil-and-gas/rajya-sabha-passes-oilfields-amendment-bill-to-modernize-energy-laws-attract-investments/115938120

Answer 33

All of the above Explanation : The Lok Sabha recently passed the Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 by a voice vote. About Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024: It introduces significant changes aimed at improving governance in the banking sector and enhancing customer convenience. The bill seeks to amend five acts: the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934; the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (or the BR Act); the State Bank of India Act, 1955; the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970; and the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980. Highlights of the Bill: Key provisions include allowing bank account holders to nominate up to four individuals for their accounts, with an option for successive or simultaneous nominations. Locker holders, however, will be restricted to successive nominations. The bill also proposes a revision to the definition of "substantial interest" for directorships, raising the threshold from ₹5 lakh to ₹2 crore. Additionally, the tenure of directors (excluding chairpersons and whole-time directors) in cooperative banks will increase from 8 to 10 years, aligning with the Constitution (Ninety-Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011. It would allow a director of a Central Cooperative Bank to serve on the board of a State Cooperative Bank. The Bill also seeks to give greater freedom to banks in deciding the remuneration to be paid to statutory auditors. It also seeks to redefine the reporting dates for banks for regulatory compliance to the 15th and last day of every month instead of the second and fourth Fridays. The bill also seeks to transfer unclaimed dividends, shares, and interest or redemption of bonds to the Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF), allowing individuals to claim transfers or refunds from the fund, thus safeguarding investors' interests. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.cnbctv18.com/business/finance/lok-sabha-passes-banking-laws-amendment-bill-19518848.htm

Answer 34

1 only Explanation : Around 1.45 crore registrations have been made under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, and 6.34 lakh installations have been completed, Parliament was informed recently. About PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana: It is a government scheme launched on February 15, 2024, that aims to provide free electricity to households in India. Under the scheme, households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roofs. The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of the solar panels. It would help one crore families get up to 300 units of free electricity per month with savings of up to Rs 18,000 annually. It is estimated that the scheme will save the government Rs. 75,000 crore per year in electricity costs. The scheme has an outlay of Rs 75,021 crore and is to be implemented till FY 2026-27. The benefits of the scheme include: Free electricity for households. Reduced electricity costs for the government. Increased use of renewable energy. Reduced carbon emissions. Eligibility: The household must be an Indian citizen. The household must own a house with a roof that is suitable for installing solar panels. The household must have a valid electricity connection. The household must not have availed any other subsidy for solar panels. Under the scheme, DISCOMs are designated as State Implementation Agencies (SIAs) responsible for facilitating various measures, including net meter availability, timely inspection, and commissioning of installations. DISCOMs will receive incentives based on their achievement in the installation of additional grid-connected rooftop solar capacity beyond a baseline level. The total financial outlay for the ‘Incentives to DISCOMs’ component is Rs 4,950 crore. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://energy.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/renewable/pm-surya-ghar-muft-bijli-yojana-receives-1-45-cr-registrations-mos-shripad-naik/115937188

Answer 35

All three Explanation : The Union government recently told the Lok Sabha that “growing awareness, wider publicity, and capacity building of police personnel” were among the reasons for the increasing number of cases being under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act. About Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989: It is an act to prevent the commission of offences of atrocities against the members of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and the Scheduled Tribes (STs) by persons other than SCs and STs. It provides for punishment for offences of atrocities committed against SCs and STs. It authorizes the Central Government to frame rules for carrying out the purpose of the Act. The Act is implemented by the respective State Governments and Union Territory Administrations, which are provided due central assistance under the Centrally Sponsored Scheme for effective implementation of the provisions of the Act. Offences: This Act does not apply to crimes committed between SCs and STs or between STs and SCs. There are 37 offences included in the Act that involve patterns of behaviour inflicting criminal offences and breaking the self-respect and esteem of the SCs and STs community. Among these are the denial of economic, democratic, and social rights, as well as the exploitation and abuse of the legal system. Investigation: All offences listed in the Act are cognizable. An investigation of offence committed under the Act cannot be investigated by an officer not below the rank of Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP). The investigation should be completed within 30 days, and the report should be sent directly to the director of the state police. Special Courts: The act clearly states about the constitution of special courts for hearing cases on atrocities against SCs and STs. For the purpose of providing for a speedy trial, the State Government shall, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, establish in each district a Court of Session to be a Special Court exclusively to try the offences under this Act. The exclusive Special Courts shall try offences under this Act on a day-to-day basis. For every Special Court, the State Government shall specify a Public Prosecutor or appoint an advocate who has been in practice as an advocate for not less than seven years, as a Special Public Prosecutor for the purpose of conducting cases in that Court. Punishment: The minimum punishment in most cases is six months of imprisonment, while the maximum is a five years sentence and with fine. In some cases, the minimum is enhanced to one year while the maximum goes up to life imprisonment or even a death sentence. Section 4 of the act deals with punishment for neglect of duties by a public servant. According to this section, if a public servant, who is not a member of the SC or ST, deliberately neglects his duties, which he should perform under the Act, he is liable for punishment with imprisonment up to six months. Immediate Relief: According to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Rules, 1995, the District Magistrate or the Sub-Divisional Magistrate, or any other Executive Magistrate, shall make arrangements for providing immediate relief in cash or in kind, or both, to the victims of atrocity, their family members, and dependents. Such immediate relief shall also include food, water, clothing, shelter, medical aid, transport facilities, and other essential items necessary for human beings. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/more-atrocity-cases-registered-as-awareness-publicity-and-capacity-building-of-police-grows-social-justice-minister/article68942436.ece

Answer 36

Syria Explanation : Syria's second-largest city, Aleppo, has fallen from government control for the first time since the country's conflict began more than a decade ago. About Aleppo City: Aleppo, or "Halab" in Arabic, is one of the world's oldest continually inhabited cities, being mentioned in Egyptian texts from the 20th century BC. It is a principal city of northern Syria. It is situated in the northwestern part of the country, about 30 miles (50 km) south of the Turkish border. It lies some 60 miles (100 km) from both the Mediterranean Sea (west) and the Euphrates River (east). It sits on a plateau at an elevation of approximately 1,300 feet (400 meters). Located at the crossroads of several trade routes from the 2nd millennium B.C., Aleppo was ruled successively by the Hittites, Assyrians, Arabs, Mongols, Mamelukes, and Ottomans. Aleppo’s most visible landmark is the medieval citadel, which sits on a partly man-made hill at the center of the city about 130 feet (40 meters) high. The Quwayq River runs through the city, although it has at times run dry in Aleppo partly because of heavy water use in Turkey, where it originates. Aleppo was a focal point of the Syrian Civil War from 2012 until 2016, when opposition fighters there surrendered the city to government forces. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/syrias-second-city-slips-from-government-control-monitor/articleshow/115869213.cms?from=mdr

Answer 37

Indian Railways Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister of Railways inaugurated the Linen Inspection and Sorting Assistant (LISA) system. It is an Artificial Intelligence-based system. It inspects and sorts linens such as bed sheets and towels provided to passengers in the air-conditioned coaches. The LISA system is an advanced AI-based automation machine designed to ensure 100% quality inspection of bed sheets used in trains. It ensures 100% quality inspection and performs thorough checks to detect and segregate substandard linens. Advanced AI algorithms ensure precise and reliable inspection results. And it can process large volumes of linens quickly, significantly improving operational efficiency. It was developed by the Pune division of Indian Railways and installed in Ghorpadi Integrated Coaching Complex (GICC). Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Dec/02/railways-launches-ai-based-bedroll-inspection-tech

Answer 38

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD) has unveiled an Air Quality Dashboard, a public platform offering real-time and forecasted data on air pollution. It is an intergovernmental knowledge and learning centre working on behalf of the people of the Hindu Kush Himalaya (HKH). It was formally established and inaugurated on 5 December 1983. Mission: To build and share knowledge that drives regional policy and action and attracts investment that enables the diverse countries and communities of the HKH to transition to greener, more inclusive, and climate resilient development. Member countries: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan. Functions It serves the region through information and knowledge generation and sharing to find innovative solutions to critical mountain problems. It bridges science with policies and on-the-ground practices. It provides a regional platform where experts, planners, policymakers, and practitioners can exchange ideas and perspectives towards the achievement of sustainable mountain development. Headquarter: Kathmandu, Nepal Key points about Air Quality Dashboard The dashboard combines ground sensor data with satellite imagery to provide a comprehensive view of air pollution across local, sub-regional and regional scales. Among its tools is a dynamic timelapse powered by the Weather Research and Forecasting model coupled with Chemistry (WRF-Chem). This model reveals the alarming spread of PM2.5 plumes across the region, including hotspots like Lahore, New Delhi and Kolkata. The WRF-Chem model on the dashboard allows users to explore the interaction between weather patterns and air pollution sources, providing insights into pollution outbreaks and trends. It integrates emissions data at both local and regional levels, offering a clearer picture of pollution dynamics across borders. Users can also access two-day forecasts, enabling communities, policymakers and researchers to anticipate air quality conditions. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/air/icimod-launches-air-quality-dashboard-to-track-and-forecast-pollution-across-indo-gangetic-plain

Answer 39

Only two Explanation : Researchers have identified the therapeutic potential of the seed pods from the traditional medicinal plant Subabul in managing insulin resistance related to type II diabetes and developed a marker-assisted fraction and four active compounds from it. It is a fast-growing leguminous tree commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions. It originates from Mexico is a small, perennial, woody, highly branched to medium-sized tree with a short, clear bole. It was introduced as a cover crop in plantations and for fodder and fuel. Other names: Kubabul (Hindi), Naattu Cauvindal (Tamil), Kainti, Kantisubabul (Telugu). Distribution in India: It is mainly found in Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha and Tamil Nadu. Uses: The leaves and immature seeds are eaten in the form of soups or salad, both raw and cooked, providing a rich source of protein and fibre, leading to its traditional usage in human and animal food by different ethnic communities. It is valuable for its wood, which is used to make good quality charcoal, small furniture and paper pulp. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080193

Answer 40

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India’s delegation, led by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, will participate in the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) COP16 in Riyadh and showcase its Aravalli Green Wall Project. The project is a major initiative of the Environment, Forest and Climate change to green the 5 km buffer area around Aravalli Hill. It is part of the Union Environment Ministry's vision to create green corridors across the country to combat land degradation and desertification. The project covers the states of Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Delhi - where the Aravalli hills landscape span over 6 million hectares of land. The project will involve planting native species of trees and shrubs on scrubland, wasteland and degraded forest land, along with rejuvenating and restoring surface water bodies such as ponds, lakes and streams. The project will also focus on agroforestry and pasture development to enhance the livelihoods of local communities. Objectives Improving the ecological health of the Aravalli range. To prevent eastward expansion of Thar Desert and to reduce land degradation by creating green barriers that will prevent soil erosion, desertification and dust storms It will help in carbon sequestration and mitigating climate change to enhance the biodiversity and ecosystem services of the Aravalli range by planting native tree species in the Aravalli region, providing habitat for wildlife, improving water quality and quantity. Promote sustainable development and livelihood opportunities by involving local communities in afforestation, agro-forestry and water conservation activities that will generate income, employment, food security and social benefits. It will contribute to India's commitments under various international conventions such as UNCCD (United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification), CBD (Convention on Biological Diversity) and UNFCCC (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change). Hence both statements are correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/unccd-cop16-opens-today-with-india-set-to-showcase-landmark-green-project/

Answer 41

2 only Explanation : Recently, the union Minister of State (I/C) for Ayush informed the Rajya Sabha about the Ayush Oushadhi Gunvatta evam Uttpadan Samvardhan Yojana. It is a Central Sector Scheme formulated by the Ministry of Ayush. It aims to regulate Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani, and Homeopathy (ASU&H) medicines in India, utilizing the framework provided by the Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940, and its associated rules. Objectives of the Scheme To enhance India's manufacturing capabilities and exports of traditional medicines and health promotion products under the initiative of Atmanirbhar Bharat. To facilitate adequate infrastructural & technological upgradation and institutional activities in public and private sector for standardization, quality manufacturing and analytical testing of Ayush drugs & materials. To strengthen regulatory frameworks at Central and State level for effective quality control, safety monitoring and surveillance of misleading advertisements of Ayush drugs. To encourage building up synergies, collaborations and convergent approaches for promoting standards and quality of Ayush drugs & materials. Components Strengthening and up-gradation of Ayush Pharmacies and Drug Testing Laboratories to achieve higher standards. Pharmacovigilance of ASU&H drugs including surveillance of misleading advertisements. Strengthening of Central and State regulatory frameworks including Technical Human Resource & Capacity Building programs for Ayush drugs. Support for development of standards and accreditation/ certification of Ayush products & materials in collaboration with BIS, QCI and other relevant scientific institutions and industrial R&D centres Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080167

Answer 42

Nagaland Explanation : In a historic first, the Tikhir tribe of Nagaland held its first-ever Log Drum Pulling Ceremony on the third day of the ongoing 25th Hornbill Festival 2024. About Tikhir Tribe: The Tikhir tribe is one of the indigenous Naga tribes found in the northeastern Indian state of Nagaland. Some live across the border in Myanmar. They speak a language called Naga Yimchungru, which is part of the Tibeto-Burman language family, like most Naga languages. At one time, the Tikhir were headhunters and a man's prestige depended upon the number of enemies he had killed. They make their living from agriculture and hunting. Since the Tikhir are a small tribe in Nagaland, some of the larger tribes harass them. Beliefs: With the coming of the Christian missionaries to Nagaland, most Tikhirs converted to Christianity. Many of the Tikhir practice elements of folk religion with their Christianity. "Tsonglaknyi" , the main Tikhir Festival, is observed from 9th to 12th Oct. every year. It is basically a festival of the sanctification of Shield. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://northeastlivetv.com/around-ne/nagaland/first-ever-log-drum-pulling-ceremony-of-tikhir-tribe-at-hornbill-festival-2024-marks-historic-milestone/

Answer 43

1 only Explanation : In the subtropical forests of Meghalaya, a Romanian-led research team has uncovered two previously unknown species of feather mites named Trouessartia thalassina and Proterothrix sibilla. About Trouessartia thalassina and Proterothrix sibilla: The mites were identified on the Verditer Flycatcher (Eumyias thalassinus) and the Small Niltava (Niltava macgrigoriae), two bird species native to the East Khasi Hills district. Trouessartia thalassina is notable for its semi-ovate terminal lamellae and lanceolate setae in males, while females exhibit unique non-sclerotized lacunae. Meanwhile, Proterothrix sibillae, part of the wolffi species group, is distinguished by its larger size, circular lacunae on the prodorsal shield, and distinctive male genital structures. Trouessartia thalassina: Named after the Verditer Flycatcher, whose sea-green plumage inspired the Latin word thalassina, meaning “sea-green.” Proterothrix sibillae: Honoring Maria Sibylla Merian, a trailblazing German naturalist known for her pioneering work in insect taxonomy and her meticulous scientific illustrations. What Are Feather Mites? Feather mites are microscopic arachnids that inhabit bird feathers, feeding on oils, skin flakes, and organic debris. Typically, they maintain a symbiotic relationship with their avian hosts, helping to keep feathers clean and healthy. However, under stress, they can become parasitic, causing irritation or feather damage. Found worldwide, feather mites are transferred between birds through close contact, especially during nesting. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://hubnetwork.in/romanian-scientists-unveil-two-new-feather-mite-species-in-meghalayas-rich-biodiversity/

Answer 44

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Union Minister of State for Forest, Environment, and Climate Change recently launched 'Nano Bubble Technology' for cleaning and purifying the water of the National Zoological Park, Delhi, to promote the health of aquatic animals. About Nanobubbles: Nanobubbles are 70-120 nanometers in size, 2500 times smaller than a single grain of salt. They can be formed using any gas and injected into any liquid. Nanobubbles have unique physical and chemical properties and are superior to other aeration methods. Therefore, nanobubble technology is used in a variety of applications, including water treatment, agriculture, aquaculture, food processing, and other industrial areas. Properties: Large Surface Area: Nanobubbles have a high surface area to volume ratio, allowing for a greater amount of gas to be in contact with water. This, combined with their ability to remain suspended in water due to their small size and high buoyancy, results in increased gas transfer efficiency between the gas and water phases. Brownian Motion: Nanobubbles stay in the water for a long time. This unique feature enables nanobubbles to provide a homogenous distribution of oxygen throughout an entire body of water and dissolved oxygen levels are maintained for a very long time. High Oxygen Transfer Efficiency: Nanobubbles can efficiently deliver oxygen into water due to the very large surface area and their Brownian motion. Oxygen transfer efficiency with nanobubbles is reached to around 90%. Surface charge: Nanobubble has a strong surface charge. This negative charge improves separation efficiency in the floating process. This feature floats more suspended matter than through conventional methods in the wastewater, oil, and gas operators. Benefits: Due to the various inherent physical properties of nanobubbles, the ability to transfer gas to liquid is very high, and thus has the following advantages. Improved Water Treatment: Nanobubbles can effectively remove organic pollutants, bacteria, and other contaminants from water. More Efficient Cleaning: Nanobubbles can penetrate surface pores and crevices, providing a more thorough cleaning that is effective against stubborn dirt and grime. Enhanced Agriculture and Aquaculture: Supplying oxygen nanobubbles to plants and aquatic organisms can improve their growth, health, and resilience. Nanobubbles can also enhance nutrient absorption, reduce the need for pesticides and other chemicals, and improve crop yields. Enhanced Oil and Gas Recovery: Nanobubbles can increase the efficiency of oil and gas recovery by improving the flow of fluids and reducing the amount of chemicals needed in the process. Improved Skin and Hair Health: Nanobubbles can help enhance the absorption of skincare products, leading to healthier skin. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2080223

Answer 45

2 only Explanation : Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), under the NITI Aayog and the Office of Science & Innovation, at the Embassy of Sweden, are pleased to announce the successful conclusion of SheSTEM 2024. About SheSTEM 2024: SheSTEM is an annual event by Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), and the Office of Science and Innovation, at the Embassy of Sweden. It celebrates the contributions of women in STEM and serves as a catalyst to inspire the next generation of innovators by encouraging young minds to explore careers in science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM). The SheSTEM 2024 challenge invited students from grades 6–12 across India to submit innovative ideas focused on Battery Technology and Energy Storage (BEST) systems. Part of the India-Nordic BEST project, the challenge aims to foster sustainability by advancing energy solutions. Participants were tasked with presenting their prototypes or concepts for energy storage and sustainability in a two-minute video format. The competition received an exceptional response, with over 1000 submissions demonstrating the creativity, problem-solving skills, and forward-thinking mindset of India's youth. SheSTEM 2024 provided a platform for students to engage with critical STEM topics and contribute to global sustainability efforts. Hence only statement 2 is correct. Sources: https://www.siliconindia.com/news/general/young-innovators-seek-sustainable-solutions-at-shestem-2024-nid-233165-cid-1.html

Answer 46

1 only Explanation : Researchers have identified a new species of ancient humans, which they have named Homo juluensis, meaning "big head," based partly on a very large skull found in China. About Homo juluensis: It is a new species of ancient humans with distinctively large skulls. The species, known as “big head people,” lived 300,000 years ago and survived in small groups across eastern Asia before disappearing around 50,000 years ago. Homo juluensis includes mysterious groups like the Denisovans—ancient human relatives whose histories are still being uncovered. Fossils attributed to H. juluensis, primarily consisting of facial and jaw remains, exhibit dental characteristics reminiscent of Neanderthals. Initial measurements indicate that their braincases were up to 30% larger than those of Homo sapiens. They hunted wild horses in small groups, and made stone tools and possibly processed animal hides for survival. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/new-big-headed-archaic-humans-discovered-who-is-homo-juluensis

Answer 47

United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) Explanation : According to the World Drought Atlas around 75 per cent of the population will be affected by drought by 2050. It was launched by the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) in collaboration with the European Commission Joint Research Centre. It explains how worsening drought risks are linked to human activities and then delves into the impacts of drought in five key areas—water supply, agriculture, hydropower, inland navigation, and ecosystems. It features 21 case studies from around the world, underscoring that no country—whatever its size, GDP, or latitude—is immune to drought and all can better prepare for it. It describes concrete measures and pathways to manage, reduce, and adapt to systemic drought risks; underscores the co-benefits of these actions for different sectors; and showcases best practices from different regions. The measures highlighted in the Atlas fall into three categories: Governance (e.g. early warning systems, microinsurance for smallholder farmers, pricing schemes for water usage); Land-use management (e.g. land restoration and agroforestry); Management of water supply and use (e.g. wastewater reuse, managed groundwater recharge and conservation.) Hence option (a) is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/water/75-global-population-to-be-affected-by-drought-in-25-years-unccds-drought-atlas-provides-adaptation-guidelines

Answer 48

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The team from JNU's Special Centre for Molecular Medicine, identified a human protein, Heat Shock Protein 70 (Hsp70), as a critical factor in the spread of diseases like malaria and Covid-19. Hsp70 is a type of molecular chaperone, a protein that plays a vital role in helping other proteins fold into their proper shapes and preventing misfolding. It plays a crucial role in regulating protein synthesis and protecting proteins from stress. It becomes elevated during times of cellular stress and they help to shield cells from further insults. Role in human body: It played an important role in protein folding, preventing protein aggregation and transport of proteins across membranes. These functions enabled HSP to play critical roles in regulation of protein homeostasis and cell survival. In condition of cell stress, including environmental (i.e., elevated temperature, oxidative stress, and heavy metal exposure), biological (i.e., cell proliferation and differentiation), and pathological (i.e., inflammation and tumor growth) stress HSP gets elevated, Highlights of the research The team discovered that Hsp70 interacts with the spike protein of SARS-CoV-2—the virus responsible for Covid-19—and human ACE2 receptors, which the virus uses to enter cells. They hypothesised that during fever, Hsp70 levels rise and help stabilise this interaction, making it easier for the virus to infect cells. By inhibiting Hsp70, they successfully blocked viral replication in lab tests. The research suggests that targeting Hsp70 might help prevent drug resistance, a growing problem in treating infections. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/jnu-scientists-make-big-discovery-that-could-change-malaria-covid-19-treatment-2644101-2024-12-03

Answer 49

Only two Explanation : Recently, the Employees' State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) has been awarded one certificate of merit with special mention from the jury for its mobile application (Ask An Appointment - AAA+) at the Regional Social Security Forum for Asia and the Pacific (RSSF Asia-Pacific), organized by the International Social Security Association (ISSA) in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. It was founded in 1927, under the auspices of the International Labour Organization (ILO). It is the principal international organisation for social security organisations, governments and departments of social security. It promotes excellence in social security administration through professional guidelines, expert knowledge, services and support to enable its members to develop dynamic social security systems. Governance General Assembly: It is actually the constituent assembly of the Association and is the highest statutory body. It consists of all members of the ISSA who are directly represented. It meets every three years. Council: It constitutes the electoral body of the Association, composed of the titular delegates of each country in which the ISSA has at least one affiliate member, with each of these countries having one titular delegate. Bureau: It constitutes the administrative authority of the Association, composed of the President of the ISSA, the Treasurer, the Secretary General, and elected members representing the different geographical regions of the world. Control Commission: It examines the financial records of the Association and the annual report and statements presented to the Bureau by the Treasurer, and verifies that all financial transactions have been carried out in conformity with the Financial Regulations. India is a member country of this organization Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080579

Answer 50

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Inland Waterways Authority of India’s Intermodal Terminal (IMT) at Kalughat in Bihar has received five star SVAGRIHA rating from GRIHA council. SVAGRIHA rating that stands for Simple Versatile Affordable GRIHA – supports the concept of green buildings and sustainability under Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA). It is a guidance-cum-rating system being developed for small stand alone buildings like residences, commercial offices, motels, dispensaries, schools etc. It has been developed in order to help reduce the environmental impact of these small developments. Rating system It will be applicable only for projects which are less than 2500 sq.m. built-up area. The rating system has 14 criteria. Criteria: The criteria are divided into 5 broad sub-groups namely: architecture & energy, water & waste, materials, landscape and lifestyle. It will be mandatory to attempt certain points under each sub-group. The total points that a project can achieve are 50 The rating will be done on a 1-5 star scale. It has been designed as a simple online tool with guiding parameters which will evaluate the performance of the project with respect to SVAGRIHA in a simple, easy to understand manner. Key facts about Kalughat Intermodal Terminal It is one among several infrastructural interventions made by Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) for capacity augmentation of National Waterway 1 – River Ganga. It has received five star rating for its efforts to ensure environmental sustainability by ensuring usage of recyclable materials like fibre, recyclable glasses, paint, sanitary fixtures etc during the building of the terminal. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2080813

Answer 51

All three Explanation : Recently, Gujarat’s ‘Gharcholas’ received the Geographical Indication tag. It is also known as Ghatchola and Gharcholu which has finest bandhani work of Gujarat It has traditionally been used for years in Gujarati weddings. The name ‘Gharchola’ means ‘Outfit for Home’, which symbolizes a newly wedded bride joining her new home. Features It is woven on Cotton or Silk fabric in large checks of using Silk and Zari threads. This is further colored in Bandhani or tie & dye technique. These checkered patterns are filled with small golden motifs of peacocks, lotus, human figures, and floral designs. These are traditionally crafted in auspicious colours such as red, maroon, green, and yellow, which hold special significance in Hindu customs. A Gharchola Saree with 12 squares is known as ‘Bar Bagh’, while the one with 52 squares is known as ‘Bavan Bagh’. The designs often incorporate symbols of fertility and prosperity, such as the kalash and the paan. In recent times weavers are infusing modern designs and techniques into their gharcholas, blending tradition with contemporary appeal. Gharchola saris are sourced from generational clusters of artisans in Gujarat, who have been preserving and passing down this intricate craft for centuries. This is the 27th GI tag that Gujarat has received. Hence all statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/national/gujarats-gharcholas-receive-gi-tag/article68927117.ece

Answer 52

2 only Explanation : India and Bhutan recently discussed hydropower projects including the 1020 MW Punatsangchhu-II hydropower project, and expressed satisfaction as it was “nearing completion”. About Punatsangchhu-II Hydropower Project: It is a 1 GW run-of-the-river hydroelectric power-generating facility under construction in the Wangdue Phodrang district of Bhutan. It is located on the right bank of the Punatsangchhu River in the Wangdue Phodrang district in Western Bhutan. The project is being developed by the Punatsangchhu II Hydroelectric Project Authority, under an Inter-Government Agreement (IGA) between the Royal Government of Bhutan and the Government of India. It is funded by the Government of India (GoI): 30% grant and 70% loan at 10% annual interest, repayable in 30 equated semi-annual installments commencing one year after the mean date of operation. The project Authority shall be dissolved within two years after the commissioning, and the project shall be handed over to the Royal Government of Bhutan. The project involves the construction of a 91m-high and 223.8m-long concrete gravity dam, along with an 877.46m-long and 12m-diameter diversion tunnel with a discharge capacity of 1118 cubic metres per second. The project also involves a 168.75m-long and 22m-high upper cofferdam and a 102.02m-long and 13.5m-tall downstream cofferdam. Upon commissioning, the Punatsangchhu II power plant is expected to generate approximately 4,357 million units of electricity annually. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/bhutan-and-india-discuss-gelephu-project-and-hydro-power-plans/article68952182.ece

Answer 53

2 only Explanation : In a landmark development, the National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET) has officially recognized the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center (IN-SPACe) as an Awarding Body (Dual). About National Council for Vocational Education and Training (NCVET): It was established by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), Government of India, on December 5, 2018, as a regulatory body, aimed at ensuring quality in the Technical and Vocational Education and Training (TVET) sector. It has taken over the roles previously held by the National Skill Development Agency (NSDA) and the former National Council of Vocational Training (NCVT). The NCVET became fully operational on 1st August 2020. It functions as an overarching national regulator for setting standards and formulating comprehensive regulations for the vocational education, training, and skilling ecosystem for improving quality and outcomes. It has been entrusted with the development, qualitative improvement, and regulation of vocational education entities involved in both long- and short-term vocational education and training while also establishing minimum standards for their operations. It strives to integrate fragmented regulatory systems and infuse quality assurance across the entire vocational education, training, and skilling value chain, leading to the availability of higher-level skilled manpower for better employability and accelerated growth of the Indian economy. The principal functions of NCVET encompass: Recognize, monitor, discipline, and de-recognize Awarding Bodies. Recognize, monitor, discipline, and de-recognize Assessment Agencies. Recognize, monitor, discipline, and de-recognize Skill Information Providers. Frame guidelines for the approval of qualifications and approve qualifications in the manner set out in such guidelines. Create and monitor a system of redressing grievances against recognized bodies. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2080168

Answer 54

2 only Explanation : The Supreme Court recently impleaded the Archaeological Survey of India and the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) in a plea filed for the restoration of two heritage buildings in Mysore city. About Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH): It is an autonomous non-profit organisation set up in 1984 with a mandate to protect and conserve India's vast natural, built and cultural heritage. Today, it is the country's largest non-profit membership organisation dedicated to the conservation and preservation of our natural, cultural, living, tangible and intangible heritage. It is recognized as one of the world’s largest heritage organizations, with over 228 Chapters across the Country. INTACH is essentially a volunteer-based organization and its enthusiastic volunteers in a network of chapters in cities, towns and villages across the country are largely responsible for the spread of awareness about the vast cultural heritage of the country. Headquartered in New Delhi, it operates through various divisions such as: Architectural Heritage Natural Heritage Art & Material Heritage Intangible Cultural Heritage, Heritage Education, and Communication Services (HECS) Heritage Crafts and Community Chapters INTACH Heritage Academy Heritage Tourism Listing Cell INTACH Knowledge Centre. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-adds-asi-inach-as-parties-in-plea-to-restore-mysurus-heritage-buildings-277408

Answer 55

Assam Explanation : The Assam Forest Department has received the first-ever photographic evidence of the presence of the Royal Bengal Tiger in the Sonai-Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary. About Sonai-Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary: It is a protected area located in the State of Assam in India. It covers an area of 175 sq.km. The area was declared as a sanctuary in 1998. It is located along the foothills of the Great Himalayan Range. The eastern boundary of Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary is marked by the Gabhoru River. The western boundary is marked by the Panchnoi River and further west, area is surrounded by the Rowta reserve forest. The northern area of the sanctuary shares an interstate boundary with the Kameng reserve forest of the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh. In the southern area there is the Charduar reserve forest and villages. There are four perennial rivers that flow through the sanctuary: Dolsiri, Gabharu, Gelgeli, and Belsiri. During the rainy season, also find several wetlands known as “bheels.” It experiences a sub-tropical type of climate with hot and humid summers, with heavy summer rains often causing floods and river overflows. Vegetation: The forest types in the sanctuary comprise tropical evergreen, semi-evergreen and moist deciduous forests. Flora: Some common trees found in the sanctuary include Hollock, Koroi, Nahar, Titasapa, Simul, Sal, Ajar, Hatipeta, and more. Fauna: It is famous for Indian bison, elephants, and one-horned rhinoceros, which are the main attractions of the region. Other wildlife species found here include sambar deer, barking deer, hog deer, Himalayan Crestless porcupines, Large Indian Civets, Small Indian Civets, Black bears, and Sloth bears. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.etvbharat.com/en/!state/madhya-pradesh-650-trap-cameras-installed-in-veerangana-durgavati-tiger-reserve-enn24120500900

Answer 56

1 only Explanation : A study conducted by researchers in Tanzania’s Ngorongoro Conservation Area (NCA) has offered insights into the reasons behind human-Cape buffalo conflict that occurs across sub-Saharan Africa. The African or Cape buffalo (Syncerus caffer) is a formidable and aggressive species. It is one of the four subspecies of African Buffalo found south of the Sahara, the others being the forest buffalo, the West African Savanna Buffalo and the Central African Savanna Buffalo. Appearance Compared with other large bovids, African buffalo have long but stocky bodies and short but thickset legs, resulting in a relatively short standing height. The adult buffalo's horns are its characteristic feature: they have fused bases, forming a continuous bone shield across the top of the head referred to as a "boss". Habitat: They live in swamps and floodplains, as well as mopane grasslands, and the forests of the major mountains of Africa. They prefer a habitat with dense cover, such as reeds and thickets, but can also be found in open woodland, montane grasslands, and forest, savannas, and moist lowland rainforests. African buffalo may be active throughout the day and night. They are social and live in herds that consist of related females, and their offspring, in an almost linear dominance hierarchy. Distribution: The Cape Buffalo is found across the savannas of east and southern Africa. Diet: African buffalo have a strictly herbivorous (graminivorous, folivorous) diet. They feed on a wide variety of grasses, sedges, leaves, and other plants. These massive animals are also excellent swimmers and often cross rivers in search of better grazing. Conservation status IUCN: Near Threatened Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/africa/ngorongoro-study-offers-insights-into-why-humans-cape-buffalo-are-coming-into-conflict-in-africa

Answer 57

Nagaland Explanation : The Hornbill Festival, Nagaland’s iconic cultural and tourism fair that is annually held from December 1 to 10. It was first organized in the year 2000. It aims to promote inter-tribal interaction and preserve Nagaland's heritage, blending the traditional with the contemporary in a harmonious display of unity. It is also called the festival of festivals and is held every year. It is organized by the State Tourism and Art & Culture Departments of the Government of Nagaland. It is celebrated at Naga Heritage Village, Kisama which is about 12 km from Kohima in Nagaland. It has evolved into a celebration showcasing the diverse and vibrant cultural and traditional heritage of the tribes of Nagaland. The festival was named after the Hornbill bird given its association with the socio-cultural life of the Nagas. Theme of 2024 festival: The Hornbill Festival 2024, themed “Cultural Connect,” is a grand celebration of Nagaland’s rich heritage and cultural diversity. The festival’s appeal extends beyond culture, weaving together modernity and tradition with activities like Naga wrestling, traditional archery, food and herbal medicine stalls, fashion shows, beauty contests, and musical concerts. This year, the Archives Branch is also hosting a special exhibition titled “Naga-Land & People in Archival Mirror”, in collaboration with the National Archives of India, offering an in-depth exploration of the region’s history and cultural practices. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/hornbill-festival-nagaland-s-biggest-tourism-event-a-colourful-window-to-the-state-101733393415737.html

Answer 58

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, lake-effect snow blowing in from the Great Lakes has blanketed parts of Michigan, Ohio, Pennsylvania and New York regions. It is a localized weather phenomenon which results from the interaction between cold air passing over warmer lake water generating snow that is deposited in localized regions downwind from the lake. It is common across the Great Lakes region during the late fall and winter. Formation Lake Effect snow occurs when cold air, often originating from Canada, moves across the open waters of the Great Lakes. As the cold air passes over the unfrozen and relatively warm waters of the Great Lakes, warmth and moisture are transferred into the lowest portion of the atmosphere. The air rises, clouds form and grow into a narrow band that produces 2 to 3 inches of snow per hour or more. Lake effect snow occurrence and location is mainly dependent on wind (speed and direction) and topography. For instance, wind direction and speed can affect how narrow or wide a snow band is, as well as its length; whereas topography can influence snowfall rate. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.nytimes.com/2024/12/01/us/lake-effect-snowstorm-weather-what-to-know.html

Answer 59

All three Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution launched ‘Anna Chakra’ and SCAN (Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA) portal. It is a Public Distribution System (PDS) Supply chain optimization tool. It is spearheaded by the Department of Food Public Distribution, which enhances the efficiency of the PDS logistics network across the country. It is developed in collaboration with the World Food Programme (WFP) and Foundation for Innovation and Technology Transfer (FITT), IIT-Delhi. Working The project leverages advanced algorithms to identify optimal routes and ensure seamless movement of food grains across supply chain nodes. An operation of this magnitude involves a complex supply chain, relying on multiple stakeholders starting from farmers to Fair Price Shops. This exercise has covered 4.37 Lakhs Fair Price Shops and approx. 6700 warehouses involved in the PDS supply chain. The interstate route optimization tool has been developed for optimization of the PDS movement between the states and it is integrated with the FOIS (Freight Operations Information System) portal of the Railways through Unified Logistics Interface Platform (ULIP). A significant milestone in this effort is the integration of the optimization tool with the PM Gati Shakti platform which now houses geo -locations of FPSs and warehouses across the states. Advantages The route optimization assessment has been done for 30 states and the results show tremendous promise with the estimated cost savings of about Rs. 250 Crores per annum. This initiative is unique which helps improve the speed and efficiency of the world’s largest food security program providing food safety net to 81 Crore beneficiaries. Reduces fuel consumption, time, and logistics costs, it also provides environmental benefits of lower carbon footprint due to reduced transportation-related emissions. Hence all statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2081277#:~

Answer 60

2 only Explanation : Recently, the Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR), a global leader in agricultural research has launched its 2030 Global Strategy for Resilient Drylands (GSRD). This initiative is spearheaded by CGIAR centres, International Center for Agricultural Research in the Dry Areas (ICARDA) and International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT). It provides a roadmap to enhance food security, conserve biodiversity and build resilient livelihoods for the 2.7 billion people inhabiting drylands, particularly in Asia and Africa. It was launched at the 16th Conference of Parties to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (COP16) in Riyadh. It was developed through extensive consultations with national research organizations, governments, private sector partners, and civil society, ensuring its alignment with the specific needs of different dryland regions. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/global-strategy-to-revolutionise-dryland-farming-unveiled-in-riyadh

Answer 61

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the International Advisory Body for Submarine Cable Resilience was launched to address the growing challenges and ensure the continued resilience of submarine critical infrastructure. It was jointly launched by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) and the International Cable Protection Committee (ICPC). This initiative aims to strengthen the resilience of submarine cables, which are essential to the functioning of the global digital economy. Members: It comprises 40 members from around the world—including ministers, heads of regulatory authorities, and senior experts in telecommunications—the body reflects a diverse global perspective. The Advisory Body will meet bi-annually to consult on international policies, infrastructure, and best practices for improving submarine cable resilience Functions It will work towards promoting best practices across governments and industries to improve cable resilience, reduce risks of damage, and ensure the swift repair and deployment of these vital systems. The collective experience of the body will help address the needs of those whose livelihoods depend on submarine cables, as well as those responsible for deploying, maintaining, and protecting this critical infrastructure. The Advisory Body will also provide strategic guidance to address challenges related to increasing traffic, aging infrastructure, and growing environmental threats to submarine cables. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2081003

Answer 62

movement of the body Explanation : Gait analysis led to the arrest of a 7-month-old rapist in Bengal recently. About Gait Analysis: Gait analysis is an assessment of the way the body moves, usually by walking or running, from one place to another. The purpose of gait analysis is to detect any abnormalities in locomotion. An individual's gait is a combination of complex functions involving use of the body's visual, somatosensory, and vestibular systems. Problems within any of these systems, as well as problems in the joints involved, can lead to postural and gait abnormalities. Gait abnormalities involve unusual walking patterns that may be caused by disease or injury. Such irregularities can lead to pain in the hips, back, neck, feet, knees, or ankles. Gait analysis, also known as walking or motion analysis, is a comprehensive evaluation of the way an individual stands and walks. This analysis can help: Identify the source of muscle, nerve, or skeletal problems. Discover the source of a patient's pain while standing or walking. Help to diagnose bone deformities or skeletal misalignments. Assist in discovering muscle or nerve dysfunction. Check the progression of diseases like arthritis or muscular dystrophy Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/gait-analysis-leads-to-arrest-of-7-month-olds-rapist-in-bengal/articleshow/116023388.cms

Answer 63

Kerala Explanation : The Supreme Court fixed in January a detailed hearing of a petition seeking to bring down the permissible water level of the Mullaperiyar Dam. About Mullaperiyar Dam: It is a masonry gravity dam situated on the Periyar River in Thekkady, Idukki district, in Kerala. It is located 881 m above sea level, on the Cardamom Hills of the Western Ghats. The dam is built at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers. Its construction began in 1887 and was completed in 1895. The construction was carried out by the British Corps of Royal Engineers under the leadership of Pennycuick. The dam was constructed with limestone and “Surkhi" (burnt brick powder and a mixture of sugar and calcium oxide). The dam is 155 ft high and 1200 ft long. The dam's primary function is to transfer water from the Periyar River to the Vaigai River basin in Tamil Nadu. It distributes water to various regions in Tamil Nadu, facilitating irrigation for approximately 685,000 hectares of land across five districts. The construction of the dam paved the way for the creation of the artificial lake at the centre of the Reserve. The Periyar National Park is located around the dam's reservoir. Although the dam is located in Kerala, it is operated and maintained by the neighbouring state of Tamil Nadu. It was according to a 999-year lease agreement made during British rule, that the operational rights were handed over to Tamil Nadu. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-to-hear-plea-to-reduce-water-level-at-mullaperiyar-dam-in-january-2025/article68953934.ece

Answer 64

It is a guided missile frigate. Explanation : The Indian Navy is set to commission its latest multi-role stealth guided missile frigate, INS Tushil, at Kaliningrad, Russia. About INS Tushil: It is a multi-role stealth guided missile frigate. It is the latest in a series of upgraded Krivak III-class frigates, part of the Russian-designed Project 1135.6. The Indian Navy already operates six ships from this class, including three Talwar-class frigates and three Teg-class follow-ons, all built at Russian shipyards in St. Petersburg and Kaliningrad. INS Tushil, the seventh vessel in this series, is the first of two upgraded frigates under a contract signed in 2016 between the Indian Government, JSC Rosoboronexport, and the Russian defence industry. The ship’s name, Tushil, translates to "protector shield," and its crest embodies the concept of an "Impenetrable Shield" (Abhedya Kavacham), reflecting the Navy's commitment to safeguarding India’s maritime borders. At 125 meters in length and displacing 3,900 tons, INS Tushil is equipped with advanced stealth features, making it less detectable by enemy radar and more stable in various sea conditions. The ship incorporates 26 percent indigenous technology, with over 33 systems developed by Indian manufacturers. The ship will be assigned to the Western Fleet under the Western Naval Command, joining the “Sword Arm” of the Indian Navy. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thestatesman.com/india/navy-to-commission-advanced-stealth-frigate-ins-tushil-in-russia-1503372970.html

Answer 65

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Little gull—a bird native to the Eurasian region—was spotted for the first time in NCR. About Little Gull: The Little Gull (Hydrocoloeus minutus) is the smallest species of gull (seabird) in the world, belonging to the family Laridae. It breeds in northern Europe and across the Palearctic. It is migratory, wintering on coasts in western Europe, the Mediterranean, and (in small numbers) the northeast United States. Habitat: Seacoasts, bays, estuaries, rivers, lakes, ponds, marshes, and flooded fields. Features: This is the smallest gull species, with a length of 25–30 cm, a wingspan of 61–78 cm, and a mass of 68–162 g. It is pale grey in breeding plumage with a black hood, dark underwings, and often a pinkish flush on the breast. In winter, the head goes white apart from a darker cap and eye-spot. The bill is thin and black, and the legs are dark red. The flight on rounded wings is somewhat tern-like. Young birds have black markings on the head and upper parts, and a "W" pattern across the wings. They take three years to reach maturity. IUCN Red List: Least Concern Hence both statements are not correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/gurgaon/rare-eurasian-little-gull-spotted-for-the-first-time-in-ncr/articleshow/116056977.cms

Answer 66

Nagaland Explanation : In a stunning display of strength and unity, 1,500 members of the Angami Naga tribe participated in a powerful cultural ceremony at Nagaland’s Hornbill Festival recently. About Angami Tribe: The Angami-Naga tribe is one among the many other Naga tribes and has its own cultural identity. They mainly reside in the Kohima district of Nagaland. Their ancestors migrated from Myanmar to Nagaland. They are also one of the recognised ethnic groups in the state of Manipur. They belong to the Mongoloid race. Language: "Tenyidie" is the most common language spoken among the Angami Nagas in Nagaland. They do not have a script of their own. The Nagamese language has become the spoken language which has originated with the combination of Assamese, Bengali, Hindi, and Nepali languages. These tribes are known for their terrace wet cultivation. Economy: Angami Naga tribes are agriculturists. Shifting or Jhum cultivation is practiced among this tribe. Animal husbandry has also become one of the basic occupations. They are also known for their tradition of cane and bamboo basketry. The khophi, a utility basket for carrying things, is its signature basket. Their society is patriarchal and patrilineal. Most of the Angami Naga tribes have accepted the Christian religion. ‘Sekrenyi’ is the main festival celebrated among this tribe. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.newsx.com/india/what-is-nagalands-hornbill-festival-discover-the-epic-stone-pulling-ceremony-that-left-everyone-awestruck/

Answer 67

United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification Explanation : Recently, at the Business 4 Land forum at the COP16 conference, the private sector has been urged to make the sustainable management of land a key part of corporate and financial strategy. It is the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’s (UNCCD) main initiative to engage the private sector in sustainable land and water management. It helps companies and financial institutions manage risks and seize opportunities tied to land degradation and drought. Aim: It aims to restore 1.5 billion hectares of land by 2030, contributing to Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN), a global commitment to achieve net zero land degradation by 2030, as well as enhancing drought resilience. B4L’s work is built around three key pillars: Business operations and value chains: Promote sustainable practices and set targets for reducing land-related impacts across business operations. Finance: Support the creation of sustainable finance solutions for land restoration and drought resilience. Advocacy: Advocate for policies that foster a business environment conducive to sustainable land and water management. What is the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification? It was established in 1994 to protect and restore our land and ensure a safer, just, and more sustainable future. The UNCCD is the only legally binding framework set up to address desertification and the effects of drought. There are 197 Parties to the Convention, including 196 country Parties and the European Union. Hence option (d) is the correct answer. News: https://news.un.org/en/story/2024/12/1157801

Answer 68

2 only Explanation : Recently, the first annual review meeting of the Rural Technology Action Group (RuTAG) 2.0 projects was held at the Sher-e-Kashmir University of Agricultural Sciences and Technology (SKUAST), Srinagar, Kashmir. Rural Technology Action Group (RuTAG) is an initiative of the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India launched in 2004. It was conceptualized as a mechanism to provide a higher level of Science & Technology intervention and support for rural areas. Under this initiative, the interventions are designed to be primarily demand-driven, focusing on bridging technology gaps at the grassroots level, upgrading technology, and providing training and demonstrations through innovative projects. Objectives To connect with possible stakeholders like NGOs (Non-Government Organizations), SHGs, (Self Help Groups), COs (Community Organizations) Start-ups, Technology Incubators, and Fabricators to identify sector-specific technology needs. To develop demand-driven technologies based on socio-economic data coherent with national/regional priorities, national policies/ schemes etc. To validate developed prototypes supported with impact studies and explore their commercialization with scalability aspects. To commercialize the potentially validated technologies for national/global markets. The Office of the PSA launched RuTAG 2.0 in April 2023, with a focus on commercialization and broader dissemination of developed technologies as products, ensuring wider accessibility and socio-economic impact. The RuTAG 2.0 initiative will emphasize translating innovation into market-ready products reflecting its commitment to driving transformative changes in rural areas and empowering communities for sustainable development. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2081493

Answer 69

All three Explanation : Recently, the union Minister for Education launched the PMeVIDYA DTH 24x7 Channel No. 31 for Indian Sign Language (ISL) in New Delhi. It was launched as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan by the Ministry of Education on 17th May 2020. It is aimed at bridging the digital divide and ensuring inclusive, quality education for all learners across the nation. Through its diverse components, it provides the necessary tools for both students and educators to adapt to a digital learning environment. It provides multi-mode access to education through digital, online, and on-air platforms to minimise learning losses. It supports the vision of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, ensuring equitable and quality education across the country. The initiative leverages technology to make education accessible to all students, including those in rural and remote areas, by providing a wide range of digital resources, courses, and interactive content. Components DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for School Education): A national digital platform providing high-quality e-content, including QR-coded Energized Textbooks for all grades (one nation, one digital platform). PM e-Vidya DTH TV Channels: It had initially 12 DTH channels, now expanded to 200 channels, providing supplementary education in multiple Indian languages for classes 1-12 across States/UTs. SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds): A national MOOC platform offering higher education courses with credit transfer provisions. It also offers school courses (9th–12th) via NIOS and NCERT. Currently, over 10,000 courses are available, with 4.1 lakh students enrolled for NCERT courses. Radio, Community Radio & CBSE Podcast - Shiksha Vani: These platforms are used to broadcast educational content to a wider audience, especially in areas with limited internet access. e-Content for Teachers: It provides various e-courses and digital resources for school and teacher education include interactive videos, audiobooks, and digital events like quizzes for teachers and students. Key facts about the PM e-Vidya DTH Channel 31 It is devoted to the promotion of the Indian Sign Language has been conceptualised to promote ISL as a language as well as a school subject, so that the larger population has access to learning the language. It is 24x7 Channel will disseminate learning content for school children (Central & State Curriculum), teachers, teacher educators and other stakeholders. Hence all statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2081612

Answer 70

2 only Explanation : Recently, the third Copernicus Sentinel-1C satellite was launched last night aboard a Vega-C rocket from Europe’s Spaceport in French Guiana. It is the Earth observation component of the European Union’s Space programme. It offers information services that draw from satellite Earth Observation and in-situ (non-space) data. The programme consists of a complex set of systems that collect data from multiple sources, including Earth Observation satellites, in-situ sensors like ground stations, and airborne and sea-borne sensors. Users have free and open access to a great deal of this data, which is also processed to provide a set of services based on reliable and near-real time information. Copernicus is served by a set of dedicated satellites (Sentinel family) and contributing missions The Sentinel satellites are specifically designed to meet the needs of the Copernicus information services and their users. Since the launch of Sentinel-1A in 2014, the European Union has initiated a process to place a complete constellation of almost 20 satellites in orbit before 2030. The services of Copernicus, address six thematic areas namely: atmosphere, marine, land, climate, emergency response, and security. Copernicus is funded, coordinated and managed by the European Commission in cooperation with partners such as European Space Agency and other EU agencies. Key facts about the Sentinel-1C It delivers high-resolution radar images to monitor Earth’s changing environment. It supports various applications, advances scientific research, and adds new capabilities for tracking maritime traffic. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/copernicus-sentinel-1c-satellite-launched-aboard-vega-c-rocket/

Answer 71

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) has introduced a comprehensive rating system for performance assessment of the concessionaires engaged in the National Highway development and maintenance. It is a detailed methodology for rating the concessioners has been formulated by NHAI. Under which concessioners will be evaluated every six months and ratings will be uploaded on NHAI website and its social media handles. Assessment Methodology The assessment will be based on Pavement Condition Index (PCI) as well as Defect rectification compliance on NHAI One App where over 95 defects can be notified and monitored digitally shall also form a part of rating assessment. Eighty Percent weightage would be given to PCI and Twenty percent weightage would be given to compliance on NHAI One App. PCI, a scientific metric ranging from 0 to 100, reflecting pavement conditions from ‘Excellent’ to ‘Failed’, as per IRC 82:2023 guidelines. PCI will be calculated based on six functional parameters that include roughness, potholes, cracking, Ravelling, Rut Depth and Patchwork. The data for PCI value will be calculated using the latest technology such as Laser Crack Measurement Systems through Network Survey Vehicles (NSV) and will be surveyed and processed through centrally deployed agencies by NHAI under supervision of a dedicated team. As per the assessed ‘Concessionaire Rating Value’, Concessionaires will be divided under different categories. Contractors scoring less than 70 out of 100 rating will be declared ‘non-performers’, thus becoming ineligible to secure new National Highway projects till improvement in its rating. The assessment of the concessionaires will be done at two levels, first at individual project level and second at Concessionaire level. The rating value at project level as well as combined concessionaire rating value would be reviewed every 6 months with every cycle of NSV survey. Data related to defects rectification compliance on NHAI One App will also be used for calculating rating value. Significance It will enhance accountability and assess the quality of construction and maintenance of National Highways. It will provide a safer, smoother, and seamless travel experience to National Highway users. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2081543

Answer 72

1 only Explanation : The world’s oldest known wild bird, a Laysan albatross named Wisdom, at 74 years old, has laid what experts estimate to be her 60th egg. About Laysan albatross: The Laysan albatross (Phoebastria immutabilis) is a large seabird that ranges across the North Pacific. The Northwestern Hawaiian Islands are home to 99.7% of the population. It spends most of its time on the open sea, spanning these tropical waters. It nests on open, sandy, or grassy expanses of islands, with 94% of breeding pairs on Laysan Island and Midway Atoll, as well as on other small Hawaiian Islands, the bigger islands of Oahu and Kauai, and a few sites off Japan and Mexico. It is an expert soarer and can travel hundreds of miles in a day with scarcely a wingbeat. Laysan albatrosses have blackish-brown backs and upper wings. The primary feathers have a flash of white. The underwing is also white, with black margins. There is a dark tail band that is visible during flight. Laysan albatrosses are a monogamous species, and they mate for life. IUCN Red List: Near Threatened Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/home/environment/flora-fauna/worlds-oldest-known-wild-bird-lays-egg-in-hawaii-at-age-74/articleshow/116031285.cms

Answer 73

1 only Explanation : Sacred groves can harbour and support biodiversity and also act as carbon sinks; but most of them are under threat today About Sacred Groves: Sacred Groves are patches of natural or near-natural vegetation, dedicated by local communities to their ancestral spirits or deities. These groves are protected by local communities, usually through customary taboos and sanctions with ancestral and ecological implications. India has well over 13,000 documented sacred groves. The states particularly rich in abundance of groves are Kerala, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. These are known as Kavu/Sarpa Kavu in Kerala, Devarakadu/ Devkad in Karnataka, Deorai/Devrai in Maharashtra, Jahera/Thakuramma in Odisha, etc. The degree of sanctity of the sacred forests varies from one grove to another. For example, the Garo and the Khasi tribes of northeastern India completely prohibit any human interference in the sacred groves. The sacred groves are important repositories of floral and faunal diversity that have been conserved by local communities in a sustainable manner. They are often the last refuge of endemic species in the geographical region. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/preserving-indias-sacred-groves-can-help-country-achieve-its-conservation-climate-goals-experts

Answer 74

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development for 2024 will be conferred on former Chilean president and prominent human rights voice Michelle Bachelet, a statement issued by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust said recently. About Indira Gandhi Peace Prize: The Indira Gandhi Peace Price, also known as the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development, was instituted in the memory of the former prime minister by a trust in her name in 1986. It consists of a monetary award of 25 lakh rupees along with a citation. The award is given to individuals or organisations who work towards ensuring international peace and development, ensuring that scientific discoveries are used to further the scope of freedom and better humanity, and creating a new international economic order. Past recipients of this award include: Mikhail Gorbachev, former leader of the Soviet Union (1987); UNICEF (1989) Jimmy Carter, former president of the US (1997) UN and its secretary-general Kofi Annan (2003) Angela Merkel, chancellor of Germany (2013) Indian Space Research Organisation (2014) Former Prime Minister of India, Manmohan Singh (2017) Sir David Attenborough (2019) Pratham NGO (2021) Indian Medical Association and the Trained Nurses Association of India (2022) Daniel Barenboim and Ali Abu Awwad (2023) Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/indira-gandhi-peace-prize-presented-to-covid-19-warriors/article67551765.ece

Answer 75

Tamil Nadu Explanation : Coimbatore District Collector recently accorded community forest rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, to three tribal settlements in the Anamalai Tiger Reserve (ATR). About Anamalai Tiger Reserve: It is a protected area located at an altitude of 1400 m in the Anamalai Hills of Pollachi and Coimbatore District of Tamil Nadu. It lies south of the Palakkad gap in the Southern Western Ghats. It is surrounded by the Parambikulum Tiger Reserve on the east, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary, and Eravikulum National Park on the southwestern side. The reserve is also surrounded by the Nenmara, Vazhachal, Malayattur, and Marayur reserved forests of Kerala. It was declared a tiger reserve in the year 2007. Habitat: It supports diverse habitat types, viz. Wet evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, moist deciduous, dry deciduous, dry thorn, and shola forests. Other unique habitats like montane grasslands, savannah and marshy grasslands are also present. Flora: Around 2500 species of angiosperms are found in the Anamalai Tiger Reserve, with several species of Balsam, Crotalaria, Orchids, and Kurinchi. The reserve is rich in wild relatives of cultivated species like mango, jackfruit, wild plantain, ginger (Zingiber officinale), turmeric, pepper (Piper longum), cardamom, etc. Fauna: The important wild animals of the reserve include: Tiger, Asiatic elephant, Sambar, Spotted deer, Barking deer, Jackal, Leopard, Jungle cat, etc. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Coimbatore/community-individual-rights-accorded-to-tribal-settlements-in-anamalai-tiger-reserve/article68955934.ece

Answer 76

1 only Explanation : Comedian Munawar Faruqui recently opened up about a tough time in his life when his young son was diagnosed with Kawasaki disease. About Kawasaki Disease: It is also known as Kawasaki syndrome or mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome. It is a rare disease that causes fever and inflammation of the blood vessels, mainly in children under 5 years of age. The disease was first described in Japan by Tomisaku Kawasaki in 1967, and the first cases outside of Japan were reported in Hawaii in 1976. The cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, although more cases happen in late winter and early spring. It is one of the most common forms of acquired heart disease in children. The condition causes the immune system to attack blood vessels, which become inflamed and swollen. It tends to affect the coronary arteries, which carry blood to the heart muscle. It can also cause problems with lymph nodes, skin, and the lining of a child's mouth, nose, and throat. Symptoms: Symptoms of Kawasaki disease can appear in two phases and may last several weeks. Common symptoms include: A high fever lasting more than five days. Red eyes without discharge. A rash on the body, often in the chest and groin area. Swollen hands and feet, sometimes with redness. Red, cracked lips and a swollen, red tongue. Swollen lymph nodes, especially on one side of the neck. Treatment: Kawasaki disease is usually treated in the hospital with an intravenous (IV) dose of immunoglobulin (IVIG) antibodies. The goals of treatment are to lower fever, reduce swelling, and prevent heart damage. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.dnaindia.com/health/report-what-is-kawasaki-the-rare-disease-munawar-faruqui-s-son-diagnosed-with-3121339

Answer 77

1 only Explanation : The IEA’s Global Conference on Energy & AI recently featured a high-level roundtable focused on building strategic understanding on energy and AI topics and a technical forum for experts. About the International Energy Agency (IEA): It is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation within the OECD framework. It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all. The IEA was established in 1974, in the wake of the 1973-1974 oil crisis, to help its members respond to major oil supply disruptions, a role it continues to fulfill today. IEA’s mandate has expanded over time to include tracking and analyzing global key energy trends, promoting sound energy policy, and fostering multinational energy technology cooperation. The IEA has four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness, and engagement worldwide. It consists of 31 member countries and eleven association countries. A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Criteria for membership: Crude oil and/or product reserves are equivalent to 90 days of the previous year’s net imports, to which the government has immediate access (even if it does not own them directly) and could be used to address disruptions to global oil supply. A demand restraint programme to reduce national oil consumption by up to 10%. Legislation and organisation to operate the Co-ordinated Emergency Response Measures (CERM) on a national basis. Legislation and measures to ensure that all oil companies under its jurisdiction report information upon request. Measures are in place to ensure the capability of contributing its share of an IEA collective action. India joined this organization in 2017 as an Associate member. The IEA periodically conducts extensive analysis of member countries’ energy policies. Reports published by IEA: World Energy Outlook, World Energy Balances, Energy Technology Perspectives, World Energy Statistics and Net Zero by 2050. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.iea.org/news/at-major-iea-conference-decision-makers-from-tech-energy-and-government-underscore-ais-implications-for-energy-security-and-transitions

Answer 78

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A five-year-old girl died of multiple injuries three days after she was allegedly thrown off a bridge over the Jhelum River in Srinagar by her 'mentally ill' aunt. About Jhelum River: It is a river of northwestern India and northern and eastern Pakistan. It is a tributary of the Indus River. The Jhelum (Vyeth in Kashmiri, Vetesta in Sanskrit, and Hydaspes in Greek) is the main waterway of the Kashmir valley. It is the largest and most western of the five rivers of Punjab and passes through the Jhelum District in the North of Punjab province, Pakistan. Course: Origin: It originates at the Verinag Spring at Anantnag, at the foot of the Pir Panjal range in the Kashmir Valley. The river meanders northwestward from the northern slope of the Pir Panjal Range through the Vale of Kashmir to Wular Lake at Srinagar, which controls its flow. The river makes a deep, narrow gorge on its way to Pakistan. It joins the Chenab River near Trimmu, Pakistan. Length: It has a total length of about 725 km (450 mi). Major Tributaries: The largest tributary of the Jhelum is the Kishenganga (Neelum) River, which joins near Muzaffarabad and enters the Punjab province, Pakistan. The Kunhar River is the second largest tributary of the river, which connects Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK) and Pakistan on the Kohala Bridge of the Kanghan valley. Other tributaries include the Sandran River, Bringi River, Arapath River, Watlara River, Lidder River, and Veshaw River. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.iea.org/news/at-major-iea-conference-decision-makers-from-tech-energy-and-government-underscore-ais-implications-for-energy-security-and-transitions

Answer 79

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : New genetic research on Nicobarese revealed a significant ancestral connection with Austro-Asiatic populations across South and Southeast Asia. About Nicobarese: "Nicobarese" is a general term used by outsiders to refer to an indigenous community that inhabits much of the Nicobar Islands. The Nicobar Islands are part of the larger Andaman and Nicobar archipelago located some 1,200 km off the east coast of India in the Bay of Bengal. The Nicobar Island constitute a land mass of 1,841 sq.km, which is about a fourth of the total area of the entire Andaman and Nicobar archipelago. Of the twenty-four islands in the Nicobars, twelve are inhabited. The Nicobarese belong to the Southeast Asian cultural complex and speak an Austro-Asiatic language. However, they are far from being a homogenous group. The internal diversity among them takes the form of four distinct cultural groups. These are the islands of: Car Nicobar; Chowra (Chaura), Bompoka (Bompooka) and Teressa; Katchal (Katchall), Nancowry, Kamorta (Camorta) and Trinket; Little Nicobar, Kondul, Pulo Milo (Pilomillow), and Great Nicobar. According to the 2011 census the indigenous Nicobarese number 23,681. The population is unevenly distributed, with nearly half the population living on Car Nicobar. Largely self-sufficient, the Nicobarese practice a mix of hunting-and-gathering, fishing and raising pigs. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/science/new-genetic-research-points-to-austro-asiatic-connection-of-nicobarese-3306827

Answer 80

Bhutan Explanation : Tata Power has commenced construction on the Rs 6,900 crore Khorlochhu Hydropower Project in Bhutan, with commissioning expected by 2029. About Khorlochhu Hydropower Project: Situated on the Kholongchhu River in Eastern Bhutan’s Trashiyangtse district, the project seeks to meet Bhutan’s rising electricity demands and aid India’s renewable energy transition. It is the first-ever energy project to be developed through a joint venture (JV) partnership between India and Bhutan. It will be constructed by Khorlochhu Hydro Power Limited (KHPL), a strategic partnership between Bhutan’s Druk Green Power Corporation (DGPC) and India’s Tata Power. The 600 MW project the project is expected to be commissioned in September 2029. The project will feature a 95m-high concrete gravity dam measuring 165m in length and 6m in width. The dam will create a 1.4 km long reservoir with 2.9 million cubic metres (MCM) of gross storage capacity. The electricity generated from the Kholongchhu hydroelectric project will be transmitted to the NEWNE grids of Bhutan and India via 400 kV transmission lines. The project is estimated to cost £488.14 m (INR 46.32bn), which is being financed under a debt-equity ratio of 70:30. The Government of India is providing DGPC’s share of equity. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/headlines/3186180-tata-power-embarks-on-bhutanss-ambitious-hydropower-journey

Answer 81

1 only Explanation : The Markhor, a wild goat with spiral-shaped horns, was seen in a rare appearance in Noorkha village of Boniyar in Baramulla district of North Kashmir recently. About Markhor: It is a large wild goat of the family Bovidae (order Artiodactyla). It is known for its thick fur, flowing beard, and corkscrew horns. It is a diurnal animal and is mainly active in the early morning and late afternoon. Distribution: It is found in the moist to semi-arid mountain tracts of Pakistan, India, Afghanistan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, and Tajikistan. In J&K, Markhor’s population is found in Shopian, the Banihal pass and the Shamsbari area of the Kazinag Uri and Pir Panjal range in Poonch. The markhor is the national animal of Pakistan, where it is also known as the screw-horn or screw-horned goat. Conservation status: IUCN: ‘Near Threatened’ Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I CITES: Appendix I Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://kashmirobserver.net/2024/12/07/in-rare-appearance-markhor-spotted-in-north-kashmirs-baramulla/

Answer 82

2 only Explanation : A small team of ichthyologists recently discovered a new species of damselfish living off the shores of the Maldives. About Damselfish: Damselfish is any of about 250 species of small, primarily tropical marine fishes of the family Pomacentridae (order Perciformes) found in the Atlantic and Indo-Pacific oceans. Damselfishes are deep-bodied and usually have forked tails. They resemble the related cichlids and, like them, have a single nostril on each side of the head and have interrupted lateral lines. Damselfishes have two anal spines. Many species are brilliantly coloured, often in shades of red, orange, yellow, or blue; most do not exceed a length of about 15 cm (6 inches). Some feed mainly on plant matter or small animals suspended in the water while others are omnivorous. Most damselfishes live along reefs, but certain species, the anemone fishes, are noted for living among the stinging tentacles of sea anemones. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://phys.org/news/2024-12-species-damselfish-deep-sea-coral.html

Answer 83

Uttar Pradesh Explanation : A probe has been ordered after a viral video surfaced, showing a fleet of vehicles allegedly belonging to a Minister in Uttar Pradesh passing through the core area of the Pilibhit Tiger Reserve. About Pilibhit Tiger Reserve: It is located in Pilibhit District, Lakhimpur Kheri District and Bahraich District of Uttar Pradesh. It lies along the India-Nepal border in the foothills of the Himalayas and the plains of the ‘terai’ in Uttar Pradesh. The river Gomti originates from the PTR, which is also the catchment of several others like Sharda, Chuka, and Mala Khannot. The Sharda Sagar Dam, extending up to a length of 22 km (14 mi), is on the boundary of the reserve. Vegetation: Moist deciduous type. It has a dry and hot climate, which brings a combination of dry teak forest and Vindhya Mountain soils. Flora: It is characterized by sal forests, tall grasslands and swamps, maintained by periodic flooding from rivers. The sal woodland is very dense with good natural regeneration, amounting to almost 76% of the reserve area. The forest patches are interspersed with grass meadows with several species like Sacchrum, Sclerostachya, Imperata, Themeda, Bothriochloa, Vetiveria, Apluda, Dichanthium, Digitaria, and Cyperus. Fauna: It is home to a myriad of wild animals including the endangered tiger, swamp deer, Bengal florican, hog deer, leopard, etc. The rich bird life in Pilibhit includes species like Swamp Francolin, Great Hornbill, Bengal Florican, Lesser Florican, Black Francolin, Jungle Bush Quail, Red Junglefowl, Asian Openbill, etc. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/lucknow-news/probe-ordered-after-viral-video-shows-minister-s-fleet-in-pilibhit-tiger-reserve-101733684707165.html

Answer 84

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : In a recent study published, researchers assess the efficacy and safety of filgotinib, a Janus kinase (JAK) 1 preferential inhibitor, as induction and maintenance therapy in patients with moderately to severely active Crohn's disease. About Crohn’s Disease: It is a type of Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD). It is a chronic, or long-term condition that causes inflammation in the digestive tract. Causes: It is not clear what causes Crohn’s disease. Experts suggest that it may stem from an abnormal reaction of the immune system. Although it typically starts in childhood or early adulthood, Crohn’s disease can develop at any age. Inflammation caused by Crohn's disease can involve different areas of the digestive tract in different people, most commonly the small intestine. Symptoms: The most common symptoms of Crohn’s disease are diarrhoea, cramping and pain in the abdomen, anaemia, altered appetite and weight loss. Treatment: There's no known cure for Crohn's disease, but therapies can greatly reduce its signs and symptoms. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.news-medical.net/news/20241208/Filgotinib-offers-new-promise-for-managing-Crohne28099s-disease.aspx

Answer 85

2 only Explanation : Moths can hear sounds emitted by plants and rely on them to choose on which plant to lay their eggs, according to a new study. About Moths: Moths are insects that belong to the order Lepidoptera, which they share with butterflies. There are around 160,000 known species of moths, far outnumbering butterfly species. Highly adapted, they live in all but polar habitats. Moths vary greatly in size, ranging in wingspan from about 4 mm (0.16 inch) to nearly 30 cm (about 1 foot). They often have duller colors compared to butterflies, which helps with camouflage. Some, like the luna moth or atlas moth, are vividly colored. Moth antennae are often feathery, unlike the thin and clubbed antennae of butterflies. Most moths are active at night, but some are diurnal. The larvae and adults of most moth species are plant eaters. Larvae in particular do considerable damage to ornamental trees and shrubs and to many other plants of economic importance. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.britannica.com/animal/moth-insect

Answer 86

Maharashtra Explanation : The Maharashtra government plans to submit a proposal to the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) to include the famous Lonar Lake in Buldhana district in the UNESCO World Heritage Sites list. About Lonar Lake: It is a lake of lagoon in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra state. It was created due to a meteorite. It is the only known saline crater lake in the world, formed by the impact of a meteorite about 50,000 years ago. Its water is seven times saltier than seawater. The lake has a diameter of 1.2 kilometers and a depth of 150 meters, and is surrounded by a rim of hills. One of the most striking aspects is its color, which changes from green to pink depending on the season and the water conditions. This is caused by the presence of microorganisms that thrive in the saline and alkaline environment of the lake. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/maharashtra-govt-steps-up-efforts-to-get-unesco-tag-for-lonar-lake-124120900070_1.html

Answer 87

Reserve Bank Innovation Hub Explanation : Recently, the Reserve Bank of India asked banks to collaborate with its initiative MuleHunter.AI to weed out mule accounts which are used to commit financial fraud. It is the Artificial Intelligence/ Machine Learning-based model. It is developed by the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH), which is a subsidiary of Reserve Bank. This model enables detection of mule bank accounts in an efficient manner. A pilot with two large public sector banks has yielded encouraging results. What is a mule bank account? A mule account is a bank account that is used by criminals for illegal activities, including the laundering of illicit funds. A mule account is typically bought over by the criminals from their original users, individuals who are often from lower income groups, or have low levels of technical literacy. The related term “money mule” is used to describe the innocent victims who are used by the criminals to launder stolen or illegal money via their bank accounts. When such incidents are reported, the money mule becomes the target of police investigations, because it is their accounts that are involved, while the actual criminals remain undetectable. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/rbi-asks-banks-to-collaborate-with-mulehunter-ai-to-find-mule-accounts-124120600623_1.html

Answer 88

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Astronomers from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) have spotted Far Ultraviolet (FUV) emissions from novae for the first time in the neighbouring Andromeda galaxy. It is a special class of transient astronomical event that causes the sudden appearance of a bright, apparently new star that slowly fades over weeks or months, during their outburst. Novae occur in binary star systems where a dense, Earth-sized white dwarf star orbits closely with a Sun-like companion. The white dwarf's strong gravitational pull draws matter from its companion, creating an intense accumulation of material on its surface. This process triggers powerful thermonuclear reactions, producing a sudden bright burst visible as a nova. A nova reaches maximum luminosity within hours after its outburst and may shine intensely for several days Key facts about the Andromeda galaxy The Andromeda Galaxy, also called Messier 31 or M31, is the nearest major galaxy to the Milky Way. It is 2.5 million light years away from Earth and is the other major member of the Local Group, our local collection of galaxies. Like the Milky Way, it is a barred spiral galaxy, so-called for the bar-like structure formed by the stars in its center Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/in-a-first-iia-astronomers-spot-ultraviolet-emissions-from-novae-in-andromeda-galaxy/article68961894.ece

Answer 89

Only two Explanation : Recently, researchers have identified two genetically distinct groups of the Indian star tortoise species namely northwestern and southern. Its name comes from the star-like patterns that feature on its high-domed shell. It has very distinctive patterns and its highly rounded shell makes it popular in the world's trade in exotic pets. Habitat They occupy a wide variety of habitats, including semi-arid lowland forests, thorn scrub forests, semi-desert and arid grasslands. This species has a high tolerance for habitats that are seasonally wet or dry, with many populations inhabiting areas with a monsoon or rainy season followed by a long hot and dry period. Distribution: It is endemic to the subcontinent and resides in arid pockets of northwest India (bordering Pakistan), South India, and Sri Lanka. It is generally crepuscular, which means they are active in the early morning and the late afternoon during dry, hot weather. Diet: Indian star tortoises are mainly herbivores and mostly eat grasses, herbaceous leaves, flowers etc. Conservation status IUCN: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix I Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule I Threats: The highly fragmented habitat of the species, is greatly influenced by an increased level of urbanisation and agricultural practices throughout its range. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/study-brings-indian-star-tortoise-to-evidence-based-conservation/article68961578.ece

Answer 90

1 only Explanation : The India Internet Governance Forum (IIGF) 2024 will be held on December 9-10, 2024, at the Bharat Mandapam Convention Center, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi. It is the Indian chapter of the United Nations Internet Governance Forum (UN IGF). It is a global multi-stakeholder platform that fosters dialogue on public policy issues related to the Internet. Established in 2021, aims to maximize the opportunities of the Internet while addressing associated challenges and risks. IIGF promotes collaborative discussions among representatives from government, civil society, industries, technical communities, think tanks, and industry associations. It is supported by a 14-member multi-stakeholder committee. It is known for its inclusive and collaborative approach, IGF plays a vital role in shaping policies for an open, secure, and accessible Internet, addressing issues such as cybersecurity, digital inclusion, data privacy, and emerging technologies. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082152

Answer 91

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, India has been chosen to Chair the 68th Session of the United Nation Commission on Narcotic Drugs (CND). It is the principal policy-making body of the United Nations on drug-related matters. Mandate: It is mandated to monitor global drug trends, support Member States in formulating balanced policies, and oversee the implementation of the major international drug conventions. It is mandated to decide on the scope of control of substances under the three international drug control conventions (1961, 1971 and 1988 Conventions). It was established by the resolution of the United Nations Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in 1946. It is one of the functional commissions of the ECOSOC and a Governing Body of the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC). Members: The CND has 53 member states that are elected by ECOSOC. It is chaired by a Bureau including one member per Regional Group. It has five subsidiary bodies: the Heads of National Drug Law Enforcement Agencies in Europe, Latin America and the Caribbean, Asia and the Pacific and Africa, and the Subcommission in the Near and Middle East. It meets annually and adopts a range of decisions and resolutions. Intersessional meetings are convened throughout the year. Towards the end of each year, the Commission meets at a reconvened session to consider budgetary and administrative matters as the governing body of the United Nations drug programme. Headquarter: It is headquartered in Vienna. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/in-a-first-india-to-chair-68th-session-of-un-commission-on-narcotic-drugs-124120700040_1.html

Answer 92

1 only Explanation : The Prime Minister recently launched the Bima Sakhi Yojana in Haryana's Panipat. About Bima Sakhi Yojana: It is an initiative of the state-owned Life Insurance Corporation (LIC). It is designed to empower women aged 18-70 years who have passed out of Class 10. They will receive specialised training and a stipend for the first three years to promote financial literacy and insurance awareness. Under the scheme, female agents will get a stipend of Rs. 7,000 per month for the first year, Rs. 6,000 per month in the second year, and Rs. 5,000 per month in the third year. Bima Sakhis will also get commissions. They will receive a commission of Rs 48,000 (excluding bonus) for the first year. The plan is to appoint two lakh Bima Sakhi over a period of three years. Following the completion of the training, women can serve as LIC agents, and the graduate Bima Sakhis would have the opportunity to qualify for being considered for development officer roles in LIC. Relatives of existing agents and employees are not eligible for the scheme. Retired employees are also ineligible. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/india/pm-modi-to-launch-bima-sakhi-yojana-today-eligibility-stipend-and-other-details-explained-12885925.html

Answer 93

Majority of all the then members of the House Explanation : Opposition parties have decided to move a notice under Article 67(b) of the Constitution to remove the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha from his office. About Article 67(b): The Vice President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Article 67(b) of the Indian Constitution outlines how the Vice President can be removed from office. It states that the Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People. No such resolution can be moved unless ‘at least a 14-day notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. The notice must clearly state the intention to initiate the resolution and outline the reasons for it. Thus, the process to remove the Vice President begins in the Rajya Sabha, where the Vice President serves as the ex-officio Chairperson. Grounds for Removal: The Constitution does not specify particular grounds for removal, leaving it to the discretion of the members of Parliament. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-bloc-moves-resolution-to-remove-vice-president-jagdeep-dhankhar-from-office/article68965363.ece

Answer 94

2 only Explanation : India is set to finalise a landmark USD 4 billion defence agreement with Russia, aimed at acquiring a Russian Voronezh ballistic missile attack early warning radar. About Voronezh Radar: The Voronezh radar system is a critical component of Russia’s early warning and missile defence infrastructure. It is capable of identifying and tracking a range of threats, including ballistic missiles and aircraft, over distances of up to 8,000 kilometers. Introduced in 2009, these radars have been operational since 2012 and are strategically deployed across Russia to provide extensive coverage against potential missile threats. These radars employ phased array technology, which allows for rapid electronic steering of the beam. This makes them highly efficient and less mechanically complex than older systems. There are several varieties of these radars operating in the meter (Voronezh-M), decimeter (Voronezh-DM), or centimeter (Voronezh-CM) wavelength range, as well as a few others that combine several ranges. The different Voronezh radars can work in unison as part of an integrated Missile Attack Early Warning System to generate a comprehensive radar picture of potential missile threats and space activity. These radars are crucial for early warning against ballistic missile threats and are positioned to optimise detection capabilities across various threat vectors. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/india/story/india-russia-all-set-for-usd-4-billion-deal-for-advanced-radar-system-2646849-2024-12-09

Answer 95

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Bird enthusiasts recently spotted a marbled duck — an unusual winter migrant at Sultanpur National Park after 30 years. About Marbled Duck: The Marbled Duck, also known as marbled teal, is a relatively small duck characterized by its black bill, pale-spotted gray-brown plumage, dark eye patch, and the absence of a speculum. Scientific Name: Marmaronetta angustirostris Distribution: It is distributed throughout the central and southwestern Palearctic in several highly fragmented populations that stretch from Central Asia to northwest Africa and the Iberian Peninsula. Migratory Patterns: Populations in colder regions migrate south during winter, reaching areas like North Africa and the Indian subcontinent. Habitat: It is typically found in temporary or semi-permanent wetlands, although it is ultimately tolerant of many types of wetlands, both natural and artificial, provided they offer shallow areas. It tends to prefer brackish wetlands over fresh or saline ones and well-structured vegetation. It is a gregarious, non-territorial and non-aggressive species. Marbled ducks are usually monogamous. IUCN Red List Status: Near Threatened Hence both statements are not correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/gurgaon/rare-marbled-duck-makes-unexpected-appearance-at-sultanpur-national-park-after-30-years/articleshow/116111493.cms

Answer 96

2 only Explanation : The Subaru Telescope recently captured a pair of interacting galaxies designated as NGC 5257 and NGC 5258. About Subaru Telescope: It is a Japanese 8.2-metre (27-foot) optical-infrared telescope. It is located on the dormant volcano Mauna Kea (4,163 metres) on the island of Hawaii. The telescope is named for the Japanese name for the Pleiades and is operated by the National Astronomical Observatory of Japan. Construction on Subaru began in 1992, and the first observations were made in 1999. An adaptive optics system consisting of 261 actuators can change the shape of the mirror so that it is not affected by deformations caused by gravity. Its powerful light-collecting capability can capture weak light from celestial objects. To minimize air turbulence near the telescope, the dome that surrounds the telescope is cylindrical instead of a hemisphere, as is the case with most other observatories. The Subaru Telescope has observed various celestial bodies, from nearby shooting stars to galaxies located 13.1 billion light years away. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.news9live.com/science/subaru-telescope-captures-spectacular-pair-of-interacting-galaxies-2768995

Answer 97

triple-star system Explanation : Recently, researchers from the National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) in Odisha, studied a unique triple-star system called GG Tau A. It is a unique triple-star system which is located 489 light-years away from Earth. The system is young- - only 1 to 5 million years old- which makes it perfect for studying the early stages of planet formation. Around these stars is a disk made of gas and dust, which is where planets begin to form. The three stars in GG Tau A interact with each other and affect the disk of gas and dust around them, making it harder to predict how planets might form. The forces between the stars could cause the disk to behave differently than in a system with just one star. This makes GG Tau A a perfect system to study how planets can form in more complicated, multi-star environments. Significance: This is a rare setup in the universe, and studying it helps scientists understand how planets form in more complicated star systems. It allows scientists to learn how planets could form in these more complicated environments. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/etimes/trending/india-makes-breakthrough-discovery-i

Answer 98

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Central Government has revised the prices of food items provided to children under the Pradhan Mantri Poshan Yojana. It was earlier known as the National Programme of Mid-Day Meal in schools. In September 2021, Mid-Day Meal Scheme was renamed as Pradhan Mantri POSHAN Scheme. It is a centrally sponsored scheme under which one hot cooked meal is served to students studying in Balvatika and classes I to VIII, in Government and Government-aided schools on all school-days. The scheme aims at providing nutritional support and enhancing school participation of students. The objectives of the Scheme are to address two of the pressing problems for majority of children in India, viz. hunger and education by: Improving the nutritional status of eligible children in Government and Government aided schools. Encouraging poor children, belonging to disadvantaged sections, to attend school more regularly and help them concentrate on classroom activities. Providing nutritional support to children of the elementary stage in drought-affected and disaster affected areas during summer vacation. Recently, on the basis of the inflation index provided by the Labour Bureau, the Ministry of Education, Government of India, has enhanced the ‘Material Cost’ by 13.70 %. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Education Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082529

Answer 99

Tripura Explanation : A recent study published in the prestigious journal ‘Food Frontiers highlighted that extract from a traditional fermented bamboo shoot variety of Tripura, popularly called called ‘Melye-amiley’ has anti-obesity effects. It is a traditional fermented bamboo shoot variety of Tripura. It has anti-obesity effects and offers a solution to weight management and metabolic health, It reduces lipid accumulation and increases fatty acid β-oxidation. Highlights of the research Based on in vitro cell culture studies the team has observed that a traditional fermented bamboo shoot variety of Tripura, called ‘Melye-amiley’ can reduce intracellular lipid accumulation. The process involved increase in the expression of lipolytic (HSL, LPL, and Agtl) and fat browning regulator genes (UCP1, PRDM16, and PGC1-alpha). Furthermore, the study demonstrates that treatment with Melye-amiley leads to the upregulation of thermogenic protein expression via the AMPK signaling pathway. This process stimulates mitochondrial biogenesis and enhances fatty acid β-oxidation, offering a multifaceted approach to weight management and metabolic health. These findings suggest that fermented bamboo shoot extract has promising anti-obesity effects by boosting energy expenditure in white adipocytes. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082373

Answer 100

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The National Panchayat Awards Conferment Ceremony 2024, organized by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, will take place at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. These awards are pivotal in recognizing and encouraging Panchayats for their efforts in poverty alleviation, health, child welfare, water conservation, sanitation, infrastructure, social justice, governance, and women empowerment. The primary objective is to encourage these Panchayats to excel further and inspire other rural local bodies to achieve their best, ultimately ensuring ease of living and sustainable, inclusive development in rural areas. The Ministry of Panchayati Raj MoPR has grouped the 17 SDGs into 9 LSDG themes and revamped the National Panchayat Awards based on these themes: Poverty-Free and Enhanced Livelihoods Panchayat, Healthy Panchayat, Child-Friendly Panchayat, Water-Sufficient Panchayat, Clean and Green Panchayat, Self-Sufficient Infrastructure in Panchayat, Socially Just and Socially Secured Panchayat, Panchayat with Good Governance , Women-Friendly Panchayat. This award has been conferred under the following categories: Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar (DDUPSVP): This award is for top-3 ranking GPs/Equivalent bodies for their outstanding performance under each of the above mentioned 9 award themes. Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar: This award is for top 3 Gram, Block and District Panchayats each for their aggregate performance under all the 9 award themes of DDUPSVP. Special categories of Awards: Gram Urja Swaraj Vishesh Panchayat Puraskar is for top 3 GPs/Equivalent Bodies for their performance in adoption and usage of renewable sources of energy. Carbon Neutral Vishesh Panchayat Puraskar is for top 3 GPs/Equivalent Bodies for their performance in adoption and usage of renewable sources of energy. This year, a total of 3 awards have been conferred under this category. Panchayat Kshamta Nirmaan Sarvottam Sansthan Puraskar is for 3 Institutions across the country who have provided institutional support to GPs in achieving LSDGs. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2082383

Answer 101

2 only Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions launched the "Amrit Gyaan Kosh" Portal. It is jointly developed by the Capacity Building Commission and Karmayogi Bharat. It is a platform to promote self-reliance in governance training and strengthen governance training. It is developed on the iGOT platform, and serves as a comprehensive repository of best practices in governance and policy implementation. It aligns with 15 of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), covering critical themes such as health, education, agriculture, and digital governance. The curated resources enable faculty to align their teaching with global standards while addressing India's unique administrative challenges. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082392

Answer 102

All three Explanation : The Odisha government is planning to secure a ₹734.86-crore external loan from the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) to implement Phase II of the Odisha Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) Empowerment and Livelihood Improvement Programme (OPELIP-II). About International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD): IFAD is an international financial institution and a specialized United Nations agency. It invests in rural people, empowering them to improve their food security, nutrition, and incomes through funding of grants and low-interest loans to several projects. Founded in response to a global food crisis, since 1977, IFAD-supported projects have reached hundreds of millions of people around the world. IFAD works in areas where poverty and hunger are most prominent. It is the only specialized global development organisation exclusively focused on and dedicated to transforming agriculture, rural economies, and food systems. IFAD grants support research, innovation, institutional change, and pro-poor technologies. IFAD extends two types of grants, depending on the nature of the innovation and the scope of intervention: global or regional grantsand country-specific grants. IFAD headquarters is located in Rome, Italy. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/incoming/odisha-to-secure-73486-cr-loan-from-ifad-to-uplift-tribals/article68968298.ece

Answer 103

Silappatikaram Explanation : A complete and annotated version of the works of C. Subramania Bharati will be released by the Prime Minister in New Delhi. About C. Subramania Bharati: He was a poet, freedom fighter, and social reformer from Tamil Nadu. He was known as Mahakavi Bharathiyar, and the laudatory epithet Mahakavi means a great poet. He was born in Ettayapuram, South India, in 1882, and died in Madras in 1921. He is considered one of India’s greatest poets. His songs on nationalism and freedom of India helped to rally the masses to support the Indian Independence Movement in Tamil Nadu. Bharathi joined as Assistant Editor of the Swadesamitran, a Tamil daily, in 1904. In1907, he started editing the Tamil weekly India and the English newspaper Bala Bharatham with M.P.T. Acharya. He assisted Aurobindo in the Arya journal and later Karma Yogi in Pondicherry. Unfortunately, Bharati was persecuted for his convictions both by the British and by the orthodox elements of his own society, who treated him as an outcast. He was exiled from British India in 1908 and went to live in Pondicherry, a French colony in South India. He spent ten years in exile there and eventually returned to Madras, where he died. Most of his compositions are classifiable as short lyrical outpourings on patriotic, devotional, and mystic themes. Bharathi was essentially a lyrical poet. Bharati’s best-known works included Kaṇṇan pattu (1917; Songs to Krishna), Panchali sapatham (1912; Panchali’s Vow), and Kuyil pattu (1912; Kuyil’s Song). He also translated Vedic hymns, Patanjali's Yoga Sutra and Bhagavad Gita into Tamil. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/compiled-over-decades-subramania-bharatis-collected-works-to-be-released-by-pm-modi/article68969476.ece

Answer 104

1 only Explanation : India’s employability among graduates is expected to rise by 7 percent, reaching 54.81 percent in 2025, according to the ‘India Skills Report 2025.’ About India Skills Report 2025: It is prepared by the industry body Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) in collaboration with Wheebox (a talent assessment agency) and All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). It is based on data from over 6.5 lakh candidates who participated in the Global Employability Test (G.E.T.) across India, alongside insights from over 1,000 corporations across 15 diverse industries. Highlights of the Report: Nearly 55 percent of Indian graduates are expected to be globally employable in 2025, up from 51.2 percent in 2024 (a seven percent increase). It notes that management graduates (78 percent) have the highest global employability, followed by engineering students (71.5 percent), MCA students (71 percent) and science graduates (58 percent). States like Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Delhi are emerging as major hubs for employable talent, while cities such as Pune, Bengaluru and Mumbai are leading the way in providing a skilled workforce. Gender analysis shows that the employability rate for men is expected to rise to 53.5 percent in 2025 from 51.8 percent in 2024. Meanwhile, for women, the employability rate is projected to decline to 47.5 percent from 50.9 percent during the same time period. In 2025, 50 percent of secondary and tertiary students are expected to receive vocational training, further positioning India as a key player in the global talent market. The report further stresses the importance of integrating vocational training with industry needs, particularly in emerging sectors such as AI, cybersecurity, and green energy. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News:https://www.businessworld.in/article/indias-employability-to-rise-by-7-by-2025-report-541676

Answer 105

Only two Explanation : Arvind Panagariya, Chairman, 16th Finance Commission, recently termed the grievance of States regarding the Centre’s increasing reliance on cesses and surcharges as a “complicated issue.” About Cesses and Surcharges: Cess and surcharges are levied by the Central government for the purposes of the Union under Article 271 of the Constitution of India. A cess is a tax on tax. The Indian government levies it on the tax liability, including surcharge, and it is used for a specific purpose. Cesses are named after the identified purpose; the purpose itself must be certain and for the public good. Some different types of cesses levied in India are infrastructure cess on motor vehicles, Krishi Kalyan cess on service value, Swachh Bharat cess, education cess, and cess on crude oil, among others. On the other hand, a surcharge is charged on the income taxes paid. It is usually paid by taxpayers, whether individuals, associations of persons, or companies, who fall in a particular tax bracket. Surcharge is not collected for any specific purpose but can be used for any reason as seen reasonable by the Central government. The proceeds collected from a surcharge and a cess levied by the union form part of the Consolidated Fund of India. The funds need not be shared with the State governments and are thus at the exclusive disposal of the union government. The proceeds of such surcharges and cesses go towards meeting certain specific needs, such as financing of centrally sponsored schemes. The benefit of such expenditure also percolates to the states. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/dispute-over-cesses-and-surcharges-a-complicated-issue-arvind-panagariya/article68969934.ece

Answer 106

platform to discover molecules that could slow down ageing Explanation : Researchers at IIIT-Delhi have developed AgeXtend, an artificial intelligence (AI)-powered platform designed to discover molecules that could slow down ageing and promote healthier lives. About AgeXtend: It is an artificial intelligence (AI)-powered platform designed to discover molecules that could slow down ageing and promote healthier lives. It was developed by researchers at the Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology Delhi (IIIT-Delhi). AgeXtend utilises bioactivity data from existing geroprotectors-substances that slow ageing-to predict new molecules with similar properties. Its AI modules evaluate geroprotective potential, assess toxicity, and identify target proteins and mechanisms of action, ensuring both accuracy and safety in the discovery process. The researchers tested AgeXtend by excluding well-known compounds like metformin and taurine, molecules already known to extend lifespan, and found that the platform could still predict their benefits. AgeXtend also screened more than 1.1 billion compounds and identified promising candidates validated through experiments on yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans (a nematode), and human cell models. The research also explored AgeXtend's ability to analyze natural compounds found in the human microbiome, tiny organisms living in our bodies, and their role in controlling cell ageing. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.indiatoday.in/health/story/indian-ai-screens-11-billion-molecules-makes-anti-ageing-breakthrough-2645896-2024

Answer 107

Reserve Bank of India Explanation : According to the latest Consumer Confidence Survey of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Indian consumers’ confidence about general economic situation, employment scenario, their income and spending have weakened. It is a survey that indicates how optimistic or pessimistic consumers are regarding their expected financial situation. If the consumers are optimistic, spending will be more, whereas if they are not so confident, then their poor consumption pattern may lead to recession It is released by the Reserve Bank of India bi-monthly. Indicators of consumer confidence survey: Current Situation Index (CSI) Future Expectation Index (FEI) Highlights Households displayed somewhat higher optimism on one year ahead outlook for major economic parameters, except prices. The future expectations index (FEI) improved by 0.5 points to 121.9 in the latest survey. The CCS survey showed that households anticipated higher spending over one year horizon on the back of higher essential as well as non-essential spending Consumer confidence for the current period declined marginally owing to weaker sentiments across the survey parameters except household spending. The current situation index (CSI) moderated by 0.7 points to 94 in November 2024 from 94.7 in September 2024. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/consumer-confidence-declines-marginally-households-expects-inflation-to-rise-9712353/

Answer 108

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Scientists from the University of Bristol and the UK Atomic Energy Authority (UKAEA) have created the world's first carbon-14 diamond battery. It uses carbon-14, a radioactive isotope of carbon, which has a half-life of 5,700. Carbon-14 was chosen because it emits a short-range radiation, which is quickly absorbed by any solid material. The carbon-14 battery sits in a case of diamond which provides it with strength and resilience. It is safely held within a diamond – the hardest substance known to humankind. It functions similarly to solar panels but instead of using light particles, it captures fast-moving electrons from within the diamond structure. Applications It can prove particularly helpful in healthcare where it can be used to power pacemakers, hearing aids, and ocular devices. Patients won't need to replace batteries as the diamond battery can last for years. The battery could also be used in extreme environments – both in space and on earth – where it is not practical to replace conventional batteries. They can also prove to be of great help in space missions without worrying about the power to replace or charge the power source of spacecraft. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.wionews.com/science/worlds-first-diamond-battery-can-power-devices-for-thousands-of-years-781602

Answer 109

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, iHub – AWaDH (Agriculture and Water Technology Development Hub) at the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Ropar, under the National Mission on Interdisciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) launched Bluetooth Low Energy Gateway and Node System. It is the first-of-its-kind cost-effective system that connects Bluetooth-enabled sensors to cloud platforms. It enables seamless data transmission, real-time environmental monitoring, and advanced analytics across diverse sectors such as agriculture, logistics, and environmental resilience. Key Features of the BLE Gateway Robust Connectivity: Offers 4G, WiFi, and LAN compatibility for flexible networking. Long-Range Communication: Supports data transmission up to 1 km in line-of-sight (LOS) scenarios. Data Aggregation: Collects and processes data from multiple connected nodes, streamlining analysis and decision-making. Weatherproof and Compact Design: Providing durability in extreme weather conditions while maintaining a compact and user-friendly form. Wireless Connectivity: Eliminates the need for extensive wiring, reducing installation costs and supporting remote deployments. Low Power Consumption: Delivers energy-efficient performance for prolonged operation. Scalability: Manages over 100+ connected BLE nodes, ideal for large-scale IoT networks. Firmware Over-The-Air (FOTA): Allows remote firmware updates to keep the system up-to-date with minimal manual intervention. Compatibility: Fully supports integration with mobile apps, cloud platforms, and diverse sensors for enhanced flexibility. Potential applications Agriculture: It supports precision farming by monitoring critical factors such as soil moisture and air quality, enabling better control and sustainable practices. Logistics: It ensures optimal environmental conditions for perishable goods in cold storage and transit, mitigating risks of spoilage. Smart cities and industrial sites: They can leverage the system for large-scale monitoring networks to enhance operational efficiency and security. Real-time data transmission and customizable alerts allow for proactive responses to changes such as temperature spikes or unauthorized movements, reducing potential losses and enhancing resource management. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082722

Answer 110

1 only Explanation : India’s veteran ecologist, Madhav Gadgil has been named as one of the six ‘Champions of the Earth award’ for 2024. It was established in 2005 and awarded by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). It is the UN’s highest environmental honour, recognises trailblazers at the forefront of efforts to protect people and the planet. Every year, UNEP honours individuals and organizations working on innovative and sustainable solutions to address the triple planetary crisis of climate change, nature and biodiversity loss, and pollution and waste. Champions transform our economies, innovate, lead political change, fight environmental injustice, and defend our natural resources. Champions of the Earth are celebrated in four categories: Policy leadership - Public sector officials leading global or national action for the environment. They shape dialogue, lead commitments and act for the good of the planet. Inspiration and action - Leaders taking bold steps to inspire positive change to protect our world. They lead by example, challenge behavior and inspire millions. Entrepreneurial vision - Visionaries challenging the status quo to build a cleaner future. They build systems, create new technology and spearhead a groundbreaking vision. Science and innovation -Trail Blazers pushing the boundaries of technology for profound environmental benefit. They invent possibilities for a more sustainable world. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/ecologist-madhav-gadgil-named-one-of-six-champions-of-the-earth-by-unep-101733828756415.html

Answer 111

1 only Explanation : Recently, during Ashtalakshmi 2024 event many Geographical Indication tagged products were showcased. Adi Kekir Ginger It is grown in the Dibang Valley of Arunachal Pradesh and cultivated by the Adi tribe. This aromatic ginger is renowned for its medicinal properties, aiding in everything from digestive issues to menstrual pain. Its distinct aroma and healing qualities have made it a sought-after commodity, both in culinary and medicinal circles. The Adi tribe’s deep connection to the land ensures that each harvest is handled with care, keeping alive the age-old practices of organic farming. Dalle Khursani It is a fiery red pepper grown in Sikkim that has earned fame far beyond the borders of India. It is grown in protected organic conditions; this pepper is revered for its pungency, used in local pickles and pastes, and even celebrated for its medicinal properties. What makes this chili so special is not just its heat but its role in the local economy, where over 5,000 families rely on it for their livelihoods. Naga King Chilli or Raja Mircha It is grown in Nagaland and it is one of the hottest chilies in the world. It also represents the deep connection the Naga people have to their land and cultural heritage. Cultivated with care by around 100 families, this fiery chili thrives in the high-altitude, humid climate of Nagaland, producing fruit that’s packed with both heat and flavor. The chili plays an integral part in Naga cuisine, adding spice and depth to traditional dishes. Kaji Nimu It is a distinctive variety of lemon celebrated for its size, aroma, and sharp tang, reflecting the state's rich agricultural heritage. Larger and more flavorful than most other lemon varieties, the Kaji Nimu is an essential ingredient in Assamese cuisine and traditional remedies Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082417

Answer 112

2 only Explanation : NASA’s Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) has revealed the structures in a newly discovered X-ray binary system designated as Swift J1727.8-1613, or Swift J1727 in short. About Imaging X-Ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE): It is a NASA Small Explorer Mission in collaboration with the Italian Space Agency (ASI). IXPE was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon 9 rocket from Kennedy Space Center, Florida, on December 9, 2021. IXPE is NASA’s first mission to study the polarization of X-rays from many different types of celestial objects. Objects such as black holes can heat surrounding gases to more than a million degrees. The high-energy X-ray radiation from this gas can be polarized – vibrating in a particular direction. The observatory features three identical telescopes, each consisting of a mirror module assembly with a polarization-sensitive imaging x-ray detector at the focus. IXPE measurements will provide new dimensions for probing a wide range of cosmic X-ray sources - including Active galactic nuclei (AGN) and microquasars, pulsars and pulsar wind nebulae, magnetars, accreting X-ray binaries, supernova remnants, and the Galactic center. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.news9live.com/science/nasas-space-observatory-probes-exotic-x-ray-binary-system-2768981

Answer 113

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Scientists in India have reported success with using gene therapy to treat severe haemophilia A. About Haemophilia A: Hemophilia A (classic hemophilia) is one of three types of hemophilia, a rare, inherited blood disorder. It happens when your blood doesn’t clot as it should, which is when bleeding stops or slows down. It is a sex-linked disorder. The gene for haemophilia is carried on the X chromosome. Causes: When you bleed, a series of reactions take place in the body that helps blood clots form. This process is called the coagulation cascade. It involves as many as 20 different special proteins called coagulation, or clotting, factors. You may have a higher chance of excess bleeding if one or more of these factors are missing or are not functioning like they should. Hemophilia A is caused by a lack of blood clotting factor VIII. Without enough factor VIII, the blood cannot clot properly to control bleeding. Symptoms: The severity of symptoms varies. Prolonged bleeding is the main symptom. Bleeds can occur internally,in joints and muscles, or externally, from minor cuts, dental procedures, or injuries. Treatment: It is treated by boosting clotting factor levels or replacing missing clotting factors (replacement therapy). Other treatments may include medications to promote clotting or surgery to repair damage caused by bleeding. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/indian-scientists-develop-novel-gene-therapy-treatment-for-haemophilia/article68973897.ece

Answer 114

Only two Explanation : Malaria cases in India dropped 69%, from 6.4 million in 2017 to 2 million in 2023. Deaths fell by 68%, from 11,100 to 3,500, according to the World Malaria Report 2024. About World Malaria Report 2024: It is an annual report released by the World Health Organisation (WHO). It serves as a vital tool to assess global progress and gaps in the fight against malaria. Highlights of the 2024 Report: Globally, the report noted an estimated 263 million malaria cases and 597,000 deaths in 2023, representing an increase of 11 million cases compared to 2022, with deaths remaining nearly the same. Africa continues to bear the brunt of the disease, accounting for 94 percent of global cases and 95 percent of malaria deaths in 2023, with children under 5 accounting for 76% of mortality. Four countries — Nigeria, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Niger and Tanzania — contributed over half of the region’s deaths. In India, the report highlighted that the country officially exited the High Burden to High Impact (HBHI) group in 2024 due to significant reductions in malaria incidence and mortality in high-endemic states. The number of estimated malaria cases in India decreased From 6.4 million in 2017 to 2 million in 2023, marking a 69% drop. Similarly, malaria deaths fell from 11,100 to 3,500 over the same period, a 68% reduction. Despite these advances, India accounted for half of all malaria cases in the WHO South-East Asia Region in 2023, which saw a reduction of 82.4% in cases, from 22.8 million in 2000 to 4 million in 2023. The region, home to a quarter of the world’s population, represented 1.5% of global malaria cases in 2023. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Dec/11/india-makes-significant-progress-in-malaria-control-deaths-drop-by-68-who-report

Answer 115

Kerala Explanation : The Supreme Court recently agreed to examine a plea against the Kerala High Court order in favour of the administration of the Guruvayur temple, which decided to discontinue the ancient ritual of "udayasthamana pooja" on Ekadasi, citing crowd management issues. About Guruvayur Temple: Guruvayoor Sree Krishna Swamy Temple, also known as the Dwarka of the South, is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Krishna. It is located in the small town of Guruvayur, in the Thrissur District of Kerala. The earliest temple records date back to the 17th century, but other literary texts and legends indicate that the temple may be around 5000 years old. In 1716 AD, the Dutch plundered and set fire to the temple. It was rebuilt in 1747 AD. In terms of devotees every day, it is the fourth biggest shrine in India. Features: Lord Krishna, or Guruvayoorappan, is the chief deity of this temple. The temple is built in the traditional Kerala architectural style. It is believed that the central shrine of the temple was reconstructed in the year 1638 C.E. Structures like the Nalambalam (temple structure surrounding the sanctum sanctorum), Balikkal (sacrificial stone), and Deepastambam (pillar of lights) are situated on the temple premises. The wall of the sanctum sanctorum is decked with ancient 17th-century murals. Another famous sight here is the Dwajasthamba. It is a flagstaff, around 70 feettall, fully covered with gold. The Thulabharam is one of the most popular offerings at Guruvayur Temple. In this ritual, devotees are weighed against jaggery, coconuts, sugar, or bananas on a giant set of scales. This quantity is then given to the Lord as an offering. The temple is also noted for being home to a large population of captive male Asian elephants. The Punnathur Kotta elephant sanctuary, where 56 elephants live, is very close to the temple. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.indiatoday.in/india/law-news/story/supreme-court-slams-guruvayur-temples-decision-to-skip-ancient-ritual-on-ekadasi-kerala-2648345-2024-12-11

Answer 116

All three Explanation : The Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024, was passed recently in the Lok Sabha, despite disruptions. About Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024: All the provisions in the erstwhile colonial-era Indian Railway Board Act, 1905, are proposed to be incorporated in the Railways Act, 1989, through this Bill. It is intended to simplify the legal framework and reduce the need to refer to two laws. The Bill also proposes to amend the Railways Act, 1989, to provide statutory backing to the Railway Board, which has functioned without such a sanction since it began functioning. The statutory powers seek to enhance the functioning and independence of the Railway Board. It also authorises the Union government to decide the composition of the Railway Board. This includes the number of members, their terms of service, and their qualifications and experience. Independent regulator: The bill proposes to establish an independent regulator to oversee tariffs, safety and the participation of the private sector in the Railways. The bill also proposes to improve operational efficiencies and decentralize powers, granting greater autonomy to railway zones. The amendment is expected to speed up the approval process for train services that will help meet pending demands from various regions. The bill will allow the government to fast-track infrastructure and superfast train operations. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/amid-disruptions-railways-amendment-bill-passed-in-the-lok-sabha/article68972857.ece

Answer 117

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, Google has announced a significant advancement in quantum computing as it unveiled its next-generation chip called 'Willow'. It is a new state-of-the-art quantum computing chip developed by Google. The components of the chip include single and two-qubit gates, qubit reset, and readout that have been engineered and integrated to ensure that there is no lag between any two components as that may adversely impact system performance. It was able to solve a complex mathematical problem in just five minutes — a task that would take classical computers longer than the history of the universe. It performed a standard benchmark computation in under five minutes that would take one of today’s fastest supercomputers 10 septillion (that is, 1025) years. It operates using superconducting transmon qubits—tiny electrical circuits exhibiting quantum behaviour at extremely low temperatures. These circuits are engineered to function like artificial atoms in a quantum state. What is a quantum chip? A quantum chip is a special type of computer chip designed to use the principles of quantum mechanics, the science of very tiny particles like atoms. While regular chips use 'bits' (0 or 1) to process information, quantum chips use 'qubits', which can be 0 or 1 or both at the same time. This unique ability allows quantum chips to handle complex calculations much faster than traditional computers. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/international/global-trends/what-is-willow-googles-quantum-computing-chip-explained-in-10-points/articleshow/116166270.cms?from=mdr

Answer 118

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Minister of Cooperation informed the Lok Sabha about the Yuva Sahakar Scheme. Yuva Sahakar – Cooperative Enterprise Support and Innovation Scheme” aims to encourage newly formed cooperative societies with innovative ideas. The scheme encourages young entrepreneur Cooperative Societies which are in operation for a minimum of 3 months. The loan provided under the scheme is a long-term loan (up to 5 years) and as an incentive, NCDC provides 2% interest subvention on its applicable rate of interest on term loan for the project activities. Further, the loan component under the scheme can also be dovetailed with subsidy, as applicable and available from other Government of India schemes. NCDC funding is project based. It is being implemented by National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) across the country. Features NCDC has produced a dedicated fund with liberal traits entitling youth to avail the scheme. It is linked with Rs.1000 crores of the Cooperative Start-up and Innovation Fund that has been authorised by the NCDC. It provides more incentives to the cooperatives working in the North-Eastern region and the aspirational districts. Exclusive benefits are provided for women, Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe candidates. Yuva Sahakar Scheme is a part of Sahakar 22, a Mission for Doubling Farmers' Income by 2022. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082789

Answer 119

Only two Explanation : Indian Rock Python species is believed to have declined across Tamil Nadu, except in the Moyar Valley, where the pythons seem to be thriving. It is a large, nonvenomous python species. It is known by the common names Black-tailed python and Asian rock python. Appearance Indian pythons are usually whitish or yellowish in color with the blotched patterns varying from tan to dark brown shades. This varies with terrain and habitat. Specimens from the hill forests of the Western Ghats and Assam are darker, while those from the Deccan Plateau and the Eastern Ghats are usually lighter. Habitat: They live in a wide range of habitats, including grasslands and savannas, swamps, marshes, rocky foothills, woodlands, open forests, and river valleys Distribution: Indian pythons are found in India, southern Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and probably in the north of Myanmar. They are nocturnal and mainly terrestrial creatures. However, they are also very good climbers and can often be seen hanging on branches of trees. Indian pythons are excellent swimmers. Conservation Status IUCN: Near Threatened CITES: Appendix II Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I Threats: Habitat destruction and illegal trade Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/while-indian-rock-python-population-dwindles-elsewhere-across-tn-it-thrives-in-moyar-valley/article68969135.ece

Answer 120

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, IIT Madras has completed a 410-meter Hyperloop test track, marking a significant milestone in India’s journey toward futuristic transport systems. Hyperloop is a high-speed transportation system in which pods, functioning as pressurised vehicles, travel at incredible speeds through low-pressure tubes. The Hyperloop concept was originally popularised by Elon Musk in 2012. Working: These trains operate within vacuum-sealed tubes, significantly reducing friction and allowing for unparalleled travel speed and energy efficiency. Hyperloop pods are designed to reach speeds of up to 1,100 kmph, with an operational cruising speed of around 360 kmph. Key components include: Low-Pressure Tubes: Sealed to minimise air resistance. Magnetic Levitation (Maglev): Pods "float" on magnets, eliminating friction. Linear Electric Motors: Propels the pod smoothly and efficiently. These features combine to deliver unparalleled speed and efficiency, with zero direct emissions—making Hyperloop the ultimate in green transit. India’s hyperloop project is a joint initiative of Indian Railways, IIT-Madras’ Avishkar Hyperloop team and TuTr (incubated startup). Significance to India: This innovative system is seen as a promising solution for addressing the growing demands for efficient and sustainable transportation. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/information/story/indias-first-hyperloop-train-test-track-completed-by-iit-madras-key-details-2646434-2024-12-07

Answer 121

1 only Explanation : Lok Sabha Speaker recently paid tribute to Bharat Ratna Shri Chakravarti Rajagopalachari in Central Hall of Samvidhan Sadan on his Birth Anniversary, Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, popularly referred to as Rajaji, was born on 10 December 1878 in Thorapalli, Tamil Nadu. Role in India’s Independence Movement Rajaji’s personal interaction with Gandhi in 1919 led him to give up his legal profession to be fully involved in the nation’s independence struggle. He participated in agitations against the Rowlatt Act, the Non-Cooperation movement, the Vaikom Satyagraha, and the Civil Disobedience Movement. For these activities, between 1912 and 1941, as a result of which he was jailed five times. Rajaji was elected to the Constituent Assembly from Madras on a Congress party ticket. In the Assembly, he intervened on the issues of religious freedom and citizenship. In 1954 he was conferred with the Bharat Ratna for his contribution to Indian politics and literature. Key Writings Rajaji was a prolific writer. His most popular works include a retelling of the Mahabharata and Ramayana in English and Ramayana – Chakravarti Thirumagan in Tamil. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2082870

Answer 122

Beas Explanation : A joint committee of officials has informed the National Green Tribunal (NGT) that stone-crushing units are even altering the course of the Chakki River at many places. About Chakki River: It is one of the tributaries of the Beas River. It flows through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab and merges with the Beas near Pathankot, Punjab. It is fed by snow and rain in the Dhauladhar mountains (part of a lesser Himalayan chain of mountains). Unregulated sand mining has been a major ecological issue, degrading the riverbed and banks. Key Facts about Beas River: It is a river in Himachal Pradesh and Punjab states, northwestern India. It is one of the five rivers that give Punjab (“Five Rivers”) its name. The river was also known as Arjiki or Vipas to the ancient Indians and the Hyphasis to the Ancient Greeks. Course: Origin: The river originates in the Rohtang Pass of the Himalayas in central Himachal Pradesh in India at a height of 13,050 feet. It flows for a length of 290 miles (470 km) before uniting with the Sutlej River at Harike Pattan south of Amritsar in Punjab. Finally, the river drains its water into the Arabian Sea. Major Tributaries: The major tributaries of the Beas River are Bain, Banganga, Luni, and Uhal, along with Banner, Chakki, Gaj, Harla, Mamuni, Parvati, Patlikuhlal, Sainj, Suketi, and Tirthan. The Beas forms the world-famous valleys of Kullu and Kangra. Hence option c is the correct answer. News:https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/shimla/stone-crushers-have-altered-course-of-river-ngt-told/articleshow/116267766.cms

Answer 123

United States of America Explanation : The United States of America has developed a new anti-missile system called Dark Eagle and is nearing operational readiness after a successful test flight recently. About Dark Eagle Anti-Missile System: It is a long-range hypersonic anti-missile system developed by the United States of America, which is capable of intercepting enemy missiles in mid-air. It is capable of stopping ballistic, cruise, hypersonic missiles and warheads. It has an operational range estimated at over 2,775 kilometers (1,724 miles), enabling it to strike targets deep within adversary territory. The system’s ballistic missile features two stages, one of which includes a hypersonic glide warhead (C-HGB) capable of reaching extreme speeds of Mach 17, making interception particularly difficult. With a C-HGB warhead capable of reaching speeds between 3000 and 3700 meters per second at altitudes below 50 km, this missile is designed to challenge and potentially surpass the capabilities of Russia’s S-300V4, S-400, and S-500 air defense systems. Hence option d is the correct answer. News:https://www.india.com/news/us-unveils-new-anti-missile-system-dark-eagle-claims-russias-s-300v4-s-400-and-s-500-systems-are-no-match-to-it-know-how-powerful-it-is-7461215/

Answer 124

Sariska Tiger Reserve Explanation : The Supreme Court recently emphasized the need to balance the protection of Sariska Tiger Reserve's wildlife with the religious sentiments of devotees visiting the Pandupol Hanuman temple. About Pandupol Hanuman Temple: It is a revered 5000-year-old shrine located within the lush expanse of the Sariska Tiger Reserve in Alwar, Rajasthan. The history of the Pandupol Hanuman Temple is deeply intertwined with Hindu mythology. It is believed that during the period of the Mahabharata, the Pandavas, along with their wife Draupadi, spent a significant amount of time in exile. It is believed that they visited this area, then known as Viratnagar, during their exile years. It is believed that it is the place where Bhima had an encounter with Lord Hanuman. The temple's name, "Pandupol," is derived from the word "Pandava," signifying its connection to this legendary narrative. The term "Hanuman" in the temple's name is in honor of Lord Hanuman. The temple's primary attraction is the reclining statue of Lord Hanuman,which was established here by the Pandavas. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:https://www.devdiscourse.com/article/law-order/3190540-balancing-devotion-and-conservation-pandupols-dilemma

Answer 125

2 only Explanation : A stakeholders' coordination meeting aimed at reintroducing rhinoceroses to the D. Ering Wildlife Sanctuary (DEWS) in East Siang District was convened recently. About D. Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary: It is situated in the East Siang district of Arunachal Pradesh. It was established in 1976. The sanctuary was previously known as Lali Wildlife Sanctuary after the declaration of Lali Reserve Forest as a sanctuary. It was renamed as D`Ering in 1986. It enjoys a tropical climate and receives north-east and south-west monsoons. It is also home to the Siang River, which is one of the major rivers in Arunachal Pradesh. Flora: It mainly comprises riverine plains. Thatch and grasses constitute a major portion of the sanctuary. It also hosts scattered patches of trees like Termenelia myriocarpa, Dillenia indica, Albizia spp., Bombax ceiba and others. Fauna: It hosts a variety of fauna like Hog Deer, Wild Pig, Tiger and Elephant. More than 150 species of birds are the inhabitants of the sanctuary, including the endangered ones like White-Winged Wood Duck and Bengal Florican. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News:https://www.indiatodayne.in/arunachal-pradesh/story/rhino-reintroduction-in-arunachals-d-ering-wildlife-sanctuary-gains-momentum-1135119-2024-12-09

Answer 126

1 only Explanation : The Malayan Night Heron, a migratory bird from Southeast Asia, has been officially recorded in Madurai for the first time, near the Alagar Kovil hills. It is also known as the Malaysian night heron and tiger bittern. It is a medium-sized and nocturnal species. Appearance: It is identified by its rufous neck, barred chestnut back, black cap with crest and white tipped primaries. Habitat: It occurs in dense subtropical forests ranging from the low wetlands, where it uses streams, marshes, and swamps, to moderate elevations, where it uses evergreen forests, secondary scrub and reservoirs as its habitat. Distribution: It is mainly found in India, south east Asia, Philippines and the east Indies. It is native to Myanmar, Thailand, and Malaysia, migrates to India during winter. It primarily traverses northern Tamil Nadu and is typically seen in Kerala and Karnataka. Diet: It eats terrestrial food, particularly earthworks and beetles. Conservation status IUCN: Least concern Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/madurai/rare-malayan-night-heron-spotted-for-the-first-time-in-madurai/articleshow/116114799.cms

Answer 127

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister for Electronics and Information Technology has announced that 8.6 lakh candidates have enrolled in the IndiaAI Future Skills platform. It is one of the seven foundational pillars of the IndiaAI Mission. It aims to enhance India’s AI workforce readiness by mitigating barriers to entry in AI programs and advancing the AI talent pipeline. The pillar will increase AI courses in undergraduate, postgraduate, and Ph.D. programs. It further aims to foster inclusive access to AI education by establishing Data and AI Labs in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities across India to impart foundational level courses. It is developed in collaboration with industry partners, to provide cutting-edge training programs tailored to meet evolving industry demands. Under this initiative AI Data Labs are being established in cities such as Gorakhpur, Lucknow, Shimla, Aurangabad, Patna, Buxar, and Muzaffarpur. This move aims to spread technological advancements across the country, ensuring they are not limited to urban hubs. What is IndiaAI Mission? It aims to build a comprehensive ecosystem that fosters AI innovation by democratizing computing access, enhancing data quality, developing indigenous AI capabilities, attracting top AI talent, enabling industry collaboration, providing startup risk capital, ensuring socially impactful AI projects, and promoting ethical AI. This mission drives responsible and inclusive growth of India's AI ecosystem through following seven pillars. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://ddnews.gov.in/en/8-6-lakh-candidates-enrolled-in-indiaai-future-skills-initiative-it-minister/

Answer 128

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) has granted approval for the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL) as an Athlete Passport Management Unit (APMU) to manage the Athlete Biological Passport (ABP). It is an advanced anti-doping tool that monitors an athlete's biological markers over time. By analyzing variations in parameters such as blood and steroid profiles, the ABP helps to ensure fair play in sports and to protect clean athletes. It works against doping through enhanced target testing and analysis, investigations, deterrence, and as indirect evidence for use of prohibited methods or substances. The principal objectives of the ABP program are the following: It can be used to conduct targeted, conventional anti-doping tests on athletes with abnormal profiles. It can also be used as corroborating evidence of doping during an anti-doping rule violation case. Currently three modules were implemented in ABP program: Haematological Module: The Haematological Module collects information on markers of blood doping. This module aims to identify the use of prohibited substances and/or prohibited methods for the enhancement of oxygen transport or delivery. Steroidal Module: The Steroidal Module collects information on Markers of steroid doping measured in urine← and/or serum Samples. The module aims to identify endogenous anabolic androgenic steroids (EAAS) when administered exogenously. Endocrine Module: The Endocrine Module collects information on Markers of hGH doping. The module aims to identify human growth hormone (hGH) use and as well as use of hGH analogs. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2083720®=3&lang=1

Answer 129

Only two Explanation : According to a research paper published in the journal Nature by Google DeepMind researchers, a new machine-learning weather prediction model called GenCast can outperform the best traditional forecasting systems in at least some situations. It is a new machine-learning weather prediction model. It uses a diffusion model approach similar to artificial intelligence (AI) image generators. The system generates multiple forecasts to capture the complex behaviour of the atmosphere. It does so with a fraction of the time and computing resources required for traditional approaches. It is part of Google’s growing suite of next-generation AI-based weather models. It can predict the weather for 15 days in just 8 minutes. The old way of predicting weather usually takes hours. Working The AI-powered program was trained on four decades of historical data through 2018, taken from the European Centre for Medium-Range Weather Forecasts’ (ECMWF) historical archives. The GenCast model makes predictions of several variables such as temperature, pressure, humidity and wind speed at the surface and at 13 different heights, on a grid that divides the world up into 0.25-degree regions of latitude and longitude. Significance: It outperforms the current leading system, uses probabilistic ensemble forecasting to predict a range of possible weather scenarios, offering a more comprehensive picture of the upcoming conditions. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/new-ai-model-gencast-can-beat-the-best-traditional-weather-forecasts/article68976596.ece

Answer 130

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A young shortfin mako shark species has been tagged for the first time in the Mediterranean Sea by researchers from the United States. It is a large predatory and highly migratory shark species that lives in the open ocean. The shortfin mako’s common name is derived from the Maori term mako, which translated means “shark”. It is known for its incredible leaping ability and can be observed jumping to extreme heights (out of the water) when hunting. Appearance: This classically shaped shark is hydrodynamically efficient with a pointed snout, triangular dorsal fin and large and a crescent-shaped caudal (tail) fin. The shortfin mako shark is a yolk-sac ovoviviparous shark giving birth to live young. Developing embryos feed on unfertilized eggs (oophagy) within the uterus during the 15- to 18-month gestation period. Diet: The shortfin mako shark feeds mainly upon cephalopods and bony fish including mackerels, tunas, Habitat: It is found across all temperate and tropical ocean waters. They can also be found near the coast where the continental shelf is short. Conservation status IUCN: Critically endangered CITES: Appendix II Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/in-a-first-mako-shark-in-the-mediterranean-tagged-by-virginia-tech-researchers

Answer 131

2 only Explanation : Recently, a team of scientists has claimed that Manganese (Mn) contamination of water is causing cancer in the Gangetic plains of Bihar. Manganese is the fifth-most abundant metal on earth that exists in the form of oxides, carbonates and silicates. It is present in food, water, soil and rock as a naturally occurring component. Properties It is too brittle to be of much use as a pure metal. It is mainly used in alloys, such as steel. Its minerals are widely distributed, with pyrolusite (manganese dioxide) and rhodochrosite (manganese carbonate) being the most common. Manganese somewhat resembles iron in general chemical activity. The metal oxidizes superficially in air and rusts in moist air. It burns in air or oxygen at elevated temperatures, decomposes water slowly when cold and rapidly on heating The metal is obtained by reducing the oxide with sodium, magnesium or aluminium, or by the electrolysis of manganese sulfate. Manganese ores are primarily produced by Australia, South Africa, China, Gabon, and Brazil. It is essential to plant growth and is involved in the assimilation of nitrates in green plants and algae. Biological role It is an ‘essential trace element’ which plays a vital role in maintaining body homeostasis but can cause severe toxicity if consumed in excess. Manganese is an essential element in all known living organisms. Many types of enzymes contain manganese. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/health/manganese-in-water-is-causing-cancer-in-bihars-gangetic-plains-study

Answer 132

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Delhi High Court recently discussed a 'flux' in the legal position with respect to the power of officers of the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) to issue show-cause notices and recover duties under the Customs Act, 1962. About Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): DRI was constituted in 1957 as the apex anti-smuggling intelligence and investigation agency. It works under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. DRI enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962, and over fifty other allied Acts, including the Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA (Conservation of Foreign Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling Activities), Wildlife Act, Antiquities Act, etc. It is tasked with detecting and curbing smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items, as well as combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of customs duty. It has a country-wide network of zonal, regional and sub-regional units and intelligence cells. DRI collects, analyzes, and disseminates intelligence to the field formations, helps in investigations, and keeps statistics of seizures and prices/rates, etc, for watching trends of smuggling and movement of other contraband and suggest remedies for fixing loopholes in existing laws and procedures. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.livelaw.in/tax-cases/power-of-dri-officers-to-issue-show-cause-notices-customs-act-flux-legal-position-delhi-hc-discusses-278196

Answer 133

Jharkhand Explanation : People belonging to the Birhor tribe, a PVTG in Jharkhand, have joined a movement against child marriage in Giridih for the first time, according to an organisation working in the field of protection of children's rights. About Birhor Tribe: They are a traditionally nomadic tribe living primarily in Jharkhand. Some of them are also found in Chhattisgarh, Orissa, and West Bengal. Birhor means 'jungle people'- bir means 'jungle', hor means 'men Language: They speak the Birhor language, which belongs to the Munda group of languages of the Austroasiatic language family. Their language has similarities with Santali, Mundari, and Ho languages. Ethnology: The Birhors are of short stature, long head, wavy hair, and broad nose. They claim they have descended from the Sun and believe that the Kharwars, who also trace their descent from the Sun, are their brothers. Ethnologically, they are akin to the Santals, Mundas, and Hos. Economy: The “primitive subsistence economy” of the Birhors has been based on nomadic gathering and hunting, particularly for monkeys. They make ropes out of the fibres of a particular species of vine. Some of them have settled into stable agriculture. According to socio-economic standing the Birhors are classified into two groups. While the wandering Birhors are called Uthlus, the settled Birhors are called Janghis. Beliefs: The Birhor follow a mixture of animism and Hinduism. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/jharkhand/jharkhands-birhor-tribe-joins-movement-against-child-marriage-for-first-time-3316127

Answer 134

Only three Explanation : India remains "concerned" at the evolving situation in West Asia, and attacks against commercial vessels in and around the Red Sea threaten freedom of navigation and "impact our trade", the government informed the Parliament recently. About Red Sea: The Red Sea is a semi-enclosed, inlet (or extension) of the Indian Ocean between the continents of Africa and Asia. It is the world’s northernmost tropical sea and is also one of the most heavily traveled waterways. It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab el Mandeb. The northern portion of the Red Sea is bifurcated by the Sinai Peninsula into the Gulf of Aqaba and the Gulf of Suez, where it is connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the famous Suez Canal. It has a surface area of roughly 438,000 sq.km. and is about 2,250 km in length. Bordering Countries: Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east. It is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. It is one of the world’s warmest seas. It contains some of the world’s hottest and saltiest seawater. Its name is derived from the colour changes observed in its waters. Normally, the Red Sea is an intense blue-green; occasionally, however, it is populated by extensive blooms of the algae Trichodesmium erythraeum, which, upon dying off, turn the sea a reddish brown colour. Islands: Some well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/attacks-on-vessels-in-red-sea-impact-our-trade-centre-tells-parliament-124121201419_1.html

Answer 135

2 only Explanation : In a successful conservation initiative, the white-winged wood duck (deo hanh in Assamese), the State bird of Assam, has been spotted in an artificial pond, "Neelmoni Beel," at Nameri Tiger Reserve (NTR). About White-Winged Wood Duck: It is a large species of duck and one of the most endangered birds in the world. Scientific Name: Asarcornis scutulata Distribution: It was once distributed widely across northeast India and southeast Asia. But now, only about 800 survive in the wild, of which about 450 are present in India, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. In India, the duck is limited to Assam and Arunachal Pradesh. Habitat: It mostly resides in dense tropical evergreen forest and is known to prefer inaccessible swampy areas formed by numerous rivers, streams, etc. Due to its ghostly call, it is called ‘Deo Hans’ or Spirit Duck in Assamese. Features: It has a black body, a white head that is thickly spotted with black, conspicuous white patches on the wings, and red or orange eyes. Its average length is about 81 cm. The sexes are more or less alike, the male having more gloss on the plumage, and being much larger and heavier. It is a crepuscular bird, as it is most active at dusk and dawn. The adults are largely omnivorous. IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/guwahati/endangered-state-bird-spotted-in-nameri/articleshow/116262497.cms

Answer 136

Delhi Explanation : The Archeological Survey of India (ASI) recently informed the Supreme Court that it would file, within a week, the survey report of the religious structures inside the Mehrauli Archaeological Park in Delhi in a plea seeking their protection. About Mehrauli Archeological Park: It is situated in Delhi, just beside the Qutb Complex (historically Mehrauli was the first of the seven cities of Delhi). Spanning an area of more than 200 acres (80 ha), the site displays the rich heritage of India, starting from the Pre-Islamic to the Colonial phase. It accounts for several historically significant monuments, including the remains of the first city of Delhi, the capital of the Tomar rulers in the 11th century. There are over 440 monuments in the area. The Tomb of Balban, dating back to around 1287 AD, marks a significant milestone in Indian architecture, featuring the country's first true arch and dome. The Jamali Kamali Mosque and Tomb (1526-1535 AD) showcase a harmonious blend of Indo-Islamic architecture. Named after the Sufi saint Jamali and his companion Kamali, this complex boasts intricate decorative elements and a central dome that speak to the artistic prowess of its time. 16th-century Rajon Ki Baoli, or Stepwell of the Masons, with its symmetrical steps and arched niches serving both practical and aesthetic purposes. The park also houses spiritual landmarks like the Dargah of Qutab Sahib, a serene white marble shrine dedicated to a revered Sufi saint, and the Hijron ka Khanqah, a Sufi hospice from the Lodhi dynasty that provided shelter and spiritual solace to the transgender community. Jahaz Mahal, or "Ship Palace," a Lodi-era pleasure pavilion whose boat-like shape and arched openings make it a unique architectural gem. Iron Pillar: The iconic Iron Pillar is renowned for its remarkable corrosion resistance despite being over a thousand years old. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/asi-to-submit-survey-report-in-supreme-court-on-religious-structures-in-mehrauli-archeological-park-278295

Answer 137

Darwin Wasps Explanation : A team of researchers from the Bengaluru-based Ashoka Trust for Research in Ecology and the Environment (ATREE) and their collaborators have discovered five new species of the Darwin wasp subfamily Microleptinae (Hymenoptera:Ichneumonidae) from India and Thailand. These wasps are parasitoids, meaning their larvae feed and develop on or within the bodies of other arthropods. They parasitize many insect groups, especially Lepidoptera (moths and butterflies), Coleoptera (beetles), and other Hymenoptera (ants, bees, and wasps). Appearance: These wasps have a body formed of a head, thorax, and abdomen, and six legs. They have a pair of large compound eyes on the side of the head and three ocelli (simple eyes) on the top of the head. They have longer antennae with more segments, or sections. Adult wasps typically feed on nectar and pollen, and as solitary wasps, only come together to mate. Breeding: The females lay their eggs in or on the larvae or pupae (rarely eggs or adults) of the host. To attack wood-boring hosts deep inside woody plant tissues, some ichneumon wasp species actually use their ovipositors as a drill capable of penetrating solid wood. Ecological Significance: These tiny winged insects are critical to the ecosystem because they play an important role in controlling the population of crop-damaging pests, such as aphids and caterpillars, without contaminating the environment New species found in India The following four new species are recently discovered from India: Microleptes chiani collected from Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve (KMTR), Tamil Nadu. Microleptes gowrishankari collected from Biligiri Ranganathaswamy Temple Tiger Reserve, in Karnataka. Microleptes sandeshkaduri collected from the Siang valley of Arunachal Pradesh. Microleptes tehriensis is named after its collection site, Tehri in Uttarakhand. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/researchers-discover-five-new-species-of-the-darwin-wasp/article68978590.ece

Answer 138

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, exercise Desert Knight was launched over the Arabian Sea to boost military interoperability and enhance defence ties. It is a trilateral air combat exercise between India, France, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). This exercise builds on the trilateral framework established in 2022 by the foreign ministers of India, France, and the UAE. This partnership includes collaboration in defence, technology, energy, and environment, among other areas, as outlined in an ambitious roadmap. The exercise is described as a “large force engagement,” featuring intensive combat manoeuvres approximately 350-400 km southwest of Karachi over the Arabian Sea. It is the second such trilateral endeavour this year to build synergy among the three air forces as well as improve combat skills, with multiple aircraft types operating in a realistic scenario.” It features intensive combat manoeuvres involving advanced aircraft like Sukhoi-30MKIs, Rafales, and F-16s. This trilateral exercise comes as part of broader efforts to strengthen defence ties in strategically crucial regions, including the Indo-Pacific and the Persian Gulf. It also highlights the increasing focus on interoperability among like-minded nations amidst concerns over China's assertive posturing and expanding influence in these areas. Significance: This marks a continued effort to build strategic partnerships in the Indo-Pacific and Persian Gulf regions amid global geopolitical tensions. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/india-france-uae-strengthen-defence-ties-with-desert-knight-air-combat-exercise/articleshow/116245509.cms?from=mdr

Answer 139

Only two Explanation : The 1,300-year-old Abathsahayeshwarar Temple has been chosen by UNESCO to receive the Asia-Pacific Awards for Cultural Heritage Conservation award. Location: It is located in Thukkatchi in Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu. It was constructed during the reigns of Kings Vikrama Chola and Kulothunga Chola. This temple stands as a testament to the architectural brilliance and spiritual dedication of the Chola dynasty. Historically, the village surrounding the temple was known as Vikrama Chozheeswaram and Kulothunga Chola Nallur, named after these illustrious rulers. Kulothunga Chola also installed the idol of Aadhi Sarabeshwarar in the temple. The temple is home to numerous deities, including Soundaryanayaki Ambal and Ashtabhuja Durga Parameshwari and also consists five prakarams, or enclosures, Key facts about UNESCO Asia - Pacific Awards for cultural heritage conservation This award recognises the efforts of individuals and organizations in Asia and the Pacific in restoring, conserving, and otherwise transforming structures and buildings of heritage value since its establishment in 2000. In acknowledging private efforts to restore, adapt and breathe new life into historic properties, the Awards encourage other independent efforts, as well as public-private partnerships to undertake conservation projects in their communities. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/abathsahayeswarar-temple-chosen-for-unesco-award-for-conservation/article68955388.ece

Answer 140

Syria Explanation : Recently, Israel’s military struck several key Syrian military sites, including naval vessels at the Latakia ports. It is the principal port of Syria. It is located in the Eastern part of the Mediterranean coast. This port exports bitumen and asphalt, cereals, cotton, fruit, eggs, vegetable oil, pottery, and tobacco. It consists of an extensive agricultural hinterland producing abundant crops of tobacco, cotton, cereal grains, and fruits. Other industries: Cotton ginning, vegetable oil processing, tanning, and sponge fishing are local industries present in this port city. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.financialexpress.com/world-news/israels-military-strikes-in-syria-a-response-to-strategic-threats/3690324/

Answer 141

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Indian Institute of Technology-Madras (IIT-M) released highly detailed 3D images of a foetal brain named, Dharini. It is now the largest publicly accessible digital dataset of the human foetal brain and is freely available to researchers worldwide. The dataset provides detailed insights into brain development from the second trimester of a fetus and researchers have identified over 500 brain regions, making it a complete atlas of the human brain. It is created with less than one-tenth of the initial funds that powered the Allen Brain Atlas, and with a technology platform that was entirely custom made in India. The dataset offers key applications, including advancements in fetal imaging technology for early diagnosis and treatment of developmental disorders. It also serves as an invaluable resource for researchers aiming to understand neuro developmental processes and conditions. The project was supported by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India and private entities. Significance It could offer new insights into neonatal brain health and help improve early diagnosis and treatment. The dataset is available to all researchers and can help in the development of treatments for brain-related health conditions. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/chennai/iit-madras-releases-highly-detailed-3d-images-of-foetal-brain/article68969956.ece

Answer 142

Punjab Explanation : Nearly 1.30 lakh trees and plants are likely to be felled for the construction of the proposed 150-km-long Malwa Canal, a flagship project of Punjab. About Malwa Canal Project: It is a planned irrigation and water management project in Punjab, India. It is the first of its kind to be constructed in Punjab since independence. Estimated to cost Rs 2,300 crore, the canal will originate from the Harike headworks on the Sutlej in Ferozepur district. It will tail off at Waring Khera village in Muktsar district, close to the border with Haryana and will flow parallel to the Sirhind Feeder and Rajasthan Feeder canals, to the latter’s east. The canal will be 149 km long, 50 feet wide and 12.6 feet deep. It will carry 2,000 cusecs of water (A cusec is flow equivalent to 1 cubic foot per second.) It is designed to cater to the irrigation needs of nearly 2 lakh acres in southern Punjab, running parallel to the left bank of the Rajasthan Feeder Canal. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Dec/13/130-lakh-trees-face-axe-for-malwa-canal-project

Answer 143

1 only Explanation : After 48 years, the Kalyan civil court recently dismissed a suit filed by a Muslim trust claiming ownership of an idgah (prayer space) inside the historical Durgadi Fort in Kalyan and ruled in favour of the state government. About Durgadi Fort: It is a fort located in Kalyan, near Mumbai in Maharashtra. Perched on the banks of the Ulhas River, the fort provides panoramic views of the surrounding landscape and the city of Kalyan. Kalyan is the busiest junction as well as a key location from ancient times. This was an important international harbour developed during the Satvaahan era. Durgadi Fort was built by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and marks the initiation of the Maratha Navy. Shivaji Maharaj captured Kalyan and Bhiwandi from Adilshah on 24th October 1654. He built a fort near the creek as a support to Kalyan and used it as a dock to manufacture ships. The fort is named after Goddess Durga, and a temple dedicated to the goddess is located within the premises. The fort holds significant historical value, as it was an important military stronghold during various periods in Indian history. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/thane/maharashtra-court-junks-muslim-trusts-claim-on-durgadi-fort-space/articleshow/116207679.cms

Answer 144

Haryana Explanation : Additional Chief Secretary (ACS) of forest and wildlife recently asked the district administration to submit a report on illegal construction around the Sultanpur National Park and their status to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. About Sultanpur National Park: It is located in the Gurgaon district of Haryana, 46 km from Delhi. Formerly known as Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary, it spans 1.42 sq.km., consisting primarily of marshy lakes and floodplains. It includes a core area of 1.21 sq. km containing the main Sultanpur Lake/Jheel. It is a seasonal freshwater wetland with fluctuating water levels throughout the year. It is mostly fed by waters from River Yamuna’s Gurgaon canal and the overflowing waters of the neighboring agricultural lands. It was recognised as a Ramsar site, a wetland of international importance, in 2021. It has been identified as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International. Flora: Its vegetation is characterized by tropical and dry deciduous type such as grasses, dhok, khair, tendu, jamun, neem, berberis and species of Acacia. Fauna: Over 320 bird species have been recorded at Sultanpur, making it a vital wintering ground. It forms a part of the ‘Central Asian Migratory Flyway’ and thousands of migratory birds from the countries of Russia, Turkey, Afghanistan, and Europe visit the park during the winter months. Some iconic species found here are the Common Hoopoe, Purple Sunbird, Black Francolin, Little Cormorant, Indian Cormorant, Siberian Crane, and Greater Flamingo. Other migratory birds that flock seasonally include the Common Teal, Common Greenshank and Ruff. In addition to the avian species, some other faunal species, such as Nilgai, Sambar, Golden jackals, wild dog, striped hyenas, Indian porcupine, mongoose, etc., are also found here. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/gurgaon/submit-report-on-illegal-construction-near-sultanpur-national-park-secy-asks-gurgaon-admin/articleshow/116296984.cms

Answer 145

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : After a delay of more than a year, a permanent Vice-Chancellor is set to be appointed in Mumbai-based Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS), with the selection committee slated to conduct in-person interviews with 10 shortlisted candidates. About Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS): It is a multi-campus, public funded research university in Mumbai, India. TISS is Asia's oldest institute for professional social work education. It was founded in 1936 in the then Bombay Presidency of British India as the Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work by the Sir Dorabji Tata Trust. In 1944, it was renamed as the Tata Institute of Social Sciences. In 1964, TISS was declared Deemed to be a University under Section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act (UGC), 1956. TISS's academic programs focus on the Social Sciences and offer doctoral degrees in Management and Labour Studies, Disaster Studies, Development Studies, Education, Gender Studies, Health Studies, Law, Media and Cultural Studies, Public Policy, Rural Development and Social Work. Since its inception, TISS has had a focus on field activities, including in responding to disasters such as the Partition of India, the Bhopal disaster and Uttarakhand floods. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/mumbai/selection-committee-to-interview-10-shortlisted-candidates-for-tiss-vice-chancellor-post/article68985472.ece

Answer 146

Godavari Explanation : The National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) is likely to submit its final report on the Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Scheme (KLIS) soon, excluding the aspect of conducting geo-technical tests. About Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project (KLIP): It is a multi-purpose irrigation project on the Godavari River in Kaleshwaram, Bhupalpally, Telangana, India. It is designed to provide water for irrigation and drinking purposes to about 45 lakh acres in 20 of the 31 districts in Telangana, apart from Hyderabad and Secunderabad. Currently the world’s largest multi-stage lift irrigation project, its farthest upstream influence is at the confluence of the Pranhita and Godavari rivers. The Pranahita River is itself a confluence of various smaller tributaries, including the Wardha, Painganga, and Wainganga rivers, which combine to form the seventh-largest drainage basin on the subcontinent. KLIP is divided into 7 links and 28 packages spanning a distance of approximately 500 km (310 mi) through 13 districts and utilizing a canal network of more than 1,800 km (1,100 mi). The project aims to produce a total of 240 TMC (195 from Medigadda Barrage, 20 from the Sripada Yellampalli project, and 25 from groundwater), of which 169 has been allocated for irrigation, 30 for Hyderabad municipal water, 16 for miscellaneous industrial uses and 10 for drinking water in nearby villages, with the remainder being estimated evaporation loss. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/telangana/2024/Dec/15/ndsa-likely-to-submit-final-report-on-kaleshwaram-lift-irrigation-scheme-by-december-end

Answer 147

Amphipod Explanation : Researchers from the University of Concepción in Chile and the Woods Hole Oceanographic Institution in the US have discovered Dulcibella camanchaca in the Atacama Trench. It is a new predatory amphipod species. It was found at a depth of 7,902 meters in the Atacama Trench. It has been classified within the Eusiridae family and represents a newly identified genus, marking a significant addition to the catalogue of deep-sea biodiversity. Features It measures just under 4 centimetres and is larger than its closest relatives and exhibits unique features, such as raptorial appendages called gnathopods, used for hunting smaller organisms. Unlike scavenging amphipods commonly found in trenches, this species actively preys on other amphipods, playing a crucial role in the deep-sea food web. It is a fast-swimming predator that is named after 'darkness' in the languages of the people from the Andes region. It has pale colouring, a common trait in deep-sea species that enhances its ability to thrive in its pitch-black environment. Key points about the Atacama Trench The Atacama Trench stretches along the eastern South Pacific Ocean, plunging to depths exceeding 8,000 m off the coast of northern Chile. It is part of the hadal zone, a region characterised by intense pressure, near-freezing temperatures, and complete darkness. It is one of the most geographically isolated hadal features and is situated below eutrophic surface waters and characterized by high sediment loads. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/scientists-find-alien-like-predator-in-the-depths-of-the-ocean-call-it-darkness/articleshow/116280641.cms?from=mdr

Answer 148

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully carried out the sea level hot test of its CE20 cryogenic engine. It is the indigenous engine developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre of ISRO. It is powering the upper stage of the LVM3 launch vehicle and has been qualified to operate at a thrust level of 19 tonnes. This engine has successfully powered the upper stage of six LVM3 missions so far. Recently, the engine was qualified for the Gaganyaan mission with a thrust level of 20 tonnes and also to an uprated thrust level of 22 tonnes for the future C32 stage, towards enhancing the payload capability of LVM3 launch vehicle. It features an innovative Nozzle Protection System that overcomes previous complexities in engine testing. Key achievements of the test include successful testing of an engine with a nozzle area ratio of 100, evaluation of a multi-element igniter by activating only the first element, and confirmation of normal engine and facility performance. Significance: It marks a significant step in ISRO’s indigenous engine development, showcasing its ability to overcome complex rocket propulsion challenges. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/isro-conducts-successful-sea-level-hot-test-of-ce20-cryogenic-engine-paving-the-way-for-future-missions/article68977406.ece

Answer 149

Only two Explanation : The Konda Reddi tribe continues to live in harmony with nature and its story offers a poignant reminder of the fragile balance between tradition and modernity. Konda Reddi is a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group inhabiting the banks of the river Godavari in Andhra Pradesh. Language: The tribe speaks Telugu language with an unique accent. Religion: The primary religion practiced by the Konda Reddi is folk Hinduism, characterized by local traditions and cults of local deities worshiped at the community level. Family and Marriage: The family is patriarchal and patrilocal. Monogamy is a rule, but polygamous families are also found. Marriage by negotiations, by love and elopement, by service, by capture, and by exchange are socially accepted ways of acquiring mates. Political Organization: They have their own institution of social control called ‘Kula Panchayat’. Each village has a traditional headman called ‘Pedda Kapu’. The office of the headman is hereditary and the headman is also the Pujari (priest) of the village deities. Livelihood: They are primarily shifting cultivators and largely depend on flora and fauna of forest for their livelihood. They mainly cultivate jowar, which is their staple food. Their way of life largely revolves around the cow, which is a source of sustenance for them. The traditional houses of the Konda Reddis have retained their unique architectural look over the centuries. The tribe has adopted a unique circular-shaped architecture for housing. The houses, built with circular mud walls and thatched roofs, resemble the Bhunga architecture of Gujarat’s Kachchh region. They are aggressive in the cultivation of commercial crops such as cashew, niger, chilli and cotton under Podu cultivation method. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/jaladam-valley-home-to-the-konda-reddi-tribe-offers-a-glimpse-into-a-centuries-old-way-of-life/article68980888.ece#:~:

Answer 150

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Minister of State for Heavy Industries and Steel provided information about the SAMARTH Udyog Bharat 4.0 initiative in the Rajya Sabha. It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises under its scheme on Enhancement of Competitiveness in the Indian Capital Goods Sector. SAMARTH Udyog encompasses manufacturers, vendors and customers as the main stakeholders. The experiential and demonstration centres for Industry 4.0 have been proposed to spread awareness about I4.0 amongst the Indian manufacturing industries. Under this 4 Smart Advanced Manufacturing and Rapid Transformation Hub (SAMARTH) Centres have been set up namely: Centre for Industry 4.0 (C4i4) Lab, Pune; IITD-AIA Foundation for Smart Manufacturing, IIT Delhi; I-4.0 India @ IISc, Bengaluru; and Smart Manufacturing Demo & Development Cell, CMTI, Bengaluru. SAMARTH Centres have been providing assistance to industries including MSMEs to train the workforce and make them aware about Industry 4.0 technologies in the following ways: Organizing Awareness Seminars/ Workshops and knowledge sharing events on Industry 4.0; Training industries to create awareness about Industry 4.0; Providing consultancy (in areas such as IOT Hardware, Software development, data analytics) and incubation support to start- ups including MSMEs. No financial assistance is given to any industry including MSME for adopting Industry 4.0 enabled technologies under SAMARTH centre initiative of the Scheme. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2084143

Answer 151

2 only Explanation : The Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science & Technology informed the Rajya Sabha about the DAE- Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme. It is administered by the Department of Atomic Energy. It is for Distinguished Scientist/Professors, in order to give recognition and an opportunity to outstanding Scientists and Engineers including those retired /superannuated scientists/engineers who were involved in the development of sensitive and/ or critical technologies to carry out research and development work in the fields of their choice and of interest to the Department of Atomic Energy. The tenure under DAE- Homi Bhabha Chair Scheme is for the period of one to five years at the discretion of the Selection Committee. Under the scheme each awardee shall be entitled to an honorarium of Rs. 2,00,000/- p.m.(In case honorarium plus pension sanctioned is more than pay last drawn, honorarium would be restricted to pay last drawn before retirement). A contingency grant of Rs.76000/- per annum to cover the expenditure like secretarial assistance, telephone bills and stationery. A lump sum equipment allowance (inclusive of Book Allowance) not exceeding Rs.125000/- would also be made available during the entire tenure of the awardee subject to actual utilization. The equipment allowance also includes a sum of Rs.10000/- towards Book Allowance. A fixed monthly transport allowance is also provided in case the awardee of the scheme is not provided with an official vehicle. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2083837

Answer 152

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : A little bunting bird, never before seen in Rajasthan, has been spotted in Mount Abu recently. About Little Bunting: It is a passerine bird belonging to the bunting family (Emberizidae). Scientific Name: Emberiza pusilla Distribution: It breeds across the taiga of the far northeast of Europe and northern Eurosiberia to the Russian Far East. It is a migratory bird, wintering in the subtropics in northern India, southern China, and the northern parts of Southeast Asia. Features: It measures only 12–14 cm (4.7–5.5 in) in length. It has white underparts with dark streaking on the breast and sides. With its chestnut face and white malar stripe, it resembles a small female reed bunting, but has black crown stripes, a white eye-ring, and a fine dark border to the rear of its chestnut cheeks. The sexes are similar. IUCN Red List: Least Concern Hence both statements are not correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/rare-in-rajasthan-little-bunting-bird-spotted-for-1st-time-in-mount-abu/articleshow/116335717.cms

Answer 153

1 only Explanation : Israel recently agreed to double its population on the occupied Golan Heights. About Golan Heights: It is a hilly area overlooking the upper Jordan River valley on the west. It is a Syrian territory occupied by Israel since 1967. The area’s name is from the biblical city of refuge Golan in Bashan. It is bounded by the Jordan River and the Sea of Galilee on the west, Mount Hermon on the north, the seasonal Wadi Al-Ruqqād River on the east and the Yarmūk River on the south. It extends about 71 km from north to south and about 43 km from east to west at its widest point. It is roughly boat-shaped and has an area of 1,150 sq.km. History: The area was part of extreme southwestern Syria until 1967, when it came under Israeli military occupation in the closing stages of the 1967 Six-Day War. Most of the Syrian Arab inhabitants fled the area during the conflict. Syria tried to retake the Golan Heights during the 1973 Middle East war, but the attempt was thwarted. Both countries signed an armistice in 1974, and a UN observer force has been in place on the ceasefire line since 1974. In December 1981, Israel unilaterally annexed the part of the Golan it held. It's considered occupied territory under international law and UN Security Council resolutions. There are more than 30 Israeli settlements in the Golan Heights, which are home to an estimated 20,000 people. They are considered illegal under international law, which Israel disputes. The settlers live alongside some 20,000 Syrians, most of them Druze Arabs who did not flee when the area came under Israeli control. Strategic Importance: The Syrian capital, Damascus, can be clearly seen from the top of the Golan Hills. It overlooks northern Israel’s Galilee region and the Sea of Galilee and dominates the route to Damascus on the Syrian-controlled side. Importantly, the Golan Heights shares a border with Jordan and Lebanon. The area is also a key source of water for an arid region. Rainwater from the Golan's catchment feeds into the Jordan River. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/world/middle-east/israel-plans-to-double-popn-in-golan-cites-threats-from-syria/articleshow/116349392.cms

Answer 154

The Black Sea and the Sea of Azov Explanation : A Russian oil tanker carrying thousands of tonnes of oil products split apart during a heavy storm recently, spilling oil into the Kerch Strait. About Kerch Strait: The Kerch Strait is in Eastern Europe and is the only water body that connects the Black Sea with the Sea of Azov. The Romans called it the Strait of Cimmerian Bosphorus. In Greek, it was known as the Cimmerian strait. It separates the Kerch Peninsula (part of the Russian-occupied Crimean Peninsula) towards the west from the Taman Peninsula (Russia), lying in the east. It is about 3 km long, 15 km broad and 18 metres deep. At its narrowest point, which lies at the northern end of the Chushka Landspit, it is only three to five kilometres wide. The city of Kerch lies near the middle of the strait, on the Crimean side. It is an important global shipping route, providing passage from the Sea of Azov to the Black Sea. It has also been a key point of conflict between Russia and Ukraine after Moscow annexed the peninsula from Ukraine in 2014. Kerch Strait Bridge: Also known as the Crimean Bridge, this infrastructure links mainland Russia with Crimea. Completed in 2018, it includes a road and rail connection and is the longest bridge in Europe at 19 km. It is a symbol of Russia's annexation of Crimea in 2014. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.ndtv.com/world-news/oil-spills-into-kerch-strait-as-russian-tanker-splits-apart-in-storm-7254181

Answer 155

Naga Explanation : The Nagaland Tourism Department recently issued a formal apology to the Khiamniungan Union Kohima following the omission of the Khiamniungan Tribe’s name in the Heritage Guide Map displayed during the Hornbill Festival 2024. About Khiamniungan Tribe: The Khiamniungan tribe is one of the major tribes among the Nagas, with habitation both in India and Myanmar. Geographically, the land of Khiamniungans is located in the Eastern part of Nagaland and in the North-Western part of Myanmar. The nomenclature of the tribe ‘Khiamniungan’ is a compound word formed by three words: ‘Khiam’ means water, ‘Niu’ means great and ‘Ngan’ means source. Thus, the meaning of the term Khiamniungan is ‘source of great water or river’. According to the 2011 census, the total population of the Khiamniungan tribe in India is 61,983. Major Festivals: Tsokum is one of the most important and significant festivals which is celebrated with great pomp and gaity. Khaotzao Sey Hok-ah sumai (Festival) is another important festival of Khiamniungan Naga which marks the end of all agricultural activities for the year. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.eastmojo.com/nagaland/2024/12/11/nagaland-tourism-apologises-for-tribes-omission-from-hornbill-map/

Answer 156

2 only Explanation : In a recent case, the Supreme Court explained Henderson doctrine, a natural corollary of the Indian doctrine of constructive Res-judicata. About Henderson Doctrine: Propounded in the English case of Henderson versus Henderson, 1843, the doctrine suggests that all the issues arising in the litigation out of the same subject matter must be addressed in a single suit. The doctrine bars relitigating issues that could or should have been raised in prior proceedings. It held that where a given matter becomes the subject of litigation and the adjudication of a court of competent jurisdiction, the parties so litigating are required to bring forward their whole case. It was further held that the principle of res judicata applies not only to points upon which the Court was called upon by the parties to adjudicate and pronounce a judgement but to every possible or probable point or issue that properly belonged to the subject of litigation and the parties ought to have brought forward at the time. It ensures that litigants are not subjected to repetitive and vexatious legal challenges. At its core, the principle stipulates that all claims and issues that could and should have been raised in an earlier proceeding are barred from being raised in subsequent litigation, except in exceptional circumstances. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.livelaw.in/supreme-court/supreme-court-explains-henderson-doctrine-re-litigation-of-issues-that-could-have-been-raised-earlier-is-barred-278395

Answer 157

1 only Explanation : Recently, experts suggest that Santa Ana’ winds and climate change are fueling wildfires in Malibu coastal town of Malibu, California. It is named after Southern California's Santa Ana Canyon. Santa Ana winds are dry and warm (often hot) winds in the Southern California area that blow in from the desert -- which includes the Great Basin of the western United States Origin: Santa Ana winds blow when high pressure builds over the Great Basin — the area between the Rocky Mountains and Sierra Nevada (a mountain range in the Western United States) — and the pressure is low over California’s coast. The difference in pressure triggers the movement of powerful winds from the Basin’s inland deserts, east and north of Southern California, over the mountains toward the Pacific Ocean. As the wind comes down the mountains, it compresses and heats up. The wind’s humidity also drops, sometimes to less than 20% or even less than 10%. The extremely low moisture turns vegetation dry, making it ready to burn. Winter weather patterns allow high pressure to build near the surface of the Great Basin, which then interacts with low-pressure air over the Pacific. Santa Ana winds usually occur from October to January. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/how-santa-ana-wi

Answer 158

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) has developed a newer version of its own Search and Rescue Aid Tool (SARAT). It was launched in 2016 for facilitating the search and rescue operations in the seas to locate individuals/vessels in distress in the shortest possible time. This has been initiated and developed under the Make in India program and developed by the Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS). Working The tool uses model ensembling that accounts for uncertainties in the initial location as well as last known time of the missing object, to locate the person or object with high probability. The movements of the missing objects are governed mainly by the currents and winds. The tool is based on model currents derived from a very high resolution Regional Ocean Modelling System run operationally on High Performance Computers at INCOIS. The user has the option to select up to 60 types of missing objects (based on shape and buoyancy). Users can select a specific point where the object was last seen using the interactive map or they can also select a coastal location, distance travelled and bearing angle so that the last known location of the missing object is estimated. The results generated are displayed in an interactive map depicting the probable area to be searched and is also sent as a text message to emails/Mobile Phones. All the requests and responses are provided in languages of the coastal states so that local fishermen can use it immediately to search for their fellow fishermen in distress. In SARAT version 2, the position from which the search area expands has now been corrected to be the last known position of the object. It further offers improved visualizations for a better judgement of a probable area of finding the missing object, colour coding of search regions and a marker for easier identification of the last known position of the object. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/telangana/incois-develops-advanced-version-of-search-and-rescue-aid-tool-sarat/article68987803.ece

Answer 159

Only two Explanation : Recently, the Union Government launched the 'Jalvahak' scheme to incentivise cargo movement via inland waterways. It aims to unlock the trade potential of inland waterways while reducing logistics costs and decongesting road and rail networks. Features Under the scheme, cargo owners transporting goods over distances exceeding 300 km via waterways will receive up to 35 per cent reimbursement on operating costs. The scheme will remain valid for three years and is designed to optimise supply chains for major shipping companies, freight forwarders, and trade bodies. It is a major step towards promoting sustainable and cost-effective transportation across National Waterways 1 (Ganga), 2 (Brahmaputra), and 16 (Barak river). The Jalvahak scheme incentivises long-haul cargo transport and ensures timely delivery through regular freight services. This marks the beginning of the Fixed Scheduled Service of Cargo Vessels from Haldia for NW 1 and NW 2. The Fixed Day Scheduled Sailing Service will ply vessels between Kolkata - Patna - Varanasi - Patna - Kolkata stretch of NW 1 and between Kolkata and Pandu in Guwahati on NW 2 via Indo Bangladesh Protocol Route (IBPR). Implemented by: It is jointly implemented by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) and Inland & Coastal Shipping Ltd (ICSL). Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.business-standard.com/india-news/govt-launches-jalvahak-scheme-to-boost-cargo-movement-through-waterways-124121500461_1.html

Answer 160

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Vice President of India Felicitated Winners of the National Energy Conservation Award. It is an initiative by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power. It was instituted in 1991, alongside the declaration of National Energy Conservation Day (December 14). These awards honour the exceptional efforts of industrial units, institutions, and establishments that have significantly reduced energy consumption while maintaining or enhancing their operational efficiency. Selection procedure The Award Committee, chaired by the Secretary (Power), reviews and approves the sectors eligible for the NECA. The applications submitted are evaluated by a Technical Committee, chaired by the Member (Thermal), Central Electricity Authority (CEA), and comprising representatives from the Ministry of Railways, Central Electricity Authority, Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), National Productivity Council (NPC), Central Pulp and Paper Research Institute (CPPRI), and the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE). Afterward, the Technical Committee's recommendations are submitted to the Award Committee for final consideration and approval. The selected awardees from various sectors are then honored and felicitated on National Energy Conservation Day. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2084478

Answer 161

2 only Explanation : In an astonishing feat, a male humpback whale has swum over 13,046 kilometres from South America to Africa, setting a new record for the longest whale migration ever documented. The humpback whale gets its common name from the distinctive hump on its back. Its long pectoral fins inspired its scientific name, Megaptera, which means “big-winged” Appearance: Humpback females are larger than males. They are mainly black or grey with white undersides to their flukes, flippers, and bellies. They also have large knobs on the head, jaws, and body, each knob being associated with one or two hairs. Distribution: These whales live in all oceans around the world. They travel great distances every year and have one of the longest migrations of any mammal on the planet. They undertake long migrations between polar feeding grounds in summer and tropical or subtropical breeding grounds in winter. Humpbacks use a unique method of feeding called bubble netting, in which bubbles are exhaled as the whale swims in a spiral below a patch of water dense with food. Conservation status IUCN: Least concern CITES: Appendix I Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/trending/humpback-whale-swims-over-13000-km-setting-a-new-record-in-quest-for-a-mate-101734238571101.html

Answer 162

Madras Diabetes Research Foundation, Chennai Explanation : Key Features of the Biobank India has established its first diabetes biobank at the Madras Diabetes Research Foundation (MDRF) in Chennai, in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). The diabetes biobank is a repository of biological samples collected from different populations to aid scientific research. Hence option d is the correct answer. Source: India sets up its first diabetes biobank - The Hindu

Answer 163

Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers Explanation : About INS Nirdeshak: INS Nirdeshak is the second ship under the Survey Vessel (Large) Project of the Indian Navy. It is designed to conduct hydrographic surveys, assist in navigation and support maritime operations. It is built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata. It is a part of the Sandhayak-class survey vessels project. which is a series of four survey vessels being built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Kolkata for the Indian Navy. The 4 vessels are Sandhayak, Nirdeshak, Ikshak and Sanshodhak. First two have been commissioned already. Hence option a is the correct answer. Source: How INS Nirdeshak, to be commissioned soon, is set to enhance maritime dominance of Indian Navy in Indian Ocean Region- The Week

Answer 164

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : About Hydroxymethanesulfonate It is a secondary aerosol that forms when formaldehyde reacts with sulphur dioxide in the presence of liquid water. Traditionally thought to occur only in clouds and fog, but found to occur in aerosol particles in Fairbanks winters. Extremely low temperatures (around -350C) cause supercooling of aerosol particles, where liquid water remains unfrozen below its freezing point. Supercooled aerosols allow hydroxymethanesulfonate to form within them. Hence both statements are correct. Source: New chemical pathway found to worsen air quality in harsh winters - The Hindu.

Answer 165

Only two Explanation : About Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP): It is a landmark Free Trade Agreement (FTA) finalized in 2018, aimed at reducing trade barriers among its 11 member countries. Origins: Initially known as the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP), the agreement was rebranded as CPTPP after the United States withdrew from the deal in January 2017. Member nations: These countries include Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore and Vietnam. Recently, the U.K. became the 12th member and first European member. Hence option b is the correct answer. Source: https://thediplomat.com/2024/12/uk-officially-joins-trans-pacific-trade-agreement/

Answer 166

Proved misbehaviour or incapacity Explanation : What is the Procedure for Removal of a Judge? Under Articles 124 and 217 of the Constitution of India, a Supreme Court or High Court judge can be removed by the President on grounds of ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’. The motion must be passed in both Houses of Parliament: By a majority of the total membership of the House, and By a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting in the same session (Special Majority). The Constitution of India does not define the terms ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’. However, the Supreme Court has clarified through its judgments that actions such as wilful misconduct, corruption, lack of integrity, or offences involving moral turpitude constitute misbehaviour. Incapacity refers to a medical condition that includes physical or mental limitations preventing the judge from performing duties effectively. Hence option c is the correct answer. Source: What is the proce

Answer 167

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Under the guidance of the Ministry of Coal, Singrauli based Coal India arm Northern Coalfields Limited (NCL) has rolled out ‘CHARAK’ initiative. Community Health: A Responsive Action for Koylanchal (CHARAK) is an innovative health-centric Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiative. This project is aimed at providing free treatment for the patients suffering from identified Life-Threatening diseases belonging to Economically Weaker Sections of Singrauli region. It will provide free treatment of identified life-threatening diseases at its dedicated hospital (NSC) or at specialised empanelled hospitals across the country. Eligibility: Residents of Singrauli and Sonbhadra districts having annual family income below Rs. 8 Lakhs from all sources will be eligible for benefit under this scheme. Diseases covered: Under this scheme, Malignancy, TB and related complications, HIV and related complications, Cardiovascular diseases, Organ Transplant, Burns with contractures leading to permanent disability, Liver disorders, sudden hearing loss, ARDS, Acute Surgical Emergencies, Neurological Disorders, Neurovascular disorders, Accidental trauma, Serious handicap, Multisystem disorders, Connective Tissue disorders, Sudden vision loss etc. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2084605

Answer 168

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : About Credit Guarantee Scheme for e-NWR based Pledge Financing (CGS-NPF): It aims to provide credit facilities to small farmers to prevent them from distress selling. It provides a corpus of Rs 1,000-crore for post-harvest finance availed by farmers against electronic negotiable warehouse receipts (e-NWRs) after depositing commodities in Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) accredited warehouses. Coverage: Loans up to Rs. 75 lakhs for agricultural purpose and Loans up to Rs. 200 Lakhs for nonagricultural purpose. All scheduled banks and all cooperative banks. Eligible Borrowers: Small and Marginal Farmer (SMF)/ Women/SC/ST/PwD Farmers, other farmers, MSMEs, Traders, FPOs and Farmer cooperatives. The credit guarantee schemes are expected to enhance the availability and accessibility of finances for the targeted beneficiaries, as they play an important role in economic growth. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2085018

Answer 169

All three Explanation : About Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF): It is a serious chronic disease that affects the tissue surrounding the air sacs, or alveoli, in the lungs. The lung tissue becomes thick and stiff for unknown reasons — causing permanent scarring in the lungs over time. Fibrosis can makes it progressively more difficult to breathe for the patient. Complications from IPF include pulmonary hypertension and respiratory failure, which happen when the lungs cannot deliver enough oxygen into the bloodstream without support. This prevents the brain and other organs from getting the oxygen they need. Individuals with a history of smoking or a family history of IPF are at higher risk. The risk also increases with age, making older adults more susceptible to developing the disease. Treatment: There is no cure for IPF, but some treatments can help slow lung damage and improve quality of life. Medications like Nintedanib or Pirfenidone can help the lungs function better and reduce flare-ups. Oxygen therapy can improve breathing and exercise capacity, while ventilator support may be needed for severe cases. Hence all three statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/zakir-hussains-death-idiopathic-pulmonary-fibrosis-ipf-causes-most-vulnerable-symptoms-9727719/

Answer 170

Sri Lanka Explanation : Exercise SLINEX 2024 (Sri Lanka–India Exercise) will be conducted from 17 to 20 Dec 24 at Visakhapatnam under the aegis of the Eastern Naval Command. It is a bilateral naval exercise conducted between India and Sri Lanka. It was initiated in 2005, SLINEX is a significant series of bilateral naval exercises that have strengthened maritime cooperation between India and Sri Lanka over the years. The 2024 edition aims to further reinforce the strong maritime ties between India and Sri Lanka while promoting a safe, secure, and rules-based maritime environment. The 2024 exercise will be held in two phases - the Harbour Phase and the Sea Phase. Participating Units: From India: Indian Naval Ship INS Sumitra, a Naval Offshore Patrol Vessel of the Eastern Fleet, along with a Special Forces team. From Sri Lanka: SLNS Sayura, an Offshore Patrol Vessel, with an embarked Special Forces team. During harbour Phase participants will engage in professional and social exchanges to strengthen mutual understanding. The Sea Phase will feature joint exercises, including Special Forces operations, gun firings, communication drills, seamanship practice Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2084913#:~

Answer 171

1 only Explanation : About Morocco: Location: It is located in the Maghreb region in the Northern and Western Hemisphere regions of the Earth. It is bordered by the two countries of Western Sahara to the south and Algeria to the east. It has coastlines on the Atlantic Ocean to the west and the Mediterranean Sea to the north. It is the only African country with coastlines on both the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea. Its largest city and major Atlantic Ocean port is Casablanca, an industrial and commercial centre. Most of Morocco north of Western Sahara, particularly along the coasts, experiences a typical Mediterranean climate, with mild wet winters and hot dry summers. The Mououya River is the most significant source of water in Morocco. Its source is located in the Atlas Mountains and flows into the Mediterranean Sea. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/morocco-welcomes-indian-defence-companies-to-set-up-shop/article68989242.ece

Answer 172

1 only Explanation : Lava is actually fiery red molten magma coming out from the interior of the earth on its surface. When this molten lava comes on the earth’s surface, it rapidly cools down and becomes solid. Rocks formed in such a way on the crust are called extrusive igneous rocks. They have a very fine-grained structure. For example, basalt. The Deccan plateau is made up of basalt rocks. So, statement 1 is correct. Sometimes the molten magma cools down deep inside the earth’s crust. Solid rocks so formed are called intrusive igneous rocks. Since they cool down slowly, they form large grains. Granite is an example of such a rock. Grinding stones used to prepare paste/powder of spices and grains are made of granite. Granite, Gabbro, Pegmatite, Basalt, Volcanic breccia are some of the examples of Igneous rocks. Whereas Limestone, Chalk, Shale are examples of Sedimentary rocks. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 173

1 and 2 only Explanation : Brihadeeswarar Temple at Thanjavur in Tamil Nadu is the world's first complete granite temple. Granite is an example of intrusive igneous rocks. Since they cool down slowly, they form large grains. So, pair 1 is correctly matched. The Red Fort was constructed using red sandstone. Sandstone is a sedimentary rock. Rocks roll down, crack, and hit each other and are broken down into small fragments. These smaller particles are called sediments. These sediments are transported and deposited by wind, water, etc. These loose sediments are compressed and hardened to form layers of rocks. These types of rocks are called sedimentary rocks. So, pair 2 is correctly matched. Buland Darwaza was constructed using red sandstone, white marble etc. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Answer 174

Metamorphic Rocks Explanation : The word metamorphic means ‘change of form’. Metamorphic Rocks form under the action of pressure, volume, and temperature (PVT) changes. Metamorphism occurs when rocks are forced down to lower levels by tectonic processes or when molten magma rising through the crust comes in contact with the crustal rocks or the underlying rocks are subjected to great amounts of pressure by overlying rocks. Metamorphism is a process by which already consolidated rocks undergo recrystallisation and reorganization of materials within original rocks. In regional metamorphism, rocks undergo recrystallisation due to deformation caused by tectonic shearing together with high temperature or pressure or both. In the process of metamorphism in some rocks, grains or minerals get arranged in layers or lines. Such an arrangement of minerals or grains in metamorphic rocks is called foliation or lineation.

Answer 175

1 and 2 only Explanation : Minerals are obtained from the rocks of earth crusts and are used to produce a variety of goods. Minerals are usually classified into the following type: Metallic minerals Ferrous metals - Iron ore, Manganese, Chromium, Nickel, Molybdenum, Tungsten, Cobalt and Vanadium. So, pair 1 is correctly matched. Non-ferrous metals - copper, aluminium, tin, lead, zinc, and mica. Precious metals - gold, silver and platinum. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched. Mineral fuels Coal Petroleum Natural gas Non-metallic minerals Salt, Sulphur, Phosphate, Asbestos and precious stones like Diamonds. Building stones - Serpentine, Limestone, Marble, Granite, Sand and Clay. Atomic minerals - Uranium, Thorium and other rocks and minerals. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.

Answer 176

2 only Explanation : Specific Humidity is defined as the mass of water vapor in grams contained in a kilogram of air and it represents the actual quantity of moisture present in a definite air. Specific Humidity is seldom affected by the air pressure and air temperature because it is measured in units of weight (grams). So, statement 1 is not correct. Relative Humidity is the ratio of the amount of water vapor actually present in the air having definite volume and temperature (Absolute Humidity) to the maximum amount the air can hold (Humidity capacity). It is expressed as Percentage. Since the Humidity capacity is dependent on its volume, as temperature and volume are positively related, Humidity capacity is also positively related to the temperature. As temperature increases, Humidity capacity also increases, air can hold more moisture and hence Relative Humidity decreases and vice versa. Hence Temperature and Relative humidity are inversely proportional. So, statement 2 is correct. Absolute humidity is the ratio of the mass of water vapor actually in the air to a unit mass of air, including the water vapor. Change in temperature and pressure conditions of an air results in the change of its volume and consequently there is change in its absolute humidity. Secondly when measuring the relative humidity, not only knowing the actual water vapor content is important but also its total capacity to contain water vapor at that temperature is important. But Absolute humidity only gives actual content measure. Hence, it is not a reliable measure of humidity. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 177

1 only Explanation : Iron ore refers to the rocks and minerals from which metallic iron can be economically extracted. They are usually rich in iron oxides and are found in various colours like dark grey, bright yellow, rusty red, deep purple etc. They are classified as per the percentage of metallic iron present in them. Magnetite: It is the best kind of iron ore. It contains more than 70 per cent metallic iron in it. It is black and shows magnetic qualities. It is found in the Dharwad and Cuddapah rock systems of peninsular India. So, statement 1 is correct. Hematite: It contains about 65-70 per cent metallic iron in it. It is red and brown. It is also called ‘red ores’ and contributes around 85% of the total production of iron ore in India. So, statement 2 is not correct. Limonite: It contains below 50 per cent metallic iron in it. It is mostly yellow. It is low-grade iron ore. The presence of lime makes it self-fluxing. Siderite: It has more impurities. It contains about 40-50 per cent metallic iron content in it. It is brown and contains a mixture of iron and carbon. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 178

1 only Explanation : All processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust come under diastrophism. Diastrophism, also called tectonism, large-scale deformation of Earth’s crust by natural processes, which leads to the formation of continents, ocean basins, mountain systems, plateaus, rift valleys, and other features by mechanisms such as lithospheric plate movement, volcanic loading, or folding. So, statement 1 is correct. Diastrophism includes: Orogenic processes involving mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust; Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust; Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements; Plate tectonics involving horizontal movements of crustal plates. So, statement 2 and 3 are not correct.

Answer 179

2 only Explanation : Both ocean currents and winds affect temperature by transporting their heat or coldness into adjacent regions. Ocean currents like the Gulf Stream or the North Atlantic Drift warm coastal Europe keeping their ports ice-free. Ports located in the same latitude but washed by cold currents, such as the cold Labrador current off north-east Canada are frozen for several months. So, statement 1 is not correct. In the Northern Hemisphere, north-facing slopes in latitudes from about 30 to 55 degrees receive less direct sunlight than south-facing slopes. The lack of direct sunlight throughout the day, whether in winter or summer, results in north-facing slopes being cooler than south-facing slopes. The scenario is just the opposite for slopes in the Southern Hemisphere, where north-facing slopes receive more sunlight and are consequently warmer. So, statement 2 is correct. Light soils reflect more heat than darker soils which are better absorbers. Such soil differences may give rise to slight variations in the temperature of the region. As a whole, dry soils like sands are very sensitive to temperature changes, whereas wet soils, like clay, retain much moisture and warm-up or cool down more slowly. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 180

British type climate Explanation : British Type Climate: British-type climatic regions are under the permanent influence of the Westerlies all-round the year. This climate is also referred to as the cool temperate western margin climate or the North-west European Maritime Climate. In the Northern Hemisphere, the climatic belt stretches from Britain into North-West Europe, including northern and western France, Belgium, the Netherlands, Denmark, western Norway and also north-western Iberia. In the Southern Hemisphere, the climate is experienced in southern Chile, Southern Australia, Tasmania and most parts of New Zealand, particularly in the South Island. Climate conditions: Moderately warm summers and fairly mild winters. Extremes of temperatures are not likely. Adequate rainfall throughout the year. The mean annual temperature is usually in the range of 5℃ – 15℃. Summers are never very warm and winters are abnormally mild with no station recording below freezing point temperatures. This is due to the warming effect of the North Atlantic Drift and the prevalence of the South-Westerlies. The natural vegetation of this climatic type is the deciduous forest.

Answer 181

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : Once generated, tsunamis radiate outward in all directions from their source. Unlike wind waves that affect just the surface of the ocean, tsunamis propagate (move) through the entire depth of the ocean, from the surface to the floor. They move at great speeds and have tremendous energy. Large tsunamis can move across entire oceans. So, statement 1 is correct. The speed of a tsunami depends on the depth of the water it is traveling through. The deeper the water, the faster the tsunami. In the deep ocean, tsunamis can move as fast as a jet plane, over 500 mph (800 km/h), and can cross entire oceans in less than a day. So, statement 2 is correct. The distance between waves is the wavelength. Because of a tsunami's long wavelengths, which can be hundreds of miles, a tsunami is barely noticeable in the deep ocean and rarely more than three feet (one meter) high. Mariners at sea will not normally notice a tsunami as it passes beneath their hulls. As a tsunami enters shallow water near land, it slows down, wavelengths decrease, waves grow in height, and currents intensify. At the shore, most tsunamis slow to the speed of a car, approximately 20 to 30 mph (30 to 50 km/h). So, statement 3 is correct

Answer 182

Slipping of one or several units of rock debris with a backward rotation with respect to the slope over which the movement takes place. Explanation : Depending upon the type of movement of materials, landslides are classified into various types: Slump is the slipping of one or several units of rock debris with a backward rotation with respect to the slope over which the movement takes place. Debris slide is the rapid rolling or sliding of earth debris without backward rotation of mass Debris slide. Debris fall is nearly a free fall of earth debris from a vertical or overhanging face. Rockslide involves sliding of individual rock masses down bedding, joint or fault surfaces.

Answer 183

1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation: Diastrophism includes all processes that move, elevate or build up portions of the earth’s crust. They include: Orogenic processes involve mountain building through severe folding and affecting long and narrow belts of the earth’s crust. In the process of orogeny, the crust is severely deformed into folds. Orogeny is the process of mountain building. So, point 1 is correct. Epeirogenic processes involve uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust. Due to epeirogeny, there may be simple deformation. Epeirogeny is continental building process. So, point 2 is correct. Earthquakes involve local relatively minor movements, which involve sudden shaking of the earth’s surface as a result of sudden release of energy. So, point 3 is correct. Plate tectonics involves horizontal movements of crustal plates. All these processes cause pressure, volume and temperature (PVT) changes which in turn induce metamorphism of rocks. So, point 4 is correct.

Answer 184

1 and 2 only Explanation : Jet streams are strong and rapidly moving circumpolar westerly air circulation in a narrow belt of a few hundred kilometres in the upper atmosphere. Generally, their circulation is observed between poles and 20° latitude in both the hemispheres. They are called circumpolar because they move along the poles in both hemispheres. So, statement 1 is correct. There is a seasonal change in the wind velocity in jet streams wherein these become strong during the winter season and the wind velocity becomes twice the velocity during the summer season. So, statement 2 is correct. The extent of the jet stream narrows down during the summer season because of its northward shifting while it extends up to 20° latitude during the winter season. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 185

1, 2, and 3 Explanation: The Equatorial hot and wet climate is found between 50 to 100 north and south of the equator. Its greatest extent is found in the lowlands of the Amazon, the Congo, Malaysia and the East Indies. There is no month without rain in this region, Although the variation in rainfall may occur in different regions. Some important characteristics of Equatorial Vegetation is the high variety of vegetation, a distinct layered arrangement, Multiple species and clearing of forests for lumbering and shifting cultivation. So, statement 1 is correct. The Equatorial climate is suitable for the cultivation of Natural rubber (hevea brasiliensis), which was first discovered in the Amazon basin in Brazil. So, statement 2 is correct. The Indian tribes of the Amazon Basin, Pygmies of Congo and the Orang Asli of Malaysia are the tribes of these regions. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 186

Attrition Explanation : Both the cutting and removal of rock debris by the river is called river erosion. The work of river erosion is accomplished in four different ways, all of which operate together. These four ways are: Corrasion or Abrasion: As the rock particles bounce, scrape and drag along the bottom and sides of the river, they break off additional rock fragments. This form of erosion is called corrasion. This is the mechanical grinding of the rivers against the banks and bed of the river. Corrosion or Solutions: This is the chemical or solvent action of water on soluble or partly soluble rocks with which the river water comes in contact. For example, limestone or calcium carbonate, when it comes in contact with water, it is easily dissolved and removed in solution. Hydraulic Action: This is the mechanical loosening and sweeping away of material by the sheer force of river water itself. No load or material is involved in this process. Some of the water splashes against the river banks and enters into cracks and crevices. This undermines the soft rocks with which it comes in contact. It picks up the loose fragments from its bank and bed and transports them away. Attrition: This is the wear and tear of the transported materials themselves when they roll and collide with one another. In the process the coarser boulders are broken down into smaller pieces. The angular edges are smoothened and rounded to form pebbles.

Answer 187

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : Desert regions are regions of scanty rainfall, which may be hot like the hot deserts of Sahara and Thar, or it may be temperate/mid-latitudes desert like the Gobi Desert. The aridity of the hot deserts is mainly due to the effects of off-shore trade winds. They are also called ‘Trade Wind Deserts’. So, statement 1 is correct. The most prominent vegetation of the deserts is the Xerophytic or Drought resistant shrubs. They adapt to the inhospitable climate of the desert regions. So, statement 2 is correct. Intense evaporation in the desert regions tends to increase the salinity in the soil so much that the salts accumulate on the surface forming ‘Hard Pans’. So, statement 3 is correct. The Bindibu of Australia, Bushmen of Kalahari and the Bedouins of Arabia and the Tauregs of Sahara are some tribes of hot deserts.

Answer 188

4 only Cloud seeding is a kind of weather modification technology to create artificial rainfall. It works only when there are enough pre-existing clouds in the atmosphere. So, statement 1 is correct. Rain happens when moisture in the air reaches levels at which it can no longer be held, and cloud seeding aims to facilitate and accelerate that process by making available chemical ‘nuclei’ around which condensation can take place. These ‘seeds’ of rain can be the iodides of silver or potassium, dry ice (solid carbon dioxide), or liquid propane. The seeds can be delivered by plane or simply by spraying from the ground. So, statement 2 is correct. In India, the cloud-seeding experiments are limited to convective clouds during the monsoon season. During winter, the clouds are mostly exacted with western disturbances. The widespread fog occurs after the passage of western disturbances. Generally, the moisture in the air is too less during winter in northern India, which limits the scope of cloud seeding. The potential pre-existing clouds are needed to carry out the seeding process. So, statement 3 is correct. Cloud seeding is not new to India and it has earlier been attempted in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra to address drought. Similar experiments of cloud seeding had earlier been tried in Australia, America, Spain and France. In United Arab Emirates, the cloud seeding technique led to creation of 52 storms in Abu Dhabi. Till last year, IMD had around 30 successful incidents of seeding. Also, such seeding is routine in Russia and other cold countries where the technique is used to disperse fog at the airports. So, statement 4 is not correct. The Pune-based Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology has been carrying out cloud seeding experiments for several years now. These experiments have been done in areas around Nagpur, Solapur, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad, Jodhpur, and recently Varanasi. The success rate of these experiments in inducing rains is about 60 to 70 percent, depending on local atmospheric conditions, the amount of moisture in the air and cloud characteristics.

Answer 189

Only Two Pairs Explanation: A grassland is an area in which the vegetation is dominated by a nearly continuous cover of grasses. Savannas - also known as tropical grasslands - are found to the north and south of tropical rainforest biomes. The largest expanses of savanna are in Africa, where much of the central part of the continent, for example Kenya and Tanzania, consists of tropical grassland. Savanna grasslands can also be found in Brazil in South America. Savanna regions have two distinct seasons - a wet season and a dry season. There is very little rain in the dry season. In the wet season vegetation grows, including lush green grasses and wooded areas. Savanna vegetation includes scrub, grasses and occasional trees, which grow near water holes, seasonal rivers or aquifers. The table below shows some important Savannah grassland regions of the world with their locations:

Answer 190

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : According to Plate tectonic theory, the surface of the earth and the interior are not static and motionless but are dynamic. The mobile rock beneath the rigid plates is believed to be moving in a circular manner. So, statement 1 is correct. The heated material rises to the surface, spreads and begins to cool, and then sinks back into deeper depths. This cycle is repeated over and over to generate what scientists call a convection cell or convective flow. Heat within the earth comes from two main sources: Radioactive decay and Residual heat. Convectional currents are generated due to radioactive elements causing thermal differences in the mantle portion. The Slow movement of the hot, softened mantle that lies below the rigid plates is the driving force behind the plate movement. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 191

Both 1 and 2 Before Subduction India was a large island situated off the Australian coast, in a vast ocean. The Tethys Sea separated it from the Asian continent till about 225 million years ago. Tethys sea is a tropical body of saltwater that existed from the end of the Paleozoic Era until the Cenozoic Era. Initially, it separated the supercontinent of Laurasia in the north from Gondwana in the south during much of the Mesozoic Era before these landmasses fragmented into the modern continents. So, statement 1 is correct. During the movement of the Indian plate towards the Eurasian plate, a major event that occurred was the outpouring of lava and the formation of the Deccan Traps. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 192

1 and 2 only Explanation : A tectonic plate is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab of solid rock, generally composed of both continental and oceanic lithosphere. Plates move horizontally over the asthenosphere as rigid units. The theory of plate tectonics proposes that the earth’s lithosphere is divided into seven major and some minor plates. Cocos plate: Between Central America and Pacific plate. So, pair 1 is correctly matched. Nazca plate: Between South America and Pacific plate. So, pair 2 is correctly matched. Scotia plate: Between South America and Antarctica. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched. Caroline plate: Between the Philippine and Indian plate. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Answer 193

1 only Explanation : Based on their orogeny and formation, mountains are of the following types Fold Mountains: It is formed due to the force of compression originating from the endogenic, internal forces resulting in synclines (trough) and anticlines (crest) which are the part of Fold Mountains. E.g., The Himalayas, the Rockies in North America, the Andes in South America and the Alps in Europe. They are also known as Young Fold Mountains. So, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct. Block Mountains: It is formed due to the force of tension originating inside the earth resulting in down lifting or uplifting of land in between two parallel faults forming a block mountain. The uplifted blocks are termed as horsts, and the lowered blocks are called graben. E.g., The Great African Rift Valley (valley floor is graben), The Rhine Valley and the Vosges Mountains in Europe are examples. The Appalachians in North America and the Ural Mountains in Russia are examples of fold mountains. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 194

2 only Explanation : Intermontane Plateau: The word Intermontane means between the mountain. These plateaus are bordering the fold mountain range or are partly or fully enclosed within them. Eg. Tibet plateau (4500 m high) which is surrounded by fold mountains like Himalaya, Karakoram, Kunlun, Tien-Shian etc. Piedmont plateaus are situated at the foot of a mountain and are locked on the other side by a plain or a sea. So, statement 1 is not correct Dissected Plateaus: Plateau that have been intensely eroded so that the relief become sharp. Weathering, erosion, and denudation of the flat land results in the formation of the dissected plateau. The eroded region tends to appear as mountainous or as hilly slopes and valleys. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 195

1 and 2 only Explanation : Seafloor spreading is a geologic process in which tectonic plates split apart from each other. Seafloor spreading and other tectonic activity processes are the result of mantle convection. Mantle convection is the slow, churning motion of Earth’s mantle. Convection currents carry heat from the lower mantle and core to the lithosphere. Convection currents also “recycle” lithospheric materials back to the mantle. Seafloor spreading occurs at divergent plate boundaries such as mid-ocean ridges. As tectonic plates slowly move away from each other, heat from the mantle’s convection currents makes the crust more plastic and less dense. The less-dense material rises, often forming a mountain or elevated area of the seafloor. So, statement 1 is correct. Mid-ocean ridges are situated in the rising thermal convection current coming up from the mantle. The oceanic crust moves away from the mid-ocean ridges and thus there is a continuous upwelling of new molten materials along the mid oceanic ridges. So, statement 2 is correct. The ocean crust rocks are much younger than the continental rocks. The age of rocks in the oceanic crust is nowhere more than 200 million years old. Some of the continental rock formations are as old as 3,200 million years. The age of the rocks increases as one moves away from the crest. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 196

1 only Explanation : Continental Drift Theory According to Wegener, all the continents formed a single continental mass called Pangaea and mega ocean called Panthalassa surrounding the same. He argued that, around 200 million years ago, the super continent, Pangaea, began to split. Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses as Laurasia and Gondwanaland forming the northern and southern components respectively. So, statement 1 is correct. Scientists did not accept Wegener’s theory of continental drift. Wegener suggested two forces responsible for continental drift- Tidal force and differential gravitational force. Although the exact force responsible for the motion of plates is not yet fully known, geologists believe that convectional currents deep in the mantle are the primary cause of this phenomenon. So, statement 2 is not correct

Answer 197

1 only Explanation : Recently, Wroughton’s free-tailed bat has been spotted at the Delhi Development Authority (DDA)’s Yamuna Biodiversity Park. It is a highly rare species of molossus bat. Characteristics: It is characterised by its large size, huge ears extending beyond the muzzle, and bicoloured velvet fur. It is known to be a powerful flier. Habitat: It roosts in caves or dark, damp and little warm places, in moderate colony sizes. Distribution: This bat species is primarily found in the Western Ghats, where there is only one known breeding colony. Small colonies have also been recorded in Jaintia Hills, Meghalaya, and a single individual was noted in Cambodia. Conservation Status IUCN: Data Deficient (Until 2000, the species was considered critically endangered because of a single known population in the Western Ghats. Later it was placed under this category). Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule I Ecological significance: Ecologically important for regulating insect populations and is also known to assist in pollination. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/wroughton-free-tailed-bat-rare-species-spotted-delhi-yamuna-biodiversity-park-9729664/

Answer 198

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, three million seeds of short neck clam (Paphia malabarica), produced at the Vizhinjam Regional Centre of the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) were released into Ashtamudi Lake. It is a valuable bivalve mollusk. It is a fast-growing species with a peak spawning season of December to February and has a maximum lifespan of around 3 years. It attains sexual maturity in its first year at a shell length of 30 mm. It is the major fishery resource of the brackishwater Ashtamudi Lake in Kerala, India It is India’s first Marine Stewardship Council (MSC) certified fisheries. Short neck clam is a treasured resource in Ashtamudi Lake with significant economic and ecological importance. The shells provide an extra income: as a mineral source, they're used in cement production and to make carbide for use in welding. The clams are bought by a local factory, heat-treated, frozen and sold to retailers and restaurants, with around 80% being exported to Vietnam, Malaysia and Thailand. The clam shell also holds commercial importance being the raw material for the manufacture of cement, calcium carbide and sand lime bricks. They are also used for lime burning for construction, in paddy fields and fish farms for neutralizing acid soil and as slaked lime. In recent years, the fishery of this clam has witnessed a drastic decline, threatening the livelihoods of thousands of fishermen who rely on this resource. Reasons for its decline: Environmental pollution, invasion of non-native species like the Charru mussel, and the impacts of climate change, including altered salinity and water temperature, have significantly reduced the clam population. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/three-million-paphia-malabarica-seeds-released-into-ashtamudi/article68996005.ece

Answer 199

All three Explanation : In a boost to the National Investigation Agency’s (NIA) powers, the Supreme Court ruled that the powers of the agency are not restricted to probing offences mentioned in the schedule of the NIA Act or accused of committing such “scheduled offences”. It was set up under the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008 as a Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency. It was created after the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks, as the need for a central agency to combat terrorism was realised. It investigates and prosecutes offences Affecting the sovereignty, security and integrity of India, security of State, friendly relations with foreign States, matters relating to international treaties etc. It investigates and prosecutes offences related to explosive substances, atomic energy, nuclear weapons, unlawful activities, terrorist activities, hijacking, etc. The Government has empowered the NIA through the NIA (Amendment) Act, 2019 to investigate scheduled offences involving Indian citizens or Indian interests that are committed outside India. Further, the mandate of NIA has also been expanded to investigate offences related to the Explosive Substances Act, 1908, Human Trafficking, Cyber Terrorism and Arms Act, 1959. A State Government may request the Central Government to hand over the investigation of a case to the NIA, provided there is reasonable ground to suggest the commission of a scheduled offence under the NIA Act in the said crime. NIA officers have the power to investigate scheduled offences and arrest people who are involved in such offences. In relation to this, the officers of the NIA have all the powers, duties, privileges, and liabilities which ordinary police officers have while conducting an investigation. The administration of the NIA lies with its Director-General (DF), who enjoys the same powers as a Director-General of Police. It comes under the jurisdiction of the Union Ministry of Home Affairs. Headquarters: New Delhi Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/nia-can-investigate-unscheduled-offences-linked-with-scheduled-ones-supreme-court-9728751/

Answer 200

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister of Science & Technology said that the fusion of traditional knowledge with modern technology could give India's advantage over others at the celebration of five years of the Science and Heritage Research Initiative (SHRI). It is a new programme on Heritage Research. It aims to engage experts from diverse fields for data capture and analysis, to form new collaborations, and provide viable technology, to address cultural heritage-related issues. Aims and Objectives SHRI has been envisaged to - Build capacity in human resources and encourage new researchers to work in these areas. Promote scientific RD activities for the conservation of Heritage objects which may include material deterioration processes, preservation techniques, intervention technologies, new materials, processes for restoration and diagnostic technologies. Safeguard the use, representations, expressions, knowledge and techniques, communities, groups and in some cases, individuals, recognised as an integral part of our cultural heritage. To explore new approaches, state-of-the-art technology to preserve the heritage and artworks of former generations, which witnessed the evolution and growth of human civilization. Promote the application of advanced knowledge of archaeometric science in a range of fields. Promote RD activities and technological advancement in Tribal Arts for value addition. The Initiative envisages implementing the programme throughout the nation. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Science & Technology Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2084921®=3&lang=1

Answer 201

2 only Explanation : Scientists have found in the orcas’ blubbers (fat layer under the skin) high levels of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)—toxic chemicals used in industrial and agricultural processes. They are organic chemical substances and are carbon-based. POPs have been widely used throughout the supply chain, in all kinds of products including pesticides, in industry processes and can also be released into the environment unintentionally. These POPs do not break down easily. Thus they remain in the environment for decades, travel over great distances through water and wind and eventually work their way through the food chain by accumulating in the body fat of species. They remain intact for exceptionally long periods of time (many years); They become widely distributed throughout the environment as a result of natural processes involving soil, water and, most notably, air; They accumulate in living organisms including humans, and are found at higher concentrations at higher levels in the food chain; and They are toxic to both humans and wildlife. A global treaty on POPs i.e Stockholm Convention It was entered into force in 2004. The Stockholm Convention on persistent organic pollutants calls for the reduction or elimination of releases of POPs globally. Parties to the Convention commit to not produce or use the chemicals listed in its annexes. To date, 185 countries have ratified the Stockholm Convention and 34 POPs are listed as 17 pesticides, 15 industrial chemicals and 7 unintentional by-products. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/environment/inescapable-threat

Answer 202

All three Explanation : Recently, Moldova has officially signed the International Solar Alliance (ISA) Framework Agreement, furthering its commitment to promoting renewable energy. About the International Solar Alliance (ISA): The ISA was conceptualised on the sidelines of COP21 in Paris in 2015 as a collaborative initiative between India and France. The headquarters of the ISA is located in Gurugram, India. The ISA aims to unite global efforts in combating climate change through the implementation of solar energy solutions. The mission of the ISA is guided by the ‘Towards 1000’ strategy, which focuses on three key goals: Mobilizing USD 1,000 billion of investments in solar energy by 2030. Providing energy access to 1,000 million people worldwide. Achieving the installation of 1,000 GW of solar energy capacity. The ISA Assembly is the apex decision-making body of the organization. It plays a crucial role in shaping policies and overseeing the implementation of the ISA’s Framework Agreement. Currently, the ISA has 104 member countries and 16 signatory countries. The ISA Framework Agreement came into force in 2017. Following its amendment in 2020, all United Nations member states became eligible to join the ISA. Key Initiatives of the ISA: Scaling Solar Applications for Agricultural Use (SSAAU): This program addresses the increasing demand for solar-powered water pumps to support agricultural activities. ISA CARES: This initiative provides innovative and reliable solar energy solutions for healthcare systems in low- and middle-income countries. Program on Solarizing Heating and Cooling Systems: This program aims to meet the growing heating and cooling demands in commercial, industrial, and residential sectors by facilitating solar-based solutions. Global Solar Facility: Launched during COP27, this facility is designed to catalyze solar investments in underserved regions and geographies across Africa. Hence option c is the correct answer. Moldova joins International Solar Alliance - ET EnergyWorld

Answer 203

Only two Explanation : December 18 is celebrated as Minority Rights Day, commemorating the UN Declaration on the Rights of Persons Belonging to National, Ethnic, Religious, and Linguistic Minorities (adopted in 1992). Concept of Minorities in India: Definition: The Constitution of India mentions the term “minority” but does not define it. Supreme Court’s Position: Minorities must be defined at the State level: Example: Hindus are a religious minority in Punjab, Kashmir, and Northeastern states. Religious Minorities: Under Section 2(c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, the following six communities are officially recognized as minorities: Muslims, Christians, Buddhists, Sikhs, Jains and Zoroastrians (Parsis). Linguistic Minorities: They are those whose mother tongue differs from the dominant language in a state. 350-A ensures primary education in the mother tongue for children from linguistic minority groups. Key Articles Related to Minority Rights: Article 29: Protection of Language, Script, and Culture Article 29(1): Recognizes the right of any section of citizens with a distinct language, script, or culture to conserve the same. It acknowledges cultural pluralism and the importance of group identities in a diverse society. Minority groups need explicit protection to safeguard their distinct cultures. Article 30: Right to Establish and Administer Educational Institutions Article 30(1): Grants all religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Article 30(1A): Deals with compensation for acquiring property belonging to minority institutions. Article 30(2): Prohibits discrimination against minority-managed institutions when granting aid. Judicial Interpretations: Re Kerala Education Bill (1957): The Supreme Court affirmed the centrality of the term "choice" for minorities in Article 30. St. Xavier’s College Society (1974): The Supreme Court stated that the purpose of Article 30 is to ensure equality between majority and minority groups. Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973): The Supreme Court declared Article 30 as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution, which cannot be altered. Aligarh Muslim University Case (2024): Recognized Article 30 as a facet of equality and non-discrimination. Article 350-A and 350-B: Article 350-A: Obliges states to provide instruction in the mother tongue at the primary education level for linguistic minority children. Article 350-B: Provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities to address their grievances. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Source: The Constitution on minority rights - The Hindu

Answer 204

1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation : Jodhaiya Bai, a celebrated Baiga tribal artist and Padma Shri awardee, passed away on December 15, 2024, at the age of 86 after a prolonged illness. Her death was reported from her native Lodha village in Umaria district, Madhya Pradesh. About Baiga Tribe: The Baiga Tribe is one of India’s Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). They primarily reside in Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh. Traditional Practices: Livelihood: Traditionally semi-nomadic, they practised slash-and-burn cultivation, locally called "Bewar", and now depend mainly on minor forest produce. Tattooing: This is integral to their culture, with specific tattoos designated for different body parts and age groups. Tattoos are made using kajal derived from Ramtilla seeds (Niger seeds). Mahua Tree: These are fermented and distilled to prepare an intoxicant, forming an essential part of their diet and culture. Cultural Identity: Bamboo: A vital resource used in their daily life. Habitat Rights: The Baiga tribe is the first community in India to be granted habitat rights, reflecting their deep connection with forests. Jodhaiya Bai's Contribution: Jodhaiya Bai was pivotal in bringing international recognition to Baiga tribal art. She was honored with the Padma Shri in 2023 for her exceptional contribution to the field of arts. Her artwork, which portrays Baiga tribal culture on canvas, has been exhibited in multiple countries around the world. Hence option d is the correct answer. Padma Shri awardee Baiga tribal artist Jodhaiya Bai dies - The Hindu

Answer 205

Indian Ocean Explanation : The Prime Minister of India expressed condolences for the victims of Cyclone Chido and pledged support to assist in relief efforts. About Cyclone Chido: Cyclone Chido recently struck Mayotte, a French Indian Ocean territory located in the Mozambique Channel. Wind speeds reached 200 km/h, making it the strongest cyclone to hit Mayotte in over 90 years. About Mayotte: Mayotte is part of the Comoros archipelago, situated in the Mozambique Channel of the Indian Ocean. It consists of two main islands: Grande Terre (main island) and Petite Terre (Pamandzi, a smaller island). What is a Cyclone? A cyclone is a large-scale air system that rotates around the center of a low-pressure area, typically bringing violent storms and extreme weather conditions. In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate anticlockwise. In the Southern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate clockwise due to the Coriolis effect. Characteristics of Tropical Cyclones: Calm Center: The center (eye) of the cyclone remains calm with low air pressure. High Wind Speed: Cyclones generally have an average speed of around 120 km/h. Closed Isobars: Isobars (lines of equal atmospheric pressure) are tightly packed, leading to high wind velocity. Formation Over Oceans: Cyclones develop only over warm oceans and seas. East-to-West Movement: Cyclones are influenced by trade winds, moving from east to west. Seasonal Nature: They occur during specific seasons, depending on regional climatic conditions. Classification of Cyclones: The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies cyclones based on wind speeds: Depression: 31–49 km/h Deep Depression: 50–61 km/h Cyclonic Storm: 62–88 km/h Severe Cyclonic Storm: 89–117 km/h Very Severe Cyclonic Storm: 118–166 km/h Extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm: 166–221 km/h Super Cyclonic Storm: Above 222 km/h Hence option a is the correct answer. PM Modi condoles Cyclone Chido devastation in Mayotte, offers relief assistance | Latest News India - Hindustan Times

Answer 206

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Arctic Tundra has transitioned from a carbon sink to a carbon emitter as confirmed by a new analysis in the ‘Arctic Report Card’ by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). About Arctic Tundra: The Arctic Tundra is a vast, treeless biome characterized by its cold, dry, and rocky terrain. The term “tundra” originates from the Finnish word tunturi, meaning a ‘treeless plain.’ Characteristics of the Arctic Tundra: Permafrost: It refers to permanently frozen soil, starting within a meter of the surface. During summer, only the upper layer thaws, while deeper layers remain frozen. The frozen layer restricts plant root growth and prevents tree growth, resulting in a treeless landscape. Soil composition: The tundra's soil is rocky and nutrient-poor due to low decomposition rates. Organic material accumulates in the form of peat (decayed sphagnum moss) and humus (organic matter), making it a significant carbon sink. Geographic location: The Arctic tundra is the northernmost biome, covering areas north of the Arctic Circle up to the polar ice cap, parts of Canada, Iceland, and Greenland. It spans approximately 11.5 million km². Climate: Temperatures range from 15.5°C in summer to -60°C in winter, with mean temperatures below 0°C for 6–10 months. Annual precipitation is low, ranging between 150–250 mm, but evaporation is minimal. Features 24-hour sunlight in summer and 24-hour darkness in winter. Natural vegetation: Vegetation is predominantly herbaceous due to the cold climate and short growing season.Includes grasses, mosses (e.g., reindeer moss), lichens, and liverworts. Woody plants like dwarf willows remain short and spread to withstand high winds. Animal life: Large mammals such as polar bears, caribou, musk ox, and Arctic foxes inhabit the tundra. Smaller animals like lemmings and Arctic hares adapt with fur that changes color seasonally. Migratory birds, such as loons and snow geese, breed in the tundra during summer. Arctic Tundra as a Carbon Sink: Despite the absence of trees, the Arctic Tundra is a significant carbon sink. This is due to the accumulation of organic matter in: Peat (Decayed sphagnum moss) and Humus (Decomposed organic material). The cold conditions slow decomposition, trapping carbon in the permafrost for millennia. Reasons for Emissions: Thawing permafrost: Rising temperatures activate microbes, breaking down organic matter and releasing CO₂ and CH₄ (methane). Increased wildfires release additional GHGs and accelerate permafrost thawing. Temperature trends: The Arctic is warming four times faster than the global average. 2024 marked the second-warmest year since records began in 1900. Global carbon trends: CO2 emissions in 2024 are projected to be 41.6 billion tonnes, up from 40.6 billion tonnes in 2023. Land-use changes add 4.2 billion tonnes of emissions annually. Hence both statements are correct. Why Arctic tundra is emitting more carbon than it absorbs, for first time in many millennia | Explained News - The Indian Express.

Answer 207

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Union Ministry of Textiles is encouraging by extending its research and development efforts into new natural fibers, including milkweed fiber. About Milkweed fiber: It is the seed fiber obtained from milkweed plant. Milkweed (Asclepias syriaca L) plant belongs to the genus Asclepias of the family Asclepiadaceae and is also known as stubborn weed. In India, it is found as a wild plant in the states of Rajasthan, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Milkweed contains an abundance of milk sap in its leaves, stems and pods. Properties of Milkweed fibre: It contains oily material and lignin, a woody plant substance, which makes it too brittle for spinning. It has a hydrophobic–oleophobic surface due to the natural waxes found on the surface of the fiber. Applications: It is used in paper industries. In addition, it is also used as an insulative filling material. It is used in such water-safety equipment as life jackets and belts. Researchers discovered that it readily absorbs oil while simultaneously repelling water, thus making it an effective fiber to help clean up oil spills. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2085099

Answer 208

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Science and Technology unveiled Kisan Kavach. It is first-of-its-kind anti-pesticide bodysuit designed to protect farmers from the harmful effects of pesticide exposure. The suit is intended to protect farm labourers from imbibing the pesticides they spray. Several of the common pesticides are potential neurotoxins and detrimental to health. It is developed by the Biotechnology Research and Innovation Council (BRIC-inStem), Bangalore, in collaboration with Sepio Health Pvt. Ltd. Features The kit consists of a trouser, pullover, and a face-cover made of ‘oxime fabric’ that can chemically breakdown any of the common pesticides that get sprayed onto cloth or body during spraying operations. This prevents chemicals from leaching into the skin. The price per kit is ₹4,000. Working: This Kisan Kavach fabric can deactivate pesticides upon contact through nucleophilic mediated hydrolysis, thereby preventing pesticide-induced toxicity and lethality. The kit retained its potency in a wide temperature range, under UV-light exposure and was protective even after a 150 washes. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/scientists-develop-kisan-kavach-to-shield-farmers-from-pesticide-sprays/article68996654.ece

Answer 209

Only two Explanation : Recently, a team of wildlife conservationists tagged the almost-blind Ganges river dolphin for the first time. It is a freshwater species and one of the few river dolphins found in the world. Habitat: It is mainly found in the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. Other names: Blind dolphin, Ganges dolphin, Ganges susu, hihu, side-swimming dolphin, South Asian River Dolphin It serves as an umbrella species for the river systems and it has been recognized as India's National Aquatic Animal. Appearance: It has a long thin snout, rounded belly, stocky body and large flippers are characteristics of the Ganges River dolphin. Features They can only live in freshwater and are essentially blind. They hunt by emitting ultrasonic sounds, which bounce off of fish and other prey. They have a highly developed bio-sonar system that facilitates them to hunt for fish even in murky waters. Being a mammal, the Ganges River dolphin cannot breathe in the water and must surface every 30-120 seconds. Because of the sound it produces when breathing, the animal is popularly referred to as the 'Susu'. Conservation status: IUCN: Endangered CITES: Appendix I Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972: Schedule-I Facts about tagging Ganges River dolphin It is an initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change and executed by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) in collaboration with the Assam Forest Department and biodiversity conservation group Aaranyak. Working: The lightweight tags emit signals compatible with Argos satellite systems even with limited surfacing time and are designed to minimize interference with dolphin movement. Funding: This project is funded by the National CAMPA Authority. Significance: The tagging under Project Dolphin is expected to help understand the dolphin’s seasonal and migratory patterns, range, distribution, and habitat utilisation, particularly in fragmented or disturbed river systems. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2085865

Answer 210

1 only Explanation : Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCIS) initiates “detailed examination” after official trade figures showed that India’s gold imports in November surged threefold to an all-time high of $14.8 billion compared to the previous year. It is the premier organization of the Government of India for the collection, compilation and dissemination of India’s trade statistics and commercial information. History The Organization traces its origin to a statistical branch established in the Finance Department of the Government of India way back in 1862. Sir William W. Hunter was the first DG of the DGCI & S or the Director General of Statistics as he was designated, back in 1871. Functions It is entrusted with the work of collecting, compiling and publishing/disseminating trade statistics and various types of commercial information required by the policymakers, researchers, importers, exporters, traders as well as overseas buyers. It is the first large-scale data processing organization functioning as a nodal agency for Export & Import data in the country. It also compiles and publishes the inland Trade Statistics covering inter-state movements of goods by rail, river and air on a yearly basis. It is headed by the Director General, an Additional Secretary level officer of Indian Statistical Services (ISS). Nodal Ministry: It works under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry Headquarters: Kolkata. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/government-to-reexamine-unusual-gold-import-surge-amid-indications-of-double-counting-9733033/

Answer 211

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : According to new research, climate change is altering Himalayan tree landscape where drought-resistant fir trees are replacing the Himalayan birch Trees. It is a deciduous broadleaved species that dominates the Himalayan region. Distribution: It is widely distributed in the altitudinal range from 3100 - 3800 m in North-western Himalayas. It is native to the Western Himalayas and grows at elevations of up to 4,500 metres Features It has a high freezing tolerance potential, allowing it to form a treeline in the Himalayan region. It is a long-lived species which can survive up to 400 years and the only angiosperm in the Himalaya which dominates an extensive area at sub - alpine altitudes. Ecological significance: It contributes to the preservation of the Himalayan ecosystem by reducing soil erosion and creating a bio-shield for the remaining forests and sub-alpine meadows below the treeline. Highlights of the research Birch trees are struggling to grow due to stress from increased temperatures and lack of moisture. Birch tree which need more moisture, are growing less due to heat-related dryness. Fir and birch compete for space, sunlight, water and nutrients, making it even harder for birch to grow. Climate change-driven disturbances such as early snowmelt, snow fungi, avalanches, landslides, insect outbreaks, hotter droughts and fires will further hinder the recruitment of less resilient species like birch. Impact on environment: The shift of dominant plant functional types from deciduous to evergreen may also alter ecological functions such as the rate of litter decomposition, carbon and nitrogen cycling, water-use efficiency, interactions with animals and fungi and energy fluxes, with further impacts on the composition of alpine plant communities Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/climate-change-is-altering-himalayan-tree-landscape-drought-resistant-fir-trees-are-replacing-birch

Answer 212

Madhya Pradesh Explanation : Recently, Madhya Pradesh aimed to create a suitable habitat for cheetahs in the Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary, spread over 2,500 sq. km of landscape spanning Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. Location: It is situated in northwestern Madhya Pradesh, along the Madhya Pradesh-Rajasthan border and lies within the Khathiar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion. Key features: Declared a sanctuary in 1974, covering an area of 368 sq. km. The Chambal River flows through the sanctuary, dividing it into two parts. It is a designated Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA). Topography and Vegetation: The sanctuary includes hills, plateaus, and the catchment area of the Gandhi Sagar Dam. Vegetation types: Northern tropical dry deciduous forest. Northern tropical dry mixed deciduous forest. Dry deciduous scrub. Principal tree species: Khair, Salai, Kardhai, Dhawda, Tendu, and Palash. Fauna: Herbivores: Chinkara, Nilgai, and Spotted Deer. Carnivores: Indian Leopard, Striped Hyena, and Jackal. Aquatic species include crocodiles, fish, otters, and turtles. Historical and Cultural Importance: The sanctuary houses sites of historical and archaeological significance, such as Chaurasigarh, Chaturbhujnath Temple, Bhadkaji rock paintings, Hinglajgarh Fort and Taxakeshwar Temple. Hence option a is the correct answer. Madhya Pradesh plans a new home for cheetahs, but leopards will have to move out first | India News - The Indian Express

Answer 213

All three Explanation : The Government of India recently launched a 100-day tuberculosis (TB) campaign, focusing on active screening in 347 high-risk districts. In its first week, the campaign detected 6,267 new TB cases. Understanding Tuberculosis (TB): Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which primarily affects the lungs. TB is a curable and preventable disease if detected early and treated appropriately. There are two types of TB infections: Latent TB: In this state, the bacteria remain inactive in the body and cause no symptoms. It is not contagious but can become active. Active TB: In this condition, the bacteria cause symptoms and can be transmitted to others. Globally, one-quarter of the population is estimated to have latent TB. Individuals infected with TB bacteria have a 5-15% lifetime risk of developing the disease. People with compromised immune systems—such as those with HIV, malnutrition, diabetes, or those who use tobacco—have a significantly higher risk of falling ill with TB. Transmission of Tuberculosis: TB spreads from person to person through the air. When a person with lung TB coughs, sneezes, or spits, TB bacteria are released into the air. Even inhaling a few droplets of contaminated air can cause an infection. Key Facts and Objectives of the Campaign: Over 5 lakh individuals have been actively screened through health and wellness centres and 850 mobile testing vans. Target population: The campaign targets 25 crore vulnerable individuals, including: Family members of TB patients. People with conditions like diabetes, HIV, or those who smoke or drink excessively. Individuals with BMI below 18.5 or who had TB in the past. Screening and diagnostic efforts: Camps are organized at health and wellness centers supported by 850 mobile testing vans. Screening focuses on symptoms like persistent cough (15+ days), fever, weight loss, loss of appetite, breathlessness, chest pain, and blood in sputum. Reduction in missing cases: Missing TB cases (the gap between estimated and detected cases) have been reduced from 15 lakh to 2.5 lakh, according to the Health Ministry. Focus on High-Risk Groups and Areas: Targeted Demographics: Groups include students, youth, corporate employees, and laborers in brick kilns, mines, construction sites, tea gardens, and more. High-risk districts: 347 districts include 38 tribal areas, 27 mining zones, and 47 aspirational districts. States with the highest number of districts in the campaign: Karnataka (31), Maharashtra (30), and Madhya Pradesh (23). Hence option c is the correct answer. 100-day campaign: 16,000 TB cases detected, 5 lakh screened | India News - The Indian Express

Answer 214

Only two Explanation : Recently, a controversy has arisen regarding the alleged consumption of 'Jungli Murga' (Grey Junglefowl) by the Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh. About the Red Junglefowl (Gallus gallus): The Red Junglefowl is a tropical pheasant species and the wild ancestor of the domestic chicken, making it vital for understanding avian domestication. It is native to India, Indo-China, Malaysia, and surrounding regions. IUCN Status: Category: Least Concern Reasons: Wide distribution: Found across a large geographical range. Stable population: Declines are not rapid enough to meet the criteria for vulnerability. Habitat: It is found in diverse habitats like primeval forests, dry scrublands, and secondary growth woodlands. Despite being listed as Least Concern by the IUCN Red List, the species faces threats from habitat loss and hybridization with domestic chickens. Threats: Hybridization: Feral domestic chickens and intermediate subspecies threaten the genetic purity of wild populations. Lack of Awareness: Insufficient education on the importance of preserving pure populations of the Red Junglefowl. About Grey Junglefowl (Gallus sonneratii): It is the closely related species of the Red Junglefowl. Males are grayish with golden markings on the wings, whitish spotting around the neck, a long glossy-black tail, pinkish feet. Red comb and wattle are smaller than the widespread Red Junglefowl. Females are rather plain, lacking the long tail, comb and wattle; yellowish legs and bold white spotting on underparts separate them from similar looking female Red Junglefowl. It is endemic to peninsular India It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, providing it with the highest level of legal protection. Hunting or consuming this species is a criminal offence, punishable under the Act. Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct. ‘Jungli Murga’ on HP CM’s dinner menu? Police file case of defamation, fake news - The Hindu

Answer 215

Ministry of Home Affairs Explanation : All 17,130 police stations across India are now linked through the CCTNS platform. About CCTNS: It is a centralized online platform conceptualized under the Ministry of Home Affairs. Launched in 2009 with a budget of ₹2,000 crore, it is part of India’s National e-Governance Plan. It aims to establish a comprehensive and integrated system to enhance the efficiency and transparency of police operations at the police station level. Classified as a Mission Mode Project (MMP), the system provides law enforcement with tools for investigation, data analytics, policymaking, and delivering citizen-centric services. Key Features of CCTNS: Nationwide integration: It connects all 17,130 police stations across 28 states and 8 Union Territories. Recently achieved 100% deployment, including in remote areas like Manipur, Nagaland, and Lakshadweep. Comprehensive crime database: Stores records of accused persons, habitual offenders, proclaimed offenders, and crime-related data such as missing persons and stolen vehicles. Analytical tools: Generates crime statistics and detailed reports for analysis at the police station level. Citizen services: Enables tracking of complaints, verification requests, and case updates, making police processes more accessible. Enhanced scope: Integrated with the Integrated Criminal Justice System (ICJS), connecting police data with courts, prisons, prosecution, forensics, and fingerprint databases. Key Modifications Under New Criminal Laws: CCTNS plays a pivotal role in implementing the new criminal laws introduced on July 1, 2024: Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (replaces Indian Penal Code, 1860). Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (replaces Indian Evidence Act, 1872). Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (replaces Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898). Key updates include: Mandatory videography: Crime scene videography and forensic evidence collection in cases punishable by over seven years. Forensic investigations: Biological samples collected upon request of investigating officers. Arrest transparency: Senior officer approval required for arrests in specific cases. Arrest information communicated to relatives and displayed publicly. Case monitoring: Victims updated on investigation progress within 90 days. Digital reporting: Daily diaries sent to magistrates fortnightly. About National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB): Established: 1986, under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Purpose: Acts as the central repository for crime and criminal data in India. Headquarters: New Delhi. Responsible for: Collecting and analyzing crime statistics. Managing the Central Finger Print Bureau, which maintains a national database of fingerprints. Publishing key reports like Crime in India, Accidental Deaths & Suicides, and Prison Statistics. Providing technical support in areas like Digital Forensics and Network Security. Hence option b is the correct answer. All 17,130 police stations in the country linked through centralised online platform - The Hindu

Answer 216

sacred grove Explanation : The Supreme Court of India has directed the Union Government to formulate a comprehensive policy for managing sacred groves across the country. What Are Sacred Groves? Sacred Groves are small patches of forests or natural vegetation that are protected by local communities due to their religious and cultural significance. These areas are often dedicated to local deities and serve as both ecological sanctuaries and sites of spiritual reverence. They act as repositories of biodiversity, sheltering rare plant and animal species. Hunting and deforestation are usually prohibited, while sustainable activities such as honey collection or gathering deadwood are permitted. Sacred Groves in India: Sacred groves are scattered across India but are particularly found in regions like: The Western Ghats The Himalayas The northeastern hill tracts Central India Regional Names for Sacred Groves: Sarna in Bihar Dev Van in Himachal Pradesh Devarakadu in Karnataka Kavu or Sarpa Kavu in Kerala Devrai or Deorai in Maharashtra Law Kyntang or Asong Khosi in Meghalaya Oran in Rajasthan Examples of Success: Piplantri Village, Rajasthan: Known for planting 111 trees for every girl child born. This initiative has enhanced local income, reduced female foeticide, and empowered women’s self-help groups. Hence option a is the correct answer. Formulate policy to manage sacred groves, Supreme Court tells Centre - The Hindu

Answer 217

1 only Explanation : A giant frog species Calyptocephallela gayi is now losing ground in its native Chile as climate change and human intervention damage its habitat. It is also known as Helmeted Water Toad which hopped alongside dinosaurs and is considered a "living fossil". It is one of the largest frogs in the world, growing up to over 30 cm (1 foot) in length and weighing up to 1 kg (2.2 lbs). Appearance: It is a robust species with a broad head and large mouth. It is very large, and can reach a snout–to–vent length of up to 15.5 cm (6 in) in males and 32 cm (13 in) in females. Habitat: They inhabit aquatic environments, such as lakes, rivers and ponds. Distribution: They are found in the lowlands of Chile, up to 500 m in elevation. Conservation Status IUCN: Vulnerable Threats: Factors such as climate change, habitat interruption, environmental decline and pollution have all caused the Helmeted Water Toad's numbers to dwindle. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/chiles-giant-living-fossil-frog-faces-threat-from-climate-change-and-humans/article69003614.ece

Answer 218

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) comprising up to 31 MPs will be formed to review the Constitution (129th) Amendment Bill. It is an ad-hoc body, which acts as a mini-Parliament to carry out detailed scrutiny of a specific matter within a specific time frame. It is set up by the Parliament for a special purpose, like the detailed scrutiny of a subject or Bill. It has members from both the Houses and from the ruling parties and the opposition. How it is formed? It is set up after one House of Parliament has passed a motion and the other has agreed to it. Members of the JPC are decided by the Parliament. The mandate of a JPC depends on the motion constituting it. Recommendations of the JPC are not binding on the government. It is dissolved after its term ends or its task has been completed. A few JPCs have earlier been set-up, having investigative powers: To examine matters relating to Allocation and Pricing of Telecom Licenses and Spectrum. On Pesticide Residues in and Safety Standard for Soft Drinks, Fruit Juice and other Beverages On Stock Market Scam and Matters Relating thereto To enquire into irregularities in Securities and Banking Transactions To enquire into Bofors Contract Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/joint-committees-parliament-jcp-onoe-9734376/

Answer 219

Only two Explanation : NASA scientists are closely studying a new class of celestial objects known as “dark comets”. They are celestial bodies which lack the glowing tails and resemble asteroids. The first indication of dark comets came in 2016, when asteroid 2003 RM exhibited unusual orbital deviations. Since then, astronomers have confirmed the existence of dark comets, with a new study published which revealed 14 such objects. These comets fall into two main categories: “outer dark comets,” which have eccentric orbits and are larger, and “inner dark comets,” which are smaller and closer to the Sun, with nearly circular orbits. Dark comets are often small, just a few metres to a few hundred metres wide. They have less surface area for material to escape and form into the beautiful tails we see on typical comets. They often spin quite rapidly and disperse escaping gas and dust in all directions, making them less visible. They follow elongated, elliptical paths that bring them close to the Sun before sweeping back out to the farthest reaches of the Solar System. Hence only statements 2 and 3 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-a-dark-comet-a-quick-guide-to-the-new-kids-in-the-solar-system/article68999558.ece

Answer 220

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the National Institute of Siddha (NIS) has set a Guinness World Record for providing Varmam therapy to 567 individuals simultaneously. It is a unique and traditional healing modality within the Siddha system of medicine and has long been revered for its effectiveness in treating various health conditions. Varmam therapy is a drugless, non-invasive, simple therapy used in pain management. Varmam is the vital life energy point located in the human body and was identified as 108 points by the Siddhars. It is particularly renowned for its ability to provide rapid relief for musculoskeletal pain, injuries, and neurological disorders. It is a scientifically grounded therapeutic practice used to treat acute and chronic diseases, including stroke, arthritis, and trauma-related injuries. Significance of the achievement: It serves as a testament to the growing global recognition of Siddha medicine and its healing potential. Key points of Siddha Medicine It is a traditional system of healing that originated in South India and is considered to be one of India’s oldest systems of medicine. Literary evidences of the Sangam Era state the origin of this system to around 10,000 BC. The system was built on the work of Siddhars, who were mostly from Tamil Nadu. It is called the Siddha medical system because of this. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2085869

Answer 221

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Union Minister for Education addressed 20th Foundation Day of the National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions in New Delhi. It was established by the National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions (NCMEI) Act 2004. It is a quasi-judicial body and has been endowed with the powers of a Civil Court for the purpose of discharging its functions under the Act. It aims to safeguard the educational rights of the minorities enshrined in Article 30(1) of the Constitution. The commission has three main roles namely adjudicatory, advisory and recommendatory. Powers of the commission It decides all questions relating to the status of any institution as a Minority Educational Institution (MEI). It also serves as an appellate authority in respect of disputes pertaining to Minority Status/ No Objection Certificate (NOC). Educational institutions aggrieved by the order of refusal to grant Minority Status Certificate/No Objection Certificate by the competent authority of State/UT, can appeal to the Commission against such orders. The Commission has the power to cancel the minority status of an educational institution granted by an Authority or Commission, on grounds laid down in the Act. It also has powers to call for information while enquiring into the complaints of violation or deprivation of the educational rights of the minorities. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2085710

Answer 222

All four Explanation : The southern bench of NGT issued a three-day ultimatum to the Kerala Government to address the issue of illegal biomedical and solid waste dumping in Tamil Nadu. About National Green Tribunal (NGT): NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for the efficient and timely disposal of cases related to environmental protection, forest conservation, and natural resource management. The principal bench is located in New Delhi, with additional benches in Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai. Composition of NGT: The Tribunal comprises: Chairperson: A retired Supreme Court judge. Judicial members: Retired High Court judges. Expert members: Professionals with at least 15 years of experience in fields related to environment or forest conservation. Structure of benches: Each bench includes at least one judicial member and one expert member to ensure balanced decision-making. Powers and Jurisdiction of NGT: Scope: NGT handles civil cases related to environmental issues and laws listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act: The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Special powers: Acts as an appellate authority for environmental cases. Operates on principles of natural justice, not bound by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Mandated to resolve cases within six months of filing. Current Order: Details of the tribunal’s order: Kerala must either retrieve the waste or formalise an agreement with Tamil Nadu’s Common Biomedical Waste Treatment Facility for proper disposal. Kerala had previously been directed to pay ₹69,000 for cleanup efforts in a similar case in Nanguneri. Hence option d is the correct answer. Medical waste from Kerala dumped in Tamil Nadu: Green tribunal issues ultimatum | Chennai News - The Indian Express

Answer 223

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Lokayukta Investigation in Karnataka. About the Lokayukta: It is a State-level anti-corruption body tasked with investigating complaints of corruption and maladministration against public officials. It is inspired by the Ombudsman system in Scandinavian countries. It was recommended by the first Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966 chaired by Morarji Desai. The first Lokayukta was established in Maharashtra in 1971. Legal Framework: Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013: Mandates the establishment of Lokpal at the Union level and Lokayukta in states. Requires that at least 50% of members belong to SCs, STs, OBCs, minorities, or women. Lokayukta is a statutory body without constitutional status. Lokayukta Selection and Removal: Typically, a former Chief Justice of a High Court or former Supreme Court judge. Selected by a panel comprising the CM, Chief Justice of the HC, and leaders of both legislative houses, among others. Removal requires impeachment by the state assembly. Work and Functions: Investigates corruption and maladministration complaints. Ensures speedy redressal of public grievances. Can recommend action but lacks binding enforcement powers unless provided by state-specific legislation. Current issue The Karnataka High Court (HC) has stayed the Lokayukta investigation into the alleged MUDA (Mysore Urban Development Authority) land allotment scam involving the Chief Minister's family, following a plea for a CBI probe. The case revolves around the allocation of 14 housing sites worth ₹56 crores to CM’s wife under a controversial 50:50 land compensation scheme. Hence both statements are correct. Karnataka HC stays Lokayukta inquiry in Siddaramaiah’s MUDA case citing CBI probe plea | Bangalore News - The Indian Express

Answer 224

Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade Explanation : India has achieved a landmark milestone with gross FDI inflows crossing $1 trillion since April 2000. What is Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)? FDI refers to an investment made by a company or individual from one country into a business or establishment in another country. It involves not only the transfer of capital but also expertise, technology, and skills that contribute to the host country’s economic development. Types of FDI: Greenfield Investment: Establishing new facilities from scratch, providing high control and customisation. Brownfield Investment: Expanding operations through mergers, acquisitions, or joint ventures, leveraging existing infrastructure. Governance: FDI in India is governed by the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, and is administered by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Entry routes: Automatic Route: Investment does not require prior government approval. Government Route: Investment requires approval from the relevant ministry or department. Sectoral Policies on FDI: Sectors under the automatic route: These include Agriculture and Animal Husbandry, E-commerce, Biotechnology, Renewable Energy, and others. Sectors under the Government route: These include Banking, Broadcasting, Food Retail, and Satellite Operations. Prohibited sectors: FDI is prohibited in atomic energy, gambling, lotteries, chit funds, real estate, and the tobacco industry. India’s Top FDI Sources (2023–2024): India received the highest FDI inflows from Singapore, followed by Mauritius, the United States, the Netherlands, and Japan. FDI trends over the last decade (2014–2024): Between April 2014 and September 2024, India received $709.84 billion in FDI, accounting for 68.69% of total FDI inflows since 2000. Key initiatives like Make in India, liberalised sectoral policies, and the implementation of GST have strengthened investor confidence. A significant 26% rise in FDI inflows to $42.1 billion in the first half of the current fiscal year underscores India's growing appeal as a global investment destination. Hence option b is the correct answer. India’s FDI Journey Hits $1 Trillion

Answer 225

2, 3 and 4 only Explanation : The recent launch of the Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime route has cut shipping time and costs, thereby boosting trade between India and Russia in oil, food, and machinery. About Eastern Maritime Corridor (EMC) The Chennai-Vladivostok Sea Route, also known as the EMC, connects South India with Russia's Far East region. The corridor significantly reduces cargo transit time by up to 16 days and cuts distance by up to 40%, making it a highly efficient trade route. The traditional Mumbai-to-St. Petersburg route spans 8,675 nautical miles (16,066 km) and takes over 40 days for cargo transportation. In contrast, the Chennai-Vladivostok route is only 5,647 nautical miles (10,458 km) and takes 24 days, saving approximately 5,608 km in distance. The EMC passes through key waterways, including the Sea of Japan, East China Sea, South China Sea, Malacca Straits, Andaman Sea, and the Bay of Bengal. Ports along the route include Dalian, Shanghai, Hong Kong, Ho Chi Minh City, Singapore, Kuala Lumpur, Bangkok, Dhaka, Colombo, and Chennai. Other Maritime Corridors for India: International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC): A 7,200 km multimodal transit route connecting the Indian Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Iran, and further to Europe via Russia. Includes 13 member countries and offers three routes: Central, Western, and Eastern. In 2024, Russia sent two coal-laden trains to India via the INSTC for the first time. India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC): Announced at the G20 Summit 2023, this project connects India, the Middle East, and Europe via rail, road, and maritime links. Includes two corridors: East Corridor (India to the Arabian Gulf) and Northern Corridor (Gulf to Europe). Features electricity cables, hydrogen pipelines, and high-speed data cables for greater regional integration. Northern Sea Route (NSR): This 5,600 km maritime route in the Arctic Ocean connects the Pacific and Atlantic oceans through the Arctic, is piquing the interest of numerous nations—India, Russia, and China, in particular. It links the Barents and Kara Seas to the Bering Strait. Offers transit times up to 50% shorter than traditional routes like the Suez Canal. Gains importance for India due to increased imports of Russian crude oil and coal. Hence option b is the correct answer. New eastern route cuts down shipping time & costs, promises to boost India-Russia trade | Business News - The Indian Express

Answer 226

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Manipur government has announced the re-imposition of the Protected Area Regime (PAR), also known as the Protected Area Permit (PAP), after 13 years. What is the Protected Area Regime (PAR)? It refers to a set of regulations under the Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order, 1958, aimed at controlling the entry of foreign nationals into certain strategically sensitive areas in India. These restrictions are designed to ensure national security and monitor foreign movement in regions vulnerable to external threats, particularly in northeastern states and other border areas. Key Features of PAR: Restricted access: Foreigners cannot enter Protected Areas without prior approval from the government. A Protected Area Permit (PAP) is mandatory for entry into these zones, allowing authorities to track and regulate foreign activities. Sensitive zones: Protected Areas are designated due to their proximity to international borders, ethnic tensions, insurgency, or political instability. Regions under the PAR include: Entire states: Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and parts of Sikkim. Parts of Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Rajasthan, and Uttarakhand. Exceptions for Tourism: Temporary relaxations have been introduced in the past, especially in northeastern states, to promote tourism and boost local economies. Reimposition: These relaxations are withdrawn when security concerns outweigh the benefits, as seen in the recent reinstatement of PAR in Manipur, Mizoram, and Nagaland. About Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order, 1958: Framework: Issued under the Foreigners Act, 1946, it controls the movement of foreigners in sensitive regions. Inner line: Defines the boundary from Jammu and Kashmir to Mizoram, beyond which special permits are required. Protected areas: Include whole regions like Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and parts of Sikkim, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Rajasthan, and Uttarakhand. Restricted areas: Areas between the Inner Line and indigenous territories require a Restricted Area Permit (RAP). Examples include the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and parts of Sikkim. Current Situation and Reactions: State responses: Mizoram and Nagaland officials have yet to receive official directions from the Union Home Ministry, despite media reports and the Manipur government’s announcement. Manipur’s conflict: The state government and Meitei civil society groups blame the influx of "illegal immigrants" from Myanmar's Chin community for the region’s instability. Free Movement Regime (FMR): The government has scrapped the FMR with Myanmar, which allowed border tribes to travel freely within a 16 km range without a visa. This decision, aimed at controlling illegal immigration, faces opposition in Mizoram and Nagaland. Hence both statements are correct. Decode Politics: Manipur says ‘Protected Area Regime’ back after 13 years. What it means

Answer 227

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : India Maritime Heritage Conclave It was organised by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW) at Yashobhoomi, Dwarka, New Delhi. Representatives from 11 countries joined the two-day conclave, highlighting the event's international significance. Nations such as Greece, Italy and the UK joined the conclave, emphasizing the global significance of India's maritime history. It explored India’s maritime history and its future aspirations, including the role of youth, skill development, and sustainable practices in the maritime sector. National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) Lothal: Location and Historical Importance: Situated in Lothal, Gujarat, an ancient Indus Valley Civilization site (2600 BCE). Archaeological evidence includes the world’s oldest man-made dockyard, over 5,000 years old. Hence both statements are not correct. News: India Maritime Heritage Conclave 2024

Answer 228

Subansiri Explanation : About Bordoibam-Bilmukh Bird Sanctuary: It is a large freshwater lake situated on the boundary of Dhemaji and Lakhimpur districts in Assam and covers an area of approximately 11.25 sq. km. It was originally part of the River Subansiri (a tributary of the Brahmaputra), which now flows 7 km away from the lake. Climate and Vegetation: Experiences a moist tropical climate with an average annual rainfall of about 2,000 mm. Dominated by flooded valley grasslands and wetland vegetation. Avian Biodiversity: Hosts a variety of migratory waterfowl in winter. Home to globally threatened species such as the Spot-billed Pelican (Pelecanus philippensis) and Lesser Adjutant (Leptoptilos javanicus). Migratory species: Recent records include Brown Shrike, Citrine Wagtail, White Wagtail (winter migratory), and Lesser Kestrel (summer migratory). Hence option b is the correct answer. News: Assam bird sanctuary records 72% decline in bird species count in 27 years - The Hindu

Answer 229

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Nanoplastics and Antibiotic Resistance: A recent study has highlighted that nanoplastics derived from single-use plastic bottles (SUPBs) contribute to the spread of antibiotic resistance (AR). AR is a type of antimicrobial resistance where bacteria evolve to withstand the effects of antibiotics, making infections harder to treat. Nanoplastics such as Polyethylene terephthalate bottle-derived nanoplastics (PBNPs) facilitate the Horizontal Gene Transfer (HGT) of AR genes from E. coli to L. acidophilus. HGT involves gene transfer across different bacterial species, unlike vertical gene transfer, which occurs from parent to offspring. Mechanisms of AR Gene Transfer: Direct Transformation Pathway: PBNPs act as physical carriers, transporting AR plasmids across bacterial membranes. This facilitates direct gene transfer between bacteria. OMV-Induced Transfer Pathway: PBNPs induce oxidative stress, triggering an increased secretion of outer membrane vesicles (OMVs). These OMVs, loaded with AR genes, serve as potent vectors for gene transfer between bacterial species, including beneficial and pathogenic bacteria. Hence both statements are correct. News: Nano-plastics identified as emerging agents in spread of antibiotic resistance.

Answer 230

Only one Explanation : About Pangolins: Also called scaly anteaters because of their preferred diet, pangolins are the most trafficked mammal in the world for their meat, scales and leather. These solitary, primarily nocturnal animals, are easily recognized by their full armor of scales. A startled pangolin will cover its head with its front legs, exposing its scales to any potential predator. If touched or grabbed it will roll up completely into a ball, while the sharp scales on the tail can be used to lash out. Species: There are eight species of pangolins, found across two continents: Africa: Black-bellied pangolin, White-bellied pangolin, Giant Ground pangolin, and Temminck's Ground pangolin Asia: Indian pangolin (Manis crassicaudata), Chinese, Philippine pangolin, and Sunda pangolin All eight pangolin species are protected under national and international laws, and two are listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Habitat: They inhabit a variety of environments, including tropical forests, grasslands, and areas close to human settlements. Indian Pangolin: Distribution: Found in India, Bangladesh, Southern Nepal, Sri Lanka, and parts of Pakistan. Habitat: Adapted to various environments including deserts, tropical forests, and near human settlements. Physical traits: The Indian pangolin has 13 rows of sharp, overlapping scales that vary in colour depending on its surroundings. Conservation status: IUCN Red List: Endangered Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Listed under Schedule I CITES: Appendix I Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: Nigerian authorities seize 2.179 tonnes of pangolin scales

Answer 231

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : National Handloom Day: It commemorates the Swadeshi Movement launched on 7th August 1905, which encouraged indigenous industries, particularly handloom weavers. The First National Handloom Day was held on 7th August 2015 in Chennai. Significance: It recognises the efforts and skills of the handloom weaving community and also aims to promote the handloom sector and enhance the livelihood of weavers. Hence both statements are correct. News: “VIRAASAT”- Celebrating Handwoven Saris of India Exclusive Handloom Sari Exhibition at National Centre for Heritage Textiles (Handloom Haat) Janpath, New Delhi)

Answer 232

Only one Explanation : It was launched on 15th August 1972 by the Ministry of Home Affairs. The scheme provides the grant of pension to living freedom fighters and their families; if they are no more alive, it is provided to the families of martyrs. Eligibility: A person who had suffered a minimum imprisonment of six months in the mainland jails before Independence. A person who remained underground for more than six months. A person interned in his home or externed from his district provided the period of internment/externment was six months or more. A person whose property was confiscated or attached and sold due to participation in the freedom struggle. A person who became permanently incapacitated during firing or lathi charge. A person who lost his job (Central or State Government) and thus means of livelihood for participation in the national movement. Hence only statement 3 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2085696

Answer 233

1 only Explanation : About the National Tansen Samman: It was established in the year 1980. Awardees will get an honorarium of five lakh rupees, citation plaque and shawl-shriphal was presented. This award was established by the Madhya Pradesh government in the name of Music Emperor Tansen, is the highest national music award in the field of Indian classical music. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/renowned-tabla-maestro-pt-swapan-choudhary-awarded-2023-national-tansen-samman/

Answer 234

Only two Explanation : Recently, the European Union announced that it has signed the contract for the Infrastructure for Resilience, Interconnectivity and Security by Satellite (IRIS²), a multi-orbital constellation of 290 satellites. It is the European Union’s third flagship programme, designed to offer connectivity services to governmental users as well as private companies and individuals. According to the European Space Agency (ESA), IRIS² will use both Medium Earth Orbit and Low Earth Orbit satellites. It will provide secure connectivity and high-speed broadband in zones where network connectivity is low or unavailable. Its interlinked satellites which comprise of 264 and 18 satellites in low and medium Earth orbits respectively will enable it to offer secure high-speed internet connectivity without needing thousands of satellites. It is developed in partnership with SpaceRISE, an alliance of leading European satellite operators and space companies Applications: It will “support a large variety of governmental applications”, with a focus on border and maritime surveillance, crisis management, connection and security of key infrastructure and security and defence of important. The system can also be used for maritime, railway, aviation, automotive, smart energy grid management, banking, overseas industrial activities, remote healthcare and enhancing rural connectivity. It will also offer mobile and fixed broadband satellite access, cloud-based services and can also be used in the transportation sector to navigate areas with no or low connectivity. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/iris-european-union-internet-satellite-service-elon-musk-starlink-rival-9731815/lite/

Answer 235

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Scientists at the World Health Organisation (WHO) have endorsed a new class of medicines known as GLP-1 receptor agonists. Glucagon-Like Peptide (GLP)-1 receptor agonists mimic a hormone that regulates appetite and blood sugar levels, for managing obesity. By specifically binding to the key hormone GLP-1, it regulates blood glucose levels and lipid metabolism. This receptor and its agonists hold significant therapeutic potential, reshaping the treatment approaches for multiple diseases, including diabetes, cardiovascular disorders, and neurodegenerative diseases. GLP-1 agonists are most often injectable medications, meaning you inject a liquid medication with a needle and syringe. The new class of GLP-1 receptor agonists, that included drugs such as semaglutide and tirzepatide, “have the potential to be transformative. What is GLP-1? GLP-1 is a key hormone that plays an integral role in regulating blood glucose levels, lipid metabolism, and several other crucial biological functions. It is released by the intestines in response to food intake. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/health-wellness/who-scientists-endorse-weight-loss-drugs-for-controlling-obesity-9735431/

Answer 236

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : About Northern giant hornet: It is the largest hornet in the world, measuring up to 2 inches long. They are known for inhabiting the lower altitude forest and avoiding large plains and high-altitude regions. They are native to temperate regions in China, Korea, Japan, and India. It is an invasive species which poses a significant threat to insects and native pollinators. It is nicknamed as ‘Murder hornets’, can kill an entire beehive of honeybees in just 90 minutes. The hornets then defend the hive as their own, taking the brood to feed their own young. They can sting through most beekeeper suits, delivering almost seven times the amount of venom as a honey bee. Moreover, they have the ability to sting multiple times. They mainly feed on native insects: butterflies, moths, dragonflies, bees, wasps, etc. It preys on honey bees and poses an indirect threat to plants that depend on honey bees for pollination. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/why-and-how-did

Answer 237

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India aims to launch a quantum satellite for quantum communications within 2-3 years. Quantum Satellite Definition: A quantum satellite is a communications satellite that uses quantum physics to secure its signals. Purpose: Enhance Signal Security: Protect against threats from quantum computing. Facilitate Quantum Key Distribution (QKD): Enable unbreakable encryption through QKD. Quantum Cryptography and Quantum Key Distribution (QKD): Quantum Cryptography: Uses the principles of quantum physics to secure messages. Quantum Key Distribution (QKD): Function: Securely share encryption keys such that any eavesdropping can be detected, aborting the transmission if compromised. Mechanisms: Quantum Measurement: Measuring a photon changes its state, thus revealing any eavesdropping. Quantum Entanglement: Entangled photons instantly reflect changes in one another, ensuring secure key distribution. National Quantum Mission (NQM): Objective: The NQM is a program by the Department of Science & Technology designed to accelerate the use of quantum physics in developing advanced communication and sensing systems. Budget and Duration: The Union Cabinet approved it in April 2023, with a budget of ₹6,000 crore, to be implemented from 2023 to 2031. Micius: The world's first quantum communications satellite was launched by China in 2016. Function: Acts as the source of pairs of entangled photons, whose properties remain intertwined regardless of the distance. Significance: This entanglement forms the basis of the most secure forms of quantum cryptography. Hence both statements are correct. News: What is the quantum satellite for India’s National Quantum Mission? | Explained - The Hindu.

Answer 238

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The paper published in the International Journal of Antimicrobial Agents was withdrawn because of concerns about the ethical approval for the research. Background of the Study: The controversial study by French researcher Didier Raoult, published on March 20, 2020, claimed that hydroxychloroquine (HCQ) and HCQ combined with azithromycin significantly reduced SARS-CoV-2 viral load. The paper was retracted on December 17, 2024, due to concerns about ethical approval and methodological issues. About Hydroxychloroquine (HCQ): Drug Profile: Hydroxychloroquine is a medication primarily used to treat malaria, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). It reduces immune system activity or kills the malaria-causing parasites from Anopheles mosquito bites. Use in Autoimmune Disorders: Effective in managing rheumatoid arthritis by reducing joint inflammation. Helps treat lupus by controlling the overactive immune response. HCQ and COVID-19: Early studies claimed HCQ could reduce SARS-CoV-2 viral loads, especially in combination with azithromycin. Proposed as a prophylactic to prevent COVID-19 infection; however, large-scale use raised concerns due to: Cardiac arrhythmia risks Liver damage Potential weakening of the immune system’s response to infection. Hence both statements are correct. News: Journal finally retracts the discredited hydroxychloroquine paper - The Hindu

Answer 239

Alaska Explanation : The Denali Fault split apart the ancient connection of landmasses. Key Findings on the Denali Fault: Denali Fault, located in southern Alaska, has played a crucial role in shaping Earth's geological history. A study reveals that three sites along the Denali Fault were once part of a single geologic feature, symbolizing the final joining of two landmasses millions of years ago. Over 483 km of horizontal movement along the fault tore apart this united feature due to millions of years of tectonic activity. These three locations once formed a terminal suture zone, indicating the last phase of tectonic plate integration into a larger mass. About Fault Lines Definition: A fault line is the visible intersection of a geological fault with the Earth's surface. It refers to a fracture or zone of fractures between two blocks of rock caused by stresses generated by tectonic plate movements. Characteristics of Faults: Faults are closely associated with the movement of Earth's tectonic plates. The largest faults are found along plate boundaries. Movement along faults can occur rapidly, resulting in earthquakes, or gradually, in the form of creep. Faults vary in length from a few millimeters to thousands of kilometers, such as the San Andreas Fault in California or the Anatolian Fault in Turkey. Fault surfaces can be horizontal, vertical, or inclined at various angles. Earth scientists classify faults based on the angle of the fault relative to the surface (known as the dip) and the direction of movement along the fault. Types of Faults: Strike-Slip Faults: These faults occur when tectonic plates slide past each other horizontally, with little to no vertical movement. These faults are commonly found in regions where lateral stress dominates. A well-known example is the San Andreas Fault in California, which has caused several powerful earthquakes. Normal Faults: These faults occur when one block of rock slides downward, pulling away from the adjacent block. These faults create space by stretching the Earth's crust, often leading to the formation of valleys. Examples of normal faults include the Basin and Range Province in North America and the East African Rift Zone. Reverse Faults (Thrust Faults): These faults occur when one block of crust moves upward and overlaps the other. This process is associated with compression and often leads to the formation of mountain ranges. Examples include the Himalayas, formed due to the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates, and the Rocky Mountains in North America. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2024-12-denali-fault-torn-ancient-landmasses.html

Answer 240

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways will deploy ‘Intelligent Machines’ for National Highways Construction What is AIMC? AIMC (Automated & Intelligent Machine-aided Construction) is an advanced system being implemented by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) for efficient National Highway construction. It integrates intelligent machines and real-time data sharing to expedite construction and enhance road quality. Objective of AIMC To increase productivity, ensure durable and long-lasting roads, and reduce dependency on traditional surveys post-construction. To tackle challenges such as outdated technologies, uncoordinated data, and poor contractor performance that lead to project delays. Types of AIMC Machines: GPS-Aided Motor Grader (3D Machine Control Technology): It uses Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) data and angle sensors to position the grader’s blade with precision. Processes data in real-time to ensure alignment with digital design plans. Intelligent Compaction Roller (IC Roller): It assists in minimizing post-construction consolidation. Reduces air pockets or water voids in materials, preventing damage to roads. Single Drum/Tandem Vibratory Roller: It ensures proper soil and base layer compaction for road stability. Current Network: India’s National Highway network spans 1.46 lakh km, with 3,000 km of high-speed corridors. Future Vision: By 2047, the Ministry aims to expand the network by an additional 45,000 km, ensuring a robust and efficient infrastructure system. Hence both statements are correct. News: Why Roads Ministry will deploy ‘intelligent machines’ for National Highways construction | Explained News - The Indian Express

Answer 241

Only two Explanation : The Ministry of External Affairs stated that India is taking a cautious approach to FTAs to protect farmers and MSMEs, as discussed at the Bharat@100 Summit by ASSOCHAM. Free Trade Agreements (FTAs): Definition: Free Trade Agreements are comprehensive trade deals between two or more countries, aimed at reducing or eliminating trade barriers such as tariffs and import/export restrictions. These agreements provide preferential access to markets by offering tariff concessions and lowering non-tariff barriers. Key Features: FTAs cover trade in goods (agricultural and industrial products) and trade in services (banking, IT, construction). Advanced FTAs may include chapters on investment, intellectual property rights (IPRs), government procurement, and competition policy. Types of Trade Agreements: Partial Scope Agreements (PSA): Focus on a limited number of goods. Free Trade Agreements (FTA): Reduce tariffs between member countries while retaining individual tariff policies with non-members. Customs Union: Includes a common external tariff for non-members. Common Market: Facilitates free movement of goods, services, and factors of production. Economic Union: Coordinates macroeconomic and exchange rate policies among member nations. Major Trade Agreements of India: India-ASEAN FTA, India-South Korea CEPA, and proposed agreements like India-UK and India-EU. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: Centre cautious on FTAs to safeguard farmers and MSMEs: EAM Jaishankar | External Affairs Defence Security News - Business Standard

Answer 242

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Sahitya Akademi announced its annual Sahitya Akademi Awards recommended by jury members in 21 languages. It is awarded for the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the major Indian languages recognised by the Akademi. Along with the 22 languages enumerated in the Constitution of India, the Sahitya Akademi has recognised English and Rajasthani as languages in which its programme may be implemented. The authors and poets will receive a plaque, a shawl and an amount of ₹1 lakh in an award. Key facts about the Sahitya Akademi It was formally inaugurated by the Government of India on 12 March 1954. It was registered as a society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It is the central institution for literary dialogue, publication and promotion in the country and the only institution that undertakes literary activities in 24 Indian languages, including English. Ministry: It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture. Head office: New Delhi Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/books/hindi-poet-gagan-gill-english-writer-easterine-kire-among-recipients-of-sahitya-akademi-awards/article69002016.ece

Answer 243

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Indian Government and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a landmark $350 million Policy-Based Loan under the second sub programme of the Strengthening Multimodal and Integrated Logistics Ecosystem (SMILE) programme. The Strengthening Multimodal and Integrated Logistics Ecosystem (SMILE) is a programmatic Policy-Based Loan (PBL) to support the government in undertaking wide-ranging reforms in the logistics sector in India. The programmatic approach comprises two subprograms, which aim to expand India’s manufacturing sector and improve the resilience of its supply chains. This initiative is in collaboration with the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Ministry of Finance, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, and ADB. Key pillars of the programme Strengthening institutional frameworks: Developing capacities at national, state, and city levels for the seamless integration of multimodal logistics infrastructure. Standardising warehousing: Establishing uniform standards to streamline supply chains and attract private investment. Improving trade logistics: Enhancing the efficiency of India’s external trade operations. Promoting smart, low-emission systems: Leveraging advanced technologies to boost efficiency while reducing environmental impact. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.business-standard.com/economy/news/india-adb-ink-350-mn-deal-to-boost-logistics-sector-reforms-efficiency-124122100261_1.html

Answer 244

Only two Explanation : Recently, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change released the ‘India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023) at Forest Research Institute, Dehradun. It is published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI) on a biennial basis since 1987. It carries out an in-depth assessment of the forest and tree resources of the country based on interpretation of Remote Sensing satellite data and field based National Forest Inventory (NFI). The India State of Forest Report 2023 is 18th such report in the series. The report contains information on forest cover, tree cover, mangrove cover, growing stock, carbon stock in India’s forests, instances of forest fire, Agroforestry, etc. Highlights of India State of Forest Report 2023 The Forest and Tree cover of India is 25.17 percent of the geographical area and in that 21.76% is forest cover and 3.41% is tree cover. As compared to assessment of 2021, there is an increase in the forest and tree cover of the country. Top four states showing maximum increase in forest and tree cover are Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha and Rajasthan. Top three states showing maximum increase in forest cover are Mizoram, Gujarat and Odisha. Area wise top three states having largest forest and tree cover are Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Maharashtra Area wise top three states having largest forest cover are Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. In terms of percentage of forest cover with respect to total geographical area, Lakshadweep (91.33 percent) has the highest forest cover followed by Mizoram and Andaman & Nicobar Island The present assessment also reveals that 19 states/UTs have above 33 percent of the geographical area under forest cover. Out of these, eight states/UTs namely Mizoram, Lakshadweep, A & N Island, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Manipur have forest cover above 75 percent. The total mangrove cover is 4,992 sq km in the country. The extent of bamboo bearing area for the country has been increased as compared to the last assessment done in 2021. There is an increase in the carbon stock of the country as compared to the last assessment. India’s carbon stock has reached 30.43 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent; which indicates that as compared to the base year of 2005, India has already reached 2.29 billion tonnes of additional carbon sink as against the target of 2.5 to 3.0 billion tonnes by 2030. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2086742

Answer 245

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change inaugurated the Advanced Facility for Pashmina Certification and Next Generation DNA Sequencing Facility at the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), Dehradun. It is a revolutionary technology that enables the rapid and high-throughput decoding of entire genomes, analyzing millions of DNA sequences simultaneously. This allows researchers to gain deeper insights into genetic diversity, evolutionary relationships, and population health. In wildlife conservation, NGS plays a pivotal role in identifying population genetic health with respect to genetic diversity, information on genetic barriers and their effect on populations, unique adaptations and species with unique evolutionary histories, understanding disease outbreaks, detecting illegal wildlife trade, and studying the effects of climate change on biodiversity. This cutting-edge NGS facility positions the Wildlife Institute of India as a leading centre for molecular and genetic research in wildlife conservation. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2086834

Answer 246

Uganda Explanation : Recently, a mysterious illness locally referred to as “Dinga Dinga”, has wreaked havoc in Uganda. It is locally called 'Dinga Dinga', meaning 'shaking like dancing'. It predominantly impacts women and girls, is characterized by fever and excessive body shaking. It severely impairs mobility and in severe cases, people also experience paralysis. The cause of Dinga Dinga remains a mystery. Despite efforts to identify the virus responsible, health experts have yet to pinpoint its source. The symptoms of Dinga Dinga are as unusual as they are distressing: Uncontrollable body shaking: The most striking feature of the illness is violent, involuntary movements that resemble dancing. Fever and extreme weakness: Patients often report high fever and overwhelming fatigue. Paralysis-like immobility: Some experience a sensation of paralysis, with even basic movements like walking becoming impossible. Treatment: The illness is currently being treated with antibiotics. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.financialexpress.com/life/dinga-dinga-virus-outbreak-know-all-about-mysterious-condition-that-has-left-women-and-girls-shaking-in-uganda-3696343/

Answer 247

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : ISRO is preparing to launch a record 24 scientific experiments on board the POEM satellite under the SpaDex Mission. About SpaDeX Mission: The Space Docking Experiment (SpaDeX) is a groundbreaking mission by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) aimed at developing autonomous space docking technology. The mission involves PSLV-C60 as the launch vehicle to demonstrate in-space docking technology using two small spacecraft: Chaser (SDX01) and Target (SDX02). This technology is a critical milestone for future lunar missions, the development of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS), and other advanced space endeavours. Mission Overview Launch vehicle: PSLV-C60. Orbit: 470 km circular orbit at a 55-degree inclination. Separation dynamics: Target and Chaser spacecraft will separate with an initial velocity difference to achieve 10-20 km inter-satellite separation. Propulsion systems will be used to align both spacecraft into the same orbit, achieving Far Rendezvous. Docking and demonstration: After docking, the mission will demonstrate electrical power transfer before undocking for payload operations. What is POEM? PSLV Orbital Experimental Module (POEM): Developed by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC). Repurposes the fourth stage of PSLV into an orbital station for scientific experiments. First used in the PSLV-C53 mission (2022) to minimize space debris. Equipped with a Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilization Historical Context The concept of space docking was first achieved by the Soviet Union in 1967 with the docking of Kosmos 186 and Kosmos 188. SpaDeX positions India as a potential fourth country globally to master space docking technology. Hence both statements are correct. News: SpaDeX Mission: A leap towards India’s space ambitions - The Hindu BusinessLine

Answer 248

2 only Explanation : The Prime Minister of India has invited the public to experience the Rann Utsav, which continues till March 2025. About Rann Utsav Rann Utsav is an annual cultural festival organized by the Gujarat Tourism Department in the Great Rann of Kutch, India's largest salt desert. It celebrates the cultural and artistic heritage of Kutch, attracting domestic and international tourists. About the Rann of Kutch Location: The Rann of Kutch is a vast area of salt marshes, straddling the border between India and Pakistan. It is primarily located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, with a smaller portion in the Sindh province of Pakistan. Divisions: Great Rann of Kutch: The larger portion, stretching east to west. Bordered by the Thar Desert to the north and Kutch Hills to the south. Little Rann of Kutch: Located southeast of the Great Rann, extending southwards to the Gulf of Kutch. Geographical features: It lies close to sea level, connected to the Arabian Sea via the Kori Creek (west) and the Gulf of Kutch (east). It is the only large flooded grassland zone in the Indomalayan realm, a biogeographic region extending across South and Southeast Asia. Climate: Summer: Temperatures average 44°C, peaking at 50°C. Winter: Temperatures can drop to freezing levels or below. Ecological significance Flora and Fauna: Indian Wild Ass (Khur): The Little Rann of Kutch is home to this endangered species. Ecosystems include mangroves, desert vegetation, and grass-covered patches (baits), vital for local wildlife. The region is part of the Wild Ass Wildlife Sanctuary, India’s largest wildlife sanctuary. Unique biodiversity: It supports diverse ecosystems with desert on one side and the sea on the other, fostering unique plant and animal life. Historical and cultural significance: The Rann has seen neolithic settlements and later became a centre for the Indus Valley Civilization. It has been part of historic empires like the Mauryas and Guptas, reflecting its rich historical lineage. Kutch Desert The Kutch Desert spans vast areas, bordered by: Sindh (Pakistan) in the northwest. Arabian Sea to the southwest. Rajasthan in the northeast. It provides an example of Holocene sedimentation, showcasing geological and environmental diversity. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=2086702®=3&lang=1

Answer 249

Odisha Explanation : A three-year-old female tiger strayed from the Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) in Odisha into the Bandwan area of Purulia district in West Bengal. About Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) Location: Situated in Mayurbhanj District, in the northernmost part of Odisha. Surrounded by high plateaus and hills, the highest peaks are Khairiburu and Meghashini (1515 meters above sea level). Designation: Declared a Tiger Reserve in 1956 and included under Project Tiger in 1973. Recognised as part of the World Network of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO in 2009. Terrain: The landscape is undulating and hilly, interspersed with open grasslands and wooded areas. Vegetation: A mix of forest types, with Northern tropical moist deciduous forests dominating, alongside semi-evergreen patches. Notably, it is the only place in the world home to melanistic tigers (black tigers). Flora: Features an astounding 1078 plant species, including 94 species of orchids. Sal is the dominant tree species. Fauna: Hosts a diverse array of wildlife, including: Large Mammals: Leopard, Gaur, Elephant, Barking Deer, Spotted Deer, and Sloth Bear. Small Mammals: Langur, Mongoose, Pangolin, Flying Squirrel, and Porcupine. Reptiles: Python, Monitor Lizard, and Turtle. Birds: Several bird species inhabit the reserve. Cultural importance: Home to various tribes, including Kolha, Santhala, Bhumija, Bhatudi, Gondas, Khadia, Mankadia, and Sahara. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Tigress from Odisha’s Similipal strays into West Bengal’s Purulia - The Hindu.

Answer 250

1 only Explanation : The Green deposits are struggling to take root in India Green Deposits: Green deposits are interest-bearing fixed-term deposits where proceeds are allocated specifically towards green finance projects. These deposits are denominated only in Indian Rupees as per the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) framework. Purpose: Funds raised through green deposits are directed towards sustainable and environmentally friendly projects such as: Renewable energy projects (solar, wind, biomass, and hydropower). Energy efficiency and clean transportation. Climate change adaptation and sustainable water/waste management. Development of green buildings and coastal/marine environment projects. Support for certified organic farming. Key features: Like regular fixed deposits, green deposits offer interest and fixed tenure. Fund allocation is subject to an annual third-party audit to ensure compliance with green finance norms. Deposits are insured under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) framework. Priority Sector Lending (PSL): If the green activities/projects financed align with PSL guidelines, they can be classified under the priority sector. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: Why green deposits are struggling to take root in India - The Hindu BusinessLine

Answer 251

Only two Explanation : Opposition parties under the INDIA bloc have proposed a no-confidence resolution against Rajya Sabha Chairman and Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar. About the Vice President of India: Constitutional status: The Vice President holds the position of the second-highest constitutional office in India, after the President. Article 63 of the Constitution mandates the existence of the Vice President's office. The Vice President of India serves a dual role, modelled on the lines of the American Vice President. Eligibility criteria: According to Article 66 of the Constitution, a person must meet the following conditions to be eligible for the office of Vice President: The candidate must be an Indian citizen. The individual must be at least 35 years of age. The candidate must be qualified to be elected as a member of the Rajya Sabha. The candidate must not hold any office of profit under the Union, state government, or any local or public authority. Election Process The Vice President is elected through a proportional representation system by an electoral college that includes both elected and nominated members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. This differs from the Presidential election process, which also includes state legislative assemblies. The election is conducted using a single transferable vote system, and voting is carried out by secret ballot. Any doubts or disputes regarding the election of the Vice President are adjudicated by the Supreme Court, and its decision is final. Tenure and Removal Tenure: The Vice President serves a five-year term, starting from the date they assume office. The Vice President can continue in office until a successor takes charge, even after the completion of the term. The Vice President is eligible for re-election. Resignation: The Vice President can resign by submitting a formal resignation letter to the President of India. Removal process: According to Article 67(b), the Vice President can be removed through a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha with an effective majority (majority of all the then members). This resolution must also be agreed to by the Lok Sabha with a simple majority. A 14-day notice is required before moving the resolution. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: Opposition moves resolution to remove Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar from office - The Hindu

Answer 252

Kuwait Explanation : Recently, the Prime Minister of India was awarded the Wisam Mubarak al-Kabeer, or the Order of Mubarak the Great, by Sheikh Meshal Al-Ahmad Al-Jaber Al-Sabah, the Amir of Kuwait. It is the highest national award of Kuwait. It is conferred by the Kuwaiti government on Heads of State, Sovereigns of foreign countries, and on members of foreign royal families as a sign of friendship and goodwill. History The award was instituted in 1974, in the memory of Mubarak Al Sabah — also known as Mubarak al-Kabeer or Mubarak the Great — who ruled Kuwait from 1896 to 1915. Under his reign, Kuwait got more autonomy from the Ottoman Empire. In 1899, Mubarak signed a deal with Britain to guard his kingdom from Turkey, effectively becoming a British protectorate. Mubarak is known for playing a major role in shaping the future of Kuwait. The design of the award changed in 1992, after Kuwait was liberated from Iraq in the year before. Other recipients: Queen Elizabeth II of England, former American Presidents George HW Bush and Bill Clinton, King Salman of Saudi Arabia, former French President Nicolas Sarkozy. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/pm-modi-order-of-mubarak-al-kabeer-kuwait-significance-9739171/

Answer 253

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A group of researchers from Pune have developed a novel hybrid aerogel capable of easily extracting gold from electronic waste. Aerogels are among the lightest solid materials. They are created by combining a polymer with a solvent to form a gel, and then removing the liquid from the gel and replacing it with air. Properties: They are extremely porous and very low in density and they offer advantages like adjustable surface chemistry They are also known as ‘solid air’ or ‘frozen smoke’ are excellent adsorbents (a solid substance used to remove contaminants) and are incredibly lightweight solids composed mostly of air. Aerogels are most preferred in environment and oil spill clean up, for insulation purposes Key facts about the newly developed Hybrid Aerogel Researchers have designed and synthesised aerogel: the sponge-like absorbents, light in weight and porous synthetic materials for this purpose. The aerogel’s unique structural composition was treated with iron nitrate salts and maintained at room temperature for about two to five minutes. This specially designed aerogel was found to be effective in extracting and retrieving upto 99 per cent of gold ions from the e-waste. In daylight, the hybrid aerogel could extract 1689 mg /gram of e-waste and 2349 mg / gram under blue light. As there were dual processes involved, that of adsorption and reduction — the quality of the recovered gold was reasonably pure thereby reducing the need for further purifying processes. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/iiser-pune-team-hybrid-aerogel-extract-gold-e-waste-9735922/

Answer 254

All three Explanation : Speed guns are widely used by law enforcement officials to monitor traffic speed and in various other industries. It is a device to measure the speed of a moving object without having to be in contact with the object. To achieve this, the device bounces electromagnetic radiation of a specific frequency off the object, capturing the reflection and using the Doppler effect to infer the object’s speed. Speed guns are electronic, and use complex circuitry to emit the radiation used to make the measurement. The speed gun was originally developed during World War II for military use and applies the effect using radio waves rather than sound waves. How does it work? A speed gun has a radio transmitter and a receiver. The transmitter emits radio waves, which the person holding the speed gun can direct at an object. The receiver collects the waves reflected by the object back in the direction of the speed gun. If the object is approaching the speed gun, the frequency of the returning waves will be slightly higher than that of the transmitted waves. A simple computer in the gun can deduce the object’s speed based on this difference. How are the speed and the effect linked? All electromagnetic waves have a fixed speed — equal to the speed of light in that medium. In vacuum, this value is denoted c: 299,792,458 m/s. Any change in the frequency the speed gun detects directly corresponds to the Doppler shift caused by the object’s motion. This principle is powerful because it allows the speed gun to work accurately over a wide range of distances and velocities without being affected by air resistance. A speed gun can calculate the speed of a moving object by multiplying the difference (between received and emitted frequencies) with c and dividing by the emitted frequency times 2. This relationship shows how the difference is directly proportional to the speed of the object: the faster it moves, the more pronounced the difference will be. Uses: It is widely used by law enforcement officials to monitor traffic speed, by coaches to gauge the performance of their athletes, and in various other industries in need of accurate motion tracking. Hence all statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/how-does-a-speed-gun-work/article69015592.ece#:~:text

Answer 255

Atlantic Ocean and Pacific ocean Explanation : Recently, the US President-elect Donald Trump has hinted that his administration might attempt to regain control of the Panama Canal. It is a man made waterway that connects the Atlantic and Pacific oceans across the Isthmus of Panama. It is owned and administered by Panama, and it is 40 miles long from shoreline to shoreline. It was built by the United States and completed in August 1914, It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal. From its opening in 1914 until 1979, the Panama Canal was controlled solely by the United States, which built it. In 1979, however, control of the canal passed to the Panama Canal Commission, a joint agency of the United States and the Republic of Panama, and complete control passed to Panama at noon on December 31, 1999. It is a sophisticated, highly-engineered system which uses a system of locks and elevators to take ships from one end to the other. This is needed because the two oceans that the Panama Canal connects do not lie at the same elevation, with the Pacific slightly higher than the Atlantic. This difference means that for a ship entering the canal through the Atlantic, it needs to gain elevation during its journey to the Pacific. This is achieved using a lock system which lifts and drops vessels to the required sea level at either end of the canal. Basically, locks are either flooded (to gain elevation) or drained (to lose elevation), and act as water elevators. In total, the system comprises three sets of locks — 12 locks in total — which are serviced using artificial lakes and channels. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/trump-threatens-to-reclaim-panama-canal-sparking-tension-9739603/

Answer 256

It is a deceptive design pattern using user interface to mislead users. Explanation : The Department of Consumer Affairs is launching 'Jago Grahak Jago App,' 'Jagriti App,' and ‘Jagriti Dashboard’ for public use on National Consumers Day 2024 to protect Consumers from the Dark Patterns. Dark patterns are defined as any deceptive design patterns using user interface/user experience interactions on any platform. The term was coined by Harry Brignull in 2010. They are designed to mislead or trick users to do something they originally did not intend or want to do; It is done by subverting or impairing the consumer's autonomy, decision making or choice; amounting to misleading advertisement or unfair trade practice or violation of consumer rights. The Central Consumer Protection Authority notified the Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark Patterns in 2023 and specified 13 dark patterns, namely: False urgency, Basket Sneaking, Confirm shaming, forced action, Subscription trap, Interface Interference, Bait and switch, Drip Pricing, Disguised Advertisements and Nagging, Trick Wording, Saas Billing and Rogue Malwares. Key points about 'Jago Grahak Jago App,' 'Jagriti App,' and ‘Jagriti Dashboard’ These are part of an intelligent cyber-physical system, which operates in real-time and runs on the Airawat AI Supercomputer under the National Supercomputing Mission for AI and Data Analytics. This innovative system analyses existing text and design elements on e-commerce platforms to determine whether they are being used to influence consumer psychology. 'Jago Grahak Jago App: It provides essential e-commerce information about all URLs during a consumer’s online activities, alerting them if any URL may be unsafe and requires caution. 'Jagriti App: It allows users to report URLs where they suspect the presence of one or more dark patterns declared illegal. These reports are then registered as complaints to the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) for possible redressal and subsequent action. ‘Jagriti Dashboard’: It is used to generate real-time reports on e-commerce URLs for the presence of the aforementioned dark patterns, enhancing the capability to monitor and regulate online consumer interactions effectively. Significance: This solution will aid the CCPA in identifying dark patterns, speeding up the resolution of consumer disputes and will go a long way in curbing practices that are detrimental to consumer interests. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2086980#:~:text=

Answer 257

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : About Critical Minerals: Critical minerals are those minerals that are essential for economic development and national security. The lack of availability of these minerals or concentration of extraction or processing in a few geographical locations may lead to supply chain vulnerabilities and even disruption of supplies. The future global economy will be underpinned by technologies that depend on critical minerals such as lithium, graphite, cobalt, titanium, and rare earth elements. These are essential for the advancement of many sectors, including high-tech electronics, telecommunications, transport and defence. They are also vital to power the global transition to a low carbon emissions economy, and the renewable energy technologies that will be required to meet the ‘Net Zero’ commitments of an increasing number of countries around the world. About the Critical Minerals Summit: Organised by: Ministry of Mines, Government of India, with collaboration from Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation, CEEW, and IISD. Purpose: To foster collaboration, innovation, and policy dialogue on critical mineral beneficiation and processing. Key Highlights: Focus on eight key minerals, including lithium, rare earth elements, graphite, vanadium, and platinum group minerals. Interactive workshops on mineral auctions, policy incentives, and sustainable solutions. India’s Current Scenario: The Ministry of Mines listed 30 critical minerals essential for economic and strategic security. India relies entirely on imports for 10 critical minerals. Dependence on China: India’s dependency on China exceeds 40% for 6 critical minerals: Bismuth (85.6%), Lithium (82%), Silicon (76%), Titanium (50.6%), Tellurium (48.8%), and Graphite (42.4%) Reasons for reliance: China’s dominance in mineral processing, controlling: 87% of rare earth processing, 58% of lithium refining, and 68% of silicon processing. Hence both statements are correct. News: India’s reliance on China for critical minerals | Explained - The Hindu

Answer 258

All three Explanation : About Kashmiri Papier-mâché: It is a traditional handicraft of the Kashmir Valley, introduced in the 14th century by Muslim saint Mir Sayyid Ali Hamadani from Persia. This craft is known for its intricate designs and use of paper pulp to create colorful, richly decorated items. Features: Materials and process: Made primarily from paper pulp. Items are handcrafted in homes and workshops, mainly in Srinagar and other parts of the Kashmir Valley. Common products: Vases, bowls, cups (with or without metal rims), boxes, trays, and lamp bases. Recently, products like papier-mâché models of extinct birds (e.g., dodos) have also gained attention. Artistic elements: The designs feature floral motifs, forest prints, and other intricate patterns symbolizing cultural and ecological themes. Market: While the products have a significant domestic market, they are also highly demanded internationally in Europe, Mauritius, and other regions. Legal and Cultural Recognition: Protected under the Geographical Indication (GI) Act, 1999, ensuring authenticity and cultural preservation. Registered by the Controller General of Patents, Designs, and Trademarks. The Dodo Connection: Christmas exports: Over 50,000 papier-mâché dodo models were shipped to markets in Europe and Mauritius for Christmas. Dodos, extinct since 1681, are the national emblem of Mauritius, making these items culturally significant. Hence all three of the above statements are correct. News: 343 years after its extinction, Kashmir artisans give wings to the dodo in papier mache - The Hindu.

Answer 259

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : About Farmers Producer Organisation (FPO): An FPO is a type of Producer Organisation (PO) formed by farmers. It operates as an organization of the producers, by the producers, and for the producers. The Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) plays a vital role in promoting FPOs across India. Purpose of POs: A PO represents producers of various goods, including agricultural products, non-farm items, and artisan goods. It can adopt legal forms such as producer companies, cooperative societies, or other entities that allow members to share profits and benefits. Ownership of FPOs: The ownership of an FPO lies entirely with its member farmers. It operates on the principle of shared decision-making and benefits. Legal Framework for FPOs: FPOs can be registered under the following: Companies Act, 1956 or Companies Act, 2013. Societies Registration Act, 1860. Public Trusts Act, 1882. Structure and Governance: These legal frameworks ensure transparency, accountability, and effective management of FPOs. About Indian Council for Research on International Economic Relations (ICRIER): It is a leading Indian policy research think tank established in 1981, focusing on sectors like Agriculture, Climate Change, Digital Economy, and Economic Growth. Hence both statements are correct. News: Placing Indian agriculture on the global map - Opinion News | The Financial Express

Answer 260

All three Explanation : About Ethiopian Wolf: The Ethiopian wolf is a specialized rodent hunter in Afroalpine ecosystems, a unique African high-altitude region. These ecosystems, located mainly in the Ethiopian Highlands, exist at altitudes of 3,200 meters above sea level and are characterized by cold and harsh climates. Physical characteristics: The wolf is about the size of a large dog, with a reddish coat, white throat and chest markings, and a bushy black tail. Population status: With fewer than 500 individuals remaining, the Ethiopian wolf is Africa's most endangered carnivore. Habitat specificity: It resides in isolated “sky islands”, high-altitude regions above tropical forests, surrounded by drastically different lowland environments. Ethiopian Wolf’s Role as a Pollinator: It feeds on the nectar of the red and yellow Ethiopian red hot poker flower, a plant that produces sweet nectar attracting multiple pollinators. As the wolf moves between flowers, pollen dusts its muzzle, potentially aiding in pollination. Researchers observed wolves spending significant time in flower fields, with one wolf visiting 30 flower heads in 1.5 hours. This behavior indicates that the wolf actively seeks nectar, a rare trait for large carnivores. Hence all three of the above statements are correct. News: Wolves with a taste for nectar? How we discovered the first large carnivore that pollinates flowers

Answer 261

Kerala Explanation : About Thrissur Pooram: It is a grand festival showcasing Kerala’s cultural and spiritual essence. It is celebrated annually in the Malayalam month of Medam (April-May) at the Thekkinkadu Maidanam in Thrissur. Often referred to as the “mother of all Poorams”, it is one of the largest temple festivals in Kerala. It was initiated by Raja Rama Varma, famously known as Sakthan Thampuran, the Maharaja of Cochin (1790–1805). Key Highlights: Majestic elephants, adorned in traditional attire, are a central attraction. Traditional orchestra music (Panchavadyam) adds vibrancy to the festival. Kerala High Court Directives: The High Court issued guidelines aimed at ensuring the safety of elephants, the public, and artists during the festival. Key directives included: Minimum distance requirements should be 3 metres between two elephants, 8 metres between elephants and the public or percussion displays, and 100 metres buffer zone near areas of fireworks usage. Elephants must have a minimum of three days’ rest between public appearances. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: SC stays Kerala HC’s ‘impractical’ guidelines on using elephants in temple festivals | Latest News India - Hindustan Times

Answer 262

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog, and the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), in partnership with Citi Foundation, have officially launched the seventh edition of the Youth Co:Lab National Innovation Challenge for 2024-2025. It was co-created in 2017 by UNDP and Citi Foundation, aims to empower and invest in youth to accelerate the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) through leadership, social innovation and entrepreneurship. In India, Youth Co: Lab was launched in 2019 in collaboration with Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog. As of the end of 2024, Youth Co:Lab has conducted six national theme-specific youth social innovation and entrepreneurship dialogues in India through this collaboration. This year, the Youth Co: Lab National Innovation Challenge 2024-2025, held in collaboration with AssisTech Foundation (ATF). It will focus on empowering young entrepreneurs and entrepreneurs with disabilities innovating for solutions that “Enhance access to opportunities and well-being of Persons with Disabilities”, across the following sub-categories: Inclusive and Accessible Assistive Technology (AT), Inclusive Educational Technology and Skilling Solutions and Accessible and Inclusive Care Models. Key facts about Atal Innovation Mission(AIM) It is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog in 2016. Objective: To create and encourage an environment of innovation and entrepreneurship across schools, educational organisations, research institutes, and industries, including MSMEs. Functions Promote entrepreneurship by encouraging innovators to become entrepreneurs through financial support as well as mentorship. Promote innovation by creating a platform where ideas are generated through like-minded individuals. AIM has created four programs to support these functions: Atal Tinkering Labs, Atal Incubation Centres, Atal New India Challenges and Atal Grand Challenges. All the initiatives of AIM are currently monitored and managed systematically using real-time MIS systems and dynamic dashboards. AIM is also currently having its programs reviewed by third party agencies for ensuring continuous improvements. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2087218

Answer 263

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Union Ministry of Road Transport and Highways inaugurated a 1 km stretch of Asia's first highway with a bio-bitumen blended surface. It is a petroleum-free alternative to bitumen, or asphalt. It is a sustainable alternative to traditional asphalt and it’s designed to lower the carbon footprint of road construction. It’s made using non-petroleum-based renewable resources and can be made from vegetable oils, synthetic polymers, or both, making it a more sustainable model long term. Advantages Sustainable: It is generated from renewable materials. This makes it a more environmentally friendly alternative to petroleum-based bitumen, which is derived from limited resources. Low Carbon Footprint: As it is derived from organic materials that have absorbed carbon dioxide during their development, it often has a lower environmental impact than standard bitumen. Improved environmental performance: It is less toxic and detrimental to the environment than regular bitumen. It contains fewer heavy metals and other hazardous pollutants. Applications: It is versatile and may be utilised in a variety of applications, including road paving, roofing, and waterproofing. What is Bitumen? It is a dense, highly viscous, petroleum-based hydrocarbon. It is found in deposits such as oil sands and pitch lakes (natural bitumen) or is obtained as a residue of the distillation of crude oil. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/nagpur/inauguration-of-asias-first-highway-with-bio-bitumen-surface-giant-leap-towards-sustainable-road-infra/articleshow/116547934.cms

Answer 264

Only two Explanation : Former Supreme Court judge Justice Madan B. Lokur was appointed Chairperson of the United Nations Internal Justice Council (IJC) for a term ending on November 12, 2028. It was established by the UN General Assembly as part of the new internal justice system in order to help ensure independence, professionalism and accountability in the administration of the justice system of the United Nations. The IJC members are appointed by the Secretary General. It is composed of five members consisting of A staff representative A management representative Two distinguished external jurists, one nominated by the staff and one by management, and Chaired by a distinguished jurist chosen by consensus by the four other members. Functions It is tasked to undertake the search for suitable candidates for the positions of judges when there is a vacancy on the UN Dispute Tribunal (UNDT) and the UN Appeals Tribunal (UNAT). To recommend General Assembly two or three candidates for each vacancy with due regard to geographical distribution. To provide its views on the implementation of the system of administration of justice to the General Assembly. The judges of the UN Dispute Tribunal and the UN Appeals Tribunal are appointed by the General Assembly on the recommendation of suitable candidates by the IJC. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/former-supreme-court-judge-justice-madan-lokur-appointed-chairperson-of-un-internal-justice-council/article69012590.ece

Answer 265

2 only Explanation : Cephalopods, including cuttlefish, squid, and octopus, demonstrate cognitive skills inspiring debates on their treatment. It is the most morphologically and behaviorally complex class in phylum Mollusca. Characteristics They are characterized by a completely merged head and foot, with a ring of arms and/or tentacles surrounding the head. The arms, tentacles, and funnel are all derivatives of the foot. Locomotion in cephalopods is accomplished mainly by jet propulsion. Diet: All cephalopods are carnivorous. Many are skilled hunters, but some feed passively on floating debris. They possess well-developed nervous systems and complex sensory organs. They contain pigment-rich cells in the epidermis surrounded by cells containing contractile fibers. One of the highly complex behaviours that many cephalopods show is visual camouflage. They can open and close tiny sacs just below their skin that contain coloured pigments and reflectors, revealing specific colours. The Australian giant cuttlefish, Sepia apama, uses its chromatophores to communicate, creating patterns that attract mates and warn off aggressors. This ability can also come in handy for hunting; many cephalopods are ambush predators that blend into the background or even lure their prey. It includes the coleoids – cuttlefish, octopus and squid – as well as the chambered nautilus. Some Cephalopods live alone in the nearly featureless darkness of the deep ocean; others live socially on active, sunny coral reefs. Some cephalopods may be capable of more complicated forms of learning, such as reversal learning – learning to flexibly adjust behaviour when different stimuli signal reward. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/octopuses-and-their-relatives-are-a-new-animal-welfare-frontier/article69015419.ece

Answer 266

Ganges River delta Explanation : Sagar Island in West Bengal where the iconic Gangasagar Mela takes place every January is getting impacted by climate change. It is also known as Ganga Sagar or Sagardwip is located in the Ganges delta, lying on the continental shelf of Bay of Bengal. It consists of 43 villages. Sagar and Mahisani Islands are separated by River Muriganga Batala. This island along with the Mahisani and Ghoramara islands are classified under the sand group category. This Island is a religious place for Hindus, where pilgrims celebrate Makar Sankranti festival in honour of the Sun. The Kapil Muni temple on the island is a popular pilgrim centre. Who is Kapil Muni? Kapila or Maharishi Kapila is a Vedic sage traditionally considered to be the original proponent of the Samkhya system of Indian philosophy. He is said to have lived in the Indian subcontinent, around the sixth or seventh century B.C.E. He is known for teaching a process of liberation known as bhakti yoga. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/dte-exclusive-rising-bay-of-bengal-now-within-450-metres-of-iconic-kapil-muni-temple-on-sagar-island

Answer 267

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Launching a rocket from the east coast gives an additional boost to the rocket, due to the rotational speed of Earth. When seen from the North Pole, the Earth rotates anticlockwise. The surface velocity of rotation varies from point to point on the Earth. It is about 1600 km per hour near the equator. The velocity gradually reduces as we move to the poles and it is practically zero there. A satellite launched from the sites near the equator towards the east direction will get an initial boost equal to the velocity of the Earth surface. The initial boost helps in cutting down the cost of rockets used to launch the satellites. So, statement 1 is correct. Another characteristic of launching satellites is that the launching stations are generally located near the eastern coastline so that, just in case of failure of the launch, the debris would essentially fall into an ocean’s waters, far away from densely populated areas. Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikotta, commonly known as SHAR, situated on the Eastern coast of the country 80km off Chennai, is the Space port of India. SHAR is located just above the equator on the Northern latitude bounded by the vast Indian coast line, making it one of the most ideal launch sites in the world today. The centre has 2 launch complexes – First Launch Pad (FLP) and the Second Launch Pad (SLP)- both possessing state of the art assembly and clean room facilities. So, statement 2 is correct. The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launch Station (TERLS) located at Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala, primarily carries out sounding rocket launches, which are solid-fuelled rockets, for tests in the upper atmosphere and the ionosphere that bring scientific and technical value for future ventures into space. It is located on the Southwest coast of India. Thumba was a unique choice because of its proximity to the geomagnetic equator.

Answer 268

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Government undertook reforms in space sector in 2020, which envisage the private sector to act as a co-traveller in the exploration of outer space and also in providing space-based services. As a part of these reforms, the first step taken was empowering New Space India Limited (NSIL)-the Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) in this sector –to “own” the operational launch vehicles and space assets of ISRO. Further, the present supply-based model was changed to demand-driven model, wherein NSIL shall act as aggregator of user requirements and obtain commitments. The first outcome in this regard came recently to the fore with Tata Sky signing an MoU with NSIL for utilizing the capacity on board the upcoming communication satellite GSAT-24, to be built by ISRO and launched by Arianespace. So, statement 1 is not correct. The second important step was the creation of an independent nodal agency under the Department of Space, Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN-SPACe), which shall act as the promotor and regulator of space activities in India by NGPEs (Nongovernment/private entities). This body has been tasked with prioritising the launch manifest as per the requirements of NSIL, ISRO and NGPEs. It shall also allow utilization of capital-intensive DOS-owned facilities at reasonable cost by the private sector. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 269

A type of stars Explanation : Blue stragglers are a class of stars on open or globular clusters that stand out as they are bigger and bluer than the rest of the stars. Indian researchers carried out the first-ever comprehensive analysis of blue stragglers and found that half of the blue stragglers in their sample are formed through mass transfer from a close binary companion star, one third are likely formed through collisions of 2 stars, and the remaining are formed through interactions of more than 2 stars.

Answer 270

2 only Explanation : ISpA is the industry association of space and satellite companies, which aspires to be the collective voice of the Indian Space industry. It will be represented by leading domestic and global corporations that have advanced capabilities in space and satellite technologies. Its founding members include Bharti Airtel, Larson & Toubro, mapmyindia, walchandnagar Industries and Alpha Design Technologies. So, statement 1 is not correct. ISpA will work towards building global linkages for the Indian space industry to bring in critical technology and investments into the country to create more high skill jobs. It will also undertake policy advocacy and engage with all stakeholders in the Indian Space domain, including the government and its agencies, to make India self-reliant, technologically advanced and a leading player in the space arena. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 271

Bones no longer have to support the body against gravity Explanation : Astronauts face a number of challenges during their spaceflights. Some of the processes and functions of bones change after the astronaut has lived in microgravity for several days. In space, the amount of weight that bones must support is reduced to almost zero. At the same time, many bones that aid in movement are no longer subjected to the same stresses that they are subjected to on Earth. Over time, calcium normally stored in the bones is broken down and released into the bloodstream. The high amount of calcium found in astronaut's blood during spaceflight (much higher than on Earth) reflects the decrease in bone density, or bone mass. This drop in density, known as disuse osteoporosis, leaves bone weak and less able to support the body's weight and movement upon return to Earth, putting the astronaut at a higher risk of fracture.

Answer 272

2 only Explanation : The Moon is Earth's only natural satellite. It goes around the Earth at a distance of about 385,000 kilometres. It is called "the Moon" because people didn't know other moons existed until Galileo Galilei discovered four moons orbiting Jupiter in 1610. It is the fifth-largest of the 200+ moons orbiting planets in our solar system. Ganymede, a satellite of Jupiter, has a radius of 1,635 miles (2,631 kilometres) and is the largest moon in our solar system. It's bigger than Mercury and Pluto. So, statement 1 is not correct. Effect on Wobble and climate of Earth: The Moon’s presence helps stabilize our planet’s wobble and moderate our climate. The Moon steadies the Earth as it spins on its axis, helping to give us a stable climate. Without it, the Earth would wobble more erratically. The poles would move markedly in relation to the Earth's orbit. Seasons, days and nights would all look very different. So, statement 2 is correct. The atmosphere on Moon: The Moon has a very thin atmosphere called an exosphere. It contains small amounts of a number of atoms and molecules including helium, argon, and possibly neon, ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide. Moon's atmosphere is so thin, that atoms and molecules almost never collide. Earth's Moon is the only place beyond Earth where humans have set foot. Humans first set foot on the moon in July 1969. Farside of the moon: The Earth and Moon are tidally locked. Their rotations are so in sync we only see one side of the Moon. Humans didn't see the lunar far side until a Soviet spacecraft flew past in 1959. In 2019, for the first time in history, a space mission touched down on the far side of the moon. China's Chang'e-4 probe landed in the oldest and deepest basin on the moon's surface. Making the mission a milestone for both China and space exploration as a whole. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 273

Meteoric particles intercepting the Earth Explanation : A shooting star is a common name for a meteor, or a space rock that collides with Earth's atmosphere. Meteors that are called shooting stars appear as a flash of light.shooting star - Wiktionary This light is the visible trail of gasses in Earth's upper atmosphere that is heated to incandescence by the high-speed passage of a meteoroid, or meteoric particle, intercepting the Earth. Quite simply, a shooting star is a piece of space rock or dust that briefly becomes visible when it begins to burn up in our planet's atmosphere. Much of this material comes from the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter.

Answer 274

1, 2 and 4 only Explanation : Doppler effect, the apparent difference between the frequency at which sound or light waves leave a source and that at which they reach an observer, caused by the relative motion of the observer and the wave source. Applications of the Doppler effect: Astronomers rely on the Doppler effect to detect planets outside of our solar system or exoplanets. To date, 442 of the 473 known exoplanets have been detected using the Doppler effect. So, point 1 is correct. Doppler shifts occur as the star orbits around its own center of mass and moves toward or away from Earth. How a planet’s Doppler shift changes over time can also shed light on the planet’s orbital period, the shape of its orbit and its minimum possible mass. By sending radar beams into the atmosphere and studying the changes in the wavelengths of the beams that come back, meteorologists use the Doppler effect to detect water in the atmosphere. So, point 2 is correct. The Doppler phenomenon is also used in healthcare with echocardiograms that send ultrasound beams through a body to measure changes in blood flow to make sure that a heart valve is working properly or to diagnose vascular diseases. Police also rely on the Doppler effect when they use a radar gun to bounce radio beams off of a car; the change in frequency between the directed and reflected beams provides a measure of a car’s speed. So, point 4 is correct. Measuring distance of a body from Earth: Parallax is the difference in direction of a celestial object as seen by an observer from two widely separated points. The two positions of the observer and the position of the object form a triangle; if the baseline between the two observing points is known and the direction of the object as seen from each has been measured, the apex angle (the parallax) and the distance of the object from the observer can be found simply. The measurement of parallax is used directly to find the distance of the body from Earth (geocentric parallax) and from the Sun (heliocentric parallax). So, point 3 is not correct.

Answer 275

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Starlink aims to provide internet access through satellite broadband service. A satellite internet does not require any cables. It provides broadband internet using a constellation of satellites in low-Earth orbit. A satellite dish and a modem are to be installed to avail this service. Radio signals travel from device, to the modem, to the dish, to space and come back to Earth. It reaches ground stations on Earth called the Network Operations Centers (NOC) and back to devices. Starlink is a division within SpaceX, a company owned by entrepreneur Elon Musk. So, statement 1 is not correct. The satellite internet gets affected by bad weather conditions such as heavy rain or wind which can affect satellite internet connection, potentially leading to slower speeds or a rare outage. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 276

Only two pairs Explanation : A gravitational-wave detector is any device designed to measure tiny distortions of space time called gravitational waves. Gravitational waves are ripples in space time. When objects in space move, the curvature of space time changes and these changes move outwards (like ripples on a pond) as gravitational waves. Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory (LIGO) consists of two widely-separated interferometers within the United States—one in Hanford, Washington and the other in Livingston, Louisiana. So, pair 1 is correctly matched. The Virgo Interferometer is located in Santo Stefano, Italy. So, pair 2 is correctly matched. The Kamioka Gravitational Wave Detector (KAGRA), is located in Japan. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched. GEO600 is a gravitational wave detector located near Sarstedt South of Hanover, Germany. So, pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Answer 277

1, 2 and 3 Explanation : X-ray Polarimetry Satellite (XPoSat) will be launched onboard a PSLV in the second quarter of 2022. XPoSat Mission Objectives: To measure polarization (degree and direction) of X-ray photons from ~50 potential celestial sources of interest in the energy band of 5-30 keV. So, statement 1 is correct. Mission Life – 5 years, Platform – Modified IMS-2 Bus Payload – Polarimeter Instrument in X-rays (POLIX) from Raman Research Institute Orbit – Circular LEO (500-700 km), Inclination ≤ 30° The Gaganyaan Programme envisages undertaking the demonstration of human spaceflight to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) in the short-term and will lay the foundation for a sustained Indian human space exploration programme in the long run. So, statement 2 is correct. The objective of Gaganyaan programme is to demonstrate indigenous capability to undertake human space flight missions to LEO. As part of this programme, two unmanned missions and one manned mission are approved by Government of India (GoI). The NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar mission is a joint project between NASA and ISRO to co-develop and launch a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar on an Earth observation satellite. The satellite will be the first radar imaging satellite to use dual frequencies. The NISAR spacecraft will accommodate two fully capable synthetic aperture radar instruments: NASA’s 24 cm wavelength L-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (L-SAR) and a 10 cm wavelength S-band Synthetic Aperture Radar (S-SAR) provided by ISRO. NISAR has a ~ 240 km swath, 7 m resolution along track and 2-8 m resolution cross-track (depending on mode). NISAR will be the first radar of its kind in space to systematically map Earth, using two different radar frequencies (L-band and S-band) to measure changes in our planet's surface less than a centimeter across. Synthetic aperture radar (SAR) refers to a technique for producing fine-resolution images from a resolution-limited radar system. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 278

2 only Explanation : Digital signatures are statutorily recognized as the most secure kind of electronic signatures, since they allow authentication of documents using encryption and decryption mechanisms, thereby ensuring integrity. Electronic signatures, in common parlance could refer to multifarious means of affixing signatures to documents electronically, having varying degrees of reliability, including imposing a scanned image of a signature upon a document. The Certifying Authorities are authorized to issue a Digital Signature Certificate with a validity of one or two years. So, statement 1 is not correct. Applicability of Electronic Signatures to certain instruments: The IT Act, 2000 does not apply to certain documents such as Wills, Trusts, and Negotiable Instruments. These documents require conventional written documents and handwritten signatures to be valid. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 279

2 and 3 only Explanation : Also known as loose monetary policy, expansionary policy increases the supply of money and credit to generate economic growth. A central bank may deploy an expansionist monetary policy to reduce unemployment and boost growth during hard economic times. Expansionary monetary increases the money supply, lowers interest rates, and increases demand. It boosts economic growth. It lowers the value of the currency, thereby decreasing the exchange rate. So, point 1 is not correct. A lower exchange rate causes exports to increase, imports to decrease and the balance of trade to increase. This in turn leads to reduction in Current Account Deficit levels. So, point 2 is correct. Expansionary monetary policy leads to an increase in money supply, which in turn generates more investment and puts more money in the hands of consumers, thereby increasing the demand for goods. Also, exchange rate depreciation can drive aggregate demand and create demand-pull inflation by encouraging a high level of exports. So, point 3 is correct. An expansionary monetary policy reduces the cost of borrowing. Therefore, consumers tend to spend more while businesses are encouraged to make larger capital investments. The stimulation of capital investments creates additional jobs in the economy. Therefore, an expansionary monetary policy generally reduces unemployment. So, point 4 is not correct.

Answer 280

1 and 2 only Explanation : The International Energy Agency (IEA) is an international forum under the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). The IEA was established in 1974, in the wake of the 1973-1974 oil crisis, to help its members respond to major oil supply disruptions. So, statement 1 is correct. In the event of a sudden disruption to supply, the IEA can help coordinate among its member nations, who could increase supply by releasing some of their oil reserves. The IEA has made three interventions in recent years: in 1991, 2005, and 2011. In each instance, IEA member countries released oil from their national reserves to help address a temporary disruption in supply. So, statement 2 is correct. India is not a founder-member of the IEA. It is currently an Associate member. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 281

1 and 2 only Explanation: TReDS is an electronic platform for facilitating the financing / discounting of trade receivables of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) through multiple financiers. These receivables can be due from corporates and other buyers, including Government Departments and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). So, statement 1 is correct. A Factoring Unit (FU) is a standard nomenclature used in TReDS for invoice(s) or bill(s) of exchange. Each FU represents a confirmed obligation of the corporates or other buyers, including Government Departments and PSUs. Only MSMEs can participate as sellers in TReDS. Corporates, Government Departments, PSUs and any other entity can participate as buyers in TReDS. Banks, NBFC - Factors and other financial institutions as permitted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), can participate as financiers in TReDS. So, statement 2 is correct. RBI has not made it compulsory for any buyer, seller or financier to participate in TReDS. The response has been tepid from the buyers' side. Reasons for their reluctance could range from internal processes, indifferent attitude towards payments to be made to MSMEs, balance sheet related compulsions, etc. In view of this, the Government has made it compulsory for certain segments of companies to mandatorily register as buyers on TReDS platform(s). The government directive, however, does not make it compulsory for these entities to perform transactions in TReDS. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 282

1 and 2 only Explanation : The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme integrates the existing three Ombudsman schemes of RBI namely, the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006, the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies, 2018; and the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions, 2019. The Scheme will provide cost-free redress of customer complaints involving deficiency in services rendered by entities regulated by RBI, if not resolved to the satisfaction of the customers or not replied within 30 days by the regulated entity. In addition to integrating the three existing schemes, the Scheme also includes under its ambit Non-Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks with deposit sizes of ₹50 crores and above. So, statement 1 is correct. There is no limit on the amount in a dispute that can be brought before the Ombudsman for which the Ombudsman can pass an Award. However, for any consequential loss suffered by the complainant, the Ombudsman shall have the power to provide compensation up to Rupees 20 lakh, in addition to, up to Rupees One lakh for the loss of the complainant’s time, expenses incurred and harassment/mental anguish suffered by the complainant. So, statement 2 is correct. The Executive Director in charge of the Consumer Education and Protection Department of RBI would be the Appellate Authority under the Scheme. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 283

1 only Explanation : A Unit-Linked Insurance Plan, or ULIP, is a product that offers both insurance protection and investment returns. It serves as a great tool to get security and manage your finance. So, statement 1 is correct The main difference between mutual funds and ULIPs is that mutual funds do not offer insurance cover. Moreover, all mutual funds do not give you tax deductions, whereas all ULIPs provide tax benefits. So, statement 2 is not correct. A traditional term insurance plan tends to be opaque, as you have no clear idea about where your funds are allocated. On the other hand, when you have a ULIP in your name, you are able to enjoy full clarity. In your ULIP policy document, you find all the details about your policy, such as policy administration charges, policy allocation charges, policy redemption charges, policy switching charges, policy returns, and more.

Answer 284

It is a type of public financing that recovers the value that public infrastructure generates for private landowners. Explanation : Value capture finance or VCF is a type of public financing that recovers some or all of the value that public infrastructure generates for private landowners. Value Capture as practiced widely in the world is based on the principle that private land and buildings benefit from public investments in infrastructure and policy decisions of Governments (eg. change of land use or FSI). Appropriate VCF tools can be deployed to capture a part of the increment in value of land and buildings. In turn, these can be used to fund projects being set up for the public by the Central/State Governments and ULBs. The Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) and City and Industrial Development Corporation Limited (CIDCO) have used Value Capture methods to finance infrastructure development. The main types of VCF methods are Land value tax, Betterment levy, Land pooling System (LPS), Fees for changing land use, Vacant land tax, Tax increment financing, Land Acquisition and Development etc.

Answer 285

1 and 3 only Explanation : The Securities and Exchange Board of India was constituted as a non-statutory body on April 12, 1988 through a resolution of the Government of India. The Securities and Exchange Board of India was established as a statutory body in the year 1992 and the provisions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992) came into force on January 30, 1992. So, statement 1 is correct. Mutual funds are managed by Asset Management Companies (AMC), which need to be approved by SEBI. A Custodian who is registered with SEBI holds the securities of various schemes of the fund. The trustees of the AMC monitor the performance of the mutual fund and ensure that it works in compliance with SEBI Regulations. So, statement 2 is not correct. Securities Appellate Tribunal is a statutory body established under the provisions of Section 15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 to hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or by an adjudicating officer under the Act. SAT also hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) and the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI). So, statement 3 is correct. As per the SEBI Act, the following are its functions: promoting and regulating self-regulatory organisations prohibiting fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to securities markets promoting investors' education and training of intermediaries of securities markets; Regulating the business in stock exchanges and any other securities markets; Registering and regulating the working of stockbrokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents, bankers to an issue, merchant bankers, underwriters, portfolio managers, investment advisers and other intermediaries who may be associated with securities markets in any manner.

Answer 286

Ministry of Finance Explanation : The Department of Disinvestment was set up as a separate Department on 10th December, 1999 and was later renamed as Ministry of Disinvestment form 6th September, 2001. From 27th May, 2004, the Department of Disinvestment is one of the Departments under the Ministry of Finance. The Department of Disinvestment has been renamed as Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) from 14th April, 2016. As per the present Allocation of Business rules, the mandate of the Department is as follows: 1. All matters relating to management of Central Government investments in equity including disinvestment of equity in Central Public Sector Undertakings. 2. All matters relating to sale of Central Government equity through offer for sale or private placement or any other mode in the erstwhile Central Public Sector Undertakings.

Answer 287

1 only Explanation : A microfinance loan is defined as a collateral-free loan given to a household having an annual household income of up to ₹3,00,000. For this purpose, the household shall mean an individual family unit, i.e., husband, wife and their unmarried children. So, statement 1 is correct. Loans given as microcredit are often given to people who may lack collateral, credit history, or a steady source of income. There shall be no pre-payment penalty on microfinance loans. Penalty, if any, for delayed payment shall be applied on the overdue amount and not on the entire loan amount. So, statement 2 is not correct. The following entities can become MFI as per the Reserve Bank of India: All Commercial Banks (including Small Finance Banks, Local Area Banks, and Regional Rural Banks) excluding Payments Banks as they cannot extend loans; All Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks/ State Co-operative Banks/ District Central Co-operative Banks; and All Non-Banking Financial Companies (including Microfinance Institutions and Housing Finance Companies). So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 288

1 only Explanation : ‘Acceptance Development Fund’ (ADF) which will operationalize as a bank-sponsored development fund with contributions from the regulators solely to improve digital payment infrastructure in Indian small towns and villages where most daily transactions are in cash. So, statement 1 is correct. The proposed fund will have all major banks and payment companies transferring a percentage of their proceeds from fees accrued from processing digital payments called the merchant discount rates, or MDR. So, statement 2 is not correct. The setting up of ADF was first discussed in a recommendation report by the committee of deepening digital payments (CDDP) under Aadhaar architect Nandan Nilekani.

Answer 289

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Cross border insolvency signifies circumstances in which an insolvent debtor has assets and/or creditors in more than one country. At present, Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) provides for the domestic laws for the handling of an insolvent enterprise. IBC at present has no standard instrument to restructure the firms involving cross border jurisdictions. So, statement 1 is not correct. United Nations Commission on International Trade Law (UNCITRAL) is a model law which was issued by UNCITRAL in 1997 primarily to assist countries in regulating cross border insolvency. It has been adopted by 49 countries until now such as Singapore, UK, and US etc. India has not yet adopted the UNCITRAL Model law although NL Mitra committee and Balakrishna Eradi Committee recommended its adoption. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 290

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property. In order to obviate dual regulation, certain categories of NBFCs which are regulated by other regulators are exempted from the requirement of registration with RBI, viz Housing Finance Companies, Merchant Banking Companies, Stock Exchanges, Companies engaged in the business of stock-broking/sub-broking, Venture Capital Fund Companies, Nidhi Companies, Insurance companies and Chit Fund Companies are NBFCs but they have been exempted from the requirement of registration under Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934 subject to certain conditions. So, statement 1 is not correct. Non-bank finance companies, which have been issued Certificate of Registration by RBI with a specific licence to accept deposits, are entitled to accept public deposit. In other words, not all NBFCs registered with the Reserve Bank are entitled to accept deposits but only those that hold a deposit accepting Certificate of Registration can accept deposits. They can, however, accept deposits, only to the extent permissible. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Answer 291

1 and 2 only Explanation : The Producer Price Index (PPI) program measures the average change over time in the selling prices received by domestic producers for their output. India uses Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (WPI) for measuring inflation. The PPI estimation hasn't been formally used in India yet. PPI measures the average change in the price a producer receives for his goods and services sold in the domestic market and exports. So, statement 1 is correct. The PPI measures the average change in the prices of goods and services, either as they leave the place of production called Output PPI or as they enter the production process called Input PPI. The Input PPI measures the change in the prices of intermediate inputs while excluding primary inputs like land, labor and capital. So, statement 2 is correct. The WPI has a significant bias of double counting. Shifting from WPI to PPI can do away with the double counting effect. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 292

Quantum Mechanics Explanation : A study by IBM highlights a growing interest in quantum computing in India, driven by active participation from students, developers, and academic institutions. About Quantum computing: It is a cutting-edge technology leveraging the principles of quantum mechanics to solve problems too complex for traditional computers. Quantum mechanics is a branch of physics dealing with the behavior of particles such as atoms, electrons, and photons at molecular and sub-molecular levels. Quantum mechanics introduces phenomena like superposition and entanglement, enabling quantum computing's revolutionary capabilities. Quantum computers can solve problems that are impossible or time-prohibitive for classical systems, such as cryptographic algorithms, simulations, and optimization tasks. Key Features: Fundamentally Different from Classical Computing: Quantum computers use quantum bits (qubits), which can exist in states 0, 1, or both simultaneously (superposition). Classical computers process information in binary bits (0 or 1). Superposition enables qubits to hold multiple states at once, allowing quantum computers to perform exponentially more calculations compared to classical systems. Example: Like a spinning coin, a qubit can represent both heads and tails until measured. Entanglement is a phenomenon where qubits remain intrinsically linked, regardless of distance. Changing the state of one qubit instantly affects its entangled counterpart, enhancing computational speed. Milestones in Quantum Computing: Origin: Proposed in 1982 by Richard Feynman to simulate quantum systems, as classical computers struggled with such complexity. Breakthrough algorithms: Shor’s Algorithm (1994): Revolutionized cryptography by factoring large numbers exponentially faster than classical methods. Technological advancements IBM Q System One (2019): The first circuit-based commercial quantum computer. Google Sycamore Processor (2019): Demonstrated quantum supremacy by solving a task in 200 seconds, which would take classical supercomputers 10,000 years. Google Willow Quantum Chip (2023): Introduced scalable error-corrected qubits, finishing calculations in minutes that would otherwise take billions of years for classical systems.

Answer 293

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the President has appointed two new Governors and reshuffled three others. About the Governor: The Governor in India is the chief executive head of a State. It is based on the Canadian model as an independent constitutional authority. The Governor is appointed by the President of India under her/his warrant and seal, not elected directly or indirectly. S/he holds office at the pleasure of the President but enjoys independence in her/his role. Emoluments, allowances, and privileges are determined by Parliament Conventionally, the President consults the Chief Minister of the concerned State to ensure smooth governance. Supreme Court Judgments: Surya Narain v. Union of India (1982): The pleasure of the President is not justiciable. Hargovind Pant v. Raghukul Tilak (1979): The Governor’s office is an independent constitutional office and not an employment under the Central government. Protections and Immunities: Under Article 361, the Governor enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for official acts. Criminal proceedings are not allowed during his tenure, and they cannot be arrested or imprisoned. Oath of Office: The Governor takes an oath to: Faithfully execute the office. Preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution. Serve the well-being of the State’s people. Administered by the Chief Justice of the concerned state’s High Court. Recent Appointments: Ajay Bhalla, former Union Home Secretary, has been appointed as the Governor of Manipur. General V.K. Singh (Retd.), a former Union Minister, has been appointed as the Governor of Mizoram. Arif Mohammed Khan has been transferred from Kerala to Bihar, with Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar, the incumbent Bihar Governor, appointed as the new Kerala Governor. Hari Babu Kambhampati, the Governor of Mizoram, has been appointed as the Governor of Odisha. Hence both statements are correct. President announces governors for 5 states: Kerala’s Arif Mohammed Khan reassigned to Bihar, Ajay Kumar Bhalla to take charge

Answer 294

Statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 Explanation : The Opposition leaders criticized the NHRC Chairperson selection process as “fundamentally flawed” and “pre-determined,” citing a lack of consultation and consensus. About the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): It is a statutory body responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights in India. It ensures the protection of life, liberty, equality, and dignity of individuals. It enforces rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India and international covenants within the jurisdiction of Indian courts. It was established on 12th October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993. Amended by: Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019. Aligned with the Paris Principles for promoting and protecting human rights, adopted by the UN in 1993. Composition: The NHRC comprises: Chairperson (a former Chief Justice of India or Supreme Court Judge). Five full-time members and seven deemed members from statutory commissions. Appointment and Tenure: Selection process: The Chairperson and members are appointed by the President of India on recommendations of a six-member Selection Committee, comprising: Prime Minister (Chairperson). Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament. Union Home Minister. The Chairperson and members hold office for a three-year term or until the age of 70, whichever is earlier. Roles and Functions: It possesses the powers of a civil court for conducting judicial proceedings. It can summon witnesses and demand evidence. It may utilise the services of central/state officers or investigative agencies. It investigates human rights violations within one year of their occurrence. It makes recommendations to government authorities regarding human rights violations and safeguards. Hence option b is the correct answer. Selection process of the NHRC chief was a ‘fundamentally flawed’ and ‘pre-determined exercise’: Congress - The Hindu

Answer 295

Hawaii, USA Explanation : One of the world's most active volcanoes Hawaii's Kilauea is erupting again. About Kilauea Volcano: It is located in the southern part of Hawaii's Big Island, within Hawai'i Volcanoes National Park, U.S.A. It is the youngest and most active Hawaiian shield volcano, renowned for frequent eruptions. It erupts from vents at its summit caldera or along rift zones. Mythological Significance: The central crater, Halemaumau, is believed to be the home of the Hawaiian fire goddess Pele. Historical Activity: Contained a lava lake until 1924. Nearly continuous activity was recorded in the 19th and early 20th centuries. 34 eruptions since 1952; near-continuous eruptions occurred from 1983 to 2018 in the East Rift Zone. Key Features: Summit Caldera: Kilauea's summit caldera, a large depression formed by the partial collapse of the volcano after releasing most of its magma chamber, spans approximately 3 miles in length and 2 miles in width, covering an area of over 4 square miles. Proximity to Mauna Loa: Kilauea's slopes seamlessly merge with those of Mauna Loa, another massive shield volcano, making the region home to the summits of two of the world's most active volcanoes. What is a Shield Volcano? It is a type of volcano characterized by broad, gentle slopes formed from highly fluid basalt lava. Features: Unlike conical peaks of composite volcanoes, shield volcanoes appear elongated and dome-shaped. Eruptions are usually low in explosivity, forming cinder cones and spatter cones at vents. Explosions occur only if water enters the vent. Examples: Hawaiian shield volcanoes like Kilauea and Mauna Loa. Volcanoes in India: Barren Island (Andaman Islands): India's only active volcano. Narcondam (Andaman Islands): Dormant volcano. Baratang (Andaman Islands): Known for mud volcanoes. Deccan Traps (Maharashtra): Vast volcanic plateau formed by ancient eruptions. Dhinodhar Hills (Gujarat): Extinct volcano. Dhosi Hill (Haryana): Ancient volcanic site with historical significance. Hence option a is the correct answer. One of the world's most active volcanoes — Hawaii's Kilauea — is erupting again | AP News

Answer 296

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Squirrels are not as vegan as commonly believed, as new research reveals they are 'opportunistic omnivores' capable of hunting and stalking. About California Ground Squirrels: Ground squirrels are troublesome rodent pests for many home gardeners. The California ground squirrels, Otospermophilus beecheyi and Otospermophilus douglasii, are the most common species in and around homes and gardens of California. Habitat: Predominantly found in the western United States, including regions like Briones Regional Park in California. Physical Characteristics: Mottled fur with shades of gray, light and dark brown, and white. Typically live up to 6 years in the wild. Predators: Commonly preyed upon by rattlesnakes, eagles, raccoons, foxes, badgers, and weasels. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Least Concern. CITES: No special status. Key Study Findings on Squirrels’ Behavior: Squirrels previously believed to be herbivores are now identified as opportunistic omnivores. They actively hunt, kill, and eat voles (small rodents). Out of 74 observed interactions, 42% involved active hunting behavior. Hence both statements are correct. Squirrels are not as vegan as you think — new research sheds light on ‘opportunistic omnivores’ capable of hunting and stealth

Answer 297

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The President of India will present the Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar to 17 children on December 26. It is organized to celebrate the energy, determination, ability, zeal and enthusiasm of our children. It is the highest civilian honor for children in India. The Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar organized by The Ministry of Women and Child Development Government of India It is awarded annually to children for exceptional achievements in seven categories: Art & Culture, Bravery, Innovation, Science & Technology, Social Service, Sports, and Environment. Eligibility A child should be an Indian Citizen. A child above the age of 5 years and not exceeding 18 years (as of 31st July of respective year). The act/incident/achievement should have been within 2 years of the last date of receipt of application/nomination for the year of consideration. Number of Award will be 25, however, any relaxation to this maximum number may be permitted at the discretion of the National Selection Committee. Each awardee will receive a medal, certificate and citation booklet. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/india/president-to-confer-pradhan-mantri-rashtriya-bal-puraskar-to-17-children-on-december-26/articleshow/116626874.cms?from=mdr

Answer 298

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) has released the results of Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) for 2023-24. It is carried out with the primary objective of measuring various economic and operational characteristics of unincorporated non-agricultural establishments in manufacturing, trade and other services sectors (excluding construction). The survey collects data on various economic characteristics of this sector including number of workers, GVA, emoluments paid, fixed asset owned, outstanding loan, besides, different types of operational characteristics such as type of ownership, nature of operation, registration status, use of ICT, etc. Significance: The data serves as a key input for policymaking, supporting National Accounts Statistics, fulfilling the requirements of Ministries such as M/o Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME), Textiles, Labour & Employment, and empowering stakeholders to make informed, data-driven decisions. Key highlights The ASUSE 2023-24 results highlight significant growth in establishments, employment, and productivity in the unincorporated non-agricultural sector. The total number of establishments in the sector increased substantially from 6.50 crore in 2022-23 to 7.34 crore in 2023-24, representing a healthy12.84% growth. Among the broad sectors covered, the number of establishments in the "Other Services" sector recorded a growth of 23.55% followed by a 13% increase witnessed by the manufacturing sector. During the same period, the Gross Value Added (GVA) which is a key indicator of economic performance rose by 16.52% driven by a 26.17% growth in another services sector. The percentage of female-owned proprietary establishments has increased from 22.9% in 2022-23 to 26.2% The average emolument per hired worker also increased by 13% in 2023-24 compared to the previous year, 2022-23, signaling improvements in wage levels. Percentage of establishments using internet has also grown significantly from 21.1% in 2022-23 to 26.7% in ASUSE 2023-24. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2087581#:~:text

Answer 299

Only two Explanation : A recent study warns of a growing threat to non human primates like lion-tailed macaque the due to increasing human wildlife interaction. It is an Old-World monkey. It is an arboreal and diurnal creature, they sleep at night in trees (typically, high in the canopy of rainforest). These macaques are territorial and very communicative animals. One of the distinguishing features of this species is that males define the boundaries of their home ranges by calls. Overall, their communication system contains as many as 17 vocalisations. Diet: It is an omnivorous and feed upon a wide variety of food, although fruits form the major part of their diet. Appearance The magnificent Lion-tailed macaque is named due to its lion-like, long, thin, and tufted tail. Also, they are characterised by the grey mane around their face. In the meantime, this animal is one of the smallest macaque species in the world. Distribution: It is endemic to evergreen rainforests of the southern part in Western Ghats, with its range passing through the three states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Conservation Status IUCN: Critically Endangered CITES: Appendix I The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I Threats: Its population faces threats from habitat loss, fragmentation, and human encroachment. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/human-interactions-threaten-endangered-lion-tailed-macaque/article69022248.ece

Answer 300

1 only Explanation : Study of archaea a domain of ancient organisms have given scientists clues to survival strategies of micro organisms by adapting to harsh conditions with the help of their toxin-antitoxin (TA) systems. Archaea, which means "ancient things" in Greek, are one of the oldest forms of life on Earth and belong to a group called the third domain of life. Archaea (singular archaeon) are a primitive group of microorganisms. These slow-growing organisms are also present in the human gut, and have a potential relationship with human health. They are known for producing antimicrobial molecules, and for anti-oxidant activity with applications in eco-friendly waste-water treatment. Archaea are extremely difficult to culture due to challenges in providing natural conditions in a laboratory setting, Habitat: They were originally discovered and described in extreme environments, such as hydrothermal vents and terrestrial hot springs. They were also found in a diverse range of highly saline, acidic, and anaerobic environments. Key points of the research Researchers studied a specific TA system in a heat-loving archaeon called Sulfolobus acidocaldarius to understand how it helps these organisms. S. acidocaldarius, which lives in hot volcanic pools like Barren Island in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands in India and some other volcanic areas in the world, that can get as hot as 90 degree Celsius, the research highlights its unique challenges and how it survives. The detailed analysis of the VapBC4 TA system that helps survival in the high temperature environment, shows its important role during heat stress. It is revealed that several functions of the VapC4 toxin, such as stopping protein production, helping the organism form resilient cells, and influencing biofilm creation. When the cell faces heat stress, a stress-activated protease may break down VapB4 protein. Once VapB4 is gone, the VapC4 toxin is released and can stop protein production. This block in protein production is part of a survival strategy that helps cells form "persister cells" during stress. These persister cells go into resting state, conserving energy and avoiding making damaged proteins. This dormancy helps them survive tough conditions until the environment improves. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Answer 301

1 only Explanation : Recently, the US President-elect Donald Trump has once again expressed interest in buying Greenland. It the world’s largest (non-continent) island is located between the continents of North America and Europe in the North Atlantic Ocean. It is geographically considered a part of the North American continent. It is surrounded by the Arctic Ocean to the north; by the Greenland Sea to the east; by the North Atlantic Ocean to the southeast; Davis Strait to the southwest and Baffin Bay to the west. Greenland was once a Danish colony and is now an autonomous province of Denmark. Climate: Greenland is in the polar zone, where winter temperatures reach as low as -50°C and summer temperatures rarely exceed 10–15°C. Due its size, however, temperatures can vary considerably from one part of the country to another. Highest Point: Gunnbjorn's Fjeld Capital: Nuuk Why it matters to USA? Its strategic importance rose during the Cold War, and the US has a large air base there, the Pituffik Space Base, earlier the Thule Air Base. From Greenland, the US can monitor and prevent any missile coming towards it from Russia, China, or even North Korea. Greenland is rich in rare earth minerals, which are used in mobile phones, electric vehicles and other consumer electronics, but also in bombs and other weapons. As global warming leads to melting of ice, new waterways can open in the Arctic region, and all major powers are keen to boost their presence here. The US would want to pre-empt a larger Russian or Chinese role in Greenland and its neighbourhood. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/why-trump-wants-to-buy-greenland-past-attempt-9742583/

Answer 302

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India's Deep Ocean Mission recently achieved a landmark by capturing high-resolution images of an active hydrothermal vent 4,500 meters below the Indian Ocean’s surface. This discovery is significant for advancing mineral exploration, deep-sea research, and India's Samudrayaan mission under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. About Hydrothermal Vents Definition: Hydrothermal vents are underwater hot springs near tectonic plate boundaries, expelling hot water and minerals from beneath the Earth's crust into the ocean. Discovery: First identified in 1977 near the Galapagos Islands, Ecuador. Formation: Cold seawater (around 2°C) seeps through fissures in the oceanic crust near tectonic activity. The water contacts hot magma, heating to temperatures up to 370°C or higher. Superheated water resurfaces as mineral-rich hydrothermal fluids, forming vents and plumes. Types: Black Smokers: Emit particle-laden fluids, primarily containing iron sulfides, forming black chimney-like structures. White Smokers: Emit fluids rich in barium, calcium, and silicon, forming white chimneys. Significance of the Discovery for India Mineral Exploration: Enhances India's capacity to explore and utilize deep-sea hydrothermal sulfide fields, vital for securing mineral resources. Support for Samudrayaan Mission: The findings strengthen India’s ambitious Samudrayaan Mission, focusing on mineral extraction from the deep ocean. Microbial Research: Offers insights into chemosynthetic organisms, broadening knowledge of deep-sea biology and potential biotechnological applications. Hence both statements are correct. Why imaging of underwater hot spring active with microbial life is significant for India’s Deep Ocean Mission | India News - The Indian Express

Answer 303

Only two Explanation : A recent study published in Genome Research highlights that deletion mutations in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) play a significant role in age-related muscle loss. What are Mitochondria? Definition: Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles present in the cytoplasm of most eukaryotic cells, often called the "powerhouses" of the cell. Maternal inheritance: Mitochondria are inherited exclusively from the mother via the egg cell. Key functions: Energy production: Generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the primary energy carrier required for muscle contraction, protein synthesis, and cell division. Cellular respiration: Facilitates the breakdown of food into energy in the form of ATP. Regulating cell death: Control apoptosis, ensuring the maintenance of healthy tissues. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA): Contains its own DNA, which is prone to mutations that significantly affect cellular functions. Key Findings of the Study Deletion mutation’s role: Deletion mutations in mtDNA reduce its size and functionality, gradually eroding mitochondrial efficiency. These mutated mtDNA molecules outcompete healthy ones, leading to a decline in ATP production. Chimeric genes: Deletion mutations create chimeric genes by fusing different mitochondrial genes, forming abnormal sequences. Chimeric genes disrupt mtDNA expression, accelerating mitochondrial dysfunction and muscle degradation. Age-related changes: Older individuals exhibit a two-fold increase in chimeric mitochondrial mRNA, correlating with biological aging. Mutations also affect brain and muscle tissues, emphasizing their systemic impact on aging. Biomarkers for biological ageing: mtDNA deletion mutations and chimeric mRNA are key indicators of biological aging. Understanding these markers could pave the way for therapies to prevent or repair mutations, delaying age-related muscle loss. Hence, only statements 1 and 3 are correct. Why do we lose muscle mass with age? Scientists find one factor - The Hindu

Answer 304

All five Explanation : India and Kuwait have strengthened their relationship into a strategic partnership during Prime Minister Narendra Modi's landmark visit, the second by an Indian Prime Minister since 1981. This visit highlights a strong commitment to trade, defense, and cooperation. About Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC): Definition: The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a regional political and economic alliance established in 1981. Member countries: Comprises six Arab states: Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). Objective: To foster economic, security, cultural, and social cooperation among its members. Historical context: The GCC was formed in response to escalating regional tensions, particularly the Iranian Revolution (1979) and the Iran-Iraq War (1980–1988). Key Features of the GCC Global significance: The GCC countries together hold almost half of the world’s oil reserves, making them vital players in the global energy market. Annual summits: The GCC convenes yearly summits to discuss strategies for cooperation and regional stability. Organizational Structure of the GCC Supreme council: Highest authority: Composed of the heads of state from all member countries. Decision-making: Decisions are made through unanimous approval. Presidency rotation: The presidency rotates annually, based on the alphabetical order of member states. Ministerial council: Composed of foreign ministers or their representatives from member states. Role: Proposes policies and implements decisions of the Supreme Council. Meetings: Held every three months. Secretariat general: Acts as the administrative arm of the GCC. Functions: Monitors policy implementation and arranges meetings. Headquarters: Located in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. India and the GCC Largest regional trading partner: The GCC is India's most significant regional trading bloc. Bilateral trade (FY 2023-24): Total trade: USD 161.59 billion. India’s exports: USD 56.3 billion. India’s imports: USD 105.3 billion. The UAE is India's 3rd largest trading partner and 2nd largest export destination. Workforce and Remittances: Approximately 8.9 million Indian expatriates reside in GCC countries, forming 66% of all non-resident Indians (NRIs). Indian expatriates contribute significantly to remittances, a vital income source for India. Hence option d is the correct answer. PM Modi arrives in Kuwait on 2-day visit | India News - The Indian Express

Answer 305

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A recent study published in Science Advances has refined the timing and duration of Ocean Anoxic Event 1a (OAE 1a) by analyzing prehistoric rocks and fossils from Mount Ashibetsu, Japan. What is Ocean Anoxic Event 1a (OAE 1a)? Definition: OAE 1a occurred during the Cretaceous Period (145–66 million years ago), marking a time when Earth’s oceans became depleted of oxygen. This led to severe disruptions in marine ecosystems. Causes: Triggered by massive volcanic eruptions, which released large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO₂), resulting in global warming and oxygen depletion in the oceans. These conditions created anoxic marine basins, where oxygen levels were nearly absent. Impacts: The interaction of CO₂ and seawater formed carbonic acid, dissolving marine organisms’ shells and reducing oxygen levels. Resulted in the extinction of several marine species, particularly plankton, and led to the formation of black shales, organic carbon-rich layers preserved in geological records. Anoxic marine basins: Bodies of water, often in deep ocean regions, where oxygen levels are extremely low or absent. Characteristics: Favor the survival of specialized microbes and fungi while inhibiting most aerobic life forms. Carbon Sequestration: Low oxygen levels slow the decomposition of organic matter, aiding in long-term carbon sequestration, which helps reduce atmospheric CO₂ levels. Examples: Black Sea, Cariaco Basin (Caribbean Sea), and Orca Basin (Gulf of Mexico). Key Highlights of the Recent Study Timing: The event began 119.5 million years ago, confirmed through isotopic analysis of volcanic tuffs from Japan’s Hokkaido Island. OAE 1a lasted approximately 1.1 million years, indicating the extended recovery period for oceans after CO₂-driven warming and anoxia. Volcanic activity: Linked to massive volcanic eruptions, such as the Ontong Java Nui complex, which released significant CO₂ into the atmosphere and oceans. Modern relevance: Highlights parallels between ancient volcanic CO₂ emissions and current human-induced warming. Warns that rapid modern warming could trigger similar disruptions in marine ecosystems and potentially lead to a Holocene extinction event. Hence both statements are correct. Prehistoric rock in Japan reveals clues to major ocean anoxic event

Answer 306

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Rwanda has successfully contained and declared its first-ever outbreak of Marburg Virus Disease (MVD) officially over after a 42-day period without new cases. This achievement was confirmed by the World Health Organization (WHO). About Marburg Virus Disease (MVD): Definition: MVD is a severe and often fatal hemorrhagic fever caused by the Marburg virus, with no approved vaccines or treatments currently available. History and Origin: First identified in 1967 in the German city of Marburg. Named after an outbreak linked to laboratory workers exposed to infected green monkeys imported from Uganda. Geographical spread: Most outbreaks have occurred in sub-Saharan Africa, including countries like Tanzania, Uganda, Angola, Ghana, Kenya, and Zimbabwe. Transmission: Initially transmitted from fruit bats (Rousettus aegyptiacus) to humans. Spread occurs through direct contact with bodily fluids of infected individuals or contaminated surfaces. Symptoms: Early signs: High fever, severe headache, and malaise. Advanced stage: Severe bleeding, liver failure, multi-organ dysfunction, shock, and death within 8-9 days of symptom onset. Fatality rate: The average case fatality rate is approximately 50%, varying from 24% to 88% depending on the virus strain and case management. Diagnosis: Confirmed through RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction) tests and virus isolation procedures that require maximum biohazard containment. Treatment: No specific treatment exists. Supportive care includes rehydration, electrolyte replacement, and symptom management, improving survival chances. Vaccine development: Promising vaccines, such as the Sabin Vaccine Institute’s single-dose vaccine, are under Phase 2 trials in Uganda and Kenya. Rwanda also received investigational vaccines to support outbreak control. Key Facts About Rwanda: Geography: A landlocked country in East-Central Africa, referred to as the "Land of a Thousand Hills". Borders: Burundi, Tanzania, Uganda, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo. Rivers: The Nile and Congo rivers flow through Rwanda. Capital City: Kigali. Hence both statements are correct. Rwanda declares end of Marburg outbreak: WHO Africa

Answer 307

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the union Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions launched the ‘Viksit Panchayat Karmayogi’ initiative on Good Governance Day. It focuses on strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) through innovative tools and capacity-building frameworks. It is piloted in Odisha, Assam, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh. The initiative leverages e-learning platforms, AI-powered chatbots, and mobile apps to bridge knowledge gaps and enhance service delivery. This program aligns with the government’s broader mission to decentralize governance and foster participatory decision-making at the grassroots level. The initiative is expected to create scalable models of citizen-centric governance, enabling PRIs to drive equitable and sustainable development across rural India. It is part of the broader ‘Prashasan Gaon Ki Aur’ campaign, aims to enhance the capacity and competence of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) by equipping elected representatives and officials with the tools and knowledge required for effective governance and participatory planning. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2087840#:~:text

Answer 308

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, India dispatched a consignment of 1000 metric tonnes of rice as part of its humanitarian assistance to Lesotho. It is an enclaved nation that is located within the territory of South Africa. It is in the Southern and Eastern Hemispheres of the Earth. History It was known as the mountain kingdom which was initially inhabited by the Khoisan-speaking hunter-gatherers. In the 19th century the Sotho people took control of the region. In 1822, Basutoland was founded by Moshoeshoe I, who united various groups to repel challenges from Zulus under Shaka Zulu. The Kingdom of Lesotho attained its full independence on 4th October 1966 with King Moshoeshoe II as sovereign. It is the only independent state in the world that lies entirely above 1,400 m in elevation. Highest Point: Thabana Ntlenyana Rivers: The Orange River at about 2,100 km in length is one of the longest rivers in Africa. It rises in the Lesotho Highlands as the Sinqu River. Capital: Maseru Hence both statements are correct.

Answer 309

Only two Explanation : Two red pandas from Rotterdam Zoo, Netherlands are being brought to Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park (PNZP) in Darjeeling for conservation breeding purposes. Scientific Name: Ailurus fulgens It is also known as the lesser panda which is primarily herbivorous, shy, solitary and arboreal animal. It uses its long, bushy tails for balance and to cover them in winter, presumably for warmth. It is considered an indicator species for ecological change. Appearance: It is the size of a house cat, the red panda is famous for its cute face and adorable defense stance. Distribution: It is mainly found in the mountainous forests of Bhutan, China, India (Eastern Himalayan region), Myanmar and Nepal. Conservation status IUCN Red list: Endangered CITES: Appendix I Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I Threats: The loss of nesting trees and bamboo in the Eastern Himalayas which is causing a decline in red panda populations across much of their range. Key facts about the Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park It is located in the state of West Bengal which was established in 1958. It hosts the country’s most successful conservative breeding programme for red pandas. The planned conservation breeding programme began in 1986 as a part of the Global Captive Breeding Masterplan. Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/kolkata/darjeeling-red-pandas-rotterdam-christmas-9743710/

Answer 310

1 only Explanation : Researchers in Siberia are conducting tests on a juvenile mammoth whose remarkably well-preserved remains were discovered in thawing permafrost after more than 50,000 years. Mammoths are member of an extinct species belongs to elephantid genus Mammuthus. Time period: They lived from the Pliocene epoch (from around 5 million years ago) into the Holocene at about 4,000 years ago. They existed in Africa, Europe, Asia, and North America. Features The various species of mammoth were commonly equipped with long, curved tusks. They evolved a suite of adaptations for arctic life, including morphological traits such as small ears and tails to minimize heat loss, a thick layer of subcutaneous fat, long thick fur, and numerous sebaceous glands for insulation. They also had large brown-fat hump like deposit behind the neck that may have functioned as a heat source and fat reservoir during winter. IUCN Status: Extinct Mammoths are more closely related to living Asian elephants than African elephants. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/intact-remains-of-a-50000-year-old-young-mammoth-discovered-in-sibera-2654660-2024-12-24

Answer 311

a Residence By Investment (RBI) plan given to foreign nationals Explanation : Recently, the Spain's Congress has approved the termination of the controversial Golden Visa programme. It is a Residence By Investment (RBI) plan, which grants temporary residency to foreign nationals in exchange for a significant donation or investment in real estate, business, or other fields is known as a "Golden Visa." High-net-worth individuals (HNWIs) often physically relocate to favorable jurisdictions through golden visa schemes, granting them complete legal residency rights, including the facility to live, work, study, and receive healthcare in that nation. What is Spain’s Golden Visa programme? It was introduced in 2013, allowed non-European Union citizens to obtain residency permits by investing a minimum of €500,000 in Spanish real estate. The termination of Spain's Golden Visa program means that foreign nationals can no longer gain residency by investing at least €500,000 in Spanish real estate. Reasons for terminating the programme Housing affordability Issue: It cited the need to address rising property prices and ensure housing availability for local citizens, particularly in major cities. Misuse: The program is being used for money laundering and tax evasion. Hence option d is the correct answer.

Answer 312

All three Explanation : Uncertainty looms over Delhi Assembly special session to table CAG reports About CAG: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, plays a pivotal role in the financial administration of the country. The CAG is the guardian of the public purse, ensuring accountability and transparency in the management of public funds at both the Central and State levels. The CAG safeguards the Constitution and parliamentary laws, upholding financial discipline. It is a key institution for promoting accountability and ensuring checks and balances in a democratic system. Constitutional and Legal Provisions for the CAG Article 148: Appointment: The President appoints the CAG under his/her hand and seal. Tenure and Conditions: Determined by Parliament; CAG cannot hold further office under Central or State governments. Independence: Salary, allowances, and pensions are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI), ensuring autonomy. Duties and Powers (Article 149): Parliament prescribes the CAG's powers and functions. Form of Accounts (Article 150): Prescribes the manner of keeping accounts for the Union and States on the President’s advice. Submission of Reports (Article 151): Reports on Union accounts are submitted to the President and placed before Parliament. Reports on State accounts are submitted to the Governor and placed before the respective State Legislature. Certification of Net Proceeds (Article 279): CAG certifies the net proceeds of taxes and duties, which is final and binding. CAG’s (Duties, Powers, and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971: Tenure: Six years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier. Removal: Follows the procedure for removing a Supreme Court judge. Resignation: Addressed to the President. Service Conditions: Cannot be varied to the CAG's disadvantage after appointment. Hence option c is the correct answer. Source: TH

Answer 313

Madhya Pradesh Explanation : MP to translocate 15 tigers to Chhattisgarh, Rajasthan and Odisha Overview: The Madhya Pradesh government has announced the translocation of 15 tigers to the states of Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha. This initiative involves 12 tigresses and 3 tigers, subject to approval from the Central Government. The tigers will be relocated from the Bandhavgarh, Pench, and Kanha Tiger Reserves. About Kanha Tiger Reserve (KTR) Kanha Tiger Reserve, also known as Kanha National Park, is the largest national park in Madhya Pradesh. Location: Spread across Mandla and Balaghat districts, nestled in the Maikal range of Satpuras, forming part of the Central Indian Highlands. History: It was established as a national park on June 1, 1955, and Declared a Tiger Reserve in 1973. Cultural Reference: The reserve inspired Rudyard Kipling’s "The Jungle Book". Mascot: First in India to introduce an official mascot, Bhoorsingh the Barasingha. Flora: Lowland Forests are dominated by sal (Shorea robusta) and mixed forest trees interspersed with meadows. Highland Forests consist of tropical moist deciduous trees with bamboo (Dendrocalamus strictus) on slopes. Fauna: Significant populations of Royal Bengal Tigers, leopards, sloth bears, and Indian wild dogs. Globally renowned for saving the Barasingha (state animal of Madhya Pradesh) from extinction. About Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve Located in the Umaria district of Madhya Pradesh, Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve lies between the Vindhyan and Satpura ranges. History: It was declared a national park in 1968 and became a Tiger Reserve in 1993. Cultural Significance: Home to the Bandhavgarh Fort, said to have been gifted by Lord Rama to his brother Lakshmana, lending the name Bandhavgarh ("Brother’s Fort"). Vegetation: Dominated by tropical moist deciduous forests, sal trees, grasslands, and bamboo on lower slopes. Notable species include Saj, Dhaora, Tendu, Arjun, Amla, and Palas. Fauna: Known for the highest density of Royal Bengal Tigers in India and the world. Other species like Leopards, wild dogs, wolves, jackals, chital, sambar, barking deer, nilgai, and chowsingha. About Pench Tiger Reserve Pench Tiger Reserve spans the Seoni and Chhindwara districts in Madhya Pradesh and extends into the Nagpur district in Maharashtra. Named after: The Pench River, flowing north to south through the reserve. Components: Includes the Indira Priyadarshini Pench National Park, Pench Mowgli Sanctuary, and a buffer zone. Cultural connection: Inspired by Rudyard Kipling’s "The Jungle Book". Terrain: Undulating landscape with small hills and steep slopes. Vegetation: Mosaic of vegetation types, from moist valleys to dry deciduous forests. Flora: Diverse flora includes teak, saag, mahua, and various grasses and shrubs. Fauna: Abundant populations of Chital, Sambar, Nilgai, Gaur (Indian Bison), and wild boar. Key predators: Tiger, followed by leopard, wild dogs, and wolf. Rich avian diversity with over 325 species of birds, including the Malabar Pied Hornbill, Indian Pitta, and Grey-Headed Fishing Eagle. Hence option a is the correct answer. Source: PTI

Answer 314

All five Explanation : Should wealth tax be brought back to address inequality in India? About Wealth Tax Wealth Tax is levied on the net market value of various assets owned by an individual, such as cash, bank deposits, shares, fixed assets, personal cars, and real property. Globally, several countries like France, Portugal, and Spain impose wealth tax. The primary objective of the tax is to target unproductive and non-essential assets of individuals. Wealth Tax in India Introduction: The Wealth Tax Act was introduced in 1957 based on the recommendations of the Kaldor Committee (1955) as a part of tax rationalization measures. It imposed a 1% tax on earnings exceeding ₹30 lakh per annum for individuals, Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), and companies. Abolition: Abolished in 2015 due to issues such as Extensive litigation, Increased compliance burden, and High administrative costs. Replaced by an increase in the surcharge on the super-rich. Replacement measures: The surcharge for individuals with income exceeding ₹1 crore and companies with income over ₹10 crore was increased from 2% to 12%. Other Relevant Economic Concepts Tobin Tax: A tax on financial transactions, especially currency exchanges. Pigovian Tax: Levied to correct negative externalities (e.g., pollution tax). Laffer Curve: Demonstrates the relationship between tax rates and tax revenue. Tax-GDP Ratio: Indicates the tax revenue as a percentage of GDP, critical for fiscal analysis. Hence option d is the correct answer. Source: TH.

Answer 315

Only two Explanation : The NHRC took suo motu cognisance of a news report highlighting an alarming rise in suicides among the tribal population in Kerala’s Peringammala Panchayat in Thiruvananthapuram district. Statistics: The report revealed that 23 suicides occurred in 2024, following 138 suicides in the region between 2011 and 2022. About NHRC - National Human Rights Commission The NHRC is an independent statutory body established on October 12, 1993, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. It serves as a guardian of human rights in India, overseeing the rights associated with life, liberty, equality, and dignity as guaranteed by the Constitution of India and international covenants. The NHRC aligns with the Paris Principles on Human Rights, ensuring accountability and compliance. Definition of Human Rights According to Section 2(1)(d) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, human rights encompass the rights related to life, liberty, equality, and dignity protected by the Constitution or outlined in international treaties enforceable in Indian courts. NHRC Composition The NHRC is a multi-member body, comprising: Full-Time Members: A chairperson (retired Chief Justice of India or Supreme Court judge). Members include a sitting/retired Supreme Court judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and three experts in human rights (one must be a woman). Ex-Officio Members: Chairpersons of: National Commission for Minorities, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Women, Backward Classes, Protection of Child Rights, and Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities. NHRC Appointment Members are appointed by the President of India based on recommendations from a six-member committee led by the Prime Minister, with participation from: Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament, Union Home Minister. Consultation with the Chief Justice of India is required for appointing judicial members. NHRC Tenure and Conditions of Service Term: 3 years or up to 70 years of age (whichever is earlier). Reappointment: Allowed after completing the term. After tenure, members cannot seek employment with the Central or State governments. NHRC Salaries and Allowances Determined by the Central Government, but terms cannot be altered to members’ disadvantage post-appointment. NHRC Removal Process The President of India can remove members on grounds such as: Insolvency, paid employment outside office, physical/mental incapacity, unsound mind, or criminal conviction. For misconduct or incapacity, the matter is referred to the Supreme Court for inquiry, and removal is based on its recommendation. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Source: IE.

Answer 316

Only two Explanation : AI and machine learning to help the Indian pharma industry to pivot innovation. What is Artificial Intelligence (AI)? AI refers to machines performing human-like tasks such as learning, reasoning, and decision-making. Core components include: Machine Learning (ML): Algorithms that improve over time with data. Neural Networks: Mimicking the human brain for pattern recognition. Natural Language Processing (NLP): Enabling machines to understand and generate human language. AI systems process inputs, apply algorithms and deliver intelligent outputs. Types of Artificial Intelligence Narrow AI: Task-specific systems like virtual assistants (e.g., Alexa, Siri). General AI: Mimics human intelligence across diverse tasks (yet to be achieved). Super AI: A hypothetical future form surpassing human intelligence. AI Techniques in Machine Learning Supervised Learning: Uses labelled data to predict outcomes (e.g., facial recognition). Unsupervised Learning: Identifies patterns in unlabelled data (e.g., clustering algorithms). How Does AI Work? Data acquisition: Collect and preprocess data. Feature extraction: Identify relevant patterns in the data. Algorithm selection and training: Use machine learning, deep learning, or rule-based methods to create models. Evaluation and deployment: Optimize and deploy models to make intelligent predictions or decisions. Indian Pharmaceutical Industry’s Growth Potential Current market size: Approximately USD 58 billion, expected to grow to USD 120-130 billion by 2030. Global contribution: India contributes about 20% of the global generic drug supply, focusing on affordability and quality. Policy support and digital talent: India is leveraging favourable policies, a skilled workforce, and digital innovation to strengthen its global healthcare position. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. Source: LM

Answer 317

2 only Explanation : UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres has paid tributes to Brigadier General Amitabh Jha of India, who was serving with the United Nations Disengagement Observer Force (UNDOF) at Golan Heights. It was established by UN Security Council resolution 350 (1974) of 31 May 1974 immediately following disengagement of Forces Agreement between Israel and Syria. Mandate: To maintain the ceasefire and supervise the area of separation — a demilitarized buffer zone — as well as the area of limitation — where Israeli and Syrian troops and equipment are restricted — in the Golan. The mandate of the mission is regularly renewed every six months and it has been extended till June 2025. Method of financing: UNDOF is funded through a separate account approved on an annual basis by the UN General Assembly. India is the top third troop and police contributing countries to this mission. Headquarter: Camp Faouar Key points about Golan Heights It is a hilly area overlooking the upper Jordan River valley on the west. It is a Syrian territory occupied by Israel since 1967. Borders: It is bounded by the Jordan River and the Sea of Galileeon the west, Mount Hermon on the north, the seasonal Wadi Al-Ruqqād River on the east, and the Yarmūk River on the south. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/news-today/un-secretary-general-tribute-amitabh-jha-led-un-peacekeeping-force-9743565/

Answer 318

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE), part of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), has announced that the Kaveri engine has been cleared for inflight testing. The Kaveri engine project began in the late 1980s with the goal of powering the Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas. It is developed by the Gas Turbine Research Establishment under the Defence Research and Development Organisation. Features The current dry version of the Kaveri engine produces approximately 49-51 kN of thrust. This thrust level is suitable for UAV applications like the Ghatak, India's stealth UCAV program. The DRDO plans to integrate an afterburner to increase the thrust to 73-75 kN for more demanding scenarios. The Kaveri engine has undergone extensive ground testing, modifications, and enhancements over the years. It has been tested in high-altitude simulations in Russia and ground trials in India. These tests demonstrated promising results in reliability, thrust output, and operational stability, meeting the required performance metrics for inflight testing. Significance: This signifies a major step for India's self-reliance in aero-engine technology, particularly for unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) like the Ghatak stealth UCAV program. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://manufacturing.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/aerospace-defence/kaveri-engine-approved-for-inflight-testing-a-breakthrough-in-indian-aerospace/116615602

Answer 319

Only two Explanation : Recently, Bald eagle was officially declared as United States national bird after 250 years. The Bald eagle (Haliaeetus leucocephalus) is a magnificent bird of prey found in North America. It usually leads a solitary life, gathering in groups during nesting season. Appearance Its body and wings are dark browns in color while the head and tail are white. The legs and feet are bright yellow and the eyes are light yellow. Males of this species are smaller than females. Habitat: It typically prefer areas near large water bodies such as sea coasts, coastal estuaries and inland lakes and rivers, in many areas, Distribution: Bald eagles are North American birds. Their range extends from the Mexico border through the United States and Canada. The birds are extremely populous in Alaska. They can be seen year-round in Alaska, along the East and West coasts, the Rocky Mountains, and the Mississippi River. The rest of the United States only sees bald eagles during the winter and their migration. Reproduction: Bald eagles have a monogamous mating system. These birds are believed to mate for life, or until a pair member dies. Conservation status IUCN: Least Concern Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct. News: https://www.indiatoday.in/world/us-news/story/bald-eagle-is-officially-americas-national-bird-after-bidens-signature-glbs-2655386-2024-12-25

Answer 320

1 only Explanation : The Prime Minister of India will distribute over 50 lakh property cards under SVAMITVA Scheme on 27th December. The Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas (SVAMITVA) is a central sector scheme launched in 2020. It was launched with a vision to enhance the economic progress of rural India by providing ‘Record of Rights’ to households possessing houses in inhabited areas in villages through the latest surveying drone technology. The scheme seeks to achieve the following objectives To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial asset for taking loans and other financial benefits. Creation of accurate land records for rural planning. Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or else, add to the State exchequer. Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use. To support in preparation of better-quality Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) by making use of GIS maps. To reduce property related disputes and legal cases. Nodal Ministry: The Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR) is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2088143

Answer 321

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Prime Minister of India participated in Veer Baal Diwas event at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi. It is annually observed on December 26, every year since 2022. It is commemorated to honour the martyrdom of Baba Fateh Singh and Zorawar Singh, the Sahibzade of 10th Guru Govind Singh Ji on 26th December every year. Background Guru Gobind Singh, along with his family and disciples, were compelled to flee as the Mughal Army encircled the Anandpur fort. During the chaos, Guru Gobind Singh’s youngest sons, Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh, were captured by the Mughal forces. The two young boys courageously refused to abandon their faith, and consequently, Wazir Khan ordered them to be bricked alive around December 26, 1705. Exemplifying bravery and loyalty to their religion, Government of India in 2022 declared to mark December 26 as Veer Bal Diwas annually to honour and remember their sacrifice. Who is Guru Gobind Singh? Guru Gobind Singh was the 10th Sikh guru, following the demise of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru. Contribution to Sikh religion He is renowned for founding the principles of Khalsa or the Five ‘K’s i.e kesh (uncut hair), kanga (wooden comb), kara (iron or steel bracelet), kirpan (dagger) and kachera (short breeches). He fought against the Mughals later in the battle of Muktsar in 1705. He declared Guru Granth Sahib as Sikhism's Holy Scripture in 1708, before his death. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2088080

Answer 322

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A recovering population of sea otters in California, especially in the Elkhorn Slough National Estuarine Research Reserve, has helped curb green crab proliferation. Sea Otters Sea otters were extensively hunted in the 18th and 19th centuries for their thick, soft fur. Declared a fully protected mammal in California in 1913, but populations faced challenges from oil spills and habitat loss. Their numbers rebounded after being listed as threatened and federally protected in 1977. Contribution to Limiting Green Crabs: Sea otters consume 50,000 to 120,000 green crabs annually, effectively controlling their population. This marks a significant solution to the invasive species problem on the West Coast of the United States. Unique adaptations: Unlike other marine mammals, sea otters rely on a high metabolism rather than blubber to stay warm in cold oceans. They consume about 25% of their body weight daily, making them voracious predators. Green Crab (Portunus Sanguinolentus) The green crab is a common littoral crab, recognized globally by names such as shore crab or green shore crab in the British Isles. It is one of the top 100 “world's worst alien invasive species”, showcasing its invasive nature. Habitat: Native to the Atlantic Ocean and Baltic Sea, but now spread to Australia, South America, and South Africa. Physical Features: At maturity, the carapace width measures about 90 mm. Colouration varies between green, brown, grey, and red, with delayed moulting causing red colouration. Red crabs are more aggressive compared to others. Diet: Feeds on small crustaceans, molluscs, and worms. Impact on Ecosystems: The green crab’s invasive behaviour harms coastal ecosystems by: Damaging seagrass beds, critical habitats for various marine species. Overhunting prey species, crucial for the survival of other native species. Outcompeting native species for resources like food and habitat. Hence both statements are correct. Source: IE.

Answer 323

Arunachal Pradesh Explanation : Under the shadow of China’s plan to build the world’s largest dam, India pushes for a counter project in Arunachal Pradesh. About the Upper Siang Hydropower Project The Upper Siang Hydropower Project is a proposed 11,000 MW hydropower plant located on the Siang River in the Upper Siang district of Arunachal Pradesh. The Siang River is the upper course of the Brahmaputra River, revered as Aane Siang (Mother Siang) by locals. This project is envisioned as a strategic countermeasure to China's proposed 60,000 MW super dam on the Yarlung Tsangpo (Brahmaputra) in Tibet's Medog County. Key Details of the Project Developers: Jointly undertaken by the National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) and the North Eastern Electric Power Corporation (NEEPCO). Pre-Feasibility Report (submitted in December 2022): Installed Capacity: 11,000 MW. Reservoir Storage: 9 billion cubic meters (BCM). Estimated Cost: ₹1,13,000 crore. The area is primarily inhabited by the Adi Tribe, an indigenous community with a strong connection to the Siang River. Residents rely on pani kheti (settled agriculture along riverbanks) for sustenance, as the hilly terrain offers limited farming opportunities. The Adi Tribe The Adi Tribe speaks Tibeto-Burman languages and traces its origins to southern China in the 16th century. They are skilled artisans, especially in crafting items from cane and bamboo. Major festivals include: Solung: Harvest festival involving animal sacrifices. Aran: Hunting festival. Unique Practices: The Motor or Pator system, a ritual involving self-restriction through village lockdowns to locate wild herbs during epidemics. Hence option b is the correct answer. Source: IE.

Answer 324

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : RBI's Recent Report on the Rupee's Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) Key Updates on REER: Record High REER: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has reported that the rupee's Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) reached 108.14 in November 2024, increasing from 107.20 in October 2024. This marks its highest level this year. Implications of Overvaluation: A REER value above 100 signifies that the rupee is overvalued relative to the base year (2015-16), leading to reduced export competitiveness while making imports cheaper. About NEER and REER NEER (Nominal Effective Exchange Rate): It is the weighted average of a currency’s bilateral exchange rates with multiple trading partner currencies. NEER reflects the nominal strength of a currency but does not adjust for inflation or price level differences. A rise in NEER indicates nominal appreciation, while a decline signals depreciation. REER (Real Effective Exchange Rate): An improvement over NEER, it adjusts for relative price levels (inflation) between domestic and foreign economies. Calculated as: NEER × (Domestic Price Index ÷ Foreign Price Index). It is a purchasing power parity (PPP)-adjusted measure of competitiveness. Currency basket for India’s Indices: Earlier, the NEER and REER indices included six major currencies: US Dollar (USD), Euro (EUR), Japanese Yen (JPY), British Pound (GBP), Chinese Yuan (CNY), and Singapore Dollar (SGD). The indices now encompass a broader basket of 36 currencies, reflecting India’s diverse trade relations. Factors influencing NEER and REER: Productivity Differences: Affect competitiveness and influence REER values. Terms of Trade: The balance of exports and imports can impact both indices. Inflation: Higher inflation erodes currency value, affecting REER. Fiscal Spending: Impacts economic stability and demand, influencing exchange rate dynamics. Hence option c is the correct answer. Source: IE.

Answer 325

All three Explanation : Over 10,000 migrants died in 2024 attempting to reach Spain by sea, making it one of the deadliest years for migration. Atlantic Route: The Atlantic migration route from West Africa to the Canary Islands has emerged as one of the most dangerous migration routes globally. The majority of the 10,457 deaths occurred on this route, highlighting the perilous conditions faced by migrants. About the Canary Islands The Canary Islands, a Spanish archipelago located about 62 miles west of Morocco, are part of the European Union's outermost regions. The main islands include Lanzarote, Fuerteventura, Gran Canaria, Tenerife, La Gomera, La Palma, and El Hierro. Climate and oceanic conditions: The islands experience a subtropical climate, characterized by warm temperatures and minimal seasonal variation. The Canary Current, a cold ocean current flowing along Africa's northwest coast, contributes to the dry climate in the nearby Sahara Desert and the hazardous conditions at sea. Gateway to Europe: The Canary Islands have become a stepping stone for migrants seeking access to continental Europe. However, the journey is fraught with risks, including: Strong ocean currents. Overcrowded and poorly equipped boats. Adverse weather conditions. Archipelago: It refers to a cluster or chain of islands located close together in a body of water, such as a sea, ocean, lake, or river. These islands commonly form due to volcanic activity, tectonic shifts, or sediment accumulation. Hence option c is the correct answer. Source: BS.

Answer 326

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A recent study published in the Proceedings of the Royal Society B highlights significant uncertainties regarding the effectiveness of biodiversity credits. What are Biodiversity Credits? Definition: A biodiversity credit is a verifiable, quantifiable, and tradeable financial certificate rewarding positive biodiversity outcomes, such as the conservation or restoration of species, ecosystems, and natural habitats. Biodiversity Credits (Biocredits) are gaining attention as a mechanism to finance biodiversity conservation and achieve the targets under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF). The KMGBF, established during the 15th Conference of Parties (CoP15) of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), aims to promote biodiversity conservation, sustainable use of natural resources, and equitable benefit-sharing. Key features: It represents a specific amount of land or marine habitat conserved or restored over a fixed period. Credits are generated by non-profits, governments, landowners, or companies and sold to private entities to fulfill biodiversity commitments. Examples of Biodiversity Credit Schemes: Terrasos, GreenCollar, ValueNature, CreditNature, Wilderlands. Market Overview: Current Market Value: Estimated at $8 million (World Economic Forum). Future Projections: Expected to grow to $2 billion by 2030 and $69 billion by 2050. Biodiversity Credit Alliance (BCA) Purpose: A voluntary international alliance supporting the implementation of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework. Focuses on Targets 19(c) and 19(d) of the frameworks. Targets under KMGBF: Target 19(c): Businesses must monitor, assess, and disclose their biodiversity risks, dependencies, and impacts. Target 19(d): Businesses must provide consumers with information to encourage sustainable consumption patterns. Mission: Develop a biodiversity credit market with science-based principles to guide conservation efforts. Governance: Secretariat: Facilitated by UNDP and UNEP Finance Initiative (UNEP FI). BCA Task Force: Decision-making body comprising methodology developers, standard setters, academic institutions, and representatives from Indigenous Peoples and Local Communities (via the Communities Advisory Panel). Hence both statements are correct. Source: DTE.

Answer 327

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA), in collaboration with the Revitalising Rainfed Agriculture Network (RRAN) and Watershed Support Services & Activities Network (WASSAN), had organized this Multi-Stakeholder Convention in New Delhi. It is an expert body to provide the much-needed knowledge inputs regarding systematic up-gradation and management of country’s dry land and rainfed agriculture. It was established in the year 2006. The NRAA has a two tier structure. Governing Board: It provides necessary leadership and appropriate coordination in implementation of programmes. The Governing Board is chaired by Union Agriculture Minister & Farmers Welfare and co-chaired by Union Minister of Rural Development. Executive Committee: It consists of technical experts and representatives from stakeholder Ministries. The Executive Committee is headed by a full time Chief Executive Officer who should be a recognized expert on the subject. The CEO will be supported by five full-time technical experts. The Authority is serviced by the Ministry of Agriculture and is located at Delhi. Mandate: Water conservation and covers all aspects of sustainable and holistic development of rainfed areas, including appropriate farming and livelihood system approaches. Issues pertaining to landless and marginal farmers, who constitute the large majority of inhabitants of rainfed areas, are to be addressed by the Authority. Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2088163®=3&lang=1

Answer 328

2 only Explanation : Researchers have found a way to develop FELUDA as a point-of-care diagnostic service at a minimal cost for detection of H. pylori and its mutations in dyspeptic patients from rural areas of India, with minimal or no access to diagnostic laboratories. It is a common type of bacteria that grows in the digestive tract and tends to attack the stomach lining. It is adapted to live in the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach. It infects a person usually during childhood. Its infections are usually harmless, but they’re responsible for most ulcers in the stomach and small intestine. Infections with H. pylori affect over 43 percent of the world’s population with a wide range of gastrointestinal disorders, including peptic ulcers, gastritis, dyspepsia and even gastric cancer. How it survives in stomach? This bacterium can change the environment around it and reduce the acidity so it can survive more easily. The spiral shape of H. pylori allows it to penetrate the stomach lining, where it’s protected by mucus and the body’s immune cells can’t reach it. When signs or symptoms do occur with H. pylori infection, they are typically related to gastritis or a peptic ulcer and may include: An ache or burning pain in stomach (abdomen) Stomach pain that may be worse when your stomach is empty Nausea, Loss of appetite and unintentional weight loss etc. Treatment: It can be treated with a combination of antibiotics and a proton-pump inhibitor (a drug that reduces your stomach acid) for up to 14 days. This treatment is sometimes referred to as triple therapy. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2088376#:~:text=

Answer 329

1 only Explanation : Recently, the Scientific Aptitude Assessment Exercise under CSIR’s JIGYASA program was conducted online. It was launched in 2017 by Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR). It is also known as CSIR Jigyasa program, it is an initiative taken during the Platinum Jubilee year. It promotes curiosity and scientific temperament as part of Scientific Social Responsibility (SSR). Objective: The objective of Jigyasa is to extend the classroom learning by focusing on well-planned research laboratory based learning for school students. To bring in quality with value added research knowledge, CSIR laboratories collaborate with Kendriya Vidyalayas (KVS), Navodaya Vidyalayas (NVS), Karnataka State S&T Academy (KSTA), Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) and NITI Aayog etc. Under this programme the target audience for the Virtual Lab platform is students of the standard VI to XII (11-18 years) who would like to explore science using different activities, experienced researchers and faculties on the subjects of Science, Mathematics, Biology and IT. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2087213

Answer 330

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : India’s average household consumption spending on a per capita basis rose about 3.5% in real terms through August 2023 to July 2024 from a year ago, as per the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES). It is designed to collect information on consumption and expenditure of the households on goods and services. The survey provides data required to assess trends in economic well-being and to determine and update the basket of consumer goods and services and weights used for the calculation of the Consumer Price Index. Data collected in HCES is also used to measure poverty, inequality, and social exclusion. The Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) compiled from HCES is the primary indicator used for most analytical purposes. As in HCES:2022-23, in HCES:2023-24 also two sets of estimates of MPCE have been generated: Without considering imputed values of items received free of cost by the households through various social welfare programmes and Considering imputed values of items received free of cost by the households through various social welfare programmes. This survey is conducted by National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) under the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI). Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2088390#:~:text=

Answer 331

Andhra Pradesh Explanation : The Wildlife Institute of India-Dehradun is preparing to execute India’s first Fishing Cat Collaring Project at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary where the endangered species is said to be thriving. Location: It is part of the Godavari estuary, where the Coringa river confluences into the Bay of Bengal in the Kakinada district of Andhra Pradesh. Between this area and the sea " Hope Island " blocks the direct confluence of the sea and Godavari. As a result, about 40% of the sanctuary is only sea-backwaters and the rest of the area is intermingled with creeks and gets inundated with tidal waters. Vegetation: It has extensive mangrove and dry deciduous tropical forests. It is the second-largest stretch of mangrove forests in India. Flora: Mangrove plants like Rhizophora spp, Avicennia spp, Sonnertia spp, etc;grow here. Fauna: It is home to endangered mammals like Smooth Indian otter, Fishing cat, Jackal, etc. Mangroves offer excellent habitat for birds like Black capped kingfisher, Brahminy kite, Sea gulls, Reef heron, Sand piper, etc. The sea coast of the Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is a breeding ground for Olive ridley turtles. Key facts about Fishing Cat The Fishing cat (Prionailurus viverrinus) is a medium-sized wild cat. It is a solitary and nocturnal hunters that rest during the day amongst dense vegetation and then at night head to the water to find food. They are very strong swimmers and can swim large distances, often while pursuing a fish. Appearance: It is a “small” cat of medium size and stocky build, with short legs, a short tail, and a face that is round but elongated. Females are noticeably smaller than males. Habitat: They live primarily in wetland areas, swamps, and marshy areas around oxbow lakes, reed beds, tidal creeks, and mangrove forests. Distribution: They are mainly found in Southeast Asia, including Sri Lanka and parts of Pakistan, in western India to southern China, Java, and Sumatra. Conservation status IUCN: Vulnerable CITES: Appendix II Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Schedule I Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/time-to-collar-the-cat/article69034215.ece

Answer 332

Nepal Explanation : The Indian Army contingent, comprising 334 personnel, departed for Nepal recently to participate in the eighteenth edition of the Joint Military Exercise Surya Kiran. About Exercise Surya Kiran: It is a joint military exercise between the Indian army and Nepal army. It is an annual event conducted alternately in both countries. It aims to enhance interoperability in jungle warfare, counter-terrorism operations in mountains, and Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief under the United Nations Charter. Through various war games, both sides seek to improve their operational capabilities, refine their combat skills, and strengthen their coordination to operate together in challenging scenarios. The exercise will provide a platform for soldiers from India and Nepal to exchange ideas and experiences, share best practices, and foster a deeper understanding of each other’s operational procedures. 18th Edition: It is scheduled to take place in Saljhandi, Nepal. The Indian Army contingent is being led by a battalion from the 11th Gorkha Rifles, while the Nepal Army will be represented by the Srijung Battalion. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2088529

Answer 333

It is the largest waterfall on Earth. Explanation : The Denmark Strait cataract, an underwater giant, defies conventional understanding of waterfalls, influencing global ocean circulation and shaping ecosystems, despite its invisible and silent presence. About Denmark Strait Cataract: It holds the distinction of being the largest waterfall on Earth. It is situated in the underwater channel between Iceland and Greenland. It drops an astonishing 11,500 feet (3,500 metres) from its summit to the ocean floor. With a vertical fall measuring 6,600 feet (2,000 metres), it’s over three times the height of the Angel Falls, the world's tallest land-based waterfall, which stands at just over 3,200 feet (979 metres). Stretching across the width of the Denmark Strait, the cataract spans roughly 300 miles (480 kilometres). Despite its size, the Denmark Strait cataract remains concealed beneath the waves and undetectable from the surface. Formation: It was formed during the last Ice Age, approximately 17,500 to 11,500 years ago. Glacial activity in the region shaped the sloping seabed, which now channels cold water from the Nordic Seas into the Irminger Sea (marginal sea of the North Atlantic Ocean). This process contributes significantly to the thermohaline circulation, a global system of ocean currents. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/travel/destinations/the-earths-largest-hidden-underwater-waterfall-a-11500-ft-giant-under-the-arctic/articleshow/116682679.cms

Answer 334

1 only Explanation : An anti-corruption outfit in Bangladesh has initiated investigation into the $12.65 billion Rooppur nuclear powerplant that is being constructed with Russian assistance. About Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant: It is a nuclear power plant under construction in Iswardi, Pabna District, Rajshahi Division, Bangladesh. It will be Bangladesh’s first source of nuclear power. Bangladesh Atomic Energy Commission (BAEC) is the owner of the Rooppur nuclear plant. It features two VVER-1200 reactors, created by Russian company Rosatom. Construction of both water-cooled reactors began in November 2017. Once completed, the two reactors at the Rooppur site, some 160 kilometres northwest of the capital, Dhaka, will generate 2400 megawatts of power, providing approximately 9 percent of Bangladesh's total electricity needs. The total estimated cost of the Rooppur nuclear plant is $12.65 billion US dollars. The construction is largely funded by a loan from Russia, to be paid back over 20 years. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/bangladesh-initiates-investigation-into-russia-backed-rooppur-nuclear-project/article69018424.ece

Answer 335

1 only Explanation : In a message commemorating the International Day of Epidemic Preparedness, UN Secretary-General António Guterres urged all nations to invest in resilience and equity to make a healthier and safer world for all. About International Day of Epidemic Preparedness: It is annually observed on December 27 to advocate the importance of prevention of, preparedness for, and partnership against epidemics. It highlights the urgent need to invest in systems that can prevent, detect, and respond to infectious disease outbreaks. History of the Day: The first-ever International Day of Epidemic Preparedness, held on 27 December 2020, was called for by the United Nations General Assembly to advocate the importance of the prevention of, preparedness for, and partnership against epidemics. What is an Epidemic? An epidemic is a sudden disease outbreak that affects a large number of people in a particular region, community, or population. In an epidemic, the number of people affected by the disease is larger than what is normally expected. Yellow fever, smallpox, measles, and polio are prime examples of epidemics. An epidemic disease doesn't necessarily have to be contagious. West Nile fever and the rapid increase in obesity rates are also considered epidemics. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.un.org/sustainabledevelopment/blog/2024/12/global-solidarity-key-to-future-pandemic-preparedness-says-un-chief/

Answer 336

Tamil Nadu Explanation : The Minister for Ports, Shipping and Waterways recently said cargo-handling capacity at Indian ports increased by 87 percent in the last nine years, with Tamil Nadu’s Kamarajar Port registering a whopping swell of 154 percent. About Kamarajar Port: Kamarajar Port, formerly known as Ennore Port, is located approximately 24 km north of Chennai in Tamil Nadu, India. It is the 12th major port of India and the first port in India which is a public company. It was declared as a major port under the Indian Ports Act, 1908, in March 1999. It is the only corporatized major port and is registered as a company. The port is owned by Chennai Port Trust, which also operates the Port of Chennai. The port works in a landlord port model. The landlord port is characterized by its mixed public-private orientation. Under this model, the port authority acts as a regulatory body and as a landlord, while port operations (especially cargo handling) are carried out by private companies. The port has terminals for handling coal, LNG, containers, and multipurpose cargo. Coal is the main cargo shipped through Kamarajar Port. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Dec/25/kamarajar-port-cargo-handling-capacity-doubled

Answer 337

2 only Explanation : Instances of GPS interference on passenger aircraft, including ‘spoofing’ with false signals, are on the rise over conflict zones globally, including on India’s borders with Pakistan, a report from the OPSGROUP said recently. About GPS Spoofing: GPS spoofing, also known as GPS simulation, refers to the practice of manipulating or tricking a GPS receiver by broadcasting false GPS signals. Essentially, it misleads the GPS receiver into believing it is located somewhere it is not, resulting in the device providing inaccurate location data. This form of cyberattack undermines the reliability of GPS data, which is vital for a variety of applications, from navigation to time synchronization and more. How Does GPS Spoofing Work? GPS spoofing exploits the inherent vulnerabilities in the GPS infrastructure – the weak signal strength of GPS satellites. The Global Positioning System (GPS) functions by sending signals from satellites to GPS receivers on Earth. These receivers then calculate their position based on the time it takes for these signals to arrive. However, due to the weak signal strength of the GPS satellites, these signals can be easily overwhelmed by fake signals, resulting in inaccurate location data on the receiving device. Typically, a GPS spoofer begins by acquiring a basic understanding of the victim’s GPS setup, including the types of signals it uses and how they are processed. With that information, the attacker then sends counterfeit GPS signals that mimic the real ones. These fake signals are stronger, causing the receiver to recognize them as authentic signals. As a result, the victim’s GPS receiver ends up processing these counterfeit signals, leading to erroneous location information. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/frequent-gps-interference-including-spoofing-near-indias-border-with-pakistan-myanmar/article69037483.ece

Answer 338

1 only Explanation : Three poachers were arrested for killing a sambar deer recently inside the Daying Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary (DEMWS) in Arunachal Pradesh’s East Siang district. About Sambar Deer: It is a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia. Scientific Name: Rusa unicolor In Nepal it is referred to as the Jarao and in China as the Four-eyed deer. Habitat: Sambar Deer are water-dependent, so they are never found far from water, but otherwise can be found in a broad range of forest habitats: dry deciduous forest, rainforest and mixed forests. The sambar lives in forests, alone or in small groups. Features: A large, relatively long-tailed deer, it stands 1.2–1.4 m (47–55 inches) at the shoulder. It is the largest oriental deer, with some adult males reaching 550 kg in weight. The coat forms a ruff around its neck and is an unspotted, dark brown in colour. The male sambar bears long, rugged antlers with three points, or tines. They are quite elusive and are most active at dusk and at night. IUCN Red List: Vulnerable Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/arunachal-pradesh/three-poachers-arrested-for-killing-sambar-deer-in-arunachal-pradesh-3330935

Answer 339

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Reserve Bank of India recently said it has set up a committee, which will be called as FREE-AI, to develop the framework for responsible and ethical enablement of artificial intelligence. About ‘FREE-AI’ Committee: It is an eight-member panel constituted by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to develop a framework for responsible and ethical Artificial Intelligence (AI) in the financial sector. It will be headed by Pushpak Bhattacharyya, Professor, Department of Computer Science and Engineering, IIT Bombay. The panel includes representatives from NITI Aayog, HDFC Bank, IIT Madras, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, law firm Trilegal, and Microsoft India. The committee, which will be supported by the RBI's fintech department, will be required to submit its report within six months from the date of its first meeting. The committee's mandate will be to study the present level of AI adoption in financial services and review regulatory and supervisory approaches on AI with a focus on the financial sector globally. The committee will also recommend a framework including governance aspects for responsible, ethical adoption of AI models for the financial sector. The committee will also have to identify potential risks associated with AI and recommend an evaluation, mitigation, and monitoring framework for regulated entities. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.ndtvprofit.com/economy-finance/rbi-sets-up-free-ai-committee-to-develop-ai-framework

Answer 340

All three Explanation : The Delhi High Court has recently ordered signing of an MoU between Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Delhi Government for implementing PM- Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) scheme in the national capital. About PM- Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM): It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) with some Central Sector Components (CS) which has an outlay of Rs. 64,180 Crores for the scheme period (2021-22 to 2025-26). This is the largest pan-India scheme for strengthening healthcare infrastructure across the country. The measures under the scheme focus on developing capacities of health systems and institutions across the continuum of care at all levels viz. primary, secondary and tertiary level and on preparing health systems in responding effectively to the current and future pandemics/disasters. The objective of the scheme is to fill critical gaps in health infrastructure, surveillance and health research – spanning both the urban and rural areas. The following are the components under CS Component of the scheme: 12 Central Institutions as training and mentoring sites with 150 bedded Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs); Strengthening of the National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC), 5 New Regional NCDCs and 20 metropolitan health surveillance units; Expansion of the Integrated Health Information Portal to all States/UTs to connect all public health labs; Operationalization of 17 new Public Health Units and strengthening of 33 existing Public Health Units at Points of Entry, that is at 32 Airports, 11 Seaports and 7 land crossings; Setting up of 15 Health Emergency Operation Centres and 2 container based mobile hospitals; and Setting up of a national institution for One Health, 4 New National Institutes for Virology, a Regional Research Platform for WHO South East Asia Region and 9 Biosafety Level III laboratories. Following support is provisioned for States/UTs under CSS component of the scheme: Construction of 17,788 rural Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs). HWCs are to be established in plain areas having population of 5000 and in difficult areas - hilly, tribal, desert etc, having a population of 3000. Support for 11,024 urban Health and Wellness Centres in all the States with the focus on slum like areas. One Urban-HWC is to be set up as per 15,000-20,000 population for catering predominantly to poor and vulnerable populations, residents of slum and slum-like areas. Establishing 3382 Block Public Health Units (BPHUs) at block levels. Setting up of Integrated Public Health Labs (IPHLs) in 730 districts. Establishing Critical Care Hospital Blocks (CCBs) in 602 districts (with population more than 5 lakhs) and with referral linkages in other districts. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.livelaw.in/high-court/delhi-high-court/non-implementation-of-pm-abhim-scheme-in-delhi-unjustified-high-court-orders-signing-of-mou-by-january-05-279457

Answer 341

1 only Explanation : The Bengal irrigation department recently decided to supply water to farmlands through pipelines from the Teesta River and its canals, instead of acquiring more land to dig new canals, sub-canals, and drains. About Teesta River: It is a trans-Himalayan River flowing through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal and Rangpur in Bangladesh. It is a tributary of Brahmaputra River. This river forms a boundary between Sikkim and West Bengal. Course: Origin: It rises in the Himalayas near Chunthang in Sikkim, flows to the south, cutting a deep gorge through the Siwalik Hills east of Darjiling in West Bengal, and turns southeast to run through the Sivok Khola pass onto the plains of West Bengal. Originally, the river continued southward to empty directly into the upper Padma River (Ganges River). About 1787, however, the river changed its course to flow eastward, crossing the Rangpur region of Bangladesh to join the Jamuna River near Chilmari after a total course of about 200 miles (320 km). The flow of the Tista is greatest during the summer (June to September), when the monsoon rains are heaviest and glaciers supply abundant meltwater. Its lower reaches are marked by flooding and frequent, violent course changes; navigation is impaired by shoals and quicksand near the junction with the Jamuna. Major Tributaries: Left-bank Tributaries: Lachung Chhu, Chakung Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola, Rangpo Chhu. Right-bank Tributaries - Zemu Chhu, Rangyong Chhu, Rangit River. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.telegraphindia.com/west-bengal/pipelines-to-supply-water-from-teesta-river-to-farmlands-decide-irrigation-department/cid/2073857

Answer 342

Maharashtra Explanation : In what comes as a cause of concern, a fire broke out just outside the Sanjay Gandhi National Park (SGNP) in Mumbai recently. About Sanjay Gandhi National Park (SGNP): SGNP, earlier known as Borivali National Park, is a large protected area near Borivali in the northern part of Mumbai. It is situated partly in the Thane District and in the Mumbai Suburban District of Maharashtra. It covers an expansive area of 103 square kilometres, making it one of the largest parks within the city limits. The park is known for its dense forests, vast birdlife, butterflies, and small population of tigers. The Kanheri Caves in the center of the park was an important Buddhist learning center and pilgrimage site sculpted by Buddhist monks between the 9th and the 1st centuries BCE. They were chiselled out of a massive basaltic rock outcropping. Besides, the park also has two artificial lakes, namely Tulsi Lake and Vihar Lake, the deer park, the lion safari, and the Samadhi of Mahatma Gandhi. Flora: Kadamba, Teak, Karanj, Shisham, and species of acacia, Ziziphus, euphorbias, etc are found in this National Park. Fauna: The fauna of the park includes Mongoose, Four-horned antelope, Sambar, Atlas Moth, Wild boar, Languor, Monkey, Magar, and Panthers. The park also boasts of 251 species of birds and a large variety of butterflies. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/maharashtra/fire-breaks-out-outside-mumbais-sanjay-gandhi-national-park-doused-3335288 Q2. You did not attempt this question Consider the following statements regarding Bayraktar Akinci, recently seen in the news: 1. It is a long-endurance Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle (UCAV). 2. It was developed by Russia for air-to-ground and air-to-air attack missions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Turkey has successfully tested the firing of the supersonic missile UAV-122 from the Bayraktar Akinci drone. About Bayraktar Akinci: It is a long-endurance Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle (UCAV) developed by Turkish drone manufacturer Baykar. It has been designed to perform various operations supporting fighter jets. It is capable of performing air-to-ground and air-to-air attack missions. Features: The combat drone has a length of 12.2 m, a height of 4.1 m, and a wingspan of 20 m. It stands out for its payload capacity of up to 1,500 kilograms, flight range of 25 hours, and range of 7,500 km. It is equipped with dual satellite communication systems, air-to-air radar, electronic support systems, collision avoidance radar, and synthetic aperture radar. It is equipped with a triple-redundant flight control system. The dual artificial intelligence (AI)-powered avionics system integrated into the platform helps in improving signal processing, sensor fusion and situational awareness in real-time. The UCAV will be fitted with different weapon payloads such as laser-guided smart munitions, missiles, and long-range stand-off weapons. It is also the first drone capable of launching an Air-Launched Cruise Missile (ALCM). Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.india.com/news/world/akinci-drone-of-turkey-stuns-everyone-hits-supersonic-missile-on-target-from-air-tension-for-india-due-to-pakistan-bayraktar-ankara-7501424/ Q3. You did not attempt this question Which among the following best describes ‘INS Sarvekshak’, recently seen in the news? A. It is a torpedo launch and recovery vessel. B. It is a Shivalik-class stealth multi-role frigate. C. It is a diesel-electric submarine. D. It is a hydrographic survey ship. Explanation : India and Mauritius recently held a joint coordination meeting onboard INS Sarvekshak to commence the Joint Hydrographic Survey aimed at enhancing navigational safety in Mauritian waters. About INS Sarvekshak: It is an Indian Navy hydrographic survey ship. It is based at Southern Naval Command at Kochi. It is fitted with state-of-the-art survey equipment like Deep Sea Multi-Beam Echo Sounder, Side Scan Sonars and a fully automated digital surveying and processing system. In addition, the ship carries an integral Chetak helicopter, which would be extensively deployed during the survey. The ship is the second ship of the Darshak class of ships and has a complement of 15 officers and 175 sailors. In the past, INS Sarvekshak has also undertaken foreign cooperation surveys in Sri Lanka, Mauritius, Seychelles, Tanzania and Kenya. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/india-mauritius-hold-meeting-on-ins-sarvekshak-for-hydrographic-survey-124123000039_1.html Q4. You did not attempt this question Consider the following statements: 1. It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. 2. It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh surrounded by the forests of the Nallamala Hills. 3. It is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas. The above statements correctly describe which one of the following temples? A. Mahakaleshwar Temple B. Omkareshwar Temple C. Srisailam Temple D. Somnath Temple Explanation : The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently made a significant discovery at the Srisailam Temple, uncovering several copper plates and other ancient inscriptions in the temple's Ghantamandapam. About Srisailam Temple: Srisailam Temple, or Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple, is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, worshipped here in the form of Mallikarjuna Swamy. It is located at Srisailam in the state of Andhra Pradesh. It is surrounded by the forests of the Nallamala Hills, overlooking the pristine waters of the Krishna River. According to Hindu mythology, the temple is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas, divine manifestations of Lord Shiva spread across India. The Goddess Shakti is worshipped as Bramarambha in the temple and has a shrine dedicated to her. This ancient temple built in the Dravidian style with lofty towers and sprawling courtyards is one of the finest specimens of Vijayanagara architecture. Though the exact origins of the temple are not available, the Satavahanas of the 2nd century AD have referred to it. The Kakatiyas and the Vijayanagara kings have made several endowments here. The unique feature of this temple is the combination of Jyothirlingam and Mahasakthi (in the form of Bhramarambika) in one campus, which is very rare and only one of its kind. The great religious leader Aadi Sankara is said to have visited this shrine and composed his immortal Sivananda Lahiri here. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/asi-uncovers-ancient-copper-plates-gold-coins-and-inscriptions-at-srisailam-temple/articleshow/116775358.cms Q5. You did not attempt this question Consider the following statements regarding Norovirus: 1. It is a common and highly contagious virus that causes inflammation in the stomach and intestines. 2. No vaccines are currently available to prevent norovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : A sharp increase in norovirus outbreaks has been reported in the US this winter. About Norovirus: Norovirus is a common and highly contagious virus that causes inflammation in the stomach and intestines, a condition known as gastroenteritis. It is also sometimes referred to as the ‘stomach flu’ or the ‘winter vomiting bug’. People of all ages can get infected and sick with norovirus, which spreads very easily and quickly. These viruses are responsible for about 90% of viral gastroenteritis outbreaks and close to 50% of cases across the world. You can get norovirus illness many times in your life because there are many different types of noroviruses. Transmission: They are commonly spread through food or water that is contaminated during preparation or through contaminated surfaces. Noroviruses can also spread through close contact with a person who has a norovirus infection. Symptoms: The initial symptoms of norovirus are vomiting and/or diarrhoea, which show up one or two days after exposure to the virus. Patients also feel nauseous, and suffer from abdominal pain, fever, headaches and body aches. In extreme cases, loss of fluids could lead to dehydration. Treatment: No vaccines are currently available to prevent norovirus. Treatment for the infection focuses on relieving your symptoms. It is important to maintain hydration in the acute phase. In extreme cases, patients have to be administered rehydration fluids intravenously. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.livemint.com/news/us-news/norovirus-surge-in-the-us-symptoms-transmission-whos-at-risk-preventive-measures-11735474306884.html Q6. You did not attempt this question Consider the following statements regarding the World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES): 1. India will host the first-ever WAVES global summit covering the entire gamut of the Media and Entertainment industry. 2. It aims to empower global Media & Entertainment leaders with exclusive investment opportunities through the premiere platform of WAVES. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : Recently, the Prime Minister has said that India will host the World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES) for the first time in February 2025. About World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit: WAVES would be the first-ever global summit covering the entire gamut of Media and Entertainment industry. The event will bring together industry leaders, stakeholders, and innovators to discuss prospects and challenges, promote trade to India, and influence the sector's future. The Summit will also highlight India's advancements in animation, gaming, entertainment technology and regional and mainstream cinema. About WAVES India: Vision: To position India as an unparalleled global powerhouse in the dynamic Media & Entertainment landscape while setting new standards of creativity, innovation, and influence worldwide. Mission: Empower global Media & Entertainment leaders with exclusive investment opportunities through the premiere platform of WAVES. Objectives: Position WAVES as a platform to provoke ideas, fuel conversations, facilitate knowledge exchange and engage in meaningful collaborations with M&E industry leaders from across the globe. To drive the country's Creative Economy through IP Creation for India & for the World. To position India as a business-friendly investment destination. To develop India’s M&E infrastructure and build the capacity of the industry to ensure a skilled workforce for global needs. To embrace and adapt to new trends, technology and transformations in the M&E landscape. Hence option c is the correct answer. India to host first WAVES summit in February News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-to-host-world-audio-visual-entertainment-summit-waves-for-first-time-in-2025/ Q7. You did not attempt this question With reference to the Space Docking Experiment (SpaDeX), consider the following statements: 1. It aims to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for rendezvous, docking and undocking of two small spacecraft. 2. India will be the first country in the world to achieve this feat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is set to launch its year-end mission, "Space Docking Experiment" (SpaDeX), today from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR in Sriharikota. About “Space Docking Experiment" (SpaDeX): The primary objective of the SpaDeX mission is to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for rendezvous, docking and undocking of two small spacecraft. Secondary objectives include: Demonstration of the transfer of electric power between the docked spacecraft, which is essential for future applications such as in-space robotics, Composite spacecraft control, and Payload operations after undocking. Two small spacecraft- SDX01 (the Chaser) and SDX02 (the Target) will be docked in a 476-km low-Earth circular orbit. Weight of two satellites: Approximately 220 kg each. Launch Vehicle: PSLV- C60 The indigenous technology used for this mission is called the "Bharatiya Docking System". Significance: It will make India the fourth country after USA, Russia and China in the world to achieve the feat. SpaDEx mission is expected to be a stepping stone for India’s future endeavours in space exploration which include getting rocks and soil from the moon on Earth, the proposed Bharatiya Antariksha Station and landing an astronaut on the lunar surface. Hence only statement 1 is correct. ISRO PSLV-C60 Spadex to launch today News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/isro-to-launch-its-spadex-mission-tomorrow/articleshow/116764479.cms?from=mdr Q8. You did not attempt this question Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following States? A. Manipur B. Assam C. Sikkim D. Arunachal Pradesh Explanation : Recently, Assam has introduced Anti-Depredation Squads (ADS) in areas surrounding the Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in Morigaon. About Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary: Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the east region of Guwahati, Assam. It was established in 1998 with a total area of 48.81 square kilometres. The entire region around the sanctuary is a part of the Brahmaputra flood plains. The Sanctuary consists of the Rajamayong Reserve Forest and Pobitora Reserve Forest. It surrounds a number of small hills such as Kasasila hills, Hatimuria hill, Boha hill, Kardia hill, Govardan hill, Panbari hill etc. It is known for holding the highest density of Greater One Horned Rhinoceros in the country. Pobitora also holds the distinction of being the source population of the Indian Rhinoceros Vision, 2020 (IRV), Eight Rhinos were translocated from Pobitora Wild life Sanctuary and introduced into Manas National Park. Fauna: The Grasslands of Pobitora offer sightings of the Greater One Horned Rhinoceros, Wild Water Buffalo, Monitor Lizard, Wild Boar etc. Flora: 72% of Pabitora consists of wet savannah of Arundo donax, Erianthus ravennae, Phragmites karka, Imperata cylindrica, and Saccharum spp. Water hyacinth (Eichornia crassipes) is a major problem, especially to waterfowl, as it forms thick mats on the water surface. Hence option b is the correct answer. Assam’s Innovative Initiative to Mitigate Human-Wildlife Conflict Near Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary News: https://www.sentinelassam.com/north-east-india-news/assam-news/assams-innovative-initiative-to-mitigate-human-wildlife-conflict-near-pobitora-wildlife-sanctuary Q9. You did not attempt this question Which of the following are eligible for the Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme? 1. Candidates aged between 21 and 24 years and not engaged in full-time employment 2. Individuals who have completed at least class 10 or higher 3. Post-graduates Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Explanation : The Union Corporate Affairs Ministry said in a release that the pilot scheme of the Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme received approximately 6.21 lakh applications against 1.27 lakh opportunities. About PM internship scheme: PM Internship Scheme is a remarkable initiative launched by the Indian government, designed to provide valuable internship opportunities for the youth of India. It aims to bridge the gap between academic learning and real-world experience by offering internships across the top 500 companies. The pilot phase targets 1.25 lakh youth, with a five-year goal to facilitate internships for one crore young individuals. Through this Scheme, youth will gain exposure to real-life business environment, across varied professions and employment opportunities. Under this scheme, interns will be provided a monthly financial assistance of Rs 5,000 for 12 months and a one-time grant of Rs 6,000. Who is eligible for the scheme? Candidates aged between 21 and 24 years and who are not engaged in full-time employment. Internships are available to those who have passed class 10 or higher. Individuals from families with government jobs are excluded. It is not open to post-graduates. A candidate who graduated from premier institutes such as IIT, IIM, or IISER, and those who have CA, or CMA qualifications would not be eligible to apply for this internship Anyone from a household that includes a person who earned an income of Rs.8 lakh or more in 2023-24, will not be eligible. Hence option a is the correct answer. PM Internship Scheme: 6.21 lakh applications received for 1.27 lakh opportunities News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/621-lakh-applications-for-127-lakh-opportunities-under-pm-internship-scheme/article69040726.ece Q10. You did not attempt this question Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal: 1. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. 2. It is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the case. 3. New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal. How many of the above statements are correct? A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None Explanation : The National Green Tribunal has sought a response from the Central Pollution Control Board and Jaipur's District Magistrate in a matter related to several students getting hospitalised after a suspected gas leak in the Rajasthan capital. About National Green Tribunal: The National Green Tribunal was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the case. Locations: New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other four place of sitting of the Tribunal. Composition of NGT: The Tribunal comprises: Chairperson: A retired Supreme Court judge. Judicial members: Retired High Court judges. Expert members: Professionals with at least 15 years of experience in fields related to environment or forest conservation. Hence option c is the correct answer. NGT issues notice to authorities over suspected gas leak in Jaipur News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ngt-issues-notice-to-authorities-over-suspected-gas-leak-in-jaipur/article69039391.ece

Answer 343

1 only Explanation : Turkey has successfully tested the firing of the supersonic missile UAV-122 from the Bayraktar Akinci drone. About Bayraktar Akinci: It is a long-endurance Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle (UCAV) developed by Turkish drone manufacturer Baykar. It has been designed to perform various operations supporting fighter jets. It is capable of performing air-to-ground and air-to-air attack missions. Features: The combat drone has a length of 12.2 m, a height of 4.1 m, and a wingspan of 20 m. It stands out for its payload capacity of up to 1,500 kilograms, flight range of 25 hours, and range of 7,500 km. It is equipped with dual satellite communication systems, air-to-air radar, electronic support systems, collision avoidance radar, and synthetic aperture radar. It is equipped with a triple-redundant flight control system. The dual artificial intelligence (AI)-powered avionics system integrated into the platform helps in improving signal processing, sensor fusion and situational awareness in real-time. The UCAV will be fitted with different weapon payloads such as laser-guided smart munitions, missiles, and long-range stand-off weapons. It is also the first drone capable of launching an Air-Launched Cruise Missile (ALCM). Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.india.com/news/world/akinci-drone-of-turkey-stuns-everyone-hits-supersonic-missile-on-target-from-air-tension-for-india-due-to-pakistan-bayraktar-ankara-7501424/

Answer 344

It is a hydrographic survey ship. Explanation : India and Mauritius recently held a joint coordination meeting onboard INS Sarvekshak to commence the Joint Hydrographic Survey aimed at enhancing navigational safety in Mauritian waters. About INS Sarvekshak: It is an Indian Navy hydrographic survey ship. It is based at Southern Naval Command at Kochi. It is fitted with state-of-the-art survey equipment like Deep Sea Multi-Beam Echo Sounder, Side Scan Sonars and a fully automated digital surveying and processing system. In addition, the ship carries an integral Chetak helicopter, which would be extensively deployed during the survey. The ship is the second ship of the Darshak class of ships and has a complement of 15 officers and 175 sailors. In the past, INS Sarvekshak has also undertaken foreign cooperation surveys in Sri Lanka, Mauritius, Seychelles, Tanzania and Kenya. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/external-affairs-defence-security/news/india-mauritius-hold-meeting-on-ins-sarvekshak-for-hydrographic-survey-124123000039_1.html

Answer 345

Srisailam Temple Explanation : The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently made a significant discovery at the Srisailam Temple, uncovering several copper plates and other ancient inscriptions in the temple's Ghantamandapam. About Srisailam Temple: Srisailam Temple, or Sri Bhramaramba Mallikarjuna Swamy Temple, is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, worshipped here in the form of Mallikarjuna Swamy. It is located at Srisailam in the state of Andhra Pradesh. It is surrounded by the forests of the Nallamala Hills, overlooking the pristine waters of the Krishna River. According to Hindu mythology, the temple is one of the 12 Jyotirlingas, divine manifestations of Lord Shiva spread across India. The Goddess Shakti is worshipped as Bramarambha in the temple and has a shrine dedicated to her. This ancient temple built in the Dravidian style with lofty towers and sprawling courtyards is one of the finest specimens of Vijayanagara architecture. Though the exact origins of the temple are not available, the Satavahanas of the 2nd century AD have referred to it. The Kakatiyas and the Vijayanagara kings have made several endowments here. The unique feature of this temple is the combination of Jyothirlingam and Mahasakthi (in the form of Bhramarambika) in one campus, which is very rare and only one of its kind. The great religious leader Aadi Sankara is said to have visited this shrine and composed his immortal Sivananda Lahiri here. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/hyderabad/asi-uncovers-ancient-copper-plates-gold-coins-and-ins

Answer 346

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A sharp increase in norovirus outbreaks has been reported in the US this winter. About Norovirus: Norovirus is a common and highly contagious virus that causes inflammation in the stomach and intestines, a condition known as gastroenteritis. It is also sometimes referred to as the ‘stomach flu’ or the ‘winter vomiting bug’. People of all ages can get infected and sick with norovirus, which spreads very easily and quickly. These viruses are responsible for about 90% of viral gastroenteritis outbreaks and close to 50% of cases across the world. You can get norovirus illness many times in your life because there are many different types of noroviruses. Transmission: They are commonly spread through food or water that is contaminated during preparation or through contaminated surfaces. Noroviruses can also spread through close contact with a person who has a norovirus infection. Symptoms: The initial symptoms of norovirus are vomiting and/or diarrhoea, which show up one or two days after exposure to the virus. Patients also feel nauseous, and suffer from abdominal pain, fever, headaches and body aches. In extreme cases, loss of fluids could lead to dehydration. Treatment: No vaccines are currently available to prevent norovirus. Treatment for the infection focuses on relieving your symptoms. It is important to maintain hydration in the acute phase. In extreme cases, patients have to be administered rehydration fluids intravenously. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.livemint.com/news/us-news/norovirus-surge-in-the-us-symptoms-transmission-whos-at-risk-preventive-measures-11735474306884.html

Answer 347

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Recently, the Prime Minister has said that India will host the World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit (WAVES) for the first time in February 2025. About World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit: WAVES would be the first-ever global summit covering the entire gamut of Media and Entertainment industry. The event will bring together industry leaders, stakeholders, and innovators to discuss prospects and challenges, promote trade to India, and influence the sector's future. The Summit will also highlight India's advancements in animation, gaming, entertainment technology and regional and mainstream cinema. About WAVES India: Vision: To position India as an unparalleled global powerhouse in the dynamic Media & Entertainment landscape while setting new standards of creativity, innovation, and influence worldwide. Mission: Empower global Media & Entertainment leaders with exclusive investment opportunities through the premiere platform of WAVES. Objectives: Position WAVES as a platform to provoke ideas, fuel conversations, facilitate knowledge exchange and engage in meaningful collaborations with M&E industry leaders from across the globe. To drive the country's Creative Economy through IP Creation for India & for the World. To position India as a business-friendly investment destination. To develop India’s M&E infrastructure and build the capacity of the industry to ensure a skilled workforce for global needs. To embrace and adapt to new trends, technology and transformations in the M&E landscape. Hence option c is the correct answer. India to host first WAVES summit in February News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-to-host-world-audio-visual-entertainment-summit-waves-for-first-time-in-202

Answer 348

1 only Explanation : The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is set to launch its year-end mission, "Space Docking Experiment" (SpaDeX), today from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR in Sriharikota. About “Space Docking Experiment" (SpaDeX): The primary objective of the SpaDeX mission is to develop and demonstrate the technology needed for rendezvous, docking and undocking of two small spacecraft. Secondary objectives include: Demonstration of the transfer of electric power between the docked spacecraft, which is essential for future applications such as in-space robotics, Composite spacecraft control, and Payload operations after undocking. Two small spacecraft- SDX01 (the Chaser) and SDX02 (the Target) will be docked in a 476-km low-Earth circular orbit. Weight of two satellites: Approximately 220 kg each. Launch Vehicle: PSLV- C60 The indigenous technology used for this mission is called the "Bharatiya Docking System". Significance: It will make India the fourth country after USA, Russia and China in the world to achieve the feat. SpaDEx mission is expected to be a stepping stone for India’s future endeavours in space exploration which include getting rocks and soil from the moon on Earth, the proposed Bharatiya Antariksha Station and landing an astronaut on the lunar surface. Hence only statement 1 is correct. ISRO PSLV-C60 Spadex to launch today News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/isro-to-launch-its-spadex-mission-tomorrow/articleshow/116764479.cms?from=mdr

Answer 349

Assam Explanation : Recently, Assam has introduced Anti-Depredation Squads (ADS) in areas surrounding the Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary in Morigaon. About Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary: Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the east region of Guwahati, Assam. It was established in 1998 with a total area of 48.81 square kilometres. The entire region around the sanctuary is a part of the Brahmaputra flood plains. The Sanctuary consists of the Rajamayong Reserve Forest and Pobitora Reserve Forest. It surrounds a number of small hills such as Kasasila hills, Hatimuria hill, Boha hill, Kardia hill, Govardan hill, Panbari hill etc. It is known for holding the highest density of Greater One Horned Rhinoceros in the country. Pobitora also holds the distinction of being the source population of the Indian Rhinoceros Vision, 2020 (IRV), Eight Rhinos were translocated from Pobitora Wild life Sanctuary and introduced into Manas National Park. Fauna: The Grasslands of Pobitora offer sightings of the Greater One Horned Rhinoceros, Wild Water Buffalo, Monitor Lizard, Wild Boar etc. Flora: 72% of Pabitora consists of wet savannah of Arundo donax, Erianthus ravennae, Phragmites karka, Imperata cylindrica, and Saccharum spp. Water hyacinth (Eichornia crassipes) is a major problem, especially to waterfowl, as it forms thick mats on the water surface. Hence option b is the correct answer. Assam’s Innovative Initiative to Mitigate Human-Wildlife Conflict Near Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary News: https://www.sentinelassam.com/north-east-india-news/assam-news/assams-innovative-initiative-to-mitigate-human-wildlife-conflict-near-pobitora-wildlife-sanctuary

Answer 350

1 and 2 only Explanation : The Union Corporate Affairs Ministry said in a release that the pilot scheme of the Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme received approximately 6.21 lakh applications against 1.27 lakh opportunities. About PM internship scheme: PM Internship Scheme is a remarkable initiative launched by the Indian government, designed to provide valuable internship opportunities for the youth of India. It aims to bridge the gap between academic learning and real-world experience by offering internships across the top 500 companies. The pilot phase targets 1.25 lakh youth, with a five-year goal to facilitate internships for one crore young individuals. Through this Scheme, youth will gain exposure to real-life business environment, across varied professions and employment opportunities. Under this scheme, interns will be provided a monthly financial assistance of Rs 5,000 for 12 months and a one-time grant of Rs 6,000. Who is eligible for the scheme? Candidates aged between 21 and 24 years and who are not engaged in full-time employment. Internships are available to those who have passed class 10 or higher. Individuals from families with government jobs are excluded. It is not open to post-graduates. A candidate who graduated from premier institutes such as IIT, IIM, or IISER, and those who have CA, or CMA qualifications would not be eligible to apply for this internship Anyone from a household that includes a person who earned an income of Rs.8 lakh or more in 2023-24, will not be eligible. Hence option a is the correct answer. PM Internship Scheme: 6.21 lakh applications received for 1.27 lakh opportunities News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/621-lakh-applications-for-127-lakh-opportunities-under-pm-internship-scheme/article69040726.ece

Answer 351

All three Explanation : The National Green Tribunal has sought a response from the Central Pollution Control Board and Jaipur's District Magistrate in a matter related to several students getting hospitalised after a suspected gas leak in the Rajasthan capital. About National Green Tribunal: The National Green Tribunal was established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the case. Locations: New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other four place of sitting of the Tribunal. Composition of NGT: The Tribunal comprises: Chairperson: A retired Supreme Court judge. Judicial members: Retired High Court judges. Expert members: Professionals with at least 15 years of experience in fields related to environment or forest conservation. Hence option c is the correct answer. NGT issues notice to authorities over suspected gas leak in Jaipur News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ngt-issues-notice-to-authorities-over-suspected-gas-leak-in-jaipur/article69039391.ece

Answer 352

1, 2 and 4 only Explanation : Cyclone Fengal made landfall near Puducherry, bringing heavy rainfall and gusty winds to Tamil Nadu's coastal belt. This is the second cyclone to impact India’s east coast in two months after Cyclone Dana. Cyclones typically form over warm ocean waters between 5° and 30° latitude. So, statement 1 is correct. In the Southern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate clockwise due to the Coriolis effect. So, statement 2 is correct. The eye of a cyclone has the lowest wind speeds and lowest atmospheric pressure. So, statement 3 is not correct. Cyclones lose their energy when they move over land or colder waters. So, statement 4 is correct.

Answer 353

1 and 4 only Explanation : Bangladesh is bordered by India to the west, north, and east, and shares a southeastern border with Myanmar. So, statement 1 is correct. Bay of Bengal lies to the south of Bangladesh, not the west. So, statement 2 is not correct. Bangladesh has a tropical climate, but it is not arid; it is largely humid with heavy rainfall. So, statement 3 is not correct. Bangladesh is home to the Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta, one of the largest river deltas in the world. So, statement 4 is correct.

Answer 354

1, 2, 3, and 4 Explanation : Ajmer Sharif Dargah is the tomb of Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti, located in Ajmer, Rajasthan. So, statement 1 is correct. The Dargah showcases Indo-Saracenic architecture, blending Islamic, Rajput, and Mughal architectural styles. So, statement 2 is correct. The Dargah includes a marble dome, intricately carved arches, and a tank for ceremonial bathing in the courtyard. So, statement 3 is correct. The Dargah was expanded and made more prominent during the reign of Emperor Akbar, who held Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti in high regard. So, statement 4 is correct.

Answer 355

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : PM Modi attended the 59th All India Conference of Director Generals/ Inspector Generals of Police at Bhubaneswar on December 1. The All India Conference of DGP/IGP is held annually to discuss key law enforcement issues. The conference is chaired by the Union Home Minister, focusing on national security, police strategies, and emerging challenges. So, statement 1 is correct. It provides a platform for state police chiefs to discuss their performance and suggest reforms. So, statement 2 is correct.

Answer 356

1 and 2 only

Answer 357

Countries subject to U.S. sanctions have increasingly sought to de-dollarize their economies by adopting local currencies or other foreign currencies for trade and investment. Explanation : Recently, US President-elect Donald Trump has threatened the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) with 100% tariffs if they create a new currency or support an alternative to the US dollar as the global reserve currency. While the U.S. dollar remains dominant in global trade, there has been a shift toward seeking alternatives like the euro and yuan, especially in countries facing U.S. sanctions. Countries targeted by U.S. sanctions have pursued de-dollarization strategies to reduce their reliance on the U.S. dollar, using other currencies for trade and investment to avoid exposure to financial sanctions. While the U.S. dollar's weaponization strengthens its position, it has also led to global efforts to reduce reliance on it, rather than decreasing trade among developing nations. While new financial institutions have emerged, they are still in their early stages and have not fully bypassed U.S. financial oversight. Global trade is still largely influenced by the dollar.

Answer 358

2 and 3 only

Answer 359

A terminally ill patient, experiencing unbearable pain and with no hope of recovery, requests a physician to administer a lethal dose of medication to end their life peacefully. The physician refuses due to legal prohibitions on euthanasia in the country. Explanation : The Terminally Ill Adults (End of Life) Bill was introduced in the UK to provide terminally ill patients with the option to seek assistance to end their lives. The Bill addresses ethical and humanitarian concerns for patients with no hope of recovery, ensuring dignity in their final days. Option (a) illustrates ethical concerns about physician involvement in assisted dying and the legal boundaries, as assisted dying is illegal in many places, and physicians may face legal consequences for complying with such a request.

Answer 360

1, 3, and 4 only Explanation : Akal Takht is located in Amritsar, Punjab, and is one of the five Takhts in Sikhism. Other four takhts are: Takht Sri Keshgarh Sahib; Takht Sri Damdama Sahib; Takht Sri Patna Sahib; Takht Sri Hazur Sahib. So, statement 1 is correct. In 1606, Sri Guru Hargobind Singh established the first and the most important one of the Panj Takht 'Akal Takht' near Sri Harmandar Sahib (Golden Temple) at Amritsar. So, statement 2 is not correct. Akal Takht holds the authority to issue hukamnamas (religious decrees) and interpret Sikh religious laws. So, statement 3 is correct. Akal Takht is located within the Golden Temple complex. So, statement 4 is correct.

Answer 361

None of the above Explanation : Recently, the government officially withdrew the windfall gains tax on domestic crude oil production and fuel exports (diesel, petrol, and ATF). The levy, introduced 30 months ago during a surge in international crude oil and fuel prices following Russia's invasion of Ukraine, aimed to address global energy turmoil and ensure domestic fuel availability. A windfall tax is imposed on companies that have seen their profits extraordinarily not because of any clever investment decision or an increase in efficiency or innovation, but simply because of favourable market conditions.

Answer 362

DGCA functions under the Ministry of Defence and is primarily concerned with military aviation in India.

Answer 363

1, 3, and 4 only Explanation : Odisha government has blamed the West Bengal government for creating an artificial scarcity of potatoes. Potatoes grow best in a cool climate with temperatures between 15°C and 20°C, as this promotes healthy tuber development. So, statement 1 is correct. While potatoes need moderate rainfall (around 800 to 1,200 mm annually), excessive rainfall or high humidity is not ideal, as it can lead to diseases like blight. So, statement 2 is not correct. Potatoes thrive in well-drained, sandy loam or loamy soils with a slightly acidic to neutral pH (5.5 to 6.5). So, statement 3 is correct. Potatoes are sensitive to frost, and frost damage can severely affect the crop, so it is important to avoid planting in frost-prone areas. So, statement 4 is correct.

Answer 364

The French President is elected through a two-round system, where a candidate must receive more than 50% of the votes to win. Explanation: The French Presidential election uses a two-round system. If no candidate receives more than 50% of the vote in the first round, a second round is held between the top two candidates to determine the winner. The President is directly elected by the public through a popular vote, not by the National Assembly. The French presidential election is not based on proportional representation; instead, it uses a majority-based two-round system. France does not use the single transferable vote system for presidential elections.

Answer 365

It plays a significant role in seed dispersal, which helps maintain the health and diversity of the forests it inhabits. Explanation : The 25th Hornbill Festival in Nagaland is taking place amid debates on relaxing the 35-year-old Nagaland Liquor Total Prohibition (NLTP) Act, 1989. While hornbills are found in the rainforests of Africa and Southeast Asia, they are not solely known for their brightly colored bills. Their bills are used in communication and display, but they also have other notable behaviors. Although the hornbill is culturally significant, it is not the national bird of India. The Indian peafowl (peacock) holds this title. Hornbills are omnivores, feeding on fruits, small animals, and insects. Their diet is more varied than just leaves and flowers. Hornbills play an essential ecological role in seed dispersal, helping maintain the diversity and health of the ecosystems they inhabit.

Answer 366

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : A new study reveals that the Nicobarese are genetically close to South and Southeast Asians, particularly the Austroasiatic language-speaking Htin Mal communities in Thailand and Laos. The "Htin Mal" community is a population group residing in mainland Southeast Asia. So, statement 1 is correct. They are recognized for their distinct ethnic identity and genetic affinity with the Nicobarese people, an indigenous group from the Nicobar Islands. So, statement 2 is correct. The Htin Mal speak an Austroasiatic language, specifically belonging to the Khmuic branch, which further strengthens their connection to the Nicobarese. Although genetically similar to the Nicobarese, the Htin Mal have maintained a distinct ethnic identity, showing noticeable genetic drift from the Nicobarese population.

Answer 367

The shop owner unknowingly became a money mule, allowing criminals to use their account for illegal fund transfers. Explanation : RBI announced the creation of an AI-powered model named MuleHunter.AI to tackle the growing issue of digital fraud involving "mule" bank accounts. Developed by the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) in Bengaluru, the model aims to assist banks in identifying and managing fraudulent accounts effectively. A money mule is someone who allows their bank account to be used by criminals for moving illegal money, often unknowingly. In this case, the shop owner fell into this category.

Answer 368

Syria is bordered by Turkey to the north, Iraq to the east, Jordan to the south, and Lebanon to the west. Explanation : Syrian rebels toppled President Bashar al-Assad's regime in a swift offensive, forcing the leader to flee to Moscow, where he was granted asylum. Syria is located in the Middle East. To the north, it shares a border with Turkey. To the east, it borders Iraq. To the south, it shares borders with Jordan. To the west, it is bordered by Lebanon and has a coastline along the Mediterranean Sea.

Answer 369

The Vice President can be removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha with an effective majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha with a simple majority.

Answer 370

Promoting traditional fishing methods and subsistence coastal livelihoods. Explanation : The Sagarmala program focuses on reducing logistics costs to enhance trade competitiveness by improving port connectivity and operational efficiency. Development of industrial clusters and CEZs is a core component of the program to boost manufacturing and trade in coastal regions. Enhancing the capacity of inland waterways is a key focus to create multimodal transport systems and reduce dependence on road and rail transport. While the program indirectly benefits coastal livelihoods through economic growth, its primary focus is not on promoting traditional fishing methods or subsistence activities. Instead, it emphasizes large-scale infrastructure and industrial development.

Answer 371

1 and 3 only Explanation : The Union Health Ministry has urged states to classify snakebites as a notifiable disease, requiring both private and public hospitals to report cases. The Russell's viper, cobra, krait & Indian saw-scaled viper are the "Big Four" snakes responsible for the majority of snakebite deaths in India. So, statement 1 is correct. Antivenom is species-specific and works only against venomous snakes. It does not provide any benefit for bites by non-venomous snakes. So, statement 2 is not correct. Neurotoxicity (causing paralysis) is a hallmark feature of cobra and krait envenomation due to their neurotoxic venom. So, statement 3 is correct. Snakebite is a significant public health issue in India, but it is not officially listed as a notifiable disease under the National Health Mission as of now. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Answer 372

2, 3, and 4 only Explanation : The President exercises the power to grant pardons on the advice of the Council of Ministers, as per the established conventions of parliamentary democracy. So, statement 1 is not correct. The President's pardoning power is restricted to cases involving offenses against Union law, sentences of death, and cases under military or court-martial jurisdiction. So, statement 2 is correct. The power to pardon includes other forms of clemency such as commuting, remitting, reprieving, or suspending a sentence. So, statement 3 is correct. The President’s pardoning power does extend to cases of punishment under military law or court-martial jurisdiction. So, statement 4 is correct.

Answer 373

A 3D-printed or homemade firearm without a serial number, making it untraceable. Explanation : Ghost Guns are firearms that are often homemade, 3D-printed, or assembled from kits, and they lack serial numbers. This makes them untraceable by law enforcement agencies. These guns pose a significant regulatory and enforcement challenge because they are not subject to traditional firearm manufacturing and distribution controls.

Answer 374

2 and 3 only Explanation : The 2024 ‘World Malaria Report' has been released by the World Health Organisation (WHO). As per the report, India has made "significant progress" in reducing malaria incidence and mortality. Malaria in humans is caused by five species of Plasmodium parasites—P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale, and P. knowlesi. Thus, P. falciparum is not the only species. So, statement 1 is not correct. The Anopheles mosquito serves as both the vector (transmitting the parasite to humans) and the definitive host (where sexual reproduction of the parasite occurs). So, statement 2 is correct. The WHO's Global Technical Strategy for Malaria (2016–2030) sets a target of reducing malaria cases and deaths by at least 90% by 2030, working toward a malaria-free world. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 375

Maintain the religious character of places of worship as it existed on 15th August 1947. Explanation : The Supreme Court barred civil courts from registering fresh suits challenging the ownership or title of any place of worship and from ordering surveys of disputed religious sites until further orders. Pending suits were also restricted from issuing "effective" interim or final orders, including surveys, until the next hearing on February 17, 2025. The Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991 seeks to preserve the religious character of places of worship as it existed on 15th August 1947, except in the case of the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid dispute, which was specifically exempted from this Act. The Act prohibits the conversion of any place of worship and ensures the status quo regarding their religious character.

Answer 376

Sulfur dioxide (SO₂)

Answer 377

1 and 3 only Explanation : The Arctic region is commonly defined by the Arctic Circle, which is located at 66.5° North latitude. So, statement 1 is correct. The Arctic Council consists of Arctic states as members (e.g., Canada, Russia, USA, etc.), while non-Arctic countries can only participate as observers. So, statement 2 is not correct. Melting Arctic ice has indeed opened new shipping routes like the Northern Sea Route and increased access to natural resources such as oil and gas. So, statement 3 is correct. While traditional hunting and fishing remain important, many Arctic indigenous communities have diversified their livelihoods, including modern economic activities. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Answer 378

Only two Explanation : According to a study recently published in Lancet Planet Health, no one in India lives in areas where the yearly average pollution levels are below the levels recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO). The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, establishes the NAAQS in India. So, statement 1 is correct. The pollutants under NAAQS include PM10, PM2.5, NO₂, SO₂, O₃, carbon monoxide (CO), ammonia (NH₃), lead (Pb), benzene, Benzo-Pyrene, Arsenic and Nickel. So, statement 2 is correct. While NAAQS provides standards for air quality, they are less stringent compared to the WHO Air Quality Guidelines, which recommend much lower pollutant limits. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Answer 379

Only three Explanation : PM Modi proposed 11 resolutions which include upholding existing reservations for marginalised sections but strongly opposing any religion-based quota. The Preamble is considered part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, as was done in the 42nd Amendment (1976). So, statement 1 is correct. The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act (1951) to protect laws related to land reforms and other socio-economic measures from judicial review. So, statement 2 is correct The doctrine of basic structure was indeed propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) to ensure that certain fundamental aspects of the Constitution cannot be amended. So, statement 3 is correct. The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are not enforceable by courts, as they are non-justiciable in nature (Article 37). So, statement 4 is not correct.

Answer 380

1 and 3 only

Answer 381

To provide a less restrictive environment for prisoners who have demonstrated good behavior

Answer 382

1, 2 and 3 only

Answer 383

All three Explanation : The government introduced two Bills in the Lok Sabha to enable simultaneous elections: The Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill and the Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill. Constitution (129th Amendment) Bill aims to synchronize the terms of the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. On the other hand, the Consequential Amendment Bill aims to amend relevant laws for Union Territories and Delhi to facilitate simultaneous polls. Article 83 deals with the Duration of the Houses of Parliament, which is the term length of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Article 172 deals with the duration of state legislatures, including the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils. Article 327 provides for the power of Parliament to make laws concerning elections to the Houses of Parliament and the Legislature of a State.

Answer 384

Only two Explanation : Article 368 indeed deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution. So, statement 1 is correct. Article 368 does not provide for amendments by a simple majority. Amendments can be made through a special majority of both Houses of Parliament. So, statement 2 is not correct. Article 368 requires a special majority of Parliament for most amendments, and some amendments also require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. So, statement 3 is correct. The President does not have the power to veto an amendment made under Article 368, as the Constitution itself grants Parliament the power to amend it. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Answer 385

1 and 2 only Explanation : Indian oceanographers have achieved a historic feat by capturing an image of an active hydrothermal vent located 4,500 meters below the Indian Ocean. Hydrothermal vents are found in deep oceanic ridges where tectonic plates are moving apart, allowing seawater to seep into the Earth's crust and get heated. So, statement 1 is correct. These vents indeed release superheated water rich in minerals and gases, creating unique ecosystems that support organisms like tube worms, deep-sea shrimp and bacteria. So, statement 2 is correct. Hydrothermal vents are not primarily responsible for the formation of coral reefs. Coral reefs are typically formed in shallow, warm waters. So, statement 3 is not correct. Hydrothermal vents are generally found at depths of more than 1,000 meters, not less than 100 meters. So, statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 386

1, 3 and 4 only

Answer 387

Only three Explanation : The Supreme Court ruled that coconut oil should be classified as an edible oil and taxed at a lower GST rate of 5% instead of 18% for haircare products. The court based its decision on the predominant use of coconut oil as a cooking medium, particularly when packaged in small quantities. Coconut oil is rich in saturated fatty acids, with lauric acid being the predominant one. So, statement 1 is correct. ~90% of its fatty acid content is saturated, and the remaining 10% is composed of monounsaturated and polyunsaturated fatty acids Coconut oil is rich in saturated fats, not monounsaturated fats. Though saturated fats are considered unhealthy in large amounts, the unique composition of coconut oil (including lauric acid) is believed to have health benefits. So, statement 2 is not correct. Coconut oil is widely used in cooking, cosmetics, and traditional medicine due to its potential health benefits, such as moisturizing properties and antimicrobial effects. So, statement 3 is correct. Coconut oil has a high smoking point (about 350°F/175°C), making it suitable for high-temperature cooking, including frying. So, statement 4 is correct. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Answer 388

1, 2 and 4 only

Answer 389

All three Explanation : Sri Lanka is separated from India by the Gulf of Mannar and the Palk Strait, which lie between the southeastern coast of Tamil Nadu and the northern coast of Sri Lanka. So, statement 1 is correct. The latitudinal extent of Sri Lanka lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere. So, statement 2 is correct. The southernmost point of Sri Lanka, Dondra Head, is located closer to the Equator than the southernmost point of mainland India, Kanyakumari. So, statement 3 is correct.

Answer 390

1, 2 and 4 only

Answer 391

Zero-day exploit Explanation : Meta's WhatsApp secured a significant legal win as a US federal court found the Israeli firm NSO Group liable under federal and California laws for spyware attacks targeting around 1,400 devices. A phishing attack typically requires user interaction, such as clicking on a malicious link or entering credentials on a fake website. In this case, no user interaction (like clicking the link) occurred, ruling out phishing. Pegasus spyware leverages zero-day exploits, which are vulnerabilities unknown to the software vendor or public. In this scenario, Pegasus used an iMessage vulnerability to infiltrate the device without requiring the user to interact with the message (e.g., via a "zero-click" exploit). A drive-by download typically happens when a user visits a compromised website, leading to malware being downloaded. Since no website was visited, this method is unlikely. Keylogging malware records keystrokes but is not directly related to the method of attack described in this scenario.

Answer 392

Election Commission Explanation : While delivering a speech, Supreme Court Justice P S Narasimha said that fourth branch institutions should not be retirement homes for civil servants and judges. Fourth Branch Institutions are those that operate independently from the three traditional branches of government (executive, legislature, and judiciary) and are tasked with ensuring accountability, transparency, and adherence to democratic principles. The Election Commission is a Fourth Branch Institution as it operates independently to oversee free and fair elections, which is essential for the functioning of democracy. Parliament belongs to the legislative branch, not the fourth branch. The Ministry of Home Affairs is part of the executive branch and does not qualify as a Fourth Branch Institution. The Supreme Court is part of the judiciary branch, which is distinct from Fourth Branch Institutions.

Answer 393

The cost of servicing India’s external debt in rupee terms increases. Explanation : The Indian rupee has weakened against the US dollar, crossing the 85 mark. A declining rupee makes Indian exports more competitive in the global market because they become cheaper for foreign buyers. This may boost export earnings. A depreciating rupee typically increases the cost of imports, but India heavily depends on crude oil and other essential imports, which limits the scope of reducing imports. Hence, the trade deficit may persist or widen. When the rupee depreciates, India must pay more in rupee terms to service external debt (denominated in foreign currencies). This increases the debt servicing burden. While rupee depreciation can make Indian assets cheaper for foreign investors, it does not guarantee an immediate surge in foreign investments. Uncertainty caused by currency fluctuations might even deter investors.

Answer 394

The treaty facilitates the extradition of individuals involved in terrorism, organized crime and other serious offenses. Explanation : Bangladesh has formally requested India to extradite former Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina, who fled to India following massive protests that ended her 16-year rule. The treaty explicitly excludes political offenses from the scope of extradition. Individuals charged with political crimes are generally not extraditable under international norms. The treaty does not impose a blanket restriction on offenses punishable by less than 5 years of imprisonment. It typically focuses on serious crimes, but the specific threshold depends on mutual agreements and case circumstances. The India-Bangladesh Extradition Treaty, signed in 2013, primarily aims to facilitate the extradition of individuals involved in terrorism, organized crime, human trafficking, and other serious offenses that threaten the security of both nations. The treaty allows discretion to the requested country, meaning extradition is not automatic. The requested country may refuse extradition in certain cases, such as if the individual is likely to face persecution or unfair trial.

Answer 395

1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D Explanation : The 18th biennial State of Forest Report (ISFR-2023) highlights a marginal gain of 156 sq km in forest cover and a significant increase of 1,289 sq km in tree cover since 2021. Tropical Evergreen Forests thrive in regions with more than 200 cm of annual rainfall, such as the Western Ghats, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, and parts of Northeast India. Found in areas with 70-200 cm of rainfall, Tropical Deciduous Forests shed their leaves in dry seasons and are found in central India and the Deccan Plateau. Located in the Himalayan region, Montane Forests include coniferous trees such as pine, deodar, and fir. Found in coastal areas and river deltas, these forests include mangroves (e.g., Sundarbans) and are adapted to waterlogged conditions.

Answer 396

Mahatma Gandhi presided over the session, marking the only time he held the position of Congress president. Explanation : The Swaraj Party was formed in 1923, before the Belgaum Session. It was not a direct result of the 1924 Belgaum Session. The Nehru Report was adopted in 1928, and was part of the efforts for constitutional reforms. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920, not during the 1924 Belgaum Session. Mahatma Gandhi presided over the 1924 Congress session in the erstwhile Bombay state, marking the only time he held the position of Congress president.

Answer 397

1, 2 and 3 only Explanation : Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for the Ken-Betwa river-linking project in Madhya Pradesh’s Khajuraho. Sonar is a tributary of the Ken River. Dhasan is a major tributary of the Betwa River. Bearma is another important tributary of the Ken River. Jamni, however, is a tributary of the Betwa River, not the Ken River.

Answer 398

1, 3 and 4 only Explanation : OSA is caused by the collapse of the upper airway during sleep, which results in airflow obstruction and interruptions in breathing. So, statement 1 is correct. While snoring is a common symptom of OSA, it is not the only symptom. Other symptoms include excessive daytime sleepiness, gasping or choking during sleep, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. So, statement 2 is not correct. Risk factors for OSA include obesity, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, family history of the condition, and nasal congestion. So, statement 3 is correct. If left untreated, OSA can lead to serious health problems, such as hypertension, cardiovascular diseases, stroke. So, statement 4 is correct.

Answer 399

Only three Explanation : China has approved the construction of the world's largest hydropower dam on the lower reaches of the Yarlung Zangbo River (Brahmaputra) on the Tibetan plateau. The Brahmaputra River originates from the Angsi Glacier in the Kailash Range near Mansarovar Lake in Tibet. So, statement 1 is correct. In Tibet, the river is known as the Yarlung Tsangpo, where it flows eastward in a deep valley parallel to the Himalayas. So, statement 2 is correct. The river enters India through the Dihang Gorge in Arunachal Pradesh and is known as the Siang or Dihang River before merging with its tributaries. So, statement 3 is correct. However, after flowing through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam, the Brahmaputra does not flow through West Bengal. Instead, it directly enters Bangladesh. So, statement 4 is not correct.

Answer 400

1 and 2 only Explanation : The PM CARES Fund was established in 2020 as a public charitable trust to deal with emergencies like the COVID-19 pandemic and to provide relief for disaster situations. So, statement 1 is correct. Contributions to the PM CARES Fund qualify for 100% tax exemption under Section 80G of the Income Tax Act, encouraging donations. So, statement 2 is correct. The CAG does not audit the PM CARES Fund because it is a public charitable trust that is funded by voluntary contributions and not public funds. The accounts are audited by independent chartered accountants. So, statement 3 is not correct. The PM CARES Fund accepts voluntary contributions from individuals, corporates, and even foreign entities, but not from foreign governments, as per its policy. So, statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Answer 401

It is a financial monitoring tool developed to identify fraudulent bank accounts used in money mule schemes. Explanation : The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has established an eight-member committee to create a Framework for Responsible and Ethical Enablement of Artificial Intelligence (FREE-AI) in the financial sector. MuleHunter.ai is an AI-driven tool designed to detect fraudulent accounts used in money mule schemes, where individuals are recruited (knowingly or unknowingly) to transfer illicit funds for organized financial crimes. The tool analyzes transaction patterns, identifies anomalies, and aids financial institutions and law enforcement agencies in combating financial fraud effectively.

Answer 402

2 and 3 only Explanation : Cost-push inflation occurs due to rising production costs (e.g., higher wages, raw material prices) that lead to increased prices, not because of excess demand. The situation where demand exceeds supply is termed demand-pull inflation. So, statement 1 is not correct. Hyperinflation is a situation characterized by an extremely high and uncontrollable inflation rate, often exceeding 50% per month. So, statement 2 is correct. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is the primary measure of retail inflation in India, which tracks the price changes of a basket of consumer goods and services. So, statement 3 is correct. Deflation is the opposite of inflation but refers to a sustained decline in the general price level, not an increase. So, statement 4 is not correct. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.