April 2025 Flashcards

Question

Consider the following statements regarding North Sentinel Island: 1. It is one of the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. 2. It harbours one of the world's last secluded tribes — the Sentinelese. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer 1

2 only Explanation : A U.S. national was recently arrested in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands for allegedly entering the prohibited tribal reserve area of North Sentinel Island. About North Sentinel Island: It is one of the Andaman Islands - an archipelago in the Bay of Bengal - and part of the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is located west of the central cluster of the Andaman Islands. The island measures approximately 8 kilometers (5.0 mi) in length and 7 kilometers (4.3 mi) in width, covering an area of about 60 square kilometers (23 sq mi). The island is densely covered in tropical rainforest. It’s also circled by a shallow reef. It harbours one of the world's last secluded tribes — the Sentinelese. They are believed to be direct descendants of the first humans who migrated out of Africa around 60,000 years ago. The tribe has lived in voluntary isolation for thousands of years, fiercely resisting contact with the outside world. The island falls under the Andaman and Nicobar Protection of Aboriginal Tribes Act, 1956, making it illegal to approach closer than 5 nautical miles. According to a 2011 census effort, and based on anthropologists' estimates, there are probably somewhere between 80 and 150 people on North Sentinel Island, although it could be as many as 500 or as few as 15. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andaman-and-nicobar-islands/us-national-arrested-for-entering-restricted-island-in-andamans/article69404783.ece

Answer 2

Kerala Explanation : A new species of damselfly, Euphaea wayanadensis, has been discovered in the Wayanad region of the Western Ghats, Kerala. This discovery adds to Kerala’s 191st recorded odonate species and the 223rd odonate species documented from the Western Ghats. The findings were published in the peer-reviewed journal ENTOMON. About Euphaea wayanadensis Classification: Belongs to the family Euphaeidae. First sightings: Initially observed in 2013 at the Kalindi River, Thirunelli, in Wayanad district, Kerala. Further sightings occurred from 2013 to 2019 in Wayanad, followed by more observations from 2019 to 2023 in Aralam (Kannur, Kerala) and the western slopes of Coorg (Karnataka). Identification challenges: Initially misidentified as Euphaea pseudodispar, a species from Maharashtra. Later confirmed as a distinct species through detailed morphological study and genetic analysis. Key Morphological Features Distinctive hind wing: Features a longer black patch compared to related species. Striking colouration: Males display broader and uninterrupted humeral and antehumeral stripes. Unique genital structure: The male genital vesicle exhibits structural traits that differ from closely related species. Habitat and Distribution Prefers fast-flowing streams with rocky beds and aquatic vegetation. Thrives in evergreen and semi-evergreen forest regions along stream banks. Active throughout the year, except in the dry seasons of March and April. Shows highly restricted distribution, making it vulnerable to habitat loss and climate change. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/new-damselfly-species-discovered-in-wayanad/article69404679.ece#:~:text=A%20group%20of%20researchers%20have,be%20documented%20from%20the%20Ghats.

Answer 3

India and Sri Lanka Explanation : The Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly has once again unanimously adopted a resolution urging the Union government to retrieve Katchatheevu from Sri Lanka. About Katchatheevu Islands Location: Katchatheevu is a 285-acre uninhabited island situated in the Palk Strait between India and Sri Lanka. It is 33 km northeast of Rameswaram (India) and 62 km southwest of Jaffna (Sri Lanka). Strategic Importance: Acts as a maritime boundary marker between India and Sri Lanka. Fisheries-rich zone, crucial for Tamil Nadu’s fishing economy. St. Anthony’s Church is a place of religious significance for fishermen of both nations. Historical Ownership of Katchatheevu It was formed due to a volcanic eruption in the 14th century. Initially ruled by the Jaffna kingdom (Sri Lanka), later controlled by the Ramnad Zamindari under the Nayak dynasty (Madurai). British India and Sri Lanka both claimed the island until the 1974 agreement settled sovereignty in Sri Lanka’s favor. International Maritime Boundary Line (IMBL) The IMBL between India and Sri Lanka was delineated in 1974 under the Indo-Sri Lankan maritime boundary agreement. Established based on UNCLOS (United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea). Maritime boundaries are often defined by the equidistance principle, ensuring a medial line equidistant from both nations' coasts. The IMBL determines Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs), Territorial waters and Other maritime zones. The 1974 agreement adjusted the equidistant line, leading to Katchatheevu falling under Sri Lanka's sovereignty. Other Maritime Disputes With Pakistan: Sir Creek Dispute: A boundary dispute over the demarcation of a 96 km estuary in Gujarat. With Bangladesh: New Moore Island (South Talpatti dispute): Permanently settled in Bangladesh’s favour after a 2014 ruling by the Permanent Court of Arbitration. Hence option b is the correct answer. News:T.N. Assembly unanimously adopts resolution on Katchatheevu retrieval from Sri Lanka - The Hindu

Answer 4

ChaSTE Explanation : Chandrayaan-3’s Surface Thermophysical Experiment (ChaSTE) became the first instrument to measure in situ temperatures near the moon’s south pole. It successfully penetrated lunar soil and deployed a thermal probe, achieving what two previous missions—ESA’s Philae (2014) and NASA’s InSight HP3 (2018)—could not. This experiment provided crucial data on lunar surface temperatures, strengthening evidence of water ice deposits. How ChaSTE Works ChaSTE’s thermal probe was integrated into the Vikram lander of Chandrayaan-3, which landed on August 23, 2023. The probe is equipped with 10 temperature sensors placed 1 cm apart along its length, near the nose-tip. It uses a rotation-based deployment mechanism instead of a hammering device, which played a crucial role in its success. The motor rotates, pushing the probe downward until the tip touches the Moon’s surface. As the probe continues to penetrate deeper, the increasing resistance from the lunar soil helps determine how far it has descended. ChaSTE successfully reached a depth of 10 cm in the Moon’s regolith, where it continuously monitored temperature variations until September 2, 2023. The final temperature readings from the deep lunar soil confirmed thermal properties essential for lunar exploration. Comparisons with Previous Missions ESA’s Philae lander (2014) on Comet 67P: It carried the MUPUS instrument to measure surface and subsurface temperatures. Failed due to an awkward landing, preventing the probe from being deployed properly. NASA’s InSight lander (2018) on Mars: Included the Heat Flow and Physical Properties Package (HP3), featuring a self-hammering nail nicknamed "The Mole" designed to penetrate 5 meters underground. Encountered low friction in Martian sand, preventing it from burrowing deep enough to collect meaningful temperature data. The temperature sensors were attached to a tether, not on the mole itself, which made data collection impossible. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/chandrayaan-3-chaste-instrument-first-successful-thermal-probe-celestial-body/article69403476.ece

Answer 5

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Uttar Pradesh Jal Nigam confirmed the presence of excessive fluoride in 120 hamlets, affecting nearly 2 lakh people. Some villages recorded fluoride levels of 2 mg/L or more, exceeding the safe limit of 1-1.5 mg/L. What is Fluoride? Fluoride is a naturally occurring element found in groundwater. The national drinking water limit for fluoride is 1.50 mg/L. Excessive fluoride consumption can cause skeletal fluorosis, accelerate dental decay, and pose serious health risks, particularly for children. States with High Fluoride Contamination Rajasthan has the highest fluoride contamination in India. Other affected states include Telangana, western Andhra Pradesh, and eastern Karnataka. Fluoride levels spike during the dry, summer pre-monsoon months, with arid regions in western India showing higher contamination than humid areas. Other Groundwater Contaminants in India: Apart from fluoride, India's groundwater is also contaminated with several other harmful elements: Arsenic Contamination: Found in West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, covering 90% of arsenic contamination cases in India. Uranium Contamination: Found in 12 states, including Punjab. Iron Contamination: Severe in states like Rajasthan, Jharkhand, and Assam. Other contaminants, such as antimony, cadmium, copper, and barium, also pose risks, leading to toxicity, hypertension, and liver and kidney damage. Legislative and Policy Measures to Address Contamination Several laws and initiatives have been introduced to control water contamination: Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 Environment Protection Act, 1986 The Water Cess Act, 1977 Additionally, various government schemes focus on groundwater recharge and conservation: Prime Minister Krishi Sinchayee Yojana – Watershed Development Atal Bhujal Yojana (focused on sustainable groundwater management) Role of the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) CGWA was established under Section 3(3) of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 to regulate groundwater resources. Major Functions of CGWA: Regulating and managing groundwater resources to prevent over-extraction. Issuing necessary regulatory directions for conservation and usage. Exercising powers under Section 4 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 to appoint officers for enforcement. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/long-reads/sonbhadra-groundwater-excess-fluoride-residents-sicker-govt-report-9916047/

Answer 6

Myanmar Explanation : The recent Myanmar earthquake occurred due to strike-slip faulting along the Sagaing Fault, which separates the Indian Plate from the Eurasian Plate. What is the Sagaing Fault? The Sagaing Fault is a major active tectonic boundary running north to south through Myanmar, separating the Indian and Eurasian Plates. It is one of the longest and most active strike-slip faults globally, extending 1,500 km from the Andaman Sea in the south to the Eastern Himalayas in the north. The Indian Plate is moving northward, causing stress buildup along the fault, leading to large earthquakes over time. Types of Faults and Their Role in Earthquakes Faults are fractures in the Earth’s crust where rocks move due to tectonic stress. When stress accumulates beyond a critical limit, energy is released as seismic waves, causing earthquakes. The main types of faults include: Normal Fault: The hanging wall moves downward relative to the footwall, common at divergent boundaries. (Example: East African Rift Valley, Basin and Range Province in the U.S.) Reverse Fault: The hanging wall moves upward due to compression forces, occurring at convergent boundaries. (Example: Himalayas, Rocky Mountains) Strike-Slip Fault: The horizontal movement of fault blocks occurs with minimal vertical displacement, typical of transform boundaries. (Example: Anatolian Fault in Turkey, Sagaing Fault in Myanmar) Transform Fault: A specific type of strike-slip fault where tectonic plates slide past each other. (Example: San Andreas Fault in California) Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/how-did-the-myanmar-earthquake-occur-explained/article69403721.ece

Answer 7

To discover exoplanets around bright dwarf stars. Explanation : Using the Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS), an international team of astronomers recently detected a new warm Jupiter exoplanet located more than 1,000 light years away. About Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS): TESS is a NASA mission that was launched in March 2018. It is a small space telescope designed to discover thousands of exoplanets in orbit around the brightest dwarf stars in the sky. It is a follow-up to NASA's highly successful Kepler space telescope, which found thousands of exoplanets during a decade of work after its launch in 2009. In its prime mission, a two-year survey of the solar neighborhood, TESS monitored the brightness of stars for periodic drops caused by planet transits. This method reveals the diameter of the planet and the size of its orbit. Orbits within a certain range lie in the “habitable zone”, where liquid water can exist on the surface of an Earth-like world. The prime mission ended on July 4, 2020, and TESS is now in an extended mission. TESS is finding planets ranging from small, rocky worlds to giant planets, showcasing the diversity of planets in the galaxy. TESS finished its primary mission by imaging about 75% of the starry sky as part of a two-year-long survey. In capturing this giant mosaic, TESS found 66 new exoplanets. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://phys.org/news/2025-04-distant-jupiter-tess.html

Answer 8

1 only Explanation : India and Russia have commenced a six-day naval exercise, 'Indra', off the coast of Chennai, involving sophisticated maritime drills and live weapon firings. About Exercise INDRA: It is an India - Russia bilateral naval exercise. Since its inception in 2003, Exercise Indra has epitomised the long-term strategic relationship between the Indian and Russian navies. The exercise has evolved into a symbol of maritime cooperation, showcasing the two nations' commitment to enhancing naval interoperability and operational synergy. INDRA 2025: It is the 14th edition of the exercise. The exercise is being conducted in two phases: Harbour phase at Chennai and Sea phase in the Bay of Bengal. The Harbour Phase included an opening ceremony, Subject Matter Expert Exchanges (SMEEs), reciprocal visits, sports fixtures, and pre-sail briefings between personnel from both navies. The sea phase of the exercise will witness advanced naval drills, including tactical manoeuvres, live weapon firings, anti-air operations, underway replenishment, helicopter cross-deck landings, and exchange of sea riders. It is witnessing participation of Russian naval ships -- Pechanga, Rezkiy, and Aldar Tsydenzhapov. The Indian Navy has deployed its warships Rana, Kuthar, and maritime patrol aircraft P8l. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/india-russia-kick-start-6-day-naval-exercise/articleshow/119666406.cms?from=mdr

Answer 9

Brahmaputra Explanation : Environmentalists recently raised concerns with the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) over alleged hazardous effluent discharge from Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) into the Dhansiri River, warning of severe ecological damage. About Dhansiri River: Dhansiri is the main river of Golaghat District of Assam and the Dimapur District of Nagaland. It forms an important tributary to the Brahmaputra River. Course: It originates from Laisang Peak of Nagaland. For the first 40 km from its source, the river flows in a northwesterly direction, and thereafter it flows northeast for about 76 km up to Dimapur. Beyond Dimapur, the direction of flow is generally northerly up to Golaghat, where the river takes an abrupt turn towards the northwest and ultimately joins the Brahmaputra at Dhansirimukh, Assam. The total length of the river from its source to outfall is approximately 352 km. Its total catchment area is 1,220 sq.km. It flows through the Nagaland -Assam border harbouring rich flora and fauna. On one side is the Dhansiri Reserved Forest, and on the other is Intanki National Park. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2025/Apr/03/assam-environmentalist-flags-refinery-effluent-discharge-into-dhansiri-river

Answer 10

2 only Explanation : Indonesia's Mount Marapi erupted recently, sending a column of ash 1.5km (4,900ft) above its peak. About Mount Marapi: It is an active volcano located in the Padang Highlands of western Sumatra, Indonesia. It is a stratovolcano composed of layers of hardened lava, ash, and rocks from previous eruptions. It is part of the Ring of Fire—a long, horseshoe-shaped, seismically active belt that rings the Pacific Ocean. The highest peak among several volcanoes in the highlands, Mount Marapi rises to 9,485 feet (2,891 meters) above sea level. Its summit contains the Bancah caldera—which has a diameter of 0.9 mile (1.4 km)—and is characterized by a series of overlapping craters. The volcano’s deadliest single event, which resulted in the deaths of 60 people, came in 1979 after heavy rains saturated a region of loose ash (called a lahar) on the slopes that was left over from an earlier eruption. It is often confused with a similar active volcano called Mount Merapi, which is located near the center of the island of Java, Indonesia. Hence only statement 2 is correct. News: https://www.bbc.com/news/videos/cql6rnyqy6xo

Answer 11

Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary Explanation : Delhi’s forest and wildlife department is set to install 45 motion-based camera traps across the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary in the coming weeks, in order to collect data on wildlife at the park. About Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in the South Delhi Ridge of the Aravalli hill range on the Delhi-Haryana border, located in southern Delhi. The sanctuary is part of the Southern Ridge and has biodiversity significance as it merges with the Indo-Gangetic Plain. It is an important part of the North Aravalli Leopard Wildlife Corridor, which starts from Sariska National Park in Rajasthan, passes through various districts of Haryana, and finally meets the Delhi Ridge. Vegetation: As per Champion & Seth (1968), the vegetation falls under the Northern Tropical Thorn Forests type. The native plants exhibit xerophytic adaptations such as thorny appendages, wax-coated, succulent, and tomentose leaves. Flora: The sanctuary’s flora includes trees like the Neem, Peepal, and Jamun. Fauna: The sanctuary is also home to mammals like the Nilgai, Indian Porcupine, Indian Hare, and Indian Grey Mongoose. The sanctuary has over 200 species of birds, including the Indian Peafowl, Red Junglefowl, and the Indian Grey Hornbill. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.hindustantimes.com/cities/delhi-news/delhi-forest-dept-set-to-install-45-camera-traps-across-asola-bhatti-101743738798067.html

Answer 12

Kannadippaya Explanation : Kannadippaya, a traditional tribal handicraft from Kerala, has been awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag. What is Kannadippaya? "Kannadippaya" (meaning ‘mirror mat’) originates from its distinct reflective design. It is woven using reed bamboo’s soft inner layers, which give it remarkable thermal properties—it provides warmth in winter and a cooling effect in summer. It is primarily crafted by tribal communities such as the Oorali, Mannan, Muthuva, Malayan, and Kadar tribes, along with Ulladan, Malayarayan, and Hill Pulaya artisans in the Idukki, Thrissur, Ernakulam, and Palakkad districts. The finest Kannadippaya is made from Teinostachyum wightii, locally known by various names such as Njoonjileetta, Njoojoora, Ponneetta, Meieeta, and Neytheetta. Other bamboo species, like Ochlandra sp. (locally called Kareetta, Pereetta, Velleeta, Chitoora, and Kanjoora), are also used. Kannadippaya is the first tribal handicraft from Kerala to receive a GI tag. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/kannadippaya-gets-gi-tag-anchoring-tribal-craft-on-global-map/article69408207.ece

Answer 13

Indian Ocean Explanation : The US President imposed a 10% tariff on imports from the Heard and McDonald Islands, despite the islands having no known exports to the US. About Heard and McDonald Islands The Heard and McDonald Islands are a remote sub-Antarctic volcanic island group, located in the southern Indian Ocean, about 4,100 km southwest of Perth (Australia) and 1,600 km north of Antarctica. They are one of Australia’s seven external territories and are governed directly by the Australian government. The islands are volcanic in origin, with Big Ben volcano on Heard Island reaching 2,745 meters (Mawson Peak), making it Australia's highest mountain outside mainland and Tasmania. McDonald Island is much smaller but has shown recent volcanic activity, with eruptions in the late 1990s and 2000s doubling its size. They are the only volcanically active sub-Antarctic islands, making them a natural laboratory for studying earth's crustal processes, oceanic and atmospheric warming, and glacial dynamics. The islands are part of a UNESCO World Heritage Site (since 1997) due to their pristine sub-Antarctic ecosystem, managed as a strict nature reserve (IUCN Category Ia). They support large populations of marine birds and mammals, including penguins, elephant seals, and seabirds. Importantly, the islands are free of invasive species, making them ideal for biodiversity and evolutionary studies. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/among-tariffed-islands-where-only-penguins-us-military-live-9923584/

Answer 14

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Seaweed farming is gaining global recognition as a sustainable and profitable industry. Why in the News? The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims to boost India's seaweed production to 1.12 million tonnes over five years. The $5.6 billion global seaweed industry is expanding rapidly, with India's contribution increasing steadily. What is Seaweed? Seaweed is a marine plant that grows in oceans and seas. It is nutrient-dense, containing 54 trace elements, vitamins, minerals, and amino acids. It helps combat cancer, diabetes, arthritis, heart disease and high blood pressure while also boosting immunity. Unlike traditional crops, seaweed does not require land, freshwater, fertilizers, or pesticides, making it an eco-friendly and sustainable agricultural resource. Microscopic seaweeds, such as phytoplankton, form the foundation of marine food chains and play a key role in oceanic primary productivity. Large seaweeds, like giant kelp, create dense underwater forests that serve as biodiversity hotspots, offering shelter and food to a variety of species. Seaweeds contribute to oxygen generation and carbon sequestration, playing a significant role in climate regulation. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2118317

Answer 15

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Delhi’s Environment Minister recently chaired a meeting with key government agencies to explore the feasibility of artificial rain through cloud seeding. About Artificial Rains Artificial rain refers to the process of inducing precipitation through cloud seeding, a weather modification technique. It is primarily used to enhance rainfall, combat drought conditions, and reduce air pollution. How Does It Work? The method involves dispersing chemicals like silver iodide, potassium iodide, and dry ice into clouds to encourage the formation of raindrops using aircraft or helicopters. These chemicals act as nuclei around which water vapour condenses to form larger droplets, eventually leading to rainfall. The success of cloud seeding depends on the presence of sufficient moisture and appropriate atmospheric conditions. Types of Cloud Seeding Hygroscopic Cloud Seeding: Accelerates the merging of droplets in liquid clouds, making them large enough to fall as rain. Glaciogenic Cloud Seeding: Introduces ice-forming agents into supercooled clouds, converting water vapour into ice crystals, which then melt into rain. Alternative Technologies Static artificial rain-inducing system: Uses natural ionisation technology to stimulate precipitation. Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI): A form of solar geoengineering, inspired by volcanic eruptions, where aerosols like sulphur dioxide or other reflective particles are injected into the atmosphere to cool the planet and reduce smog. Diamond dust experiment: Scientists have explored using diamond dust as a non-toxic, long-lasting alternative to sulphur-based aerosols for climate cooling. However, the high cost ($175 trillion) makes it unfeasible. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/delhi/artificial-rain-in-delhi-environment-minister-sirsa-holds-meeting-to-brainstorm-ideas-9923598/

Answer 16

Only four Explanation : The recent visit of the Indian Prime Minister to Thailand has strengthened bilateral ties through multiple agreements and partnerships. Geographical and Political Significance Location: Centrally positioned in Mainland Southeast Asia, serving as a land and maritime bridge between India and ASEAN countries. Land Borders: Shares boundaries with Myanmar (NW), Laos (NE), Cambodia (E) and Malaysia (S). Water Bodies: Bordered by Andaman Sea (SW) and Gulf of Thailand (S) critical for Blue Economy and Maritime Security in Indo-Pacific. Capital: Bangkok Currency: Thai Baht (THB) Official Language: Thai Religion: Theravada Buddhism is practiced by 95% of the population. Thailand is a key pillar in India’s Act East Policy and Indo-Pacific Vision. Geography of Thailand Mountains: Highest Peak: Doi Inthanon (Approx. 2,565 m) Other notable peaks: Doi Chiang Dao, Doi Luang Chiang Dao Major Rivers: Chao Phraya River: Flows through Bangkok, crucial for transportation and irrigation. Mekong River: Forms a natural border with Laos; one of the longest rivers in Southeast Asia. Other Rivers: Mae Klong, Nan, Ping Climate: Influenced by Southwest and Northeast Monsoons The Tropical Wet and Dry (Savanna) Climate (Köppen’s classification) dominates most areas. Tropical Monsoon Climate in the south and east; some areas also have a Tropical Rainforest Climate. Natural Resources of Thailand: Major Resources: Rubber, Rice, Tin, Natural Gas, Timber, Tungsten, Tantalum Thailand is a leading global exporter of rubber, fruits, vegetables, and rice. Other resources include lead, fish, gypsum, fluorite, and lignite. World Heritage Sites in Thailand; Historic City of Ayutthaya Sukhothai Historical Park Wat Pho (Temple of the Reclining Buddha) – iconic Buddhist temple in Bangkok International Environmental Agreements Thailand is a signatory to key global environmental treaties, including: Biodiversity Conservation Kyoto Protocol (Climate Change Commitments) Endangered Species Protection Marine Life Conservation & Ozone Layer Protection United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2118351

Answer 17

Karnataka Explanation : Using the Transiting Exoplanet Survey Satellite (TESS), an international team of astronomers recently detected a new warm Jupiter exoplanet located more than 1,000 light years away. About Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary: It is situated in the Chamarajanagar and Ramanagara districts of Karnataka, and it was established in 1987. The Cauvery River passes through its midst. It was established in 1987. The Sanctuary spans an area of 1027.535 square kilometers. On its east, it adjoins Dharmapuri forest division of Tamil Nadu state. The central and eastern parts of the sanctuary are well forested, Hogenakkal falls (Smoking rock in Kannada), Mekedatu (Goats leap), Sangam (The point where the Arkavathi river joins the Cauvery) and Muthathi (The religious place where lord Anjaneya temple is situated) are of cultural, historical and tourist interest. Flora: The Major portion of the forests are of South Indian dry deciduous type. Fauna: It is home to mammals like elephant, wild boar, leopard, dhole, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, chevrotain, common langur, bonnet macaque, honey badger (ratel), malabar giant squirrel, smooth-coated otter and Grizzled giant squirrel. The river cauvery also houses various species of reptiles like the Mugger crocodile,Indian mud turtles, and various species of snakes. This is also one of the few places to find mahseer fish. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/karnataka/bear-dies-in-cauvery-wildlife-sanctuary-after-consuming-explosive-3478858

Answer 18

Greece Explanation : A groundbreaking archaeological find in Lefkada, Greece, has unveiled the first-ever ancient Greek theater discovered in the Ionian Islands. About Ionian Islands: The Ionian Islands are a group of islands that are located off the western coast of Greece in the eastern part of the Ionian Sea. Collectively, the Ionian islands occupy a total land area of 2,306.94 sq.km. and comprise seven major islands and several smaller islands. These islands are also often referred to as “Heptanese” or “Seven Islands.” The major islands in the Ionian Island group include Kerkyra (Corfu), Paxi, Lefkada, Ithaki, Kefalonia, Zakynthos, and Kythira. Kefalonia/Cephalonia is the largest among all the Ionian islands. Mount Ainos, which rises to an elevation of 1,628 m, is the highest point on Ionian Island. History: Controlled by Venice in the 15th and 16th centuries, they were taken by Russian and Turkish forces in 1799. In 1815 the Treaty of Paris placed them under the control of Britain; the British ceded them to Greece in 1864. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://indiandefencereview.com/ancient-greek-theater-ionian-islands/

Answer 19

1 only Explanation : NATO members Poland, Finland and all three Baltic states have queued up over the past few weeks to withdraw from the Ottawa Convention. About Ottawa Convention: The Ottawa Convention, also referred to as the "Mine Ban Treaty," prohibits the use, stockpiling, production, and transfer of anti-personnel landmines (APLs). It requires states-parties to destroy their stockpiled APLs within four years and eliminate all APL holdings, including mines currently planted in the soil, within 10 years. Countries may request a renewable extension, which can be up to 10 years long, to fulfill their destruction obligations. States-parties are also required annually to report their total APL stockpiles, the technical characteristics of their APLs, the location of all mined areas, and the status of APL destruction programs. The convention, which is of unlimited duration and open to all nations, entered into force on March 1, 1999. 164 countries had ratified or acceded to the treaty. Some key current and past producers and users of landmines, including the United States, China, India, Pakistan, and Russia, have not signed the treaty. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/which-countries-are-quitting-a-key-landmine-treaty-and-why-9925686/

Answer 20

A flying trainer aircraft. Explanation : The indigenously developed Hansa-3 trainer aircraft has been cleared for use to train aircrew for obtaining pilot licences, and the aircraft will now be manufactured in India by the private industry. About Hansa-3 Trainer Aircraft: It is India’s first indigenous flying trainer aircraft. It was designed and developed by CSIR-National Aerospace Laboratories, Bangalore, under the aegis of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR). It is designed to meet the Indian flying club’s needs and it is an ideal aircraft for Commercial Pilot Licensing (CPL) due to its low cost and low fuel consumption. Features: It is a two-seater, low-wing aircraft. It is powered by a Rotax Digital Control Engine with unique features like Just-In-Time Prepreg (JIPREG) Composite lightweight Airframe, Glass Cockpit, Bubble Canopy with wide panoramic view, electrically operated flaps etc. It has an advanced electronic fuel injection system, which controls the fuel and air mixtures electronically and provides optimum fuel air mixture at every altitude. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://www.tribuneindia.com/news/india/indias-first-indigenous-trainer-aircraft-hansa-3-launched-for-pilot-training/

Answer 21

Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation : In a remarkable addition to Arunachal Pradesh’s rich avian diversity, the rare Pale-chinned Flycatcher (Cyornis poliogenys) was recently sighted in the Nong Loung (Bor Beel) forest area of Namsai district. About Pale-Chinned Flycatcher: It is a small, insectivorous songbird known for its subtle charm, discrete behavior, and preference for shady forest interiors. It belongs to the family Muscicapidae. It is a sparrow-sized bird. Scientific Name: Cyornis poliogenys Distribution Range Includes: India (Eastern Ghats, NE states, Eastern Himalayas, and West Bengal). Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar, and parts of Southeast Asia. Sundarbans (fringe forests and quiet forest trails) – Rare but possible in suitable undisturbed patches. Habitat: It prefers dense, moist forest habitats, especially evergreen and semi-evergreen forests with rich undergrowth. Features: Size: Small, about 13–14 cm (5.1–5.5 inches) in length. Weight: Approximately 10–12 grams. Males: Dull blue upperparts with a greyish throat and chin, light olive or brownish wash on flanks. Females: Similar but duller, with more brown tones and less distinct bluish hues. Pale chin or throat patch separating the dull blue-grey head and breast. Fine black bill, ideal for insect foraging. Frequently tail-flicking and flitting low among vegetation. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Least Concern Hence both statements are not correct. News: https://www.northeasttoday.in/2025/04/05/rare-pale-chinned-flycatcher-spotted-in-arunachals-nong-loung-forest/

Answer 22

Bihar Explanation : The seventh edition of the Khelo India Youth Games will be staged in five cities of Bihar from May 4 to 15. About the news: Bihar is set to host the Khelo India Youth Games and the Khelo India Para Games in May 2025. The Khelo India initiative, launched in 2018, aims to revive India's sports culture by encouraging youth participation and identifying potential Olympians. Key Components of Khelo India : Sports Competitions and Talent Development: Organizes annual events like the Khelo India Youth Games, University Games, and Winter Games to identify and nurture young talent. Creation and Upgradation of Sports Infrastructure: Develops and enhances sports facilities nationwide to provide world-class training environments. Khelo India Centres and Sports Academies: Establishes centers and academies offering specialized coaching across various sports disciplines. Fit India Movement: Promotes physical fitness and a healthy lifestyle among citizens through various initiatives. Promotion of Inclusiveness through Sports: Focuses on gender equality, disability inclusion, and the promotion of indigenous sports to ensure widespread participation. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sport/other-sports/khelo-india-youth-games-in-bihar-in-may/article69412927.ece

Answer 23

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Union Cabinet recently approved the Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) - II for the period 2024-2029, as a 100% centrally funded scheme. About Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) Launched in 2023, the VVP is a centrally sponsored initiative aimed at the comprehensive development of villages along India’s northern border. The goal is to improve the quality of life for residents and enhance border security. The programme covers the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand and the Union Territory of Ladakh. Objectives of the VVP: Improve living conditions and create livelihood opportunities in border villages. Strengthen border security by involving local populations as support for border forces. Control trans-border crime and promote the integration of border communities with the rest of the nation. VVP-II The VVP-II will be a 100% Centre-funded programme with a total outlay of ₹6,839 crore. It will be implemented in select strategic villages in the following states and UTs: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir (UT), Ladakh (UT), Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal, through FY 2028-29. Both VVP-I and VVP-II are transformative initiatives designed to make border villages self-reliant and vibrant. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2118730

Answer 24

A percentage of the value of the import Explanation : China imposes 34% reciprocal tariffs on imports of US goods in retaliation for Trump’s trade war. About Tariffs A tariff is a tax imposed by a government on imported goods or services to raise revenue, protect domestic industries, or influence trade balances. Types of Tariffs: Specific Tariff: A fixed amount charged on a particular quantity of an import (e.g., $5 per ton of steel). Ad Valorem Tariff: A percentage of the value of the import (e.g., 10% of the value of a car). Purpose of Tariffs: Revenue Generation: Governments can generate revenue by imposing tariffs on imported goods. Protectionism: Tariffs protect domestic industries by making foreign products more expensive, thus encouraging consumers to buy domestic goods. Retaliation: Tariffs are often used as retaliatory measures in trade disputes between countries. Strategic Influence: Used to influence trade negotiations, compel trading partners to comply with certain conditions. Other Tariffs: Non-Tariff Barriers (NTBs): Beyond tariffs, countries may impose other barriers to trade such as quotas, licensing requirements, and anti-dumping measures. Sanctions: Tariffs can be part of broader sanctions regimes aimed at pressuring countries for political or security reasons (e.g., sanctions on Iran or North Korea). Role of WTO (World Trade Organization) Regulation of Tariffs: The WTO regulates the imposition of tariffs under the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). WTO members are committed to maintaining a tariff ceiling or bound rates. Dispute Resolution: The WTO provides a mechanism for resolving trade disputes, which includes reviewing whether tariffs are applied in compliance with international agreements. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://edition.cnn.com/2025/04/04/business/china-us-tariffs-retaliation-hnk-intl/index.html

Answer 25

Article 201 Explanation : President has withheld assent to Tamil Nadu’s Bill seeking exemption from the mandate of NEET-based admissions for undergraduate medical courses in government medical colleges. About Anti NEET Bill In September 2021, the Tamil Nadu Assembly passed the Tamil Nadu Admission to Undergraduate Medical Degree Courses Bill, 2021, commonly referred to as the Anti-NEET Bill. This legislation seeks to exempt the state from the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) for medical admissions, advocating for the selection process to be based on Class 12 examination marks. It was introduced following concerns that NEET disproportionately affects students from disadvantaged backgrounds. Since its passage, the bill has been awaiting the President's approval, however, it has been withheld assent based on the recommendations of the Union government. Veto Power of President over State Legislation Article 200 & 201: State bills require the President’s assent to become law. Governor’s Role: The state Governor reviews the bill and sends it to the President. Presidential Assent: The President can: Grant assent (bill becomes law). Withhold assent (bill may be reconsidered). Reserve the bill for further consideration. Bills Needing Presidential Assent: Bills affecting national policies or conflicting with Union laws. Bills on Concurrent List topics, like medical education (e.g., Anti-NEET Bill in Tamil Nadu). Money Bills: Do not need presidential assent. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/tamil-nadu/president-withholds-assent-for-tn-neet-exemption-bill-cm-stalin-to-hold-all-party-meeting-on-april-9/article69411915.ece

Answer 26

Assam Explanation : Assam To Withdraw Foreigner Tribunal Cases Against Indigenous Koch-Rajbongshi Community. About Koch-Rajbongshi The Koch-Rajbongshi community is an ethnic group primarily found in the northeastern region of India, particularly in the states of Assam, West Bengal and parts of Meghalaya. They are a blend of two historically distinct communities: the Koch and Rajbongshi. While these groups share cultural similarities and have had a long history of coexistence, they also retain some distinct identities. Demand for ST: The community is seeking recognition as a Scheduled Tribe in Assam and other states to access government welfare and legal protections. Koches (or Kocch) Historically, the Koches were a group of people who once ruled parts of what is now Assam, Bengal, and Bihar. They are thought to have descended from the ancient Kachari Kingdom, which ruled the region for centuries before being absorbed by the Ahoms in Assam. The Koches were originally a Mongoloid ethnic group, and they are believed to have gradually merged with the local communities over time. Rajbongshis The Rajbongshi people were originally a part of the Koch dynasty, but later developed a distinct identity. Over time, they spread into regions of Bengal and Assam. They were part of the Bengali-speaking people in the past and often associated with the agricultural and peasant classes. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: https://www.ndtv.com/india-news/assam-to-withdraw-foreigner-tribunal-cases-against-indigenous-koch-rajbongshi-community-8085900

Answer 27

Only two Explanation : Pakistan reportedly discovered a massive cache of antimony in the conflict-torn region of Balochistan. About Antimony: Antimony is a chemical element with the symbol Sb and atomic number 51. Classified as a metalloid, Antimony is a solid at room temperature. It exhibits poor electrical and heat conductivity properties. Commercial forms of antimony are generally ingots, broken pieces, granular, or cast cake. Antimony ores occur both in deposits associated with volcanic rocks and also in more deep-seated veins formed under moderate to high temperatures and pressure. The chief ore of antimony is stibnite. It is more commonly obtained as a byproduct in lead-zinc-silver mines. Producers: China produces 88% of the world’s antimony. Other producers are Bolivia, Russia, and Tajikistan. Uses: Antimony is used in the electronics industry to make some semiconductor devices, such as infrared detectors and diodes. It is alloyed with lead or other metals to improve their hardness and strength. A lead-antimony alloy is used in batteries. Other uses of antimony alloys include type metal (in printing presses), bullets, and cable sheathing. Antimony compounds are used to make flame-retardant materials, paints, enamels, glass, and pottery. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.india.com/news/world/pakistan-gold-mines-pakistan-to-become-super-rich-discovers-jackpot-in-balochistan-the-treasure-is-worth-billions-usd-finds-gold-mines-in-gilgit-baltistan-pakistan-antimony-reserves-7727667/

Answer 28

Rajasthan Explanation : A massive fire, triggered by stone-crushing sparks, erupted in Mukundra Tiger Reserve recently. About Mukundra Hills Tiger Reserve: It is situated near Kota in southeastern Rajasthan. It is named after two continuous flat-topped, almost parallel hills with narrow central ridges, forming part of the Vindhyan range and extending from the Chambal River to Kalisindh, with a length of almost 80 km. and the width ranging from 2 to 5 km. The tiger reserve was constituted in the year 2013, which encompasses the area of Mukundra National Park, Dara Sanctuary, Jawahar Sagar Sanctuary, and part of Chambal Sanctuary (from Garadia Mahadev to Jawahar Sagar Dam), forming its core/ ritical tiger habitat. It was once a hunting preserve belonging to the Maharaja of Kota. It is traversed by four rivers: Chambal, Kali, Ahu, and Ramzan. Vegetation: Dry Deciduous Forest Flora: Anogeissus pendula (Kala Dhok or Kaladhi) is the predominant species, along with Khair (Acacia catechu), Ber (Zizyphus mauratiana), Kakan (Flacourtia indica), Raunj (Acacia lecofolia), etc. Fauna: The important fauna include: Leopard, Sloth bear, Nilgai, Chinkara, Spotted Deer, Small Indian Civet, Toddy Cat, Jackal, Hyena, Jungle Cat, Common Langur, etc. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/jaipur/fire-engulfs-part-of-mukundra-tiger-reserve-in-kota/articleshow/120010455.cms

Answer 29

Sarayu Explanation : Devotees in large numbers continue to take holy dip in the Saryu River as they arrive at Ram temple in Ayodhya, on the occasion of Ram Navami. About Saryu River: It is a river that flows through the Indian states of Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh. It is also known as the Sarayu or Sarju River. This river is of ancient significance, finding mentions in the Vedas and the Ramayana. Course: It rises at Sarmul (or Sarmool), which is located in the extreme north of the district Bageshwar of Uttarakhand on the southern slope of a ridge of the Nanda Kot. It flows through the Kumaon Himalayas, and passes by the towns of Kapkot, Bageshwar, and Seraghat before flowing into the Sharada River at Pancheshwar at the India-Nepal border. Sharada River (also known as the Kali River) then flows into the Ghaghara River in Sitapur District, Uttar Pradesh. Lower Ghaghara is popularly known as Sarayu in India, especially while it flows through the city of Ayodhya. Length: Approximately 350–400 kilometers long. Ayodhya, the birthplace of Lord Rama, is situated on the banks of the river Sarayu. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.ndtv.com/video/devotees-in-large-numbers-take-holy-dip-in-the-saryu-river-on-ram-navami-922906

Answer 30

1 only Explanation : India has been ranked 10th in the world with significant private investments in Artificial Intelligence (AI) in 2023, according to the 2025 Technology and Innovation Report. About Technology and Innovation Report: It was released by the UN Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). It seeks to address issues in science, technology and innovation that are topical and important for developing countries in a comprehensive way with an emphasis on policy-relevant analysis and conclusions. The 2025 edition of the report, entitled: Inclusive artificial intelligence for development, aims to guide policymakers through the complex Artificial Intelligence (AI) landscape and support them in designing science, technology and innovation policies that foster inclusive and equitable technological progress. Highlights of the Report: It shows that just 100 companies, mostly in the United States and China, are behind 40 percent of the world’s private investment in research and development, highlighting a sharp concentration of power. At the same time, 118 countries – mostly from the Global South – are missing from global AI governance discussions altogether. The report estimates that up to 40 percent of global jobs could be affected by AI. To avoid being left behind, developing countries need to strengthen what UNCTAD calls the “three key leverage points”: infrastructure, data and skills. India and China are the only developing countries in the world with significant private investments in AI in 2023. The US leads the world in terms of private investment in AI, at 67 billion US dollars in 2023, or 70 percent of global AI private investment. China was in second position, with 7.8 billion US dollars, and India in tenth position, with 1.4 billion dollars. India ranked 36th in 2024 out of 170 nations on the Readiness for Frontier Technologies Index, improving its position from 48th in 2022. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://www.newsonair.gov.in/india-ranks-10th-with-1-4-billion-private-investment-in-ai-un/

Answer 31

Gujarat Explanation : A group of 300 Pakistani citizens of Indian origin, residing in Pakistan’s Sindh, recently visited the Dwarkadhish Temple, Devbhumi Dwarka in Gujarat and offered prayers. About Dwarkadhish Temple: Located in Dwarka, Gujarat, India, the Dwarkadhish temple, also known as the Jagat Mandir, is a revered Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Krishna, who is referred to as Dwarkadhish, which means the 'King of Dwarka'. This temple holds immense significance as it is one of the destinations along the Char Dham pilgrimage circuit, which includes the other pilgrimage sites, Badrinath, Rameshwaram, and Puri. According to archaeological findings, the original temple was built in 200 BCE at the earliest. It is believed to have been constructed by Vajranabha, the great-grandson of Lord Krishna, over the hari-griha (Krishna's residential place). The temple was rebuilt and made bigger in the 16th century. The temple has a five-story building supported by 72 pillars, which are made of limestone and sand. Bearing the imprints of the 16th-century Chalukya style of architecture, the temple has intricately carved walls with mythical characters and legends on them. The temple is a Pushtimarg temple, which means that it follows the teachings and rituals of Vallabhacharya, a 15th-century Hindu saint and philosopher. Vallabhacharya propounded the philosophy of Shuddhadvaita, or pure non-dualism, which emphasizes the devotion and grace of Krishna. The temple is managed by the descendants of Vallabhacharya, who are known as Vallabha Kul. The temple has a special relationship with the Nathdwara temple in Rajasthan, which is the main seat of the Pushtimarg sect. The temple is one of the 108 Divya Desams, or holy abodes of Vishnu, which are glorified by the Alwars, the 12th-century Tamil poet-saints. The temple is the 98th Divya Desam and is praised by four Alwars: Nammalwar, Thirumangai Alwar, Thirumalisai Alwar, and Periyalwar. The temple is also mentioned in the works of other Hindu saints and scholars, such as Adi Shankara, Ramanuja, Madhvacharya, and Narsinh Mehta. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://theprint.in/world/300-indian-origin-pakistani-citizens-visit-dwarkadhish-temple-in-gujarat/2579802/

Answer 32

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Delhi government has signed an MoU with the National Health Authority to roll out the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, making Delhi the 35th Union Territory/state to implement this flagship health insurance scheme. West Bengal remains the only state yet to adopt it. Ayushman Bharat Scheme Overview Ayushman Bharat is a flagship healthcare initiative by the Government of India, designed to provide accessible and affordable healthcare services to vulnerable sections of society. Launched on 23rd September 2018, the scheme is officially known as Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY). It is recognized as the largest health assurance scheme in the world. Key Features Coverage of Medical Procedures: The scheme offers free and cashless treatment for 1,961 medical procedures across 27 specialities. This includes a wide range of services such as: Medicines, Diagnostic services, Hospitalisation, ICU care, Surgeries. Financial Coverage: Under Ayushman Bharat, eligible families are provided with an annual health coverage of up to Rs 10 lakh: Rs 5 lakh from the Central Government. Rs 5 lakh as a top-up from the States/UTs Government. Implementation and Governance The National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body responsible for overseeing the implementation of the Ayushman Bharat health insurance scheme. Impact and Reach The scheme aims to cover 55+ crore beneficiaries, targeting 12 crore families, which constitutes approximately 40% of India’s vulnerable population. As a result of the Ayushman Bharat initiative, the out-of-pocket expenditure for healthcare has significantly decreased, from 62% in 2014 to just 38% today. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: PIB

Answer 33

2 and 3 only Explanation : The flowerpot snake, one of the world’s smallest snakes, has three sets of chromosomes instead of two, and has 40 chromosomes, organised into three subgenomes. By analysing the flowerpot snake’s unique genome, scientists are uncovering how the reptile repairs its DNA and prevents harmful mutations. The findings provide insights into genetic repair mechanisms that could deepen our understanding of human gene evolution and also provide insights into human trisomy conditions, such as Down Syndrome. Flowerpot Snake (Ramphotyphlops braminus) Overview The Flowerpot Snake, also known as the Brahminy Blind Snake, is a small, harmless species of blind snake. It is commonly found in tropical and subtropical regions, particularly in Southeast Asia, although it has been introduced to other parts of the world as well. Key Characteristics Common Name: Flowerpot Snake (Brahminy Blind Snake) Size: One of the smallest snakes in the world, typically growing to a length of 10-20 cm (4-8 inches). Non-Venomous: These snakes are completely harmless to humans and are non-venomous. Burrower: They spend the majority of their time underground, where they feed on small invertebrates like ants and termites. Unique Features Blindness: The Flowerpot Snake doesn’t have functional eyes, hence the term "blind" in its common name. It relies on other senses to navigate and survive. Appearance: Due to their small size and appearance, they are often mistaken for earthworms. Habitat and Behavior Flowerpot Snake Habitat: They are often found in potted plants, which is why they are called flowerpot snakes. They tend to hide in the soil of these plants, making them a frequent discovery by gardeners. Reproductive and Genetic Uniqueness Chromosomal Uniqueness: The Flowerpot Snake is the only known snake species with three sets of chromosomes (trisomy) instead of the usual two. Asexual Reproduction: One of the fascinating traits of the Flowerpot Snake is its ability to reproduce asexually, meaning it does not require a mate for reproduction. Hence option b is the correct answer. News: Science Advances

Answer 34

Cambodia Explanation : The Ream Naval Base is located on Cambodia’s Gulf of Thailand coast, near Sihanoukville. It has become a significant focal point of international attention due to its expansion and Chinese military involvement. Recent Developments Inauguration and Expansion: On April 5, 2025, Cambodian Prime Minister Hun Manet officially inaugurated the expanded Ream Naval Base. The project received substantial financial and technical support from China. While Cambodian officials maintain that these developments serve national defense interests, there are persistent concerns about the potential Chinese military presence at the base. Strategic Significance Geostrategic Importance: The Ream Naval Base holds significant strategic importance due to its proximity to the Malacca Strait, one of the world’s most vital maritime passages for global trade and energy shipments. China’s involvement in the base's development has raised concerns about its broader intentions to establish a strategic foothold in the Indo-Pacific region. This could potentially encircle India and bolster China’s naval presence in the South China Sea, a region of increasing geopolitical importance. Global Concerns: The expansion of Ream Naval Base has drawn reactions from multiple international stakeholders: Satellite imagery has revealed the presence of Chinese warships at the base, heightening suspicions about the base’s potential role as a Chinese military outpost. Implications for India and the Indo-Pacific Concerns for India: The expansion of Ream Naval Base has direct implications for India, especially regarding its maritime interests in the Indo-Pacific region. The base’s proximity to critical sea lanes frequently used by the Indian Navy raises concerns about the risk of strategic encirclement. If the People’s Liberation Army Navy (PLAN) establishes a presence at Ream, it could disrupt India’s operations in the region, particularly during regional conflicts. Impact on Maritime Security China's enhanced presence at Ream would increase its naval capabilities in Southeast Asia, potentially challenging India’s interests in the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean Region. India may need to strengthen its naval presence in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands to better monitor and counter Chinese activities in these strategic waters. Hence option a is the correct answer. News: TH

Answer 35

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The Pamban Rail Bridge, also known as the Rameswaram Bridge, is a historic cantilever bridge that connects Rameswaram Island to the mainland of India. Opened in 1914, it has served as a vital transportation link for over a century, playing a key role in both regional and national connectivity. Key Developments and Upgrades Modernization and Upgrades: In recent years, the Pamban Rail Bridge has undergone significant upgrades to enhance its functionality and accommodate modern transportation needs: Vertical Lift Span: In 2025, a new vertical lift span was added, making the Pamban Bridge India's first vertical lift sea bridge. This feature allows the central span to lift, providing 22 meters of clearance for ships, an improvement from the previous 19 meters. Faster Train Operations: The upgraded bridge now supports double-line electrification, allowing for faster train operations between the mainland and Rameswaram Island. Operational Timeline: The modernization project began in 2019 and was completed by March 2025, with the newly upgraded bridge becoming operational during this period. Historical Background Construction and Inauguration: The Pamban Bridge was commissioned on February 24, 1914, to improve connectivity between the mainland and Rameswaram Island. Over the years, it has become a key landmark in the region. Strategic Importance Sole Link: For much of its history, the bridge was the only link between Rameswaram Island and the mainland, making it a crucial infrastructure piece for both transportation and economic activities. Pilgrimage Significance: The bridge has played a pivotal role in facilitating the movement of pilgrims traveling to the Rameswaram Temple, a major religious site in Tamil Nadu. Humanitarian Role: During the Sri Lankan Civil War, the bridge also served as an important route for refugees seeking asylum in India, further emphasizing its strategic significance. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: Mint

Answer 36

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : Star-Rating System for Environmental Clearances On January 17, 2022, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) introduced a star-rating system to evaluate State Environmental Impact Assessment Authorities (SEIAAs). The purpose was to assess their efficiency in granting clearances for industrial and infrastructure projects. The star ratings ranged from 0 to 7, with higher ratings reflecting: Faster approval times. Stricter adherence to timelines set out in the 2006 Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification. Objective and Purpose Promoting Ease of Doing Business: The Ministry’s aim was to streamline the environmental clearance process to foster a more business-friendly environment, while also maintaining regulatory standards. Incentivizing States: The star-rating system was designed to: Recognize and incentivize states that adhered to timelines and regulatory standards. Encourage environmental bodies to expedite the clearance process without compromising the environment. Challenges and Legal Dispute The introduction of the star-rating system faced significant opposition, particularly from environmental advocacy groups. Concerns Raised by Tamil Nadu Fishermen's Association: The Tamil Nadu Fishermen's Association argued that the star-rating system could compromise the scrutiny of environmental clearances. Their concern was that the emphasis on speeding up the clearance process could dilute the thoroughness required in assessing projects that may impact environmentally sensitive areas. They emphasized the risk of weakening the environmental safeguards essential for protecting local ecosystems, biodiversity, and community livelihoods. Legal Challenge: The dispute led to intervention by the National Green Tribunal (NGT). The NGT issued an order noting that the MoEF&CC had effectively "given up" on the system. The Ministry withdrew the original Office Memorandum (OM) dated January 17, 2022, with a possibility of issuing a revised memorandum in the future. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: NIE

Answer 37

Healthy beginnings, hopeful futures Explanation : Every year on April 7, World Health Day is observed to increase global awareness of a varied range of health-related concerns. About World Health Day 2025: World Health Day is observed on April 07 every year. This day marks the anniversary of the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948 and has been celebrated since 1950. Each year, World Health Day is used as an opportunity to draw attention to a specific health topic that affects people all over the world. By emphasizing one particular theme every year, World Health Day encourages governments, healthcare organisations, and individuals to work collectively toward improving health standards and access to healthcare. The theme for World Health Day 2025 is 'Healthy beginnings, hopeful futures.' This year's theme will kick off a year-long campaign on maternal and newborn health. This initiative will encourage governments and the healthcare sector to intensify their actions to eliminate preventable maternal and newborn deaths. It will also focus on the long-term health and well-being of women. The campaign will aim to promote information and strategies that can help support healthy pregnancies and births, and better postnatal health. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.business-standard.com/lifestyle/world-health-day-2025-theme-significance-history-messages-and-more-nc-125040300416_1.html

Answer 38

All three Explanation : Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), Government of India, recently released the 26th edition of its publication titled “Women and Men in India 2024: Selected Indicators and Data”. About Women and Men in India 2024: Selected Indicators and Data: It was published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), Government of India. It offers a comprehensive overview of the gender landscape in India, presenting selected indicators and data across key areas like population, education, health, economic participation, and decision-making, all sourced from various Ministries/ Departments/Organizations. Utilizing official statistics, it presents gender-disaggregated data across urban-rural divides and geographic regions, facilitating a nuanced understanding of the challenges and opportunities faced by women and men. Highlights of the 2024 Report: Gender Parity Index (GPI) for enrolments at the primary and higher secondary was higher in FY24 than in FY23 and FY22, meaning more girls are being enrolled now. At upper primary and elementary levels, the enrolment numbers were more or less the same for boys and girls. The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for women aged 15 and above improved significantly, rising from 49.8% in 2017-18 to 60.1% in 2023-24. In the financial sector, women own 39.2% of all bank accounts and contribute to 39.7% of total deposits, with their presence most prominent in rural areas, where they account for 42.2% of account holders. Female participation in the capital market is also growing, but overall numbers are small. Between March 2021 and November 2024, the number of DEMAT accounts surged from 33.26 million to 143.02 million. Of these, the number of women account holders rose from 6.67 million in 2021 to 27.71 million in 2024. A Rising percentage of female-headed proprietary establishments across manufacturing, trade, and other services sectors over the years 2021-22, 2022-23, and 2023-24 has been observed. The number of male and female voters grew from 173.2 million in 1952 to 978 million in 2024, with an increasing share of females. In the 2024 general elections, female voter turnout (65.8%) surpassed male turnout, even as it dipped slightly from 67.2% in 2019. Female entrepreneurship is also on the rise. The number of startups recognized by DPIIT with at least one woman director rose sharply from 1,943 in 2017 to 17,405 in 2024. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=2119441®=3&lang=1

Answer 39

1 only Explanation : In 2023, India accounted for the second highest maternal deaths globally, tied with the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) with 19,000 and second only to Nigeria, according to the Trends in Maternal Mortality 2000-2023 report released recently. About Trends in Maternal Mortality 2000-2023 Report: It is a new report from the United Nations Maternal Mortality Estimation Inter-Agency Group (MMEIG), comprising WHO, UNICEF, UNFPA, the World Bank Group, and the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UNDESA/population division). It presents the most up-to-date, internationally comparable estimates of maternal deaths at global, regional, and country levels. Highlights of the Report: In 2023, an estimated 260,000 maternal deaths occurred worldwide, equivalent to 712 deaths each day. This marks a 40% reduction in maternal mortality since 2000, reflecting sustained global efforts to improve access to essential health services. For the first time, no country was estimated to have an extremely high maternal mortality ratio (MMR), and no region was classified as having a very high MMR. Despite these gains, disparities remain stark. Sub-Saharan Africa accounted for 70% of global maternal deaths, with Central and Southern Asia contributing nearly 17%. In 2023, 37 countries were classified as being in conflict or experiencing institutional or social fragility, yet they accounted for 64% of global maternal deaths. Nigeria had the highest number of maternal deaths and accounted for more than a quarter (28.7 percent) of all estimated global maternal deaths in 2023, with approximately 75,000 deaths. Only three other countries had more than 10,000 maternal deaths in 2023—India, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and Pakistan (11,000). India and DRC accounted for 7.2 percent each, while Pakistan accounted for 4.1 percent of global maternal deaths. Together, these four countries accounted for almost half (47 percent) of all maternal deaths globally in 2023. China, the only other country on the planet comparable to India by population, registered just 1,400 maternal deaths in 2023. The statistics reveal that India’s maternal mortality rate (MMR)—or the rate at which women per lakh die due to childbirth or pregnancy-related issues—was 362 in 2000 and came down to 80 in 2023, marking a decline of 78 percent over the period. The report also provides the first global account of the COVID-19 pandemic’s impact on maternal survival. In 2021, when the second wave of COVID was at its peak in most parts of the world, an estimated 40,000 more women died due to pregnancy or childbirth, taking the total number of deaths that year to 3,22,000 from 282,000 the previous year. Haemorrhage is a direct obstetric cause of death and remains the leading cause of maternal mortality globally. Hence only statement 1 is correct. News: https://theprint.in/health/india-saw-52-maternal-deaths-each-day-in-2023-second-highest-after-nigeria-un-report/2580367/

Answer 40

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : The wildlife wing of Himachal Pradesh Forest Department (HPFD) recently captured the first-ever photographic evidence of the elusive Woolly Flying Squirrel at Miyar Valley in Lahaul and Spiti district. About Woolly Flying Squirrel: Woolly Flying Squirrel, also known as Western Woolly Flying Squirrel, is one of the rarest and least known mammals in Asia. It is endemic to the northwestern Himalayas. Scientific Name: Eupetaurus cinereus It is the sole species of the genus Eupetaurus. It was long believed to be extinct until its rediscovery in 1994 — nearly after seventy years. Habitat: It appears to live in a fragmented habitat within a very limited area in a thin elevational band of dry conifer woodland. Distribution: It is native to northern Pakistan and northwestern India. Since 1994, specimens have been captured in the Sai Valley, Gorabad, and Balti Gali, all in northern Pakistan. Features: Like other flying squirrels, it has elastic membranes on each side of the body connecting the fore and hind legs. The body is covered by a dense coat of straight, silky hairs. The dorsal pelage appears blue-gray, while the underside is pale gray in color. Creamy white hairs cover the throat and ears, and dense, black fur covers the soles of the feet except for the naked, pinkish brown toe pads. Conservation Status: IUCN Red List: Endangered Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.deccanherald.com/india/himachal-pradesh/first-photograph-of-rare-woolly-flying-squirrel-recorded-in-himachals-miyar-valley-3479851

Answer 41

Odisha Explanation : A recent study found that dense vegetation in Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary, home to spotted deer and blackbucks, has shrunk from 41.8% in 1993 to 37.1% in 2023. About Balukhand-Konark Wildlife Sanctuary: It is located in Puri district, Odisha. It was declared a sanctuary on 23 April 1984. It has an area of 87 sq.km. It was established on the sandy tract covered by plantation of casurina and cashew trees, along the coast between Puri and Konark. It is traversed by the rivulets such as Nuanai River, Kusabhadra River, Kadua River, and Prachi River. Flora: Apart from cashew and casurina plantation, Australian acacia and eucalyptus plantations has also been done. Jamun, ficus, neem, karanj, and polang trees are also found, mostly along the course of the Kusabhadra and Nuanai rivers. Fauna: It is home to herds of herbivores (spotted deer), monkeys, jungle cat, hyena, monitor lizard, snakes, etc. Olive Ridley sea turtles have been seen nesting on the beach. Hence option d is the correct answer. News: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/city/bhubaneswar/balukhand-konark-wildlife-sanctuary-facing-ecological-challenges-study/articleshow/120041931.cms

Answer 42

GLP-1 receptor agonist Explanation : A recent international, multicentre clinical study has found that semaglutide, a medication primarily used to treat type 2 diabetes and obesity, can reduce the risk of major cardiovascular events by 14%. What is Semaglutide? Semaglutide is a glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA). It mimics GLP-1, a natural hormone that helps regulate blood sugar and appetite. It is used to: Treat type 2 diabetes by enhancing insulin secretion and lowering blood sugar levels. Aid weight loss in overweight or obese individuals, along with proper diet and exercise. It is available in two forms: injectable and oral tablets. The SOUL trial specifically tested the oral version, known as Rybelsus (by Novo Nordisk). Key Findings from the SOUL Trial The SOUL trial, launched in 2019, was a phase three, double-blind, randomised, placebo-controlled study designed to assess whether oral semaglutide can lower the incidence of major adverse cardiovascular events (MACE) in people with type 2 diabetes (T2DM) who also suffer from cardiovascular disease (CVD) or chronic kidney disease (CKD). The study enrolled 9,650 participants worldwide, including 788 individuals across 32 centres in India, making it a significant part of global research efforts. The primary composite endpoint of the trial was a reduction in cardiovascular death, non-fatal heart attacks (myocardial infarction), and non-fatal strokes. The results revealed a statistically significant 14% reduction in the risk of such cardiovascular events in patients using oral semaglutide as compared to those receiving a placebo, alongside standard care. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/semaglutide-reduces-risk-of-cardiovascular-events-in-patients-with-type-2-diabetes-finds-study/article69415845.ece

Answer 43

Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Explanation : Recently, a rare long-snouted vine snake (Ahaetulla longirostris) was rediscovered in Dudhwa Tiger Reserve, Uttar Pradesh during a rhino release operation in the Palia Kheri division. Why in the News? This marks the first recorded sighting in Uttar Pradesh and only the second documented instance in India. The species was previously seen only in Valmiki Tiger Reserve, Bihar, and some parts of Odisha, with its natural range usually in Southeast Asia. About Ahaetulla longirostris It belongs to the Colubridae family, which includes mostly non-venomous snakes. It has a long, slender body that is typically bright green or brown, helping it to camouflage in foliage. A distinctive elongated snout (rostral extension) differentiates it from other vine snakes. It is an arboreal species, living on trees and easily blends with leaves and branches. It is mildly venomous, but not dangerous to humans. About Dudhwa Tiger Reserve Located on the Indo-Nepal border in Lakhimpur Kheri district, Uttar Pradesh. The reserve includes Dudhwa National Park, Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary, Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary, and forest areas of North Kheri, South Kheri, and Shahjahanpur. It lies within the Tarai-Bhabar zone of the Upper Gangetic Plains Biogeographic Province. Major Rivers in the Region: Sharda River near Kishanpur Sanctuary Geruwa River through Katarniaghat Sanctuary Suheli and Mohana Rivers in Dudhwa National Park All are tributaries of the Ghaghara River Vegetation and Flora: Features North Indian Moist Deciduous Forests, dominated by Sal trees (Shorea robusta). Other important trees include: Terminalia alata (Asna) Lagerstroemia parviflora (Asidha) Adina cordifolia (Haldu) Mitragyna parviflora (Faldu) Gmelina arborea (Ghamhar) Holoptelea integrifolia (Kanju) Major Mammals: Tiger, Leopard (Guldar), Fishing cat, Langur, Jackal, Civet, Mongoose Birds: Dabchick, Spot-billed Pelican, Large and Little Cormorants, Grey Heron, White and Black Stork, White Ibis Reptiles: Gharial, Mugger crocodile, Python, Banded krait, Russell’s viper, Sand boa, Rat snake Hence option b is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/rare-long-snouted-vine-snake-rediscovered-in-dudhwa-tiger-reserve/article69411596.ece

Answer 44

The earliest known solid outer layer of the Earth Explanation : A new international study led by Macquarie University, Australia, suggests that the chemical signatures attributed to plate tectonics were already present in the Hadean protocrust. What is the Hadean Protocrust? The Hadean protocrust refers to the earliest known crust of the Earth—its outermost solid layer—that formed during the Hadean aeon, the planet’s first geologic era, which began around 4.6 billion years ago. This period is named after ‘Hades’, the Greek god of the underworld, due to the extremely hot, hostile, and unstable conditions that prevailed on early Earth. Geological Conditions During the Hadean Aeon The Earth, within its first 200 million years, had a surface that was partially molten, with widespread volcanic activity and constant meteorite bombardment from space. During this time, the magma ocean—a vast reservoir of molten rock covering Earth’s surface—began to cool gradually. As the surface cooled, early fragments of solid crust began to form. These fragments were not stable and often broke off, while new layers solidified, creating a flaky, unstable crustal layer. Some thicker segments of this primitive crust eventually consolidated into the first proto-continents, floating on the underlying asthenospheric mantle—a semi-fluid layer extending up to 400 km beneath the surface. Birth of Plate Tectonics As these crustal plates drifted across the mantle, they began to interact in various ways: colliding, sliding past, or subducting (diving under) one another. These early plate movements laid the foundation for plate tectonics, a key process in shaping the Earth's geological features. Over time, these interactions left distinct chemical signatures in the Earth’s crust, enabling scientists to reconstruct the history of tectonic activity. Hence option c is the correct answer. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/hadean-protocrust-plate-tectonics-macquarie-study-anomaly/article69416265.ece

Answer 45

Both 1 and 2 Explanation : ZSI study on blackflies offers hope for river blindness control, Researchers worked on four species collected from eight locations in the central Himalayan region. Why in the News? A new study by the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI) has introduced DNA barcoding to accurately identify blackfly species—the carriers of Onchocerca volvulus, the parasitic worm that causes river blindness (onchocerciasis). This innovation is expected to enhance disease control and vector management, especially in vulnerable ecological zones like the central Himalayas. What is River Blindness (Onchocerciasis)? River blindness is a neglected tropical disease (NTD) caused by the parasitic worm Onchocerca volvulus. The disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected blackflies belonging to the genus Simulium, which breed in fast-flowing rivers and streams. Symptoms include intense skin itching, disfiguring skin changes, and in advanced cases, permanent vision loss or blindness. Globally, it is second only to trachoma in causing infection-related blindness, especially affecting rural populations in sub-Saharan Africa, Yemen, and parts of Latin America. Treatment relies on mass drug administration (MDA) using ivermectin, with a minimum 80% therapeutic coverage required for effective control. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), river blindness remains one of the most neglected tropical diseases, especially in remote and rural areas. Five countries have been officially declared free of the disease by WHO: Colombia (2013) Ecuador (2014) Mexico (2015) Guatemala (2016) Niger (2025) – the first African country to achieve this milestone. Hence both statements are correct. News: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/zsi-study-on-blackflies-offers-hope-for-river-blindness-control/article69413836.ece

Answer 46

UGC Explanation : The University Grants Commission (UGC) has notified the “Recognition and Grant of Equivalence to Qualifications Obtained from Foreign Educational Institutions Regulations, 2025”. Why in the New? These regulations were finalised after public feedback on the 2023 draft and aim to provide a transparent, structured, and standardised process for recognising foreign academic qualifications. This move aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasises the internationalisation of Indian higher education and the need to seamlessly integrate international students and returning Indian students into India’s education and employment systems. What Are Equivalence Certificates? An equivalence certificate is an official document that certifies a foreign qualification (degree/diploma/certificate) as equivalent to a corresponding Indian qualification. These certificates are now to be issued by the UGC, replacing the previous system managed by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).