Rhodia Flashcards
Which muscle flexes the interphalangeal joint of the thumb
Flexor Pollicus Longus
Longus flexes the joint a LONG distance away from palm
Which muscle flexes the metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb
Flexor Pollicus Brevis
Is apoptosis of osteoblasts a feature of Avascular Necrosis
No, because apoptosis is a physiological process, Avascular Necrosis is pathological
Which nerve passes through both the greater and lesser sciatic foramen
Pudendal nerve
Which foramen does the obturator nerve pass through
Only the lesser sciatic foramen
Which nerve supplies the deltoid
Axillary nerve
Which nerve supplies the teres minor
Axillary nerve
Which nerve supplies the Supraspinatus
Suprascapular nerve
Which nerve supplies the Infraspinatus
Suprascapular nerve
Which nerve supplies the Subscapularis
Superior and Inferior subscapular nerves
What is indicated for an intracapsular displaced femoral fracture
Hemiarthroplasty
What is the nerve supply of the rectus abdomini
T7-12
Which nerve roots are involved in the biceps jerk reflex
C5-C6
Musculocutaneous nerve
Which nerve roots are involved in the triceps jerk reflex
C7-8
Radial nerve
Which nerve is at risk due to a shoulder dislocation/fracture
Axillary nerve
What is a telltale sign of axillary nerve palsy
numb badge patch region
Name 2 diseases which are type V hypersensitivities
Grave’s Diseases
Myasthenia Gravis
What is the Koebner phenomenon
Lesions at the sight of injury
Seen in psoriasis
What is Auspitz sign
The appearance of small bleeding points after successive layers of scale has been removed from the surface of psoriatic papules
What are the compartments of the thigh
Anterior
Medial
Posterior
What is the nerve supply to the anterior compartment of the thigh
Femoral nerve
What is the nerve supply to the medial compartment of the thigh
Obturator nerve
What is the nerve supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh
Sciatic nerve
What is the arterial supply to the anterior compartment of the thigh
Femoral artery
What is the arterial supply to the medial compartment of the thigh
Profunda femoris artery
Obturator artery
What is the arterial supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh
Profunda femoris artery
What are the compartments of the lower leg
Anterior
Lateral
Posterior
What is the nerve supply to the anterior compartment of the lower leg
Deep fibular (peroneal) nerve
What is the nerve supply to the lateral compartment of the lower leg
Superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve
What is the nerve supply to the posterior compartment of the lower leg
Tibial nerve
What is the arterial supply to the anterior compartment of the lower leg
Anterior tibial artery
What is the arterial supply to the lateral compartment of the lower leg
Fibular (peroneal) artery
What is the arterial supply to the posterior compartment of the lower leg
Posterior tibial artery
What is the insertion of the biceps brachii
Radial tuberosity
What is the origin of the long head of the biceps brachii
Supraglenoid tubercle
What is the origin of the short head of the biceps brachii
Coracoid process of scapula
What kind of hypersensitivity is Scabies
Type 4
Which of the carpal bone is a sesamoid bone
Pisiform
Which tendon does the Pisiform bone sit within
Tendon of Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
What is the innervation of the Trapezius
Spinal accessory
What major neck muscle does the spinal accessory nerve innervate
Sternocleidomastoid
Is pruritis a feature of Acne Rosacea
Not commonly no
What type of hypersensitivity is Rheumatoid Arthritis
Type 3
How many structures are in the carpal tunnel
10
How many tendons are in the carpal tunnel
9
Which nerve is in the carpal tunnel
Median Nerve
Name the tendons in the carpal tunnel
Flexor Digitorum Profundus x4
Flexor Digitorum Superficialis x4
Flexor Pollicus Longus
Which gene is defective in Marfan’s Syndrome
Fibrillin Gene
What is a cardiac pathology associated with Marfan’s Syndrome
Aortic Dissection
Which ligament connects the radial head to the radial notch of the ulna
Annular Ligament
Which of the muscle types has nuclei located peripherally
Skeletal
What is the insertion of the pectoralis major
Lateral lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus
What is the mechanism of action of Azathioprine
Purine synthesis inhibition
Which arm muscle does not insert into the radius (and where does it insert)
Brachialis
Coronoid process of ulna
Which nerve can be injured in small saphenous vein surgery
Sural nerve
Where does the psoas major insert
The lesser trochanter of the femur
What is the floor of the anatomical snuffbox
Scaphoid bone
Which nerve lies medially on the thyroid gland and in the groove between the oesophagus and trachea
Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
Where does the scaphoid derive the majority of its blood supply
Distal end
Does alcohol inhibit glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis
Alcohol inhibits glycogenolysis
Hence the hypoglycaemia in the morning
What are the two incretins
GLP-1
GIP
Where is GLP-1 secreted from
Ileum
Where is GIP secreted from
Duodenum
What are the tests for Acromegaly
IGF-1 blood test
Oral Glucose tolerance test
How does Acromegaly increase risk of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
GH excess
GH mobilises glucose from fat stores
Which layer of the adrenal cortex is Cortisol released from
Zona Fasiculata
What are the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex, from superficial to deep
Zona Glomelurosa
Zona Fasiculata
Zona Reticularis
What is released by the zona glomerulosa
Mineralocorticoids e.g Aldosterone
What is released by the zona fasiculata
Glucocorticoids e.g Cortisol
What is released by the zona reticularis
Androgens e.g Testosterone
What does PTH do to serum calcium levels
Increase
How does PTH increase serum calcium
Via Vitamin D to increase reabsorption of calcium in distal convoluted tubule of kidneys
Which cells release somatostatin
Delta cells
Which 3 things does somatostatin decrease
Insulin
GH
Pancreatic exocrine secretions
What are 4 features of Men 2b
Medullary thyroid carcinoma
Phaeochromocytoma
Mucosal Neuroma
Marfanoid features
What are the levels of PTH, Calcium & Phosphate in primary hyperparathyroidism
Elevated PTH
Elevated Calcium
Decreased Phosphate
What are the levels of PTH, Calcium & Phosphate in secondary hyperparathyroidism
Elevated PTH
Decreased Calcium
Increased Phosphate
What are the levels of PTH, Calcium & Phosphate in tertiary hyperparathyroidism
Grossly Elevated PTH
Elevated Calcium
Decreased Phosphate
What is the Pes Anserius
The conjoined tendons of the Sartorius, Gracialis and Semitendinous muscles
Which hormones are increased in the stress response
GH Cortisol Glucagon Prolactin ADH ACTH
Which hormones are decreased in the stress response
Insulin
Testosterone
Estrogen
Where does the superior thyroid vein drain
Into the Internal Jugular Vein
Where does the middle thyroid vein drain
Into the Internal Jugular Vein
Where does the inferior thyroid vein drain
Into the Brachiocephalic Vein
What is the pneumonic for the lateral rotators of the hip
P-GO-Q Piriformis Gemilus (superior & inferior) Obturator (internus & externus) Quadratus femoris
Which two thumb muscles does De Quiverains tenosynovitis affect
Extensor Pollicus Brevis
Abductor Pollicus Longus
Treatment for Intertrochanteric fracture of femur
Dynamic Hip Screw
Or IM nail
Treatment for sub-capital femoral neck fracture
Total Hip Replacement
What happens to Anti-dsDNA levels when SLE is more active
They rise
What type of systemic sclerosis is pulmonary fibrosis more common in
Diffuse systemic sclerosis
What antibody is associated with diffuse systemic sclerosis
Anti-Scl70
What antibody is associated with limited systemic sclerosis
Anti-Centromere
Which autoimmune disease puts you at higher risk of lymphoma
Sjogren’s Syndrome
Is thrombocytosis a feature of Anti-Phospholipid syndrome
Not commonly no
What autoimmune condition is a butterfly rash associated with
SLE
What autoimmune condition is a Pneumothorax associated with
Marfan’s
What is symmetrical small joint swelling suggestive of
Rheumatoid Arthritis
What is one way to treat Enteropathic Arthritis apart from methotrexate
Treat the underlying IBD
What is a crystal arthropathy associated with erosive joint changes
Gout
What is the new name for Churg Strauss syndrome
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
What is the triad associated with Churg Strauss syndrome
Asthma, Rhinitis, Eosinophilia
Which autoimmune disease which has cutaneous changes is associated with an increased chance of malignancy
Dermatomyositis
What are the possible starting doses of prednisolone for Polymyalgia Rheumatica
15mg
40mg if also Giant Cell Arteritis
What is the commonest benign bone tumour
Osteochondroma
What tumour is a bony spur growing away from the metaphysis of long bones
Osteochondroma
Is an osteochondroma completely benign
No
Has a 1% chance of malignancy
What are two names for the kind of bone found at the epiphysis of long bones
Trabecular
Cancellous
What is Osgood-Schlatter’s disease
Traction osteochondritis at the tibial tubercle
What is Sever’s disease
Traction osteochondritis at calcaneus
What is described as a single lucent lesion in metaphyseal regions of bones
Simple Bone Cyst
What is a buzzword for the appearance of a Giant Cell tumour
Soap bubble around knee usually
What pathology can be described as Sheperd’s crook deformity
Fibrous Dysplasia
Where is fibrous dysplasia normally seen
Proximal femur
What tumour is described as a mostly lucent lesion with patchy sclerosis
Enchondroma
What pathology is described as a lucent multi-loculated cyst and where is it usually found
Aneurysmal bone cyst
usually in the medulla of bones
What is the name given to the space which chondrocytes occupy
Lacuna
Which cancer arises as a result of an (11;22) translocation & how common is it
Ewing’s Sarcoma
Rare
Which bone tumour only arises in abnormal bone
Fibrosarcoma
Give an example of a disease where abnormal bone is present and could thus result in a fibrosarcoma forming
Paget’s disease
What is the most common primary bone tumour
Osteosarcoma
What are osteoprogenitor cells
A reserve pool of osteoblasts
What are osteoblasts
Bone forming cells
Where are osteoblasts found
On the surface of developing bone
Which two antibodies are associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis
Anti-CCP
Rheumatoid Factor
What is the treatment pathway for Rheumatoid Arthritis
Methotrexate
Biologics
What is the timeframe within which Methotrexate should be started after a diagnosis of Rheumatoid Arthritis
3 Months
What is the name of the severity scale for monitoring Rheumatoid Arthritis
DAS-28
Which antibodies are associated with Sjogren’s Syndrome
Anti-Ro
Anti-La
What are two treatment options for Sjogren’s Syndrome
Eyedrops
Pilocarpine
What is the test used to diagnose Sjogren’s called and how is it performed
Schirmer’s test
paper strips inserted into the eye for several minutes to measure the production of tears
What is the pathology of Systemic Sclerosis
Excess collagen deposition
What is limited Systemic Sclerosis also sometimes called
Calcinosis Raynaud's Esophagal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia
What antibody is associated with MCTD (mixed connective tissue disease)
Anti-RNP
Which antibodies are associated with Anti-Phospholipid Syndrome
Lupus-Anticoagulant
Anti-cardiolipin
Anti-beta2 Glycoprotein
What is a cutaneous manifestation of Anti-Phospholipid Syndrome
Livedo Reticularis
What is the diagnostic procedure for Giant Cell Arteritis
Temporal Artery Biopsy
Which antibodies are associated with Polymyositis
Anti-Jo1 mainly
but also Anti-RNP
What three investigations can be done for suspected Polymyositis
Serum CK
EMG (Electromyograph|)
Muscle biopsy
What are the 3 changes seen in Dermatomyositis but not in Polymyositis
Gottron’s papules
V-shaped Rash over chest
Heliotrope rash
What nail changed are seen in Dermatomyositis
Nail fold infarcts
Which antibodies are associated with SLE
Anti-dsDNA
Anti-sm
Which drug is always given in SLE for symptomatic relief regardless of severity
Hydroxychloroquine (anti-malarial)
What is the pathology in Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Defect in type 1 collagen
What is a special procedure which can be done for treatment for Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Sofield procedure
Which gene is abnormal in Marfan’s Syndrome
Fibrillin gene
What cardiac pathology is associated with Marfan’s Syndrome
Aortic Dissection
What is the pathology of Ehler-Danlos syndrome
Abnormal collagen and elastin formation
Which disease can cause blue sclera
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Which two conditions are associated with atlantoaxial instability
Down’s Syndrome
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Which gene is abnormal in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and what is it normally involved in
Dystrophin gene
Calcium transport
What is the difference between Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Becker’s Muscular Dystrophy
Becker’s is milder - leads to death in 30’s-40’s rather than 20’s
What are the two severities of spina bifida called and which one is more severe
Spina bifida Occulta
Spina bifida Cystica - more severe
What are the two types of Spina Bifida Cystica and what is the difference
Meningocele - herniation of only meninges
Myelomeningocele - herniation of meninges + spinal cord
What is a possible treatment for Poliomyelitis
Arthrodesis
Which spinal roots are affected in Erb’s Palsy
C5+C6
Which muscles lose function in Erb’s palsy
Biceps Brachialis Deltoid Supraspinatus Infraspinatus
What happens to the humerus with Erb’s Palsy
Internal rotation
What posture is associated with Erb’s Palsy
Waiter’s tip
Which spinal roots are affected in Klumpke’s Palsy
C8 + T1
Which muscles lose function in Klumpke’s Palsy
Intrinsic hand muscles
Which syndrome can Klumpke’s Palsy sometimes cause
Horner’s
Which action can bring about Klumpke’s Palsy
Forceful adduction of arm
What does Froment’s Test test for
Ulnar Nerve Palsy
The action of which muscle is tested in Froment’s test
Adductor Pollicus
Which type of collagen is produced in Dupuytren’s Contracture
Type 3
What is the pathology in Dupuytren’s Contracture
Nodular Hypertrophy of palmar fascia
Is periosteum thicker in children’s bones or adult’s bones
Children’s
Reason for greenstick fractures
What is a nightstick fracture
Isolated fracture of the ulna
What is Wolff’s Law
Bone is laid down in areas of stress
What may be considered instead of a total joint replacement in a young patient with knee arthritis
Tibial Osteotomy
Which wrist movement is required to acquire full grip strength
10 degrees of wrist extension
Which fracture can result in loss of wrist extension and thus a loss in grip strength
Distal Radial Fracture
What is a Monteggia fracture
Fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the proximal head of the radius
What is a Galeazzi fracture
Fracture of the distal third of the radius with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint
How is a Nightstick fracture treated
Conservatively
How is a Monteggia fracture treated
ORIF of the ulna after reduction of radial head
How is a Galeazzi fracture treated
ORIF of the radius after reduction of ulna
How is a tear of the long head of biceps tendon treated
Conservatively
How is a tear of the patellar tendon treated
Surgically repaired
What GCS score indicates a need to perform airway manoeuvres
8 or below
because this indicates loss of airway control
What are the 5 types of fractures
Transverse Oblique Spiral Comminuted Segmental
How is a Transverse fracture described
Flat line
How is an Oblique fracture described
Diagonal break across bone
How is a Spiral fracture described
Rotational break due to twisting force
How is a Comminuted fracture described
3 or more pieces
How is a Segmental fracture described
Bone breaks in 2 places
What are the 3 classes of nerve injury from MOST severe to LEAST severe
Neurotmesis
Axonotmesis
Neurapraxia
Describe Neurapraxia
Conduction defect from compression/stretch
Full function returns in 28 days
Describe Axonotmesis
Death of axons distal to point of injury
Wallerian Degeneration
Axons regrow at 1mm/day
Describe Neurotmesis
Complete transection of nerve
Requires surgery for recovery
What is the Salter-Harris classification used for
Paediatric epiphyseal plate fractures
Which Salter-Harris fractures are intra-articular
Class 3 and 4
What is a Bumper injury and which nerve is at risk of damage
A car hitting a pedestrian side on
Blow to the lateral knee
Common Peroneal nerve at risk
Which nerve is at risk of injury from a posterior hip dislocation
Sciatic nerve
Which nerve is at risk of injury from a supracondylar fracture of the humerus
Median nerve
What is a Boxer’s injury
Fracture of the 5th metacarpal neck
Deformity in which plane is tolerated in a Boxer’s fracture and up to what angle
Up to 45 degrees of flexion is tolerated
Deformity in which plane is not well tolerated in a Boxer’s fracture
Rotational deformity
Which direction is shoulder dislocation most common in
Anterior
What is the 1-year mortality post-hip fracture
30% wtf
What is the most common site for a proximal humerus fracture
Surgical neck
What is the management of a minimally displaced proximal humerus fracture
Conservative
What is the pathology behind Mallet Finger and what does this result in
Avulsion of extensor tendon at DIPJ
Inability to extend at DIPJ
Describe hammer toe
Flexion at PIPJ
Describe mallet toe
Flexion at DIPJ
Describe claw toe
Flexion at DIP & PIP joints
Which structure is at risk after a displaced Colles Fracture
Median nerve
What is a thoracolumbar wedge type fracture
A single column spinal fracture
Where does the sphenoid sinus drain
Sphenoethmoidal recess
Which cranial nerve has the longest course
CN VII - Facial
Which structure does the facial nerve pass into
Parotid Salivary gland
Which meatus, canal and foramen does the facial nerve pass through
Internal Acoustic Meatus
Facial canal
Stylomastoid foramen
Which sinuses drain to the middle meatus
Frontal
Ethmoidal
Maxillary (antra)
What drains into the inferior meatus
Nasolacrimal duct
Which cranial fossa does the Internal Acoustic Meatus sit in
Posterior
Which two structures can a Le Fort 1 fracture damage
Maxillary sinus
Opening of the nasolacrimal duct
Which opening can mastoiditis affect
Additus of mastoid air cells
Which 4 structures pass through the jugular foramen
CN IX - Glossopharyngeal nerve
CN X - Vagus
CN XI - Spinal accessory
Internal Jugular Vein
Which structure prevents anterior dislocation of the jaw
Zygomatic arch
Which nerve has a geniculate ganglion part to it, in the petrous part of the temporal bone
Facial Nerve
What pathology could be suspected with recurrent falls
Vestibular nerve pathology
What makes up the skeleton of the external ear
Elastic cartilage
What is Hordeolum Externa
Stye- inflammatory focus centred on a lash follicle
Is a flame-shaped haemorrhage superficial or deep in the retina
Superficial
Which cranial nerves carry parasympathetic outflow
CN 3, 7, 9, 10
What types of axons does the long ciliary branch contain
Sympathetic and Sensory
What types of axons does the short ciliary branch contain
Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
Which branch of which cranial nerve supplies the Lacrimal gland
Parasympathetic fibres supplied by Greater Petrosal nerve
Branch of CN VII
What is a scotoma
A gap in visual field
What is amaurosis fugax
Transient CRAO (central retinal artery occlusion) Lasts around 5 mins
What is a synechia
Irregular pupil shape
What is Rubeosis Iridis and what does it indicate
Blood vessel growth on iris
suggests severe ischaemia
What is a Symblepharon
Palpebral conjunctiva becomes stuck to bulbar conjunctiva
Causes turning in of the eyelid
Which epilepsy medication can cause constriction of the visual field
Vigabatrin
What is the tee-pee sign and what condition is it seen in
Eyelashes stick together due to oil and sebaceous matter
seen in Seborrhoeic Anterior Blepharitis
What is chemosis
Conjunctival Oedema
What does redness around the limbus suggest
Anterior Uveitis
What is trichiasis
When the eyelashes grow abnormally and touch the eyeball
Why is there pain in the presence of light when a patient has uveitis
The muscles of the iris are inflamed and cause pain when they try to constrict the pupil
What is the Trousseau sign and what does it indicate
Inflation of the BP cuff causes flexion of wrist and fingers
Indicates hypocalcaemia
What is the Chovstek sign and what does it indicate
Tapping on the parotid gland causes twitching of the mouth
Indicates hypocalcaemia
What is Waterhouse-Freiderichson syndrome
Adrenal hypofunction due to bleeding into the gland
usually caused by a N. meningitidis infection
What is Sheehan syndrome
Hypopituitarism due to ischaemic necrosis of the gland postpartum
What is the 2nd line treatment for Hyperthyroidism and when is 1st line
PTU is 2nd line after Carbimazole
The 1st line drug only in the 1st trimester of pregnancy
Why is carbimazole not used in the 1st trimester of pregnancy
Risk of aplasia cutis in early pregnancy
What is the difference between a vocal chord and a vocal fold
Vocal fold has mucosal covering (squamous epithelium)
Vocal cord does not
What kind of cartilage is the laryngeal inlet (aditus)
Elastic
Which muscle is being tested when you ask a patient to stick their tongue straight out
Genioglossus
Which nerve is being tested when you ask a patient to stick their tongue straight out
Hypoglossal CN XII
How can you tell which nerve (right or left) is injured when you ask a patient to stick their tongue straight out
The tongue tip will point to the side which is damaged/non-functional
Which two muscles are being tested when you ask a patient to say “ahh” and what is their innervation
Tensor Veli Palatini (CN V3)
Levator Veli Palatini (CN X)
How can you tell which nerve (right or left) is injured when you ask a patient to say “ahh”
The uvula is pulled away by the functioning side
i.e points away from the injured side
During a Laryngoscopy, which space is the laryngoscope placed into
Vallecula (space between epiglottis and tongue)
Which nerve supplies the Circular (constrictor) muscles of the pharynx
CN X (Vagus)
What do the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx do
Elevate pharynx & larynx
Where do all the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx insert
Onto posterior border of thyroid cartilage
Where do all the Circular (constrictor) muscles of the pharynx insert
All insert onto the midline raphe
Name the 3 longitudinal muscles of the pharynx
Palatopharyngeus
Salpingopharyngeus
Stylopharyngeus
What is the innervation of the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx
CN X supplies Palatopharyngeus & Salpingopharyngeus
CN IX supplies Stylopharyngeus
Which muscle does the parotid duct pierce to emerge into the oral cavity
Buccinator
Which of the vocal cord muscles are not involved in whispering
Arytenoid muscles
Names the muscles of the floor of the mouth
Digastric (anterior belly)
Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid
Which vertebral level is the hyoid bone found at
C3
What is the lymphatic drainage for the tip of the tongue
Submental nodes
What structure is pressed on to compress the oesophagus to allow ventilation
Lamina of the cricoid cartilage
What is Dacrocystitis
Infection of the lacrimal sac
How would Dacrocystitis typically present
Watery eye + swelling/erythema at inner canthus of eye
What is the most common reason for revision surgery of of THR
Aseptic loosening of implant
Which diabetes drug is contraindicated in heart failure and why
TZD’s
Cause fluid retention
Treatment for infective conjunctivitis
Topical Chloramphenicol
What are tatty’s 4 T’s of Type 1 Diabetes
Tired
Thin
Thirsty
Toilet
Describe MODY
Symptoms of Type 2 diabetes in a young patient
1st line treatment for lower back pain
NSAID (e.g Naproxen) rather than just paracetamol alone
When is the commencing of uric acid lowering (uricosuric) drugs indicated
2 or more gout attacks in 12 months
What is the alternative to Allopurinol
Febuxostat
What is the mechanism of action of Allopurinol & Febuxostat
Inhibition of Xanthine Oxidase (enzyme)
Which investigation must be carried out with a diagnosis of SLE and why
Urine analysis (look for proteinuria) -> Renal Biopsy To check for Lupus Nephritis
Which thyroid condition is strongly associated with smoking
Grave’s
Which antibody can be seen in Grave’s disease
TSH receptor antibody
(TRAb) stimulating*
Which antibody can be seen Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Anti-TPO
Thyroperoxidase
Name the 3 longitudinal muscles of the pharynx
Stylopharyngeus
Salpingopharyngeus
Palatopharyngeus
What is the innervation of the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx
CN X apart from Stylopharyngeus which is CN IX
Name the 2 soft palate muscles
Tensor veli palatini
Levator veli palatini
What is the innervation of the soft palate muscles
Levator veli palatini - CN X
Tensor veli palatini - CN V3
Which muscles open (abduct) the vocal cords and what effect does this have
Posterior crico-arytenoid muscles
Makes voice louder
Which muscles relax the vocal cords and what effect does this have
Thyroarytenoid muscles
Makes voice lower (lowers pitch)
Which muscles close (adduct) the vocal cords and what effect does this have
Lateral crico-arytenoid & Arytenoid muscles
Makes voice quieter
Which muscles tense the vocal cords and what effect does this have
Cricothyroid muscles
Makes voice higher (increases pitch)
Name the 4 strap muscles
Sternothyroid
Thyrohyoid
Omohyoid
Sternohyoid
Which fracture typically caused by a FOOSH always requires ORIF
Smith fracture
Name the muscles which make up the floor of the mouth
Mylohyoid
Anterior belly of Digastric
Geniohyoid
What gene mutation is linked to retinoblastoma
Rb-1 gene on chromosome 13
Which marker is very high in Paget’s disease and why
Alkaline Phosphatase
Marker for bone destruction
What does the JESS mnemonic stand for and what disease is it for
Joint space loss Erosion of joint Synovial thickening Subluxation X-ray changes in rheumatoid arthritis
What period of morning stiffness is associated with rheumatoid and osteoarthritis
OA - less than 30mins
RA - more than 30mins
What is thyrotoxicosis factitia
Hyperthyroidism caused by ingestion of exogenous thyroid hormone
What stimulates a salty taste
Chemical salts (esp. NaCl)
What stimulates a sour taste
Free H+ ions
What stimulates a sweet taste
A configuration of glucose
What stimulates a bitter taste
Alkaloids
Toxic plant derivatives
Poison
What stimulates a umami (meaty/savoury) taste
Amino acids
in particular glutamate
Conn’s syndrome typical biochemistry and presentation
Relatively young patient with hypertension
Hypokalaemia and Hypernatraemia
(Aldosterone causes Na retention)
Men1 is associated with which 3 tumours
Parathyroid gland
Islet cells of the pancreas
Pituitary gland
What medications can exacerbate psoriasis
Anti-malarials
Beta-blockers
What does the PCOS PAL mnemonic stand for, with regards to polycystic ovarian syndrome
Polycystic on ultrasound
Cycles erratic (menstrual)
Obesity + Hirsutism
Subfertility
Prolactin elevated
Androgens very elevated
LH grossly elevated
What is the incretin effect and what causes it
Oral glucose triggers a greater insulin release than IV
This occurs due to oral glucose causing the release of GLP-1 and GIP (from Ileum & duodenum)
What are the 2 ketones commonly measured and where are they found
Beta-hydroxybutyrate - in blood
Acetoacetate - in urine
What are the two types of differentiated thyroid cancers
Papillary
Follicular
How does papillary thyroid carcinoma spread
Tends to spread via lymphatics
How does follicular thyroid carcinoma tend to spread
Via blood (haematogenous)
Name an endocrine, cardio & MSK condition that Acromegaly is associated with
Diabetes Mellitus
Left Ventricular Hypertrophy
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Is Psoriatic arthritis more similar to osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
What is arthritis mutilans
A severe and highly destructive form of psoriatic arthritis
Why cant testosterone be given IV
Is only available with an oily base, therefore, risk of embolus if given IV
What condition is this a classic presentation of :
Halo around lights, ‘Frosted glass appearance’, pain & decreased visual acuity
Acute Angle Closure Glaucoma
What are the Rotterdam criteria for Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
2 out of 3 of :
Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
Evidence of elevated androgens (hirsutism)
Menstrual irregularity
What part of the body can Bisphosphonates cause side effects in
Oesophagus
What is the most common cause of vertigo
Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
BPPV
What is thought to be the cause of BPPV
Otolith material (calcium carbonate) displaced from utricle into semi-circular canals (usually posterior)
What is the test to diagnose BPPV
Dix-Hallpike test
Classic Nystagmus is seen
What manoeuvre is used to treat BPPV
Epley manoeuvre
Relocates displaced material to utricle
What is the shawl sign and which disease is it seen in
Red Rash on back of neck like a shawl
Dermatomyositis
What are the 3 endocrine receptor types
G-Protein coupled receptor
Receptor kinase
Nuclear receptors
What are the 3 classes of hormones
Protein & peptide
Steroid
Tyrosine derivatives
What is preproinsulin and what is it broken down into
Insulin precursor
Broken down into insulin + c-peptide
Does insulin inhibit or stimulate lipolysis
Inhibit lipolysis
Which glucose transporter is in pancreatic beta cells
GLUT2
Which glucose transporter is in skeletal muscle cells
GLUT4
Does water follow Na or the other way round
Water follows Na as a rule of thumb
What does mineralocorticoid activity mean
Na retention in exchange for K+/H+ ions
Concentrated urine has a high/low osmolarity
High osmolarity
What is the HbA1c level in a normal person
Below 41mmol/L
What HbA1c level diagnoses diabetes
48mmol/L and above
What is the onset and peak action time of rapid-acting insulin
15min onset, 1-2 hour peak
Give examples of rapid-acting insulin
Novorapid, Humalog
What is the onset and peak action time of short-acting insulin
30-60min onset, 2-4 hour peak
Give examples of short-acting insulin
Actrapid, Humulin S
What is the onset of basal insulin
1-3 hour onset
Give examples of basal insulin
Insulatard, Humulin I
Give examples of long-acting insulin
Lantus (Glargine)
Levemir (Detemir)
What are the pre-meal blood glucose targets
3.9 - 7.2mmol/L
What are the 1-2 hour post-meal blood glucose targets
< 10mmol/L
What effect does GLP-1 have on alpha-cells of the pancreas
Decreases glucagon release
What 2 factors can be mutated in MODY
Transcription factor
Glucokinase
Which type of MODY presents at birth
Glucokinase mutation
Which type of MODY can sulphonylureas be useful for
Transcription factor MODY
What level of ketonaemia is diagnostic of DKA
> 3mmol/L
What level of blood glucose is diagnostic of DKA
> 11mmol/L
What level of bicarbonate & pH is diagnostic of DKA
Bicarbonate < 15mmol/L
pH < 7.3
What type of breathing is associated with DKA
Kussmaul breathing
What is the normal range of lactate
0.6-1.2
What is the normal range of osmolality
285-295
What is stored in thyroid colloids and released by follicular cells
Thyroglobulin
What is the definitive test for Cushing’s
Low dose dexamethasone suppression test overnight
Cortisol < 50 = normal
What are the Hypophysis and Neurohypophysis
Hypophysis - Anterior pituitary
Neurohypophysis - Posterior pituitary (extension of hypothalamus)
What kind of cells does the adrenal medulla contain
Chromaffin cells
Which two chemicals does ACTH mediate the release of from the adrenal cortex
Cortisol from Zona Fasiculata
Androgens from Zona Reticularis
What does cortisol do to libido and proteins in the body
Loss of libido Protein loss (muscle wasting & osteoporosis)
Why is Addison’s associated with dark/pigmented skin
Adrenal failure causes high ACTH
ACTH causes melanocytes to produce more melanin
What are the levels of K+, Na+, ACTH, Renin & Aldosterone like in Addison’s
High K+ Low Na+ High ACTH Very High Renin Low Aldosterone
What is the diagnostic test for Addison’s
Short SYNACTHEN test
Cortisol > 550 = normal
What is the treatment for Addison’s
Hydrocortisone (cortisol replacement)
Fludrocortisone (aldosterone replacement)
What tests can be done to diagnose Conn’s syndrome
Aldosterone: Renin ratio
Saline suppression test
(failure to suppress aldosterone by 50% with 2L saline)
Treatment for Conn’s syndrome
Adrenalectomy
Spironolactone if bilateral
What are the cortisol, aldosterone & androgen levels like in congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Low cortisol
Low aldosterone
Very high androgens
Which adrenal condition can present with ambiguous genitalia
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
What is the classic triad of symptoms for phaeochromocytoma
a headache
sweating
palpitations
What is the treatment ladder for Phaeochromocytoma
Alpha blocker
Beta|-blocker
fluid replace
Surgical excision
How is hypercalcaemia treated
Fluid replacement, loop diuretic, bisphosphonate
What bone mineral density is considered normal
Within 1 standard deviation of the young adult-reference mean
What bone mineral density is considered osteopenic
1-2.5 standard deviations below the young adult-reference mean
What bone mineral density is considered osteoporotic
2.5 standard deviations or more below the young adult-reference mean
How do bisphosphonates work
They are ingested by osteoclasts and cause cell death
This decreases bone resorption
What are some side effects of bisphosphonates
Osteonecrosis of jaw
Oesophageal cancer
Which hormone increases to cause follicle formation in the menstrual cycle
FSH
Which cells around the leading follicle release which chemical
Granulosa cells release oestrogen
Which hormone spikes just before the ovulation stage of the menstrual cycle
LH surge
How is oligomenorrhoea defined
Less than 9 periods a year
Define primary and secondary amenorrhoea
Primary - Failure to have the first period by 16
Secondary - Cessation of periods for 6 months with previous periods
Can high prolactin cause oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea
Amenorrhoea
What is Kallman’s syndrome
Loss of GnRH secretion from hypothalamus
Accompanied by loss of smell
Where is preproinsulin synthesised
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
What do diazoxides do
Stimulate the K+ channel in beta cells
Cause repolarisation
Inhibit insulin release
What are the subunits of the insulin receptor and how are they linked
2 extracellular alpha subunits
2 transmembrane beta subunits
Linked by disulfide bonds
How does insulin have an effect on cells
Binds to extracellular alpha subunits
causes autophosphorylation of beta subunits
Causes gene expression via MAPkinase pathway
Causes uptake of glucose via GLUT4 -> glycogen synthesis
Where and how are ketone bodies formed
In liver mitochondria vis beta-oxidation of acetyl-CoA
What is smoky red urine caused by
Caused by intact red blood cells
What is seen on the iodine uptake scan with acute thyroiditis
Reduced/ no uptake
What are the two surgical approaches to the pituitary fossa
Trans-sphenoidal
Trans-cranial
Describe the three Le Forte fractures
Le Forte 1 - Maxilla seprates from hard palate
Le Forte 2 - Maxilla seperates from zygoma + nasal bones
Le Forte 3 - Nuerocranium seperates from viscerocranium
What is type 3 diabetes
Diabetes secondary to other disease/ cause
e.g. Cushing’s, Turner’s
What are the two types of lactic acidosis and what are they associated with
Type A - Hypoxaemia of tissues
Type B - Diabetes
What 4 pathologies does Wolfram syndrome give you
Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes Insipidus
Optic Atrophy
Deafness
What is Type 4 diabetes and what causes it
Gestational diabetes (in 3rd trimester) Caused by placental hormones
Which malignancy is associated with Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Papillary carcinoma
When are T3 and T4 stopped before a full body iodine scan and why
T3- 2 weeks before T4- 4 weeks before
Stopped to allow TSH to be high
Which two things does TRH stimulate the secretion of
TSH & Prolactin
That’s why hypothyroidism can also cause hyperprolactinaemia
Does iodine deficiency cause hypothyroidism
yes, commonest cause in developing countries
Why does goitre occur in hypothyroidism
Increased TSH causes gland enlargement
How can a medullary thyroid carcinoma cause diarrhoea or Cushing’s
Paraneoplastic production of VIP or ACTH
What is the Guthrie test and when is it done
Done on day 5 to screen for congenital thyroid disease
What is Whipple’s triad and what does it indicate
Symptoms of hypoglycaemia
Documented low blood sugar
Symptomatic relief by glucose
Indicates an insulinoma
What do the Centor criteria consist of
Fever (over 38)
Absence of a cough
Tonsilar exudate
Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
What does a Centor score of 3 or above indicate and what is the next step
Indicates Bacterial Tonsilitis
Penicillin V or Clarithromycin if allergic
What is an Adie pupil
Tonically dilated pupil with a slow reaction to light
Seen in females with absent knee/ ankle jerk
occurs due to damage to parasympathetics of eye
What is a Marcu-Gunn pupil
Relative afferent pupil defect
usually due to optic nerve damage
What is a Hutchinson pupil
Unilateral dilated pupil with no reaction to light
usually due to oculomotor nerve damage
What is an Argyll-Robertson pupil
Bilaterally small pupils
Accommodation reflex but no reaction to light
Seen in syphilis -> prostitute’s pupil
What is the sensory organ of hearing and how does it work
Organ of Corti
Hair cells convert mechanical bending force into electrical impulses
The basilar membrane is tonotopically arranged - what does this mean
The apex picks up low frequency sound
The base picks up high-frequency sound
What does impedance matching refer to
The pressure gain of x22 from the tympanic membrane to the oval window
Where is the auditory cortex located
Superior temporal gyrus
Broadmann area 41/42
What is the lifespan of taste receptor cells and where are they renewed from
10 days
renewed from basal cells
What are the three types of cell in the olfactory mucosa
Olfactory receptor cells
Supporting cells
Basal cells
What are the early complications of Strep Throat
Quinsy
Otitis media
Scarlet fever
What are the late complications of Strep Throat
Rheumatic fever
Glomerulonephritis
What is the treatment for oral candidiasis
Topical nystatin suspension
What antibiotics are given for complicated/ unresolving sinusitis
Penicillin
Doxycycline if allergic (Not in children)
What is the treatment ladder for otitis externa
Topical aural toilet
Clotrimazole for fungal causes
Gentamicin for chronic (Pseudomonas)
What is the classic triad of symptoms for glandular fever
Fever
Pharyngitis
Lymphadenopathy
Name 4 complications of glandular fever
Splenic rupture
Thrombocytopenia
Lymphoma
Upper airway obstruction
What 3 investigations can be done for glandular fever
IgM test
Paul-Bunnell test
Monospot test
(CRP will also be low)
What actually is a cholesteatoma
The presence of keratin producing squamous epithelium in the middle ear
What is a vestibular schwannoma and where are they typically found
A benign tumour of Schwann cells
usually found at the cerebellopontine angle
What is the Battle sign and what does it suggest
Bruising behind the ear
Suggests a temporal bone fracture
What are the two types of temporal bone fracture
Longitudinal (conductive hearing loss)
Transverse (sensorineural hearing loss)
When is a barium swallow more useful than endoscopy
To visualise oesophageal dysmotility, an oesophageal stricture or a pharyngeal pouch
What scans are done to investigate the two types of hearing loss
Conductive - CT scan
Sensorineural - MRI scan
Which virus is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Epstein Barr virus
Where is there a high incidence of Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
In the far east
associated with nitrosamines in food
What is the histology of the palatine tonsils
Stratified squamous epithelium with crypts and a collagen hemi-capsule
What is the histology of the adenoid tonsils
Respiratory epithelium with folds and a transition layer (antigen processing)
Where is the infection in quinsy
In between the tonsil and the underlying muscle
What type of cartilage makes up the nasal cartilage
Hyaline cartilage
Which bones make up the septum of the nose
Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
Vomer
The nasal cavity is supplied by which three arteries
Facial
Maxillary
Ophthalmic
What is Kisselbach’s area
Arterial anastomoses on nasal septum
Which bone are the conchae a part of
Superior and middle are part of ethmoid
Inferior is a bone on its own
What proportion of the external acoustic meatus is bone
1/3 cartilage 2/3 bone
What structure forms the connection between the epitympanic recess and the mastoid process
Aditus
What is the promontory in the middle ear
Bony swelling on the medial wall of the middle ear cavity due to the cochlea
What is the origin of the thyroid gland
Foramen caecum
Where does the hypoglossal nerve lie in relation to the lingual artery
Lies lateral to the loop of the lingual artery
Lymph drainage of the lateral surface of the superior half of the ear
Parotid
Lymph drainage of the cranial surface of the superior half of the ear
Mastoid (& deep cervical)
Lymph drainage for majority of the ear
Superficial cervical
What do the terms anotia and microtia mean
Anotia is the absence of an ear
Microtia is an ear which is not fully developed
What are the ducts called in correspondence to the scala media, tympani and vestibuli
Scala media - cochlear duct
Scala vestibuli - vestibular duct
Scala tympani - tympanic duct
What does tinnitus indicate damage to
Damage to the outer hair cells (modulate sound)
What is sialolithiasis
Stones within the salivary glands
What is herpetic whitlow
Herpes infection of the junction between nail and skin
What is Carhart’s notch
A notch present at 2000 Hz on an audiogram
Otosclerosis
What is the commonest cause of adult subglottic stenosis
Vasculitis
What is the classic presentation of a thyroglossal cyst
Midline swelling which moves upwards on protrusion of the tongue
What pathology can be described as a collection of dilated lymphatic sacs which are transilluminable
Cystic Hygroma
How long must a mouth ulcer be present to warrant being referred to oral surgery
3 weeks
What disease can present as a ‘flamingo tinge’ and what is this caused by
Otosclerosis
Caused by hyperaemia
What 5 classes of drugs can be used to treat glaucoma
Prostaglandin analogue Beta blocker Sympathomimetics Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor Miotics
What is a side effect of prostaglandin analogues
Brown pigmentation of iris
When can beta blockers not be used to treat glaucoma
When the patient has asthma or heart block
What is a side effect of sympathomimetics
Hyperaemia
What is a side effect of CA inhibitors
Systemic Absorption
What is a side effect of Miotic drugs
Blurry vision and headache due to constriction of pupil
Which class of drug, also used for hypertension, can cause gingival hyperplasia
Calcium channel blockers
What symptoms can a vestibular schwannoma cause in relation to cranial nerves
CN V - Absent corneal reflex
CN VIII - Vertigo, tinnitus, HL
CN VII - Facial nerve palsy
What diagnosis would be suggested by night blindness and tunnel vision
Retinitis Pigmentosa
What are the two tuning fork tests
Rinne’s test
Weber test
What is the mnemonic for branches of the facial nerve
To Zanzibar By Motor Car
Temporal, Zygomatic, Buccal, Mandibular, Cervical
What are the different types of Cerebral Palsy
one limb (monoplegic),
one ipsilateral upper and lower limb (hemiplegic)
both legs only (diplegic)
4 limbs usually with learning difficulties (Quadriplegic)
What are the names of the ducts which drain the submandibular and parotid glands
Submandibular -> Wharton’s duct
Parotid -> Stensen’s duct
Name 2 anti-folate antibiotics which shouldn’t be used with methotrexate and why
Trimethoprim
Co-Trimoxazole
(risk of severe bone marrow suppression)
What is Pott’s disease
Tuberculosis in a site other than the lungs
often vertebrae
Which TB drug can induce lupus
Isoniazid
What can happen to ligaments in osteoarthritis
Ligament hypertrophy
Which organism causes ‘walking pneumonia’ and why is it called this
Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
Called this because patients often seem fine
What is the only organism which is not a virus but is tested for using PCR
Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
How is legionella pneumonia tested for
Urine sample
What is the ideal treatment for someone with sepsis/ severe disease
IV Bacteriocidal antibiotics
When should a baby be introduced to full fat, semi-skimmed and skimmed milk
Full fat - 1 year onwards
Semi-skimmed - 2 years onwards
Skimmed - 5 years onwards