Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Misc. Notes Year 2 > MSK notes > Flashcards

MSK notes Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 main seronegative arthritides

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis
Reactive Arthritis
Psoriatic Arthritis
Enteropathic Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the innervation of the Gluteus maximus

A

Inferior Gluteal Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which muscle is continuous with the iliotibial tract

A

Tensor Fascia Lata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The greater and lesser sciatic foramen are passageways into which structures

A

Greater - Pelvis

Lesser - Perineum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which spinal cord segments make up the sciatic nerve

A

L4-S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which spinal cord segments make up the pudendal nerve

A

S2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which three ligaments are part of the hip joint

A

Iliofemoral
Pubofemoral
Ischiofemoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the articulations of the knee joint

A

2x Femorotibial

1x Femoropatellar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which spinal cord segments are involved in the ankle jerk reflex

A

S1, S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The tendons of which two muscles make up the calcaneal/Achilles tendon

A

Gastrocnemius & Soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle in terms of :
Neuromuscular Junctions
Gap junctions
Striations

A

Skeletal and cardiac muscle is striated
Skeletal muscle has Neuromuscular Junctions
Cardiac muscle has Gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define a motor unit of skeletal muscle

A

A single alpha motor neuron and all the muscle fibres it supplies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is A-band

A

Thick filaments along with thin filaments that overlap in both ends of thick filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is I-Band

A

Remaining portion of thin filaments which don’t project into A-band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is H-zone

A

Lighter area in middle of A-band where thin filaments don’t reach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is M line

A

A line down the middle of H-zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is Ca2+ released in muscle cells

A

When the surface action potential spreads down the transverse T-tubules, Ca2+ is released from the lateral sacs of the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What 2 things does gradation of muscle tension depend on

A

Number of muscle fibres

Tension developed by each fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the optimal length of skeletal muscle

A

The resting length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the two contraction types and when are they useful

A

Isotonic - muscle length changes

Isometric - muscle length stays constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the three metabolic pathways to supply ATP in skeletal muscle

A

Creatinine Phosphate - via ADP - immediate
Oxidative Phosphorylation - When O2 is present
Glycolysis - When O2 is absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the three muscle fibre types and when are they used

A

Type 1 -Slow oxidative (slow twitch) - Prolonged low work
Type 2a - Fast oxidative (intermediate) - Prolonged moderate work
Type 2x - Fast Glycolytic (fast twitch) - Short term high intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are muscle spindle fibres intrafusal or extrafusal

A

Intrafusal

Normal muscle fibres are extrafusal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the muscle spindle sensory nerve endings called

A

Annulospiral fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the name of the muscle spindle's efferent nerve supply
gamma motor neurons
26
What is the most common causative organism in osteomyelitis in a patient with sickle cell disease
Salmonella
27
What is a common causative organism in osteomyelitis if a prosthetic joint and what is the treatment
Staph Epidermidis | Vancomycin
28
What is the incubation period of Clostridium tetani
4 days - several weeks
29
What colour are each of the muscle fibre types on a succinate dehydrogenase stain
Type 1 - Dark purple Type 2a - Light purple Type 2x - Almost white
30
How much of hyaline cartilage is water and what is the other component
75% water | 25% organic material
31
What is the organic material of hyaline cartilage made up of
60% type 2 collagen | 40% proteoglycan aggregates
32
What is the terminal division of a motor neurone called
Terminal bouton
33
What surrounds a terminal bouton
Schwann cell
34
How is choline transferred into the terminal
via Na+ symport through the choline transporter
35
Which enzyme combines choline with ____ to form Ach
``` Choline Acetyltransferase (CAT) Combines choline and acetyl-CoA ```
36
What 2 things do the arrival of the action potential at the terminal cause
Depolarisation of voltage-activated Ca2+ channels | Allows Ca2+ entry into the terminal
37
What does e.p.p stand for, in terms of the neuromuscular junction
End Plate Potential
38
What is the end plate potential caused by
ACh activates nicotinic ACh receptors located in the muscle end-plate This opens a gate causing influx of Na+ which is greater than efflux of K+: a depolarization known as the end plate potential (e.p.p.) is generated
39
What is a synarthrosis
A fibrous joint
40
What is an amphiarthrosis
A cartilaginous joint
41
What is a diarthrosis
A synovial joint
42
What does rapid movement do to the elasticity and viscosity of synovial fluid
Increases elasticity | Decreases viscosity
43
What 2 things break down chondrocytes
Metalloproteinase | Proteolytic enzyme
44
What are the three types of pain
Nociceptive Inflammatory Pathological
45
What are the two types of pain fibres and what is the difference between them
A-fibres - thinly myelinated - sense fast pain | C- fibres - unmyelinated - sense prolonged pain
46
Which gene is associated with RA
HLA-DR4
47
What is a pannus
The inflamed synovium
48
How is early RA defined
<2 years since the onset of symptoms
49
What is seen in synovial fluid which is a marker for cartilage degradation
Type 2 collagen
50
How is hyperuricaemia defined
Serum uric acid > 7
51
What is the gold standard investigation for crystal arthropathy
Joint Aspirate
52
What crystal builds up in Milwaukee shoulder
Hydroxyapatite
53
What stain is a buzzword for Milwaukee shoulder
Alizarin red stain
54
What is the single gene defect that results in IPEX syndrome
FOXP3
55
Does inclusion body myositis affect distal or proximal muscles
Causes distal muscle weakness
56
Is muscle strength affected by Polymyalgia Rheumatica
No, it is normal
57
In Vasculitis, which layer of the blood vessel are dendritic cells activated in
Tunica Adventitia
58
What are the two main large cell vasculitis
Takayasu & Giant Cell Arteritis
59
What are the two main medium vessel vasculitis
Kawasaki disease | Polyarteritis Nodosa
60
Who does Kawasaki disease predominantly affect
Children under 5
61
What is the first line treatment for ANCA-associated vasculitis at a systemic level
Cyclophosphamide + steroids
62
What is Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
IgA mediated vasculitis which affects the GI tract, skin and kidneys
63
Where do motor and sensory neurons originate from
Motor - Anterior grey horn | Sensory - Dorsal root ganglion
64
Where does the spinal cord end
L1
65
Which three muscles make up the erector spinae
Iliocostalis Longissimus thoracis Spinalis thoracis
66
What is a chance fracture
Common in car crashes Fractured bone in front of spine Torn ligaments at the back
67
When should Genu Valgus be referred
If intermalleolar distance is more than 8cm at 11 years old
68
What are the three possible causes of in-toeing
Internal tibial torsion Metatarsus Adductus Femoral neck anteversion
69
Which score is used to classify joint laxity
Beighton score (9 point system)
70
Nerve root for ankle dorsiflexion
L5
71
What is the bowstring test used for
Checking for sciatic nerve irritation
72
What is the other test that can be used to check for sciatic nerve irritation, apart from bowstring test
Sciatic stretch test
73
What is Heuter-Volkmann's law
Compression forces across an epiphyseal plate inhibit growth and tensile forces stimulate growth
74
What is Volkmann's ischaemic contracture a complication of
Compartment syndrome
75
What is a sequestrum
A dead fragment of bone seen in chronic osteomyelitis
76
What is O'Donoghue's triad (unhappy knee triad)
Injury to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and medial meniscus
77
What are the 4 meniscal tear patterns
Longitudinal Radial Bucket handle Parrot Beak
78
How many grades are there for a knee ligament injury
3 grades
79
How does an extensor mechanism rupture occur
Fall onto knee with quads contraction
80
What is the most common cause of acquired flat foot
Tibialis posterior dysfunction
81
Does tibialis posterior pass posterior to the medial or lateral malleolus
Medial
82
When is Tinel's test positive for Baxter's nerve
Plantar Fasciitis
83
Which test is positive for Achilles tendon rupture
Simmond's test
84
When is Mulder's click test positive and why
Morton's neuroma | Fibrosis of digital nerve
85
All muscles in anterior compartment of forearm are supplied by median nerve with the exception of which two muscles
Flexor carpi ulnaris | Medial part of Flexor Digitorum Profundus (supplying ring and little finger)
86
All upper limb extensors are supplied by which nerve
Radial
87
Which type of arthritis is a "pencil-in-cup appearance"
Psoriatic Arthritis
88
Views taken for a suspected cervical spine fracture
AP, Lateral & odontoid peg
89
Views taken for a suspected scaphoid fracture
AP, Lateral & 2 obliques
90
How can you differentiate between an avulsion fracture and an avulsion fracture mimic
Avulsion fracture mimics have completely corticated borders
91
What is the weakest part of children's bones
Growth plate
92
What are outpouching of synovial fluid or synovial cavity called
Synovial fluid - Mucous cyst | Synovial cavity - Ganglion cyst
93
What is the test for De Quiverain's tenosynovitis
Finklestein's test
94
What are tendon's mainly made of
Type 1 collagen
95
What is Mill's test done for
Lateral Epicondylitis (tennis elbow)
96
What is myositis ossificans
Intramuscular Haematoma which calcifies
97
What is a Pilon fracture and what is a common cause
Fracture of the distal part of the tibia, involving its articular surface at the ankle joint Fall from height
98
Which connective tissue disease is the Anti-Smith antibody highly specific for
SLE
99
Which type of fracture is described as an incomplete fracture of the shaft of a long bone with bulging of the cortex and who does this tend to affect
Buckle fracture | Kids 5-10
100
Ankylosing spondylitis can cause pain at night true or false
True
101
Can temporal arteritis present with a low-grade fever and vastly elevated CK
A low-grade fever may be present but CK and EMG tend to be normal
102
What is Foucher's sign
Increase in tension of a Baker's cyst seen on knee extension
103
What pathology is indicated by a step deformity after a history of a fall onto the shoulder
Acromioclavicular dislocation
104
What is a McMurray test
Same as Steinmann's test but listening out for a click to indicate a meniscal tear
105
Which ANCA is associated with GPA and eGPA respectively
cANCA --> GPA | pANCA --> eGPA
106
Which antibodies could be associated with GPA and eGPA respectively
GPA --> Anti-PR3 | eGPA --> Anti-MPO
107
Which triad would suggest Behcet's disease
Oral ulcers Genital ulcers Anterior uveitis
108
Carpal tunnel syndrome will show wasting of which eminence
Thenar eminence
109
Osteoporosis is associated with low/high body mass
Low body mass
110
Which triad is associated with fat embolism
Resp. symptoms Neuro symptoms Petechial rash
111
What are CRP levels like in SLE
Typically normal
112
A positive straight leg raise test is seen with what kind of pain
Sciatic nerve pain
113
What is the imaging modality for choice for osteomyelitis
MRI
114
Which drug can be given for Raynaud's
Nifedipine
115
A teenage girl presents with knee pain walking downstairs
Chondromalacia patellae
116
What drug treatment should you give for osteoarthritis of the knee/hand
Paracetamol + topical NSAID
117
Which antibody will be positive for drug-induced lupus
Anti-histone antibody
118
Where does the triceps muscle insert
olecranon process of ulna
119
Clubfoot is associated with which 2 serious paediatric conditions
Spina Bifida | Cerebral palsy

Misc. Notes Year 2 (30 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions