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First Aid > Reproductive > Flashcards

Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

location and function of shh in embryonic limb

A

ZPA in base of limbs, does anteroposterior patterning (radial to ulnar)

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2
Q

location and function of wnt-7 in embryonic limb

A

AER, does dorsoventral patterning

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3
Q

location and function of FGF in embryonic limb

A

AER, lengthens limb

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4
Q

function of Hox genes

A

segmental organization of embryo in craniocaudal direction

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5
Q

result of mutation in Hox genes

A

limbs in teh wrong locations

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6
Q

at what week does fetal heart beat

A

4

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7
Q

at what week do fetal movements begin

A

8

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8
Q

at what week do fetal genitalia have male or female characteristics

A

10

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9
Q

when is the embryonic period

A

weeks 3-8. period of organogenesis

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10
Q

teratogen effect of ACE inhibitors

A

renal damage

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11
Q

teratogen effect of antiepileptic drugs

A

neural tube defects, cardiac defects, cleft palate, skeletal abnormalities.

supplement with high dose folate

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12
Q

teratogen effect of DES

A

vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, congenital mullerian anomalies

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13
Q

teratogen effect of isoretinoin and vitamin A excess

A

spontaneous abortions, birth defects

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14
Q

teratogen effect of lithium

A

Ebstein abnormality

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15
Q

teratogen effect of methimazole

A

aplasia cutis congenita

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16
Q

teratogen effect thalidomide (!=thionamide)

A

limb defects

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17
Q

teratogen effect wafarin

A

bone deformities, abortion, opthalmologic abnormalities, fetal hemorrhage

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18
Q

fetal defects from maternal diabetes

A

caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, macrosomia

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19
Q

most severe form of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

heart-lung fistulas and holoprosencephaly

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20
Q

twinning from cleavage of morula stage

A

monochorionic, diamniotic. 4-8 days

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21
Q

twinning from cleavage of blastocyst

A

monochorionic, monoamniotic. days 8-12

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22
Q

twinning from cleavage of 2-cell stage

A

dichorionic, diamniotic, 0-4 days

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23
Q

fetal aortic arch for maxillary artery

A

1st

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24
Q

fetal aortic arch for proximal pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus

A

6th

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25
Q

fetal aortic arch for common carotid and proximal ICA

A

3rd

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26
Q

fetal aortic arch for stapedial artery and hyoid artery

A

2nd

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27
Q

fetal aortic arch for the mature aortic arch and right subclavian artery

A

4th

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28
Q

pharyngeal clefts are part of this layer

A

ectoderm

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29
Q

pharyngeal pouches are part of this layer

A

endoderm

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30
Q

pharyngeal arches are part of this layer

A

mesoderm

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31
Q

external auditory meatus is derived from

A

1st pharyngeal cleft

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32
Q

middle ear cavity, eustachian tube, mastoid air cells are derived from

A

1st pharyngeal pouch

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33
Q

nerves of 1st pharyngeal arch

A

V2, V3

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34
Q

muscles of 2nd pharyngeal arch

A

facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior digastric

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35
Q

cartilage of 2nd pharyngeal arch

A

Reichert cartilage –> stapes, styloid process, lesser horn of hyoid, stylohyoid ligament

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36
Q

cartilage of 3rd pharyngeal arch

A

greater horn of hyoid

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37
Q

nerves from 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches

A

X

4th: superior laryngeal
6th: recurrent laryngeal

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38
Q

muscles of 1st pharyngeal arch

A

muscle of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatine

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39
Q

cartilage of 1st pharyngeal arch

A

maxillary process: maxillay, zygomatic bone

mandibular process: Meckel cartilage, mandible, malleus and incus, sphenomandibular ligament

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40
Q

cartilage of 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches

A

arytenoids, cricoid, corniculate, cuneiform, thyroid

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41
Q

muscles of 3rd pharyngeal arch

A

stylopharyngeus

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42
Q

muscles of 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches

A

4th: pharyngeal constrictors, cricothyroid, levator veli palatine
6th: intrinisc muscles of larynx except for cricothyroid

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43
Q

nerve of 2nd pharyngeal arch

A

VII (7)

44
Q

nerve of 3rd pharyngeal arch

A

IX (9)

45
Q

Pierre Robin sequence

A

defect in 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches. micrognathia, glossoptosis, cleft palate, airway obstruction

46
Q

Treacher Collins syndrome

A

defect in 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches. neural crest dysfunction leads to mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities

47
Q

epithelial lining of palatine tonsil is derived from

A

2nd pharyngeal pouch

48
Q

thymus is derived from

A

mostly ventral wing of 3rd pharyngeal pouch

49
Q

inferior parathyroids are derived from

A

dorsal wing of 3rd pharyngeal pouch

50
Q

superior parathyroids are derived from

A

dorsal wing of 4th pharyngeal pouch

51
Q

parafollicular thyroid cells are dervied from

A

ventral wing of 4th pharyngeal pouch

52
Q

Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

A

mullerian agenesis in female

53
Q

which cells produce androgens in male

A

leydig cells

54
Q

which cells produce androgens in female

A

theca interna cells

55
Q

which cells produce estrogens in female

A

granulosa cells

56
Q

which cells have fsh receptors in males

A

sertoli cells

57
Q

which cells have fsh receptors in females

A

granulosa cells

58
Q

lack of sertoli cells in development of a male leads to

A

both male and female internal genitalia. sertoli cells produce MIF.

Note: external genitalia will only be male

59
Q

role of testosterone in male development

A

stimulates wolffian (mesonephros) to form internal male genitalia (except prostate)

60
Q

role of DHT in male development

A

forms external genitalia and prostate

61
Q

prostate is derived from

A

urogenital sinus

62
Q

lymphatic drainage of uterus, superior bladder,

A

external iliac nodes

63
Q

lymphatic drainage of prostate, cervix, corpus cavernosum, proximal vagina

A

internal iliac nodes

64
Q

lymphatic drainage of distal vagina, vulva, scrotum, distal anus

A

superficial inguinal nodes

65
Q

lymphatic drainage of glans penis

A

deep inguinal nodes

66
Q

what ligament connects cervix to side wall of pelvis

A

cardinal ligament. also contains uterine vessels

67
Q

which cell in males produces androgen-binding protein to maintain local levels of testosterone

A

sertoli cells

68
Q

which cell in males converts testosterone to estrogen

A

sertoli cells

69
Q

primary oocyte is arrested in ____ until ____

A

prophase I until ovulation

70
Q

secondary oocyte is arrested in _____ until _____

A

metaphase II until fertilization

71
Q

what is Mittelschmerz

A

pain with ovulation

72
Q

what are hCG levels in Down, Edward, and Patau syndromes

A

increased in Down syndrome (21)

Decreased in Edward (18) and Patau (13)

73
Q

what does APGAR stand for

A

appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration

74
Q

threshold for low birth weight

A

less than 2500g

75
Q

tanner stage for mound on mound breast contour

A

IV

76
Q

gonadotropin/hormone levels in Klinefelter

A

high for FSH, LH, estrogen (but low testosterone vs. androgen insensitivity)

77
Q

gonadotropin/hormone levels in Turner

A

low estrogen, high FSH/LH

78
Q

gonadotropin/hormone levels in androgen insensitivity

A

increased LH, estrogen and testosterone (vs. Klinefelter)

79
Q

egg and sperm in complete hydatidiform mole

A

enucleated egg and a single sperm. subsequently duplicates paternal DNA

80
Q

chromosome number in complete hydatidiform mole

A

46

81
Q

chromosome number in partial hydatidiform mole

A

69

82
Q

what does HELLP syndrome stand for

A

hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

83
Q

anti-hypertensives to use in pregnancy

A

hydralazine, alpha-methyldopa, labetalol, nifedipine

84
Q

Meigs syndrome

A

ovarian fibromas, ascities, hydrothorax. pulling sensation on groin

85
Q

thecoma: benign or malignant?

A

benign

86
Q

granulosa cell tumor: benign or malignant?

A

malignant

87
Q

what are Call-Exner bodies

A

granulosa cells (in a granulosa cell tumor) that arranged haphazardly around collections of eosinophilic fluid, resembling primordial follicles

88
Q

treatment of endometritis

A

gentamicin + clindamycin +/- ampicillin

89
Q

location and appaerance of Bowen disease

A

leukoplakia on penile shaft

90
Q

location of erythroplasia of Queryat

A

glans erythroplakia

91
Q

marker in seminoma

A

increased placental ALP

92
Q

marker in yolk sac tumor

A

increased AFP

93
Q

maker in choriocarcinoma

A

increased hCG

94
Q

marker in embryonal carcinoma

A

increased hCG

95
Q

Reinke crystals are found in

A

Leydig tumors

96
Q

clomiphene MOA

A

antagonist at estrogen receptors, eliminates pituitary feedback inhibition

97
Q

name 3 aromatase inhibitors

A

anastrazole, letrozole, exemestane

98
Q

class of drugs: norethindrone

A

progestin. also drugs that end in gestrel, gestrol, or progresteron

99
Q

use ulipristal and MOA

A

anti-progestin, emergency contraception

100
Q

MOA mifepristone

A

antiprogestine used for abortion

101
Q

beta-2 agonists used to relax uterus

A

terbutaline, ritodrine

102
Q

MOA danazol

A

partial androgen agonist, and has been shown to increase C1 esterase inhibitor.

Used in endometriosis and hereditary angioedema

103
Q

selective alpha 1 antagonist for prostate, and specific subtype

A

tamsulosin. selective for alpha 1 A,D (vs. 1B in vessels)

104
Q

which PDE5 inhibitor is used for BPH

A

tadalafil

105
Q

which drugs are mostly likely to cause cyanopsia

A

PDE5 inhibitors

First Aid (18 decks)

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