Reproductive Flashcards
location and function of shh in embryonic limb
ZPA in base of limbs, does anteroposterior patterning (radial to ulnar)
location and function of wnt-7 in embryonic limb
AER, does dorsoventral patterning
location and function of FGF in embryonic limb
AER, lengthens limb
function of Hox genes
segmental organization of embryo in craniocaudal direction
result of mutation in Hox genes
limbs in teh wrong locations
at what week does fetal heart beat
4
at what week do fetal movements begin
8
at what week do fetal genitalia have male or female characteristics
10
when is the embryonic period
weeks 3-8. period of organogenesis
teratogen effect of ACE inhibitors
renal damage
teratogen effect of antiepileptic drugs
neural tube defects, cardiac defects, cleft palate, skeletal abnormalities.
supplement with high dose folate
teratogen effect of DES
vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, congenital mullerian anomalies
teratogen effect of isoretinoin and vitamin A excess
spontaneous abortions, birth defects
teratogen effect of lithium
Ebstein abnormality
teratogen effect of methimazole
aplasia cutis congenita
teratogen effect thalidomide (!=thionamide)
limb defects
teratogen effect wafarin
bone deformities, abortion, opthalmologic abnormalities, fetal hemorrhage
fetal defects from maternal diabetes
caudal regression syndrome, congenital heart defects, neural tube defects, macrosomia
most severe form of fetal alcohol syndrome
heart-lung fistulas and holoprosencephaly
twinning from cleavage of morula stage
monochorionic, diamniotic. 4-8 days
twinning from cleavage of blastocyst
monochorionic, monoamniotic. days 8-12
twinning from cleavage of 2-cell stage
dichorionic, diamniotic, 0-4 days
fetal aortic arch for maxillary artery
1st
fetal aortic arch for proximal pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus
6th
fetal aortic arch for common carotid and proximal ICA
3rd
fetal aortic arch for stapedial artery and hyoid artery
2nd
fetal aortic arch for the mature aortic arch and right subclavian artery
4th
pharyngeal clefts are part of this layer
ectoderm
pharyngeal pouches are part of this layer
endoderm
pharyngeal arches are part of this layer
mesoderm
external auditory meatus is derived from
1st pharyngeal cleft
middle ear cavity, eustachian tube, mastoid air cells are derived from
1st pharyngeal pouch
nerves of 1st pharyngeal arch
V2, V3
muscles of 2nd pharyngeal arch
facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior digastric
cartilage of 2nd pharyngeal arch
Reichert cartilage –> stapes, styloid process, lesser horn of hyoid, stylohyoid ligament
cartilage of 3rd pharyngeal arch
greater horn of hyoid
nerves from 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
X
4th: superior laryngeal
6th: recurrent laryngeal
muscles of 1st pharyngeal arch
muscle of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatine
cartilage of 1st pharyngeal arch
maxillary process: maxillay, zygomatic bone
mandibular process: Meckel cartilage, mandible, malleus and incus, sphenomandibular ligament
cartilage of 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
arytenoids, cricoid, corniculate, cuneiform, thyroid
muscles of 3rd pharyngeal arch
stylopharyngeus
muscles of 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches
4th: pharyngeal constrictors, cricothyroid, levator veli palatine
6th: intrinisc muscles of larynx except for cricothyroid
nerve of 2nd pharyngeal arch
VII (7)
nerve of 3rd pharyngeal arch
IX (9)
Pierre Robin sequence
defect in 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches. micrognathia, glossoptosis, cleft palate, airway obstruction
Treacher Collins syndrome
defect in 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arches. neural crest dysfunction leads to mandibular hypoplasia and facial abnormalities
epithelial lining of palatine tonsil is derived from
2nd pharyngeal pouch
thymus is derived from
mostly ventral wing of 3rd pharyngeal pouch
inferior parathyroids are derived from
dorsal wing of 3rd pharyngeal pouch
superior parathyroids are derived from
dorsal wing of 4th pharyngeal pouch
parafollicular thyroid cells are dervied from
ventral wing of 4th pharyngeal pouch
Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
mullerian agenesis in female
which cells produce androgens in male
leydig cells
which cells produce androgens in female
theca interna cells
which cells produce estrogens in female
granulosa cells
which cells have fsh receptors in males
sertoli cells
which cells have fsh receptors in females
granulosa cells
lack of sertoli cells in development of a male leads to
both male and female internal genitalia. sertoli cells produce MIF.
Note: external genitalia will only be male
role of testosterone in male development
stimulates wolffian (mesonephros) to form internal male genitalia (except prostate)
role of DHT in male development
forms external genitalia and prostate
prostate is derived from
urogenital sinus
lymphatic drainage of uterus, superior bladder,
external iliac nodes
lymphatic drainage of prostate, cervix, corpus cavernosum, proximal vagina
internal iliac nodes
lymphatic drainage of distal vagina, vulva, scrotum, distal anus
superficial inguinal nodes
lymphatic drainage of glans penis
deep inguinal nodes
what ligament connects cervix to side wall of pelvis
cardinal ligament. also contains uterine vessels
which cell in males produces androgen-binding protein to maintain local levels of testosterone
sertoli cells
which cell in males converts testosterone to estrogen
sertoli cells
primary oocyte is arrested in ____ until ____
prophase I until ovulation
secondary oocyte is arrested in _____ until _____
metaphase II until fertilization
what is Mittelschmerz
pain with ovulation
what are hCG levels in Down, Edward, and Patau syndromes
increased in Down syndrome (21)
Decreased in Edward (18) and Patau (13)
what does APGAR stand for
appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, respiration
threshold for low birth weight
less than 2500g
tanner stage for mound on mound breast contour
IV
gonadotropin/hormone levels in Klinefelter
high for FSH, LH, estrogen (but low testosterone vs. androgen insensitivity)
gonadotropin/hormone levels in Turner
low estrogen, high FSH/LH
gonadotropin/hormone levels in androgen insensitivity
increased LH, estrogen and testosterone (vs. Klinefelter)
egg and sperm in complete hydatidiform mole
enucleated egg and a single sperm. subsequently duplicates paternal DNA
chromosome number in complete hydatidiform mole
46
chromosome number in partial hydatidiform mole
69
what does HELLP syndrome stand for
hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
anti-hypertensives to use in pregnancy
hydralazine, alpha-methyldopa, labetalol, nifedipine
Meigs syndrome
ovarian fibromas, ascities, hydrothorax. pulling sensation on groin
thecoma: benign or malignant?
benign
granulosa cell tumor: benign or malignant?
malignant
what are Call-Exner bodies
granulosa cells (in a granulosa cell tumor) that arranged haphazardly around collections of eosinophilic fluid, resembling primordial follicles
treatment of endometritis
gentamicin + clindamycin +/- ampicillin
location and appaerance of Bowen disease
leukoplakia on penile shaft
location of erythroplasia of Queryat
glans erythroplakia
marker in seminoma
increased placental ALP
marker in yolk sac tumor
increased AFP
maker in choriocarcinoma
increased hCG
marker in embryonal carcinoma
increased hCG
Reinke crystals are found in
Leydig tumors
clomiphene MOA
antagonist at estrogen receptors, eliminates pituitary feedback inhibition
name 3 aromatase inhibitors
anastrazole, letrozole, exemestane
class of drugs: norethindrone
progestin. also drugs that end in gestrel, gestrol, or progresteron
use ulipristal and MOA
anti-progestin, emergency contraception
MOA mifepristone
antiprogestine used for abortion
beta-2 agonists used to relax uterus
terbutaline, ritodrine
MOA danazol
partial androgen agonist, and has been shown to increase C1 esterase inhibitor.
Used in endometriosis and hereditary angioedema
selective alpha 1 antagonist for prostate, and specific subtype
tamsulosin. selective for alpha 1 A,D (vs. 1B in vessels)
which PDE5 inhibitor is used for BPH
tadalafil
which drugs are mostly likely to cause cyanopsia
PDE5 inhibitors
