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First Aid > Musculoskeletal > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

McMurray test

A

Popping on external rotation is medial meniscal tear

Popping on internal rotation is lateral meniscal tear

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2
Q

innervation of rotator cuff

A

C5-C6

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3
Q

innervation supraspinatus

A

suprascapular nerve

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4
Q

innervation infraspinatus

A

suprascapular nerve

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5
Q

innervation of teres minor

A

axillary nerve

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6
Q

innervation of subscapularis

A

upper and lower subscapular nerves

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7
Q

dislocation of which wrist bone can cause acute carpal tunnel

A

lunate

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8
Q

damage of which wrist bone can damage ulnar nerve

A

hamate

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9
Q

which wrist bones are directly distal to scaphoid

A

trapezium laterally
trapezoid
capitate most medially

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10
Q

lunate articulates with which bones

A

scaphoid, capitate, hamate, triquetrum (contains pisiform)

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11
Q

Guyon canal syndrome

A

compression of ulnar nerve at wrist or hand, seen in cyclists

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12
Q

what roots contribute to axillary nerve

A

C5-C6

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13
Q

what roots contribute to radial nerve

A

C5-T1

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14
Q

what roots contribute to musculocutaneous nerve

A

C5-C7

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15
Q

roots of median nerve

A

C5-T1

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16
Q

roots of ulnar nerve

A

C8-T1

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17
Q

lesion in Erb palsy (waiter’s tip deformity)

A

upper trunk

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18
Q

lesion causing (total) claw hand (Klumpke palsy)

A

lower trunk

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19
Q

lesion causing wrist drop

A

posterior cord or radial nerve

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20
Q

lesion in saturday night palsy

A

radial nerve

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21
Q

lesion winged scapula

A

long thoracic nerve

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22
Q

lesion difficulty flexing elbow + variable sensory loss

A

musculocutaneous

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23
Q

lesion Ape’s hand and Pope’s blessing

A

median nerve

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24
Q

lesion 4th and 5th claw

A

ulnar nerve

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25
Q

a distal ulnar nerve lesion causes

A

ulnar claw when extending

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26
Q

a proximal ulnar nerve lesion causes

A

OK gesture when making a fist

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27
Q

a distal median nerve lesion causes

A

median claw

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28
Q

a proximal median nerve lesion causes

A

Pope’s blessing when making a fist

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29
Q

thoracic outlet syndrome compresses which part of brachial plexus

A

lower trunk

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30
Q

roots of obturator nerve

A

L2-L4

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31
Q

roots of femoral nerve

A

L2-L4

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32
Q

roots of common peroneal nerve

A

L4-S2

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33
Q

roots of tibial nerve

A

L4-S3

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34
Q

roots of superior gluteal nerve

A

L5-S2

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35
Q

roots of sciatic nerve

A

L4-S3

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36
Q

roots of inferior gluteal nerve

A

L5-S2

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37
Q

roots of pudendal nerve

A

S2-S4

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38
Q

artery paired with long thoracic nerve

A

lateral thoracic A

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39
Q

artery paired with axillary nerve

A

posterior circumflex A

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40
Q

artery paired with radial nerve

A

deep brachial A

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41
Q

artery paired with median nerve in distal humerus

A

brachial A

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42
Q

artery paired with tibial nerve in popliteal fossa

A

popliteal A

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43
Q

artery paired with tibial nerve in leg

A

posterior tibial A

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44
Q

in muscle contraction, calcium binds to

A

troponin C

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45
Q

sarcomere Z line

A

the ends of each sarcomere, connects one sarcomere to the next

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46
Q

sarcomere M line

A

mid-sarcomere line, through myosin

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47
Q

sarcomere A band

A

myosin band, always stays the same length

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48
Q

sarcomere H band

A

space between actin filaments, overlies myosin, bisected by M line

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49
Q

sarcomere I band

A

actin that is not overlying myosin, bisected by Z line

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50
Q

which muscle fibers are slow

A

type 1 fibers

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51
Q

mutation achondroplasia

A

gof FGFR3, only affects endochondral ossification

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52
Q

osteoporosis DEXA score

A

T score less than -2.5

53
Q

disease that can cause hat size increase and hearing loss

A

Paget disease of bone

54
Q

lab values osteoporosis

A

normal

55
Q

lab values osteopetrosis

A

possibly low calcium

56
Q

lab values Paget disease of bone

A

high ALP

57
Q

lab values osteofibrosa cystica

A

consistent with primary hyperthyroidism

high calcium, low phosphate, high ALP, high PTH

58
Q

lab values secondary hyperthyroidism

A

low calcium, high phosphate, high ALP, high PTH

59
Q

lab values osteomalacia/rickets

A

low calcium, low phosphate, high ALP, high PTH

60
Q

lab values hypervitaminosis D

A

high calcium, high phosphate, low PTH

61
Q

MC bone location Ewing

A

diaphysis

62
Q

MC bone location osteosarcoma

A

metaphysis

63
Q

MC bone location osteochondroma

A

metaphysis

64
Q

MC bone location myeloma

A

diaphysis

65
Q

MC bone location osteoid osteoma

A

diaphysis, periosteum

66
Q

MC bone location fibrous dysplasia

A

diaphysis

67
Q

MC bone location simple bone cyst

A

border of diaphysis and metaphysis

68
Q

MC bone location giant cell tumor

A

epiphysis. the only tumor here

69
Q

soap bubble sign on this bone tumor

A

giant cell tumor

70
Q

onion skin periosteal reaction in this bone tumor

A

Ewing

71
Q

codman triangle or sunburst pattern in this bone tumor

A

osteosarcoma

72
Q

Li-Fraumeni, Paget disease of bone, and familial retinoblastoma are risk factors for this bone tumor

A

osteosarcoma

73
Q

anaplastic small blue cells in this bone tumor

A

Ewing

74
Q

biomodal distribution in this bone tumor

A

osteosarcoma

75
Q

Bouchard nodes are in

A

proximal IP

76
Q

birefringence of gout

A

negative, yellow needles when under parallel light

77
Q

Heberden’s nodes are in

A

distal IP

78
Q

gout composition

A

monosodium urate

79
Q

pseudogout composition

A

calcium pyrophosphate

80
Q

heart finding associated with ankylosing spondylitis

A

aortic regurgitation

81
Q

antibody that represents poor prognosis in SLE

A

anti-dsDNA means renal disease

82
Q

antibody in MCTD

A

anti-U1 RNP

83
Q

lupus pernio

A

skin lesions on face resembling lupus, seen in sarcoid

84
Q

Schaumann bodies

A

calcium + protein in Langerhans cells. a finding in sarcoid

85
Q

finding on bronchoalveolar lavage in sarcoid

A

elevated CD4+/CD8+ ratio

86
Q

CK in PMR is [normal/elevated]

A

normal

87
Q

antibodies polymyositis/dermatitis

A

anti-Jo-1, anti-SRP, anti-Mi-2

88
Q

antibody diffuse scleroderma

A

anti-Scl-70

89
Q

antibody limited scleroderma (CREST)

A

anti-centromere

90
Q

name the skin layers from out to in

A

corneum, lucidum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

91
Q

what are the proteins in tight junctions

A

claudins and occludins

92
Q

proteins in adherens junction

A

cadherins

93
Q

a disease with hypergranulosis

A

lichen planus

94
Q

a disease with acanthosis

A 
(epidermal hyperplasia, spinosum) acanthosis nigricans
also psoriasis (spinosum gets larger, granulosum shrinks)
95
Q

types of lesions in lesser-trelat

A

seborrheic keratosis

96
Q

cause of bacillary angiomatosis

A

bartonella henselae

97
Q

cause of kaposi sarcoma

A

HHV8

98
Q

disease associated with cystic hygroma

A

Turner syndrome

99
Q

MCC impetigo

A

s pyogenes or s aureus

100
Q

MCC bullous impetigo

A

s aureus

101
Q

MCC erysipelas

A

s pygones

102
Q

area of skin lysed in staph scaled skin syndrome

A

stratum granulosum

103
Q

area of skin lysed in TEN

A

epidermal-dermal junction

104
Q

Wickham striae

A

reticular white lines in mucosa. seen with lichen planus

105
Q

disease association with lichen planus

A

HCV

106
Q

disease that has a herald patch followed by scaly erythematous plaques in christmas tree distribution

A

pityriasis rosea

107
Q

acanthosis, sawtooth dermal-epidermal junction with band of lymphocytic infiltrate seen in

A

lichen planus

108
Q

skin cancer with palisading nuclei

A

BCC

109
Q

keratoacanthoma is a variant of which skin cancer

A

SCC. grows rapidly and can regress

110
Q

4 types of melanoma

A

superficial, nodular, lentigo maligna, acral lentiginous

111
Q

MOA denosumab

A

mAb vs. RANKL

112
Q

what part of arachidonic pathway do steroids block

A

blocks phospholipase A2 and blocks NF-kappa-B (which is a COX2 activator)

113
Q

MOA zileuton

A

blocks 5-lipoxyganse to prevent leukotriene formation

114
Q

MOA montelukast, zafirlukast

A

block CysLT1 receptor

note: montelukast is singulair

115
Q

celecoxib MOA

A

COX-2 blocker only

116
Q

MOA leflunomide

A

reversibly inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase to prevent pyrimidine syntehsis

117
Q

MOA teriparatide

A

recombinant PTH, incudes formation in pulsatile administration for osteoporosis treatment

118
Q

AE teriparatide

A

causes transient hypercalcemia

119
Q

class of drugs: “-dronate”

A

bisphosphonates

120
Q

MOA and use pegloticase

A

uricase to metabolize uric acid into allantoin. used for gout

121
Q

why is aspirin not used in gout?

A

salicylates impair uric acid clearance

122
Q

which drug is like allopurinol

A

febuxostat

123
Q

class of drugs: adalimumab

A

TNF-alpha inhibitor similar to infliximab

124
Q

MOA and use rasburicase

A

uricase simialr to pegloticase, but used to prevent tumor lysis syndrome

125
Q

alprostdil: analog of, and use

A

PGE1, erectile dysfunction and to maintain PDA

126
Q

misoprostol: analog of, and use

A

PGE1, prevention of NSAID-induced gastric ulcers, abortifacient

127
Q

Latanoprost: analog of, and use

A

PGF2-alpha, treatment of chronic glaucoma

128
Q

dinoprostone and carboprost: analogs of, and use

A

D: PGE2, C: PGF2-alpha

abortifacient, ripening of cervix for induction of labor

First Aid (18 decks)

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