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First Aid > Pharmacology > Flashcards

Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Km =

A

[S] at 1/2 Vmax

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2
Q

Lineweaver Burk plot formula

A

1/V = (Km/Vmax)(1/[S]) + 1/Vmax

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3
Q

A higher Y intercept on a lineweaver Burk plot means

A

lower vmax

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4
Q

the X intercept of a lineweaver burk plot is

A

-1/Km. Closer to zero = lower affinity

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5
Q

A high Km means

A

low affinity

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6
Q

Vd =

A

(amount of drug in body) / (plasma concentration)

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7
Q

CL =

A

Vd * Ke

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8
Q

number of half lives to reach 90% steady state

A

3.3 (first order only)

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9
Q

number of half lives to reach steady state

A

4-5 (first order only)

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10
Q

T 1/2 =

A

0.693 Vd/CL (first order)

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11
Q

Loading dose =

A

(1/F)(Cp*Vd)

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12
Q

Maintenance dose =

A

(1/F)(CpCLtime interval)

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13
Q

Drugs with zero-order kinetics

A

PEA: phenytoin, ethanol, aspirin (at high or toxic concentrations)

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14
Q

These are part of sympathetic system but innervated by cholinergic fibers

A

adrenal medulla (nicotinic) and sweat glands (muscarinic)

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15
Q

these are innervated by Nn (nicotinic) nerves

A

parasympathetic ganglia, adrenal medulla

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16
Q

these are innervated by Nm (nicotinic) nerves

A

NMJ

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17
Q

alpha 1 (G, function)

A

Gq. vascular contraction, close bladder, close GI sphincters, dilate eyes

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18
Q

alpha 2 (G, function)

A

Gi. reduced symp outflow, decrease insulin, decrease lipolysis, decrease aqueous humor production, increase platelet aggregation

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19
Q

beta 1 (G, function)

A

Gs. stimulate heart, renin, lipolysis

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20
Q

beta 2 (G, function)

A

Gs. vasodilate, bronchodilate, increase lipolysis and insulin release, increase aqueous humor, decrease uterine tone, relax ciliary muscle

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21
Q

beta 3 (G, function)

A

Gs. lipolysis, thermogenesis in SKM

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22
Q

M1 (G, function)

A

Gq. CNS, enteric

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23
Q

M2 (G, function)

A

Gi. antagonize heart

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24
Q

M3 (G, function)

A

Gq. exocrine glands/gut, contract bladder, bronchoconstriction, constrict eyes, contract ciliar muscle (accomodation)

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25
Q

D1 (G, function)

A

Gs. relax renal vasculature

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26
Q

D2 (G, function)

A

Gi. neurotransmitters

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27
Q

H1 (G, function)

A

Gq. mucus, permeability, bronchoconstriction, pruritus, pain

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28
Q

H2 (G, function)

A

Gs. gastric acid secretion

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29
Q

V1 (G, function)

A

Gq. vascular smooth muscle contraction

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30
Q

V2 (G, function)

A

Gs. increases H2O permeability in collecting tubules of kidney. “V2 found in the 2 kidneys”

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31
Q

Gq acts via this/these pathway(s)

A

Phospholipase C –> DAG and IP3
DAG –> protein kinase C
IP3 increases intracellular calcium

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32
Q

these GPCRs use Gq

A

H1, A1, V1, M1, M3 (HAVe1 M&M)

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33
Q

these GPCRs use Gi

A

M2, A2, D2 (MAD 2s)

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34
Q

Gs/i act via this/these pathway(s)

A

stimulate or inhibit adenylyl cyclase.

Adenylyl cyclase increases cAMP —> protein kinase A –> heart contraction, but muscle relaxation elsewhere

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35
Q

this drug blocks choline entry

A

hemicholinium

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36
Q

this drug blocks ACh incorporation into vesicles

A

vesamicol

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37
Q

this drug blocks ACh vesicle fusion/NT release

A

botulinum

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38
Q

this drug blocks tyrosine conversion to DOPA

A

metyrosine

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39
Q

this drug blocks dopamine incorporation into vesicles

A

reserpine

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40
Q

this drug prevents nore release

A

bretylium or guanethidine

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41
Q

this drug displaces NE in vesicles and reverses the NET transporter

A

amphetamines

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42
Q

indirect choline agonists used for Alzheimer disease

A

donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine

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43
Q

this is a tertiary amine anticholinergic that crosses the BBB

A

pysostigmine

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44
Q

antispasmodics for IBS

A

hyoscyamine, dicyclomine (anti-muscarinic)

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45
Q

class of drugs for oxybutynin, solifenacin, tolterodine

A

muscarinic antagonists

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46
Q

tropicamide is similar to

A

atropine

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47
Q

albuterol, salmeterol specificity

A

B2 > B1

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48
Q

dobutamine specificity

A

B1 > B2, a

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49
Q

dopamine specificity

A

D1 = D2 > B > a

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50
Q

epi specificity

A

B > a

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51
Q

nore specificity

A

a1 > a2 > B1

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52
Q

fenoldopam specificity

A

D1

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53
Q

Isoproteronol specificity

A

B1 = B2

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54
Q

midodrine specificity

A

a1

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55
Q

phenylephrine specificity

A

a1 > a2

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56
Q

this drug increases NE release (not amphetamines)

A

ephedrine

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57
Q

guanfacine is similar to

A

clonidine

58
Q

alpha-methyldopa class and application

A

alpha-2 agonist, used to treat hypertension in pregnancy

59
Q

which adrenergic drugs treat open angle glaucoma by reducing aqueous humors

A

epi (via a2) and beta blockers

60
Q

which drugs exacerbate closed angle glaucoma

A

dilators of the eye, including atropine (muscarinic blocker)

61
Q

this drug is contraindicated in cocaine intoxication

A

beta blockers

62
Q

antidote/tx for acetominophen

A

n-acetylcysteine (replenishes glutathione)

63
Q

antidote/tx for benzos

A

flumazenil

64
Q

antidote/tx for copper

A

penicillamine, trientine

65
Q

antidote/tx for cyanide

A

nitrite + thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin

66
Q

antidote/tx for heparin

A

protamine sulfate

67
Q

antidote/tx for iron

A

deferoxamine, deferasirox, deferiprone

68
Q

antidote/tx for arsenic or mercury

A

dimercaprol, succimer

69
Q

antidote/tx for gold

A

penicillamine, dimercaprol, succimer

70
Q

antidote/tx for lead

A

EDTA, penicillamine, dimercaprol, succimer

71
Q

antidote/tx for methanol, ethylene glycol

A

fomepizole (alc dh blocker) > ethanol, dialysis

72
Q

antidote/tx for methemoglobin

A

methylene blue, vitamin C

73
Q

antidote/tx for salicylate and TCAs

A

they’re acidic, so use sodium bicarbonate. could also use dialysis for salicylates

74
Q

antidote/tx for amphetamines

A

they’re basic so use NH4Cl to acidify urine

75
Q

drugs that cause cutaneous flushing

A

vancomycin, adenosine, niacin, CCBs, echinocandins (VANCE)

76
Q

this drug prevents doxorubicin-induced cardiomyopathy

A

dexrazoxane

77
Q

these drugs cause hyperglycemia

A

tacrolimus, protease inhibitors, niacin, HCTZ, corticosteroids
(“Taking pills Necessitates Having blood Checked”)

78
Q

these drugs cause focal to massive hepatic necrosis

A

halothane, amanita phalloides, valproic acid, acetaminophen (liver “HAVAc”)

79
Q

these drugs cause hepatitis

A

rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, statins, fibrates

80
Q

these drugs cause pancreatitis

A

didanosine, corticosteroids, alcohol, valproic acid, azathioprine, diuretics (furosemid, HCTZ)
(“Drugs Causing A Violent Abdominal Distress”)

81
Q

these drugs cause pill-induced esophagitis

A

tetracyclines, bisphosphonates, potassium chloride

82
Q

these drugs cause agranulocytosis

A

clozapine, carbamazepine, propylthiouracil, methimazole, colchicine, ganciclovir
“Can Cause Pretty Major Collapse of Granulocytes”)

83
Q

these drugs cause aplastic anemia

A

carbamazepine, methimazole, NSAIDs, benzene, chloramphenicol, propylthiouracil
(“Can’t Make New Blood Cells Properly”)

84
Q

these drugs cause direct coombs-postive hemolytic anemia

A

methyldopa, penicillin

85
Q

this drug causes gray baby syndrome

A

chloramphenicol

86
Q

these drugs cause hemolysis in G6PD deficiency

A

isoniazid, sulfonamides, dapsone, primaquine, aspirin, ibuprofen, nitrofurantoin
(hemolysis “IS D PAIN”, note also naphthalene (moth balls) and fava beans in med. type)

87
Q

these drugs cause megaloblastic anemia

A

phenytoin, methotrexate, sulfa drugs (“having a blast with PMS”)

88
Q

these drugs cause fat redistribution

A

protease inhibitors, glucocorticoids (“Fat PiG”)

89
Q

these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia

A

phenytoin, CCBs, cyclosporine (but not tacrolimus)

90
Q

these drugs cause hyperuricemia

A

pyrazinamide, thiazides, furosemide, niacin, cyclosporine (“Painful Tophi and Feet Need Care”)

91
Q

these drugs cause osteoporosis

A

steroids, heparin

92
Q

these drugs cause photosensitivity

A

sulfonamides, amiodarone, tetracyclines, 5FU

“SAT For Photo”

93
Q

these drugs cause Stevens-Johnson

A

anti-epileptics (especially lamotrigine), allopurinol, sulfa drugs, penicillin

94
Q

these drugs cause teeth discoloration

A

tetracyclines

95
Q

these drugs cause tendonitis, tendon rupture, and cartilage damage

A

FQs

96
Q

these drugs cause a Parkinson-like syndrome

A

antipsychotics, reserpine, metoclopramide

“cogwheel ridigitidy of the ARM”

97
Q

these drugs cause seizures

A

isoniazid (b6 deficiency), bupropion, imipenem/cilastatin, tramadol, enflurane
(when i have a seizure I BITE my tongue)

98
Q

these drugs cause tardive dyskinesia

A

antipsychotics, metoclopramide

99
Q

these drugs cause diabetes insipidus

A

Li, demeclocycline

100
Q

these drugs cause fanconi anemia

A

tenofovir, ifosfamide

101
Q

these drugs cause hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

102
Q

these drugs cause SIADH

A

carbamazepine, cyclophosphamide, SSRIs

“Can’t Concentrate Serum Sodium”

103
Q

these drugs cause pulmonary fribrosis

A

methotrexate,nitrofurantoin, carmustine, bleomycin, busulfan, amiodarone
(“My Nose Cannot Breathe Bad Air”)

104
Q

these drugs cause disulfiram-like reaction

A

metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, griseofulvin, procarbazine, 1st generation sulfonylureas

105
Q

these drugs cause nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity

A

aminoglycosides, vancomycin, loop diuretics, cisplatin (cisplatin toxicity may respond to amifostine)

106
Q

P450 inducers

A

chronic alcohol, St. John’s wort, phenytoin, phenobarbital, nevirapine, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazepine
(“chronic alcoholics Steal Phen-Phen and Never Refuse Greasy Carbs”)

107
Q

P450 substrates

A

anti-epileptics, theophylline, warfarin, OCPs

108
Q

P450 inhibitors

A

acute alcohol, ritonavir, amiodarone, cimetidine/ciprofloxacin, ketoconazole, sulfonamides, INH, graprefruit juice, quinidine, macrolides (except azithromycin)
(“AAA RACKS IN GQ Magazine”)

109
Q

these are sulfa drugs

A

sulfonamide antibx, sulfasalazine, probenecid, furosemide, acetazolamide, celcoxib, thiazides, sulfonylureas

110
Q

-navir

A

protease inhibitor

111
Q

-ovir

A

DNA polymerase inhibitor

112
Q

-azine

A

typical antipsychotic

113
Q

-etine

A

SSRI

114
Q

-ipramine, -triptyline

A

TCA

115
Q

-triptan

A

5HT 1b/1d agonist

116
Q

-curium, -curonium

A

non-depolarizing paralytic

117
Q

-stigmine

A

AChE inhibitor

118
Q

-zosin

A

alpha 1 blocker

119
Q

-afil

A

PDE-5 inhibitor

120
Q

-dipine

A

dihydropyridine CCB

121
Q

-xaban

A

direct factor Xa inhibitors

122
Q

-dronate

A

bisphosphonate

123
Q

-glitazone

A

PPAR-gamma activator

124
Q

-prost

A

prostaglandin analog

125
Q

-tidine

A

H2 blocker

126
Q

-tropin

A

pituitary hormone

127
Q

-ximab

A

chimeric mAb

128
Q

-zumab

A

humanized mAb

129
Q

effect of nore on CO, BP, HR and SVR

A 
increase BP, SVR (main effect for both)
unchanged CO
decreased HR (reflex)
130
Q

effect of epi on CO, BP, HR, and SVR

A

increase CO, BP, HR

Decreased SVR

131
Q

effect of isoproteronol on CO, BP, HR, and SVR

A 
significantly increases CO, HR (reflex)
decreases BP (beta 2), SVR (beta 2)
132
Q

these drugs cause acute cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice

A

erythromycin

133
Q

P450 effect: chronic alcohol, st. john’s wort

A

stimulators

134
Q

P450 effect: acute alcohol abuse, ritonavir

A

inhibitors

135
Q

P450 effect: amiodarone, cimetidine

A

inhibitors

136
Q

P450 effect: ciprofloxacin, ketoconazole

A

inhibitors

137
Q

P450 effect: phenytoin, phenobarbital

A

stimulators

138
Q

P450 effect: sulfonamides, INH

A

inhibitors

139
Q

P450 effect: nevirapine, rifampin

A

stimulators

140
Q

P450 effect: graprefuri juice, quinidine

A

inhibitors

141
Q

P450 effect: macrolides

A

inhibitors (except azithromycin)

142
Q

P450 effect: griseofulvin, carbamazepine

A

stimulators

First Aid (18 decks)

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