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First Aid > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

dipicolinic acid is found in

A

spores

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2
Q

organisms that don’t gram stain well

A

treponema, leptospira
mycobacteria
mycoplasma, ureaplasma
legionella, rickettsia, chlamydia, bartonella, ehrlichia, anaplasma

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3
Q

alternate to Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

auramine-rhodamine

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4
Q

PAS stain for this microbe

A

t whipplei

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5
Q

India Ink for this microbe

A

crytococcus neoformans

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6
Q

Bordet-Gengou medium (use, contents)

A

bordetella pertussis. (must be collected with calcium alginate swab). contains charcoal and hoarse blood

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7
Q

tellurite agar use

A

corynebacterium diptheria. positive colonies usually black on these plates

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8
Q

Lowenstein agar use

A

TB

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9
Q

Charcoal yeast extract agar (buffered with cysteine and iron) use

A

Legionella

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10
Q

Obligate intracellulars

A

rickettsia, chlamydia, coxiella

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11
Q

Urease positive organisms

A

Proteus, H. pylori, ureaplasma, Nocardia, cryptococcus, staph epidermidis and saprophyticus, klebsiella

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12
Q

these have IgA protease

A

s pneumo, h flu, neisseria

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13
Q

these have T3SS

A

pseudomonas, salmonella, shigella, e coli (EPEC)

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14
Q

toxins encoded in lysogenic phage

A

GAS erythrogenic toxin, botulinum, cholera, diphtheria, shiga

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15
Q

diphtheria toxin MOA

A

inactivate elongation factor. similar to pseudomonas exotoxin A

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16
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa exotoxin A MOA

A

inactivate elongation factor. similar to diphtheria toxin

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17
Q

shiga (and shiga-like) toxin MOA

A

inactivate 60S ribosome. SLT is in EHEC/STEC

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18
Q

ETEC LT MOA

A

increases cAMP to increase gut secretion

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19
Q

ETEC ST MOA

A

increases cGMP to decrease gut reabsorption

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20
Q

anthracis edema toxin MOA

A

mimics cAMP. causes black eschar

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21
Q

cholera toxin MOA

A

increases cAMP (via Gs activation) to increase gut secretion

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22
Q

pertussis toxin MOA

A

increases cAMP (via Gi inhibition) to imapir phagocytosis and permit survival of microbe

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23
Q

c perfringens alpha toxin MOA

A

phospholipase

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24
Q

gram-positive, aerobic bacilli

A

listeria, bacillus, corynebacterium

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25
Q

gram-positive, sporulating bacteria

A

bacillus (aerobic), clostridium (anaerobic). both bacilli

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26
Q

gram-positive, anaerobic bacilli

A

clostrdium

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27
Q

gram-pos, branching filaments

A

nocardia (aerobic), actinomyces (anaerobic)

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28
Q

gram-pos, acid-fast branching filaments

A

nocardia

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29
Q

gram-pos, aerobic branching filaments

A

nocardia

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30
Q

gram-pos, anaerobic branching filaments

A

actinomyces

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31
Q

gram-pos, catalase-pos cocci

A

staphyloccus

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32
Q

gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-pos cocci

A

s aureus

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33
Q

gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg cocci

A

staph saprophyticus (novobiocin resistant), staph epidermidis (novobiocin sensitive)

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34
Q

gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg, novobiocin-resistant cocci

A

saprophyticus

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35
Q

gram-pos, catalase-pos, coagulase-neg, novobiocin-sensitive cocci

A

epidermidis

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36
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg cocci

A

strep

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37
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, optochin sensitive cocci

A

s pneumo

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38
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, optochin resistant cocci

A

s viridans

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39
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, bile soluble cocci

A

s pneumo

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40
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg, alpha-hemolytic, bile-insoluble cocci

A

s viridans

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41
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg, beta-hemolytic, bacitracin-sensitive cocci

A

GAS (pyogenes)

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42
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg, beta-hemolytic, bacitracin-resistant cocci

A

GBS (agalactiae)

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43
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg, gamma-hemolytic cocci that grow in 6.5% NaCl

A

Group D (enteroccus != enterobacter) i.e. E faecium, E faecalis

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44
Q

gram-pos, catalase-neg, gamma-hemolytic cocci that do NOT grow in 6.5% NaCl

A

nonenterococcus: s bovis

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45
Q

which strep are PYR positive

A

GAS and enterococcus

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46
Q

use this drug to tx tetanus muscle spasms

A

diazepam

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47
Q

C diff A and B toxins

A

A binds to brush border. B causes cytoskeleton disruption.

Note: these aren’t the A and B subunits that mean active and binding for other toxins

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48
Q

tx nocardia

A

sulfonamides

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49
Q

tx actinomyces

A

penicillin

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50
Q

gram-neg coccobacilli

A

h flu, bordetella pertussis, pasteurella, brucella, francisella tularensis

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51
Q

gram-neg diplococci

A

Neisseria and moraxella

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52
Q

gram-neg diploccoci that do NOT ferment maltose

A

n gonorrhoeae and moraxella

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53
Q

gram-neg diplococci that ferment maltose

A

n meningitidis

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54
Q

gram-neg, comma-shaped rods

A

(all oxidase positive): campylobacter, cholerae, h pylori

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55
Q

gram-neg, comma-shaped rod, grows in 42C

A

campy

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56
Q

gram-neg, comma-shaped rod, grows in alkaline media

A

cholerae

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57
Q

gram-neg, urease-pos, comma-shaped rod

A

h pylori

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58
Q

gram-neg, lactose fermenting bacilli

A

fast: klebsiella, e coli, enterobacter
slow: citrobacter, serratia

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59
Q

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting bacilli

A

pseudomonas (oxidase-pos), salmonella, proteus, shigella, yersinia

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60
Q

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-pos bacilli

A

pseudomonas (aerobic)

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61
Q

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg bacilli

A

H2S + : salmonella, proteus

H2S - : shigella, yersinia

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62
Q

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg, H2S pos bacilli

A

salmonella, proteus

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63
Q

gram-neg non-lactose fermenting, oxidase-neg, H2S neg bacilli

A

shigella, yersinia

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64
Q

bug causing relapsing fever

A

borrelia recurrentis

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65
Q

bug causing undulating fever

A

brucella

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66
Q

pasteurella multocida causes

A

cellulitis, osteomyelitis

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67
Q

bug causing epidemic typhus

A

rickettsia prowazekii. can transport human to human

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68
Q

bug causing endemic typhus

A

rickettsia typhi

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69
Q

bug causing rocky mountain spotted fever

A

rickettsia rickettsii. tick vector

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70
Q

lab findings in ehrlichiosis

A

monocytes with morulae

MEGA berry

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71
Q

lab findings in anaplasma

A

granulocytes with morulae

MEGA berry

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72
Q

bacteria that can mimic TB

A

klebsiella, nocardia

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73
Q

treatment for blood-borne trypanosoma brucei

A

suramin

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74
Q

tx for CNS penetration of trypanosoma brucei

A

melarsoprol

75
Q

Schuffner stippling is a characteristic of this infection

A

plasmodium vivax/ovale. (red granules in RBCs)

76
Q

what are nematodes? name them and mode of contact

A

round worms

ingested: enterobius, ascaris, toxocara, trichinella
cutaneous: strongy, ancylostoma, necator
bites: loa loa, onchocerca volvulus, wuchereria bancrofti, brugia

77
Q

what are trematodes? name them and mode of contact

A

flukes
shisto - contact
clonorchis - ingestion

78
Q

what are cestodes? name them and mode of contact

A

tapeworms. all ingestion

fish (diphyllobothrium latum), beef (taenia saginatum), pork (t solium), dog (echinococcus granulosus)

79
Q

life cycle for enterobius vermicularis

A

fecal-oral

80
Q

life cycle for ascaris lumbricoides

A

fecal-soil-oral + lung

81
Q

life cycle for toxocara canis/cati

A

pet feces-human mouth

82
Q

life cycle trichinella spiralis

A

carnivore meat-human mouth

83
Q

life cycle trichuris trichuria (whipworm)

A

fecal-soil-oral

84
Q

life cycle ancylostoma and necator (hook worms)

A

fecal-soil-skin + lung

85
Q

life cycle strongy

A

fecal-soil-skin + lung

86
Q

life cycle schistosoma

A

waste-water-snail-skin

87
Q

life cycle clonorchis sinensis

A

from undercooked fish, up biliary tract

88
Q

human role in fish tapeworm life cycle

A

definitive

89
Q

human role in beef tapeworm life cycle

A

definitive

90
Q

human role in dog tapeworm life cycle

A

intermediate

91
Q

human role in pork tapeworm lifecycle

A

both definitive and intermediate

92
Q

DNA viruses

A

hepadena, herpes, adeno, pox, parvo, papilloma, polyoma

93
Q

the only ssDNA virus

A

parvovirus

94
Q

circular DNA virus(es)

A

papilloma, polyoma, hepadena viruses

95
Q

DNA virus(es) that replicate(s) in cytoplasm

96
Q

RNA virus(es) that replicate(s) in nucleus

A

flu and retroviruses

97
Q

the only dsRNA virus

98
Q

positive-stranded RNA viruses

A

retrovirus, togavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, hepevirus, calcivirus, picornavirus
(“I went to a Retro Toga party where I drank Flavored Corona and ate Hippie California Pickles”)

99
Q

naked viruses

A

papilloma, adeno, parvo, polyoma, calici, picorna, reoviridae, hepevirus

100
Q

HBV is a ____ virus

A

DNA hepadenavirus

101
Q

HAV is a ___ virus

A

RNA picornavirus

102
Q

HCV is a ___ virus

A

RNA flavivirus

103
Q

HDV is a ___ virus

A

RNA deltavirus

104
Q

HEV is a ___ virus

A

RNA hepevirus

105
Q

JC and BK are viruses are ___ viruses

106
Q

receptor used by CMV

A

integrins (heparan sulfate)

107
Q

receptor used by EBV

108
Q

receptor used by rhinovirus

109
Q

receptor used by rabies

A

nicotinic AChR

110
Q

reoviruses medical importance

A

coltivirus (colorado fever), rotavirus (#1 cause fatal diarrhea in children)

111
Q

picornaviruses medical importance

A

polio, echovirus, rhino, coxsackie, HAV

“PERCH”

112
Q

hepevirus medical importance

113
Q

caliciviruses medical importance

114
Q

flavivirus medical importance

A

HCV, yellow fever, Dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile virus

115
Q

togavirus medical importance

A

Rubella, Eastern equine encephalitis, Western equine

116
Q

retroviruses medical importance

117
Q

coronaviruses medical importance

A

cold, SARS, MERS

118
Q

orthomyxovirus medical importance

119
Q

paramyxovirus medical importance

A

parainfluenza, RSV, Measles, mumps

120
Q

rhabdovirus medical importance

121
Q

filovirus medical importance

122
Q

arenavirus medical importance

A

LCMV (lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus), lassa fever (spread by rodents)

123
Q

bunyavirus medical importance

A

california encephalitis, sandfly/rift valley fevers, crimean-congo hemorrhagic fever, hantavirus (hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia)

124
Q

deltavirus medical importance

125
Q

negative-stranded RNA viruses

A

arena, bunya, paramyxo, orthomyxo, filo, rhabdo

“always bring polymerase or fail replicaiton”

126
Q

segmented viruses

A

all are RNA. bunya, orthomyxo, arena, reo

“BOAR”

127
Q

councilman bodies are found in

A

liver biopsy in yellow fever infection and HAV

128
Q

what is 3rd disease

A

rubella/german measles/3-day measles. recall lymphadenopathy + 3C’s before rash

129
Q

forchheimer sign and disease

A

petichiae on palate and uvula, rubella/german measles

130
Q

what is 5th disease

A

erythema infectiosum/slapped cheek

131
Q

what causes 5th disease

A

(slapped cheek), parvovirus B19

132
Q

what is 6th disease

A

roseola/exanthem subitum

133
Q

what causes 6th disease

A

HHV 6 (sometimes 7)

134
Q

which morbilliform disease has high fevers that can cause seizures

A

roseola (6th). disappears before onset of rash

135
Q

what are nagayama spots, and which disease

A

red papules on soft palate and uvula. roseola

136
Q

hepatocyte sweling, monocyte infiltration, and councilman bodies found on liver biopsy of this hepatitis virus

137
Q

granular eosinophilic ground glass found on liver biopsy of this virus

A

HBV (and HDV)

138
Q

lymphoid aggregates with focal areas of macrovesicular steatosis found on liver biopsy of this virus

139
Q

patchy necrosis found on liver biopsy of this virus

140
Q

microbe in food poisoning from reheated meat

A

c perfringens

141
Q

microbe in food poisoning from contaminated sea food

A

v parahaemolyticus and v vulnificus. can also cause wound infections

142
Q

organisms not covered by cephalosporins

A

listeria, atypicals (chlamydia and mycoplasma), MRSA (except ceftaroline), enterococci

143
Q

which cephalosporins cover pseudomonas

A

3rd and 4th gen

144
Q

indication for monobactams

A

aerobic gram negatives only e.g. pseudomonas

145
Q

AE vanco

A

nephro, oto, thrombophlebitis

146
Q

AE aminoglycosides

A

nephro, oto, neuromuscular blockade, teratogen

147
Q

AE tetracyclines

A

discoloration of teeth, inhibits bone growth, photosensitivity

148
Q

antibiotic that cannot be taken with milk, antacids, or iron

A

tetracyclines

149
Q

clindamycin indication

A

anaerobic infections above diaphragm

150
Q

metranidazole indication

A

anaerobic infections below diaphragm

151
Q

AE linezolid

A

bone marrow suppresion, peripheral neuropathy, serotonin syndrome

152
Q

AE macrolides

A

GI motility, arrhythmias (long QT), acute cholestatic hepatitis, rash, eosinophilia
(“MACRO”)

153
Q

AE sulfonamides

A

hemolysis with G6PD, nephro (tubulointerstitial nephritis), photosensitivity, kernicterus in infants

154
Q

AE dapsone

A

G6PD def. hemolysis

155
Q

AE TMP

A

treats marrow poorly. can alleviate with folinic acid

156
Q

AE FQs

A

tendonitis/rupture, bad for cartilage in children, may prolong QT

157
Q

do not give this drug with antacids (iron and milk are okay)

158
Q

AE metronidazole

A

disulfiram-like reaction

159
Q

AE cephalosporins

A

disulfiram-like rxn, vit k def, increases nephrotox of aminoglycosides

160
Q

drugs to use for MRSA

A

vanco > linezolid, dapto, ceftaroline

161
Q

drugs to use for VRE

A

linezolid, dapto, streptogrammins

162
Q

KatG encodes the bacterial peroxidase to convert this drug to active metabolite

163
Q

AE: INH

A

hepatotoxicity, P450 inhibition, drug-induced lupus, B6 deficiency

164
Q

AE pyrazinamide

A

hyperuricemia, hepatotoxicity

165
Q

AE ethambutol

A 
optic neuropathy (red-green color blindess)
("EYEthambutol")
166
Q

HIV prophylaxis for PCP and toxo

167
Q

HIV prophylaxis for MAC

A

clarithromycin or axithromycin

168
Q

testosterone synthesis inhibition is a side effect of this class of antimicrobials

A

azoles, especially ketoconazole

169
Q

terbinafine MOA

A

inhibits squalene epoxidase

170
Q

griseofulvin MOA

A

interfere with microtubule formation

171
Q

tx for t cruzi

A

nifurtimox

172
Q

tx leishmania

A

sodium stibogluconate

173
Q

anti-mite/louse therapy

A

permethrin (Na blockade), malathion (AChE inhibitor), lindane (blocks GABA)

174
Q

drugs that need to be activated by viral enzymes

A

acyclovir/famciclovir/valacyclovir by viral thymidine kinase

ganciclovir by CMV viral kinase

175
Q

viral DNA polymerase inhibitors (not guanosine analogs)

A

cidofovir, foscarnet

176
Q

MOA fibavirin

A

inhibits guanine nucleotide synthesis (blocks IMP dehydrogenase). used for RSV and HCV

177
Q

AE NRTIs

A

bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis (except tenofivir)
anemia - ZDV/AZT
pancreatitis - didanosine

178
Q

AE NNRTIs

A

rash and hepatotoxicity

vivid dreams - efavirenz

179
Q

AE protease inhibitors

A

lipodystrophy

180
Q

drugs used in HCV therapy and MOA

A

ribavirin - inhibits IMP dehydrogenase
Sofosbuvir - inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Simeprevir - HCV protease inhibitor (AE photosensitivity)

181
Q

AE of ribavirin

A

hemolytic anemia, severe teratogen

182
Q

what is 2nd disease

A

scarlet fever

183
Q

what is first disease

First Aid (18 decks)

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