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First Aid > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

alar plate is [ventral/dorsal]

A

dorsal (sensory)

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2
Q

what does the myelencephalon become

A

medulla

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3
Q

what does the metencephalon become

A

pons and cerebellum

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4
Q

what marker can confirm neural tube defect after you already detect a high AFP

A

acetylcholine esterase

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5
Q

what embryologically is the anterior 2/3 of the tongue derived from

A

1st and 2nd branchial (pharyngeal) arches

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6
Q

what embryologically is the posterior 1/3 of the tongue derived from

A

3rd and 4th branchial/pharyngeal arches

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7
Q

function hyoglossus

A

retracts and depresses tongue

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8
Q

function genioglossus

A

protrudes tongue

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9
Q

function styloglossus

A

draws sides of tongue upward

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10
Q

nerve and function of palatoglossus

A

X, elevates posterior tongue during swallowing

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11
Q

where can you find free nerve endings

A

all skin, epidermis, some viscera

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12
Q

what type of neurons have free nerve endings

A

A delta (myelinated) and C (unmyelinated) fibers

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13
Q

where can you find Meissner corpuscles

A

glabrous (hairless) skin

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14
Q

where can you find Pacinian corpuscles

A

deep skin layers, ligaments, joints

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15
Q

where can you find Merkel discs

A

finger tips, superficial skin

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16
Q

where can you find Ruffini corpuscles

A

finger tips, joints

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17
Q

free nerve endings sense

A

pain, temperature

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18
Q

Meissner corpuscles sense

A

dynamic, fine/light touch, position sense

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19
Q

Pacinian corpuscles sense

A

vibration, pressure

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20
Q

Merkel discs sense

A

pressure, deep static touch, position sense

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21
Q

Ruffini corpuscles sense

A

pressure, slippage of objects along surface of skin, joint angle change

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22
Q

where in CNS is acetylcholine made

A

basal cells of Meynert

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23
Q

where in CNS is dopamine made

A

ventral tegmentum, SN pars compacta

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24
Q

where in CNS is GABA made

A

nucleus accumbens

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25
Q

where in CNS is norepinephrine made

A

locus ceruleus

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26
Q

where in CNS is serotonin made

A

raphe nucleus

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27
Q

neurotransmitter changes in Parkinson

A

increased acetylcholine, decreased dopamine, decreased serotonin

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28
Q

neurotransmitter changes in Huntington disease

A

increased dopamine, decreased ACh, decreased GABA

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29
Q

neurotransmitter changes in Alzheimer

A

decreased ACh, increased glutamate

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30
Q

neurotransmitter changes in schizophrenia

A

increased dopamine

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31
Q

neurotransmitter changes in depression

A

decreased dopamine, decreased norepinephrine, decreased serotonin

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32
Q

neurotransmitter changes in anxiety

A

increased nore, decreased GABA, decreased serotonin

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33
Q

acetylcholine is increased in which disease(s)

A

Parkinson

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34
Q

ACh is decreased in which disease(s)

A

AD, huntington

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35
Q

dopamine is increased in which disease(s)

A

schizophrenia, huntington

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36
Q

dopamine is decreased in which disease(s)

A

depression, parkinson

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37
Q

GABA is decreased in which disease(s)

A

anxiety, huntington

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38
Q

norepinephrine is decreased in which disease(s)

A

depression

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39
Q

norepinephrine is increased in which disease(s)

A

anxiety

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40
Q

serotonin is decreased in which disease(s)

A

anxiety, dperession, parkinson

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41
Q

name 3 ares with fenestrated capillaries instead of BBB

A

area postrema (vomiting after chemo), OVLT (osmotic sensing), neurohypophysis

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42
Q

which hypothalamic nucleus makes ADH

A

supraoptic

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43
Q

which hypothalamic nucleus makes oxytocin

A

paraventricular

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44
Q

function of lateral area of hypothesis

A

hunger. “makes you grow laterally”

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45
Q

function of ventromedial area of hypothalamus

A

satiety. “makes your ventre shrink medially”

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46
Q

function anterior hypothalamus

A

parasympathetic, cooling

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47
Q

function posterior hypothalamus

A

sympathetic, heating

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48
Q

circadian rhythm is controlled by which hypothalamic nucleus

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus

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49
Q

EEG awake, eyes open

A

beta (highest frequency, lowest amplitude)

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50
Q

EEG awake, eyes closed

A

alpha

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51
Q

EEG N1 (light sleep)

A

theta

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52
Q

EEG N2 (deeper sleep)

A

sleep spindles and K complexes

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53
Q

EEG N3 (deepest non-REM)

A

delta waves (lowest frequency, high amplitude)

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54
Q

EEG REM sleep

A

beta waves (like when awake. highest frequency, lowest amplitude)

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55
Q

in which part of sleep is there loss of motor tone

A

REM

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56
Q

in which part of sleep is there sleep walking, night terrors and bedwetting

A

N3

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57
Q

in which part of sleep does bruxism occur

A

N2

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58
Q

in which part of sleep do dreaming, nightmares, and penile/clitoral tumescence occur

A

REM

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59
Q

where does LGN project to

A

calcarine sulcus

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60
Q

what are the inputs into MGN

A

superior olive and inferior colliculus

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61
Q

what are the inputs to the ventral lateral nucleus of thalamus

A

input from basal ganglia and cerebellum

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62
Q

where does the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus project to

A

motor cortex

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63
Q

decreased activity in which dopaminergic pathway leads to negative symptoms

A

mesocortical

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64
Q

increased activity in which dopaminergic pathway leads to positive symptoms

A

mesolimbic

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65
Q

which dopamine pathway inhibits prolactin release

A

tuberoinfundibular

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66
Q

which dopamine pathway is involved in movement in basal ganglia

A

nigrostriatal

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67
Q

name deep cerebellar nuclei from lateral to medial

A

dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial

“don’t eat greasy foods”

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68
Q

which parts of brain compose striatum

A

caudate + putamen

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69
Q

which parts of brain compose lentiform

A

putamin + globus pallidus

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70
Q

what is blephorospasm

A

a type of dystonia, sustained eyelid twitching

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71
Q

treatment of essential tremor

A

nonselective beta blockers (e.g. propranolol), primidone, patients self-medicate with alcohol

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72
Q

characteristic lesion causing hemiballismus

A

contralateral STN lesion

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73
Q

Kluver-Bucy Syndrome

A

disinhibited behavior due to bilateral damage of amygdala. associated with HSV-1 encephalitis

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74
Q

in which direction do eyes look in a paramedian pontine reticular formation damage

A

away from lesion

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75
Q

in which direction do eyes look in frontal eye field damage

A

toward the lesion

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76
Q

AICA comes off which artery

A

basilar

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77
Q

PICA comes off which artery

A

vertebral

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78
Q

unique symptoms of lateral pontine syndrome

A

caused by AICA. hearing loss, paralysis of face, decreased lacrimation, decreased salivation, and decreased taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue

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79
Q

unique symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome

A

dysphagia, hoarseness, decreased gag reflex. caused by PICA

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80
Q

basilar artery infarct causes

A

locked in syndrome

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81
Q

AICA infarct causes

A

lateral pontine syndrome

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82
Q

PICA infarct causes

A

lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome

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83
Q

anterior spinal artery infarct causes

A

medial medullary syndrome

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84
Q

what CCB can be used to prevent vasospasm following subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

nimodipine

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85
Q

first nerve synapse for DCML from upper body

A

nucleus cuneatus

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86
Q

first nerve synapse for DCML from legs

A

nucleus gracilis

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87
Q

genetic defect associated with some cases of ALS

A

superoxide dismutase 1

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88
Q

region UMN signs in brown sequard

A

below lesion ipsilaterally

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89
Q

region of LMN signs in brown sequard

A

at level of lesion ipsilaterally

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90
Q

dermatome that includes kneecaps

A

L4

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91
Q

dermatomes for penile and anal zones

A

S2, S3, S4

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92
Q

dermatomes that are like a high turtle neck

A

C3

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93
Q

dermatome for posterior half of skull cap

A

C2

94
Q

dermatome for inguinal ligament

A

L1

95
Q

dermatome for low collar shirt

A

C4

96
Q

dermatome that includes thumbs

A

C6

97
Q

dermatome at umbilicus

A

T10

98
Q

dermatome at xiphoid

A

T7

99
Q

dermatome at nipple

A

T4

100
Q

cremaster reflex

A

L1, L2

101
Q

triceps reflex

A

C7, C8

102
Q

achilles reflex

A

S1, S2

103
Q

patellar reflex

A

L3, L4

104
Q

biceps reflex

A

C5, C6

105
Q

anal wink reflex

A

S3, S4

106
Q

what is the Galant reflex

A

lateral flexion of lower body toward stimulated side when in ventral suspension

107
Q

what is the Monro reflex

A

abduct/extend arms, then draw them in

108
Q

which cranial nerves have medial nuclei

A

III, IV, VI, XII

109
Q

Parinaud syndrome

A

paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi

110
Q

function and composition of solitarius nucleus

A

visceral sensory, including taste

VII, IX, X

111
Q

function and composition of nucleus ambiguus

A

motor of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus

IX, X, XI (cranial portion)

112
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

A

herpes zoster causing facial nerve palsy

113
Q

which nerves go through/in wall of cavernous sinus

A

III, IV, V1, VI (all from superior orbital fissure. only VI goes through blood)

114
Q

low frequency heard at (apex/base)

A

apex, wide and flexible

115
Q

high frequency heard at (apex/base)

A

base, thin and rigid

116
Q

what is Rinne test

A

air vs. bone conduction

117
Q

what is Weber test

A

tuning fork on skull, see where it localizes

118
Q

result of Rinne test in conductive hearing loss

A

abnormal result. in affected ear, bone > air

119
Q

result of Rinne test in sensorineural hearing loss

A

normal result. in affected ear, air > bone

120
Q

result of Weber test in conductive hearing loss

A

localizes to affected ear

121
Q

result of Weber test in sensorineural hearing loss

A

localizes to normal ear

122
Q

what is cholesteatoma

A

keratin debris in middle ear space

can erode ossicles and cause conductive hearing loss

123
Q

retinitis pigmentos

A

inherited retinal degeneration. begins with night-blidness. has bone spicule-shaped deposits

124
Q

which nuclei receive the light in the pupillary light reflex

A

pretectal nuclei

125
Q

1st neuron in sympathetic path to eye from hypothalamus synapses on

A

ciliospinal center of Budge (c8-t2)

126
Q

which neuron of the sympathetic path from hypothalamus to eye would be impinged by pancost tumor

A

2nd neuron

127
Q

Marcus Gunn pupil

A

optic nerve damage causes abnormal swinging flashlight test. dilates when you come back to it

128
Q

in which direction does head tilt when CN IV is damaged

A

toward side of lesion

129
Q

finding in CN III palsy

A

down and out and/or blown pupil

130
Q

finding in CN IV palsy

A

affected eye moves upward, especially when adducted

131
Q

finding in CN VI palsy

A

eye is stuck medially because it cannot abduct

132
Q

right INO refers to which eye

A

the eye that is paralyzed

133
Q

which allele is associated with decreased risk of alzheimer

A

apo E2

134
Q

which allele is associated with increased risk of alzheimer

A

apo e4

135
Q

familial forms of alzheimer disease

A

presenilin 1, 2, APP

136
Q

protein aggregates in frontotemporal dementia

A

hyperphos tau or ubiquinated TDP-43

137
Q

Charcot triad of MS

A

scanning speech, intention tremor, nystagmus

138
Q

defect in Krabbe disease

A

AR disorder in galactocerebrosidase

139
Q

sx Krabbe disease

A

peripheral neuropathy, developmental delay, optic atrophy, globoid cells

140
Q

defect metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

AR defect in arylsulfatase A

141
Q

sx metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

CNS and PNS demyelination, ataxia, dementia

142
Q

PML is at an increased risk with which therapies

A

natalizumab and rituximab

143
Q

adrenoleukodystrophy defect

A

x-linked defect in very-long-chain fatty acid metabolism

144
Q

frequency of absence seizures

A

3 Hz

145
Q

acute treatment of cluster headache

A

100% O2, sumatriptan

146
Q

cluster headache prophylaxis

A

verapamil

147
Q

migraine acute treatment

A

NSAIDs, triptans, dihydroergotamine

148
Q

migraine prophylaxis

A

lifestyle changes, beta blockers, CCBs, amitriptyline, topirimate, valproic acid

149
Q

position testing in peripheral vertigo

A

delayed horizontal nystagmus

150
Q

position testing in central vertigo

A

immediate nystagmus in any direction

151
Q

defect in Surge-Weber (encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis)

A

activating GNAQ mutation affecting capillaries

152
Q

cardiac associations with tuberous sclerosis

A

mitral regurgitation and cardiac rhabdomyoma

153
Q

Lisch nodules

A

pigmented iris hamartomas. seen in NF1

154
Q

characteristics of VHL

A

hemangioblastomas, angiomatosis, bilateral RCC, pheochromocytoma

155
Q

which brain tumor causes parinaud syndrome

A

pinealoma. childhood tumor

156
Q

which brain tumor causes perivascular pseudorosettes

A

ependymoma. childhood tumor

157
Q

which brain tumor has pseudopalisading histology

A

glioblastoma. adult tumor

158
Q

which brain tumor has psammoma bodies

A

meningioma. adult tumor

159
Q

which brain tumor can cause EPO production

A

hemangioblastoma. adult tumor, MC in cerebellum

160
Q

which brain tumor has chicken wire capillary pattern around the neoplastic cells

A

oligodendroglioma. adult tumor

161
Q

which brain tumor has rosenthal fibers

A

pilocytic astrocytoma. childhood tumor

162
Q

which brain tumor has primitive neuroectodermal histology

A

medulloblatoma. childhood tumor

163
Q

which tumor has rod-shaped belpharoplasts (basal ciliary bodies) found near nucleus

A

ependymoma. childhood tumor

164
Q

which brain tumor sends drop metastases to spinal cord

A

medulloblastoma. childhood tumor

165
Q

which brain tumor has Homer-Wright rosettes

A

medulloblastoma. childhood tumor

166
Q

which brain tumor has “motor oil-like” fluid in it

A

craniopharyngioma. childhood tumor

167
Q

what is the best cholinomimetic to use in glaucoma emergencies

A

pilocarpine

168
Q

class of drugs: dextromethorphan, diphenoxylate, pentazocine

A

opioids

169
Q

which opioid receptor is for beta-endorphin

A

mu

170
Q

which opioid receptor is for dynorphin

A

kappa

171
Q

which opiod receptor is for encephalin

A

delta

172
Q

which opioid is used in cough suppression

A

dextromethorphan, codeine

173
Q

which opioid is used for diarrhea

A

loperamide, diphenoxylate

174
Q

which opioid dilates the eye, unlike all the others

A

meperidine

175
Q

which opioid is a kappa agonist, mu antagonist

A

pentazocine. used for moderate to severe pain

176
Q

which opioid is a kappa agonist, mu partial agonist

A

butorphanol. used for severe pain

177
Q

which drug is a weak opioid agonist that also inhibits 5HT

A

tramadol. used for chronic pain, but decreases seizure threshold

178
Q

first line drug for partial seizures

A

carbamazepine

179
Q

first line drug for tonic-clonic seizures

A

valproic acid or phenytoin

180
Q

first line drug for absence seizures

A

ethosuximide. its the only seizure ethosuximide treats

181
Q

first line drug for acute status epilepticus

A

benzodiazepines

182
Q

first line drug for status epilepticus prophylaxis

A

phenytoin

183
Q

seizure use ethosuximide

A

absence only

184
Q

seizure use benzos

A

acute status epilepticus only

185
Q

seizure use phenobarbital

A

general (partial + tonic-clonic)

186
Q

seizure use phenytoin

A

general (1st line for tonic-clonic) + status epilepticus prophylaxis

187
Q

seizure use carbamazepine

A

general (first line for partial)

188
Q

seizure use valproic acid

A

broad spectrum (partial, tonic-clonic, absence). first line for tonic-clonic

189
Q

seizure use vigabatrin

A

partial only

190
Q

seizure use gabapentin

A

partial only

191
Q

seizure use topiramate

A

general (partial + tonic-clonic)

192
Q

seizure use lamotrigine

A

broad spectrum (partial, tonic-clonic, absence)

193
Q

seizure use levetiracetam

A

general (partial + tonic-clonic)

194
Q

seizure use tiagabine

A

partial only

195
Q

which epliepsy drugs cause stevens johnsons?

A

ethosuximide, phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine

196
Q

MOA ethosuximide

A

blocks thalamic T type calcium channels

197
Q

MOA benzos

A

increase GABA-A action

198
Q

MOA phenobarbital

A

increase GABA-A action

199
Q

MOA phenytoin

A

blocks Na channels

200
Q

MOA carbamazepine

A

blocks Na channels

201
Q

MOA valproic acid

A

increases Na channel inactivation, increases GABA concentration

202
Q

MOA vigabitran

A

increases GABA concentration

203
Q

MOA gabapentin

A

inhibits high-voltage-activated Ca channels, GABA analog

204
Q

MOA topiramate

A

blocks Na channels, increases GABA action

205
Q

MOA lamotrigine

A

blocks voltage-gated Na channels

206
Q

MOA levetiracetam

A

unknown

207
Q

MOA tiagabine

A

inhibits GABA reuptake

208
Q

which barbiturate is used for induction of amnesia

A

thiopental

209
Q

short-acting benzos

A

alprazolam, triazolam, oxazepam, midazolam. (“ATOM”, more addicting)

210
Q

which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic

A

halothane

211
Q

which inhaled anesthetic is nephrotoxic

A

methoxyflurane

212
Q

which inhaled anesthetic is proconvulsant

A

enflurane

213
Q

MOA ketamine

A

blocks NMDA receptors

214
Q

order of sensations lost with local anesthetic

A

pain, temperature, touch, then pressure

215
Q

which local anesthetic can cause CV toxicity

A

bupivicaine

216
Q

which local anesthetic can cause methemoglobin

A

benzocaine

217
Q

class of drugs: tubucurarine, pancuronium, atracurium

A

nondepolarizing NMJ blockers

218
Q

GABA-B activator in spinal cord used to relax smooth muscle

A

baclofen

219
Q

centrally acting muscle relaxant

A

cyclobenzaprine

220
Q

MOA amantadine for parkinson

A

increases dopamine release and decreases uptake

221
Q

livedo reticularis is an AE from which parkinson drug

A

amantadine

222
Q

carbidopa MOA

A

inhibits peripheral DOPA carboxylase to prevent L-DOPA –> dopamine

223
Q

entacapone, tolcapone MOA peripherally

A

inhibits COMT to prevent peripheral conversion of L-DOPA to 3-OMD

224
Q

selegiline, rasagiline MOA

A

inhibit MAO-B centrally to block conversion of dopamine to DOPAC

225
Q

central MOA for tolcapone

A

inhibits COMT centrally to prevent conversion of dopamine to 3-MT

226
Q

memantine MOA

A

NMDA receptor antagonist used in Alzheimer

227
Q

AChE inhibitors used in Alzheimer

A

donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine

228
Q

tetrabenazine and reserpine MOA

A

inhibit VMAT to decrease dopamine packaging, used in Huntington

229
Q

MOA riluzole

A

decreases glutamate excitotoxicity to modestly improve ALS survival

230
Q

MOA triptans

A

5HT-1B/1D agonists that inhibit trigeminal nerve activation, prevent vasoactive peptide release, and induce vasoconstriction

First Aid (18 decks)

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