Neurology Flashcards
(230 cards)
1
Q
alar plate is [ventral/dorsal]
A
dorsal (sensory)
2
Q
what does the myelencephalon become
A
medulla
3
Q
what does the metencephalon become
A
pons and cerebellum
4
Q
what marker can confirm neural tube defect after you already detect a high AFP
A
acetylcholine esterase
5
Q
what embryologically is the anterior 2/3 of the tongue derived from
A
1st and 2nd branchial (pharyngeal) arches
6
Q
what embryologically is the posterior 1/3 of the tongue derived from
A
3rd and 4th branchial/pharyngeal arches
7
Q
function hyoglossus
A
retracts and depresses tongue
8
Q
function genioglossus
A
protrudes tongue
9
Q
function styloglossus
A
draws sides of tongue upward
10
Q
nerve and function of palatoglossus
A
X, elevates posterior tongue during swallowing
11
Q
where can you find free nerve endings
A
all skin, epidermis, some viscera
12
Q
what type of neurons have free nerve endings
A
A delta (myelinated) and C (unmyelinated) fibers
13
Q
where can you find Meissner corpuscles
A
glabrous (hairless) skin
14
Q
where can you find Pacinian corpuscles
A
deep skin layers, ligaments, joints
15
Q
where can you find Merkel discs
A
finger tips, superficial skin
16
Q
where can you find Ruffini corpuscles
A
finger tips, joints
17
Q
free nerve endings sense
A
pain, temperature
18
Q
Meissner corpuscles sense
A
dynamic, fine/light touch, position sense
19
Q
Pacinian corpuscles sense
A
vibration, pressure
20
Q
Merkel discs sense
A
pressure, deep static touch, position sense
21
Q
Ruffini corpuscles sense
A
pressure, slippage of objects along surface of skin, joint angle change
22
Q
where in CNS is acetylcholine made
A
basal cells of Meynert
23
Q
where in CNS is dopamine made
A
ventral tegmentum, SN pars compacta
24
Q
where in CNS is GABA made
A
nucleus accumbens
25
where in CNS is norepinephrine made
locus ceruleus
26
where in CNS is serotonin made
raphe nucleus
27
neurotransmitter changes in Parkinson
increased acetylcholine, decreased dopamine, decreased serotonin
28
neurotransmitter changes in Huntington disease
increased dopamine, decreased ACh, decreased GABA
29
neurotransmitter changes in Alzheimer
decreased ACh, increased glutamate
30
neurotransmitter changes in schizophrenia
increased dopamine
31
neurotransmitter changes in depression
decreased dopamine, decreased norepinephrine, decreased serotonin
32
neurotransmitter changes in anxiety
increased nore, decreased GABA, decreased serotonin
33
acetylcholine is increased in which disease(s)
Parkinson
34
ACh is decreased in which disease(s)
AD, huntington
35
dopamine is increased in which disease(s)
schizophrenia, huntington
36
dopamine is decreased in which disease(s)
depression, parkinson
37
GABA is decreased in which disease(s)
anxiety, huntington
38
norepinephrine is decreased in which disease(s)
depression
39
norepinephrine is increased in which disease(s)
anxiety
40
serotonin is decreased in which disease(s)
anxiety, dperession, parkinson
41
name 3 ares with fenestrated capillaries instead of BBB
area postrema (vomiting after chemo), OVLT (osmotic sensing), neurohypophysis
42
which hypothalamic nucleus makes ADH
supraoptic
43
which hypothalamic nucleus makes oxytocin
paraventricular
44
function of lateral area of hypothesis
hunger. "makes you grow laterally"
45
function of ventromedial area of hypothalamus
satiety. "makes your ventre shrink medially"
46
function anterior hypothalamus
parasympathetic, cooling
47
function posterior hypothalamus
sympathetic, heating
48
circadian rhythm is controlled by which hypothalamic nucleus
suprachiasmatic nucleus
49
EEG awake, eyes open
beta (highest frequency, lowest amplitude)
50
EEG awake, eyes closed
alpha
51
EEG N1 (light sleep)
theta
52
EEG N2 (deeper sleep)
sleep spindles and K complexes
53
EEG N3 (deepest non-REM)
delta waves (lowest frequency, high amplitude)
54
EEG REM sleep
beta waves (like when awake. highest frequency, lowest amplitude)
55
in which part of sleep is there loss of motor tone
REM
56
in which part of sleep is there sleep walking, night terrors and bedwetting
N3
57
in which part of sleep does bruxism occur
N2
58
in which part of sleep do dreaming, nightmares, and penile/clitoral tumescence occur
REM
59
where does LGN project to
calcarine sulcus
60
what are the inputs into MGN
superior olive and inferior colliculus
61
what are the inputs to the ventral lateral nucleus of thalamus
input from basal ganglia and cerebellum
62
where does the ventral lateral nucleus of the thalamus project to
motor cortex
63
decreased activity in which dopaminergic pathway leads to negative symptoms
mesocortical
64
increased activity in which dopaminergic pathway leads to positive symptoms
mesolimbic
65
which dopamine pathway inhibits prolactin release
tuberoinfundibular
66
which dopamine pathway is involved in movement in basal ganglia
nigrostriatal
67
name deep cerebellar nuclei from lateral to medial
dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial
| "don't eat greasy foods"
68
which parts of brain compose striatum
caudate + putamen
69
which parts of brain compose lentiform
putamin + globus pallidus
70
what is blephorospasm
a type of dystonia, sustained eyelid twitching
71
treatment of essential tremor
nonselective beta blockers (e.g. propranolol), primidone, patients self-medicate with alcohol
72
characteristic lesion causing hemiballismus
contralateral STN lesion
73
Kluver-Bucy Syndrome
disinhibited behavior due to bilateral damage of amygdala. associated with HSV-1 encephalitis
74
in which direction do eyes look in a paramedian pontine reticular formation damage
away from lesion
75
in which direction do eyes look in frontal eye field damage
toward the lesion
76
AICA comes off which artery
basilar
77
PICA comes off which artery
vertebral
78
unique symptoms of lateral pontine syndrome
caused by AICA. hearing loss, paralysis of face, decreased lacrimation, decreased salivation, and decreased taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue
79
unique symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome
dysphagia, hoarseness, decreased gag reflex. caused by PICA
80
basilar artery infarct causes
locked in syndrome
81
AICA infarct causes
lateral pontine syndrome
82
PICA infarct causes
lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome
83
anterior spinal artery infarct causes
medial medullary syndrome
84
what CCB can be used to prevent vasospasm following subarachnoid hemorrhage
nimodipine
85
first nerve synapse for DCML from upper body
nucleus cuneatus
86
first nerve synapse for DCML from legs
nucleus gracilis
87
genetic defect associated with some cases of ALS
superoxide dismutase 1
88
region UMN signs in brown sequard
below lesion ipsilaterally
89
region of LMN signs in brown sequard
at level of lesion ipsilaterally
90
dermatome that includes kneecaps
L4
91
dermatomes for penile and anal zones
S2, S3, S4
92
dermatomes that are like a high turtle neck
C3
93
dermatome for posterior half of skull cap
C2
94
dermatome for inguinal ligament
L1
95
dermatome for low collar shirt
C4
96
dermatome that includes thumbs
C6
97
dermatome at umbilicus
T10
98
dermatome at xiphoid
T7
99
dermatome at nipple
T4
100
cremaster reflex
L1, L2
101
triceps reflex
C7, C8
102
achilles reflex
S1, S2
103
patellar reflex
L3, L4
104
biceps reflex
C5, C6
105
anal wink reflex
S3, S4
106
what is the Galant reflex
lateral flexion of lower body toward stimulated side when in ventral suspension
107
what is the Monro reflex
abduct/extend arms, then draw them in
108
which cranial nerves have medial nuclei
III, IV, VI, XII
109
Parinaud syndrome
paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to lesion in superior colliculi
110
function and composition of solitarius nucleus
visceral sensory, including taste
| VII, IX, X
111
function and composition of nucleus ambiguus
motor of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus
| IX, X, XI (cranial portion)
112
Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
herpes zoster causing facial nerve palsy
113
which nerves go through/in wall of cavernous sinus
III, IV, V1, VI (all from superior orbital fissure. only VI goes through blood)
114
low frequency heard at (apex/base)
apex, wide and flexible
115
high frequency heard at (apex/base)
base, thin and rigid
116
what is Rinne test
air vs. bone conduction
117
what is Weber test
tuning fork on skull, see where it localizes
118
result of Rinne test in conductive hearing loss
abnormal result. in affected ear, bone > air
119
result of Rinne test in sensorineural hearing loss
normal result. in affected ear, air > bone
120
result of Weber test in conductive hearing loss
localizes to affected ear
121
result of Weber test in sensorineural hearing loss
localizes to normal ear
122
what is cholesteatoma
keratin debris in middle ear space
can erode ossicles and cause conductive hearing loss
123
retinitis pigmentos
inherited retinal degeneration. begins with night-blidness. has bone spicule-shaped deposits
124
which nuclei receive the light in the pupillary light reflex
pretectal nuclei
125
1st neuron in sympathetic path to eye from hypothalamus synapses on
ciliospinal center of Budge (c8-t2)
126
which neuron of the sympathetic path from hypothalamus to eye would be impinged by pancost tumor
2nd neuron
127
Marcus Gunn pupil
optic nerve damage causes abnormal swinging flashlight test. dilates when you come back to it
128
in which direction does head tilt when CN IV is damaged
toward side of lesion
129
finding in CN III palsy
down and out and/or blown pupil
130
finding in CN IV palsy
affected eye moves upward, especially when adducted
131
finding in CN VI palsy
eye is stuck medially because it cannot abduct
132
right INO refers to which eye
the eye that is paralyzed
133
which allele is associated with decreased risk of alzheimer
apo E2
134
which allele is associated with increased risk of alzheimer
apo e4
135
familial forms of alzheimer disease
presenilin 1, 2, APP
136
protein aggregates in frontotemporal dementia
hyperphos tau or ubiquinated TDP-43
137
Charcot triad of MS
scanning speech, intention tremor, nystagmus
138
defect in Krabbe disease
AR disorder in galactocerebrosidase
139
sx Krabbe disease
peripheral neuropathy, developmental delay, optic atrophy, globoid cells
140
defect metachromatic leukodystrophy
AR defect in arylsulfatase A
141
sx metachromatic leukodystrophy
CNS and PNS demyelination, ataxia, dementia
142
PML is at an increased risk with which therapies
natalizumab and rituximab
143
adrenoleukodystrophy defect
x-linked defect in very-long-chain fatty acid metabolism
144
frequency of absence seizures
3 Hz
145
acute treatment of cluster headache
100% O2, sumatriptan
146
cluster headache prophylaxis
verapamil
147
migraine acute treatment
NSAIDs, triptans, dihydroergotamine
148
migraine prophylaxis
lifestyle changes, beta blockers, CCBs, amitriptyline, topirimate, valproic acid
149
position testing in peripheral vertigo
delayed horizontal nystagmus
150
position testing in central vertigo
immediate nystagmus in any direction
151
defect in Surge-Weber (encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis)
activating GNAQ mutation affecting capillaries
152
cardiac associations with tuberous sclerosis
mitral regurgitation and cardiac rhabdomyoma
153
Lisch nodules
pigmented iris hamartomas. seen in NF1
154
characteristics of VHL
hemangioblastomas, angiomatosis, bilateral RCC, pheochromocytoma
155
which brain tumor causes parinaud syndrome
pinealoma. childhood tumor
156
which brain tumor causes perivascular pseudorosettes
ependymoma. childhood tumor
157
which brain tumor has pseudopalisading histology
glioblastoma. adult tumor
158
which brain tumor has psammoma bodies
meningioma. adult tumor
159
which brain tumor can cause EPO production
hemangioblastoma. adult tumor, MC in cerebellum
160
which brain tumor has chicken wire capillary pattern around the neoplastic cells
oligodendroglioma. adult tumor
161
which brain tumor has rosenthal fibers
pilocytic astrocytoma. childhood tumor
162
which brain tumor has primitive neuroectodermal histology
medulloblatoma. childhood tumor
163
which tumor has rod-shaped belpharoplasts (basal ciliary bodies) found near nucleus
ependymoma. childhood tumor
164
which brain tumor sends drop metastases to spinal cord
medulloblastoma. childhood tumor
165
which brain tumor has Homer-Wright rosettes
medulloblastoma. childhood tumor
166
which brain tumor has "motor oil-like" fluid in it
craniopharyngioma. childhood tumor
167
what is the best cholinomimetic to use in glaucoma emergencies
pilocarpine
168
class of drugs: dextromethorphan, diphenoxylate, pentazocine
opioids
169
which opioid receptor is for beta-endorphin
mu
170
which opioid receptor is for dynorphin
kappa
171
which opiod receptor is for encephalin
delta
172
which opioid is used in cough suppression
dextromethorphan, codeine
173
which opioid is used for diarrhea
loperamide, diphenoxylate
174
which opioid dilates the eye, unlike all the others
meperidine
175
which opioid is a kappa agonist, mu antagonist
pentazocine. used for moderate to severe pain
176
which opioid is a kappa agonist, mu partial agonist
butorphanol. used for severe pain
177
which drug is a weak opioid agonist that also inhibits 5HT
tramadol. used for chronic pain, but decreases seizure threshold
178
first line drug for partial seizures
carbamazepine
179
first line drug for tonic-clonic seizures
valproic acid or phenytoin
180
first line drug for absence seizures
ethosuximide. its the only seizure ethosuximide treats
181
first line drug for acute status epilepticus
benzodiazepines
182
first line drug for status epilepticus prophylaxis
phenytoin
183
seizure use ethosuximide
absence only
184
seizure use benzos
acute status epilepticus only
185
seizure use phenobarbital
general (partial + tonic-clonic)
186
seizure use phenytoin
general (1st line for tonic-clonic) + status epilepticus prophylaxis
187
seizure use carbamazepine
general (first line for partial)
188
seizure use valproic acid
broad spectrum (partial, tonic-clonic, absence). first line for tonic-clonic
189
seizure use vigabatrin
partial only
190
seizure use gabapentin
partial only
191
seizure use topiramate
general (partial + tonic-clonic)
192
seizure use lamotrigine
broad spectrum (partial, tonic-clonic, absence)
193
seizure use levetiracetam
general (partial + tonic-clonic)
194
seizure use tiagabine
partial only
195
which epliepsy drugs cause stevens johnsons?
ethosuximide, phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine
196
MOA ethosuximide
blocks thalamic T type calcium channels
197
MOA benzos
increase GABA-A action
198
MOA phenobarbital
increase GABA-A action
199
MOA phenytoin
blocks Na channels
200
MOA carbamazepine
blocks Na channels
201
MOA valproic acid
increases Na channel inactivation, increases GABA concentration
202
MOA vigabitran
increases GABA concentration
203
MOA gabapentin
inhibits high-voltage-activated Ca channels, GABA analog
204
MOA topiramate
blocks Na channels, increases GABA action
205
MOA lamotrigine
blocks voltage-gated Na channels
206
MOA levetiracetam
unknown
207
MOA tiagabine
inhibits GABA reuptake
208
which barbiturate is used for induction of amnesia
thiopental
209
short-acting benzos
alprazolam, triazolam, oxazepam, midazolam. ("ATOM", more addicting)
210
which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic
halothane
211
which inhaled anesthetic is nephrotoxic
methoxyflurane
212
which inhaled anesthetic is proconvulsant
enflurane
213
MOA ketamine
blocks NMDA receptors
214
order of sensations lost with local anesthetic
pain, temperature, touch, then pressure
215
which local anesthetic can cause CV toxicity
bupivicaine
216
which local anesthetic can cause methemoglobin
benzocaine
217
class of drugs: tubucurarine, pancuronium, atracurium
nondepolarizing NMJ blockers
218
GABA-B activator in spinal cord used to relax smooth muscle
baclofen
219
centrally acting muscle relaxant
cyclobenzaprine
220
MOA amantadine for parkinson
increases dopamine release and decreases uptake
221
livedo reticularis is an AE from which parkinson drug
amantadine
222
carbidopa MOA
inhibits peripheral DOPA carboxylase to prevent L-DOPA --> dopamine
223
entacapone, tolcapone MOA peripherally
inhibits COMT to prevent peripheral conversion of L-DOPA to 3-OMD
224
selegiline, rasagiline MOA
inhibit MAO-B centrally to block conversion of dopamine to DOPAC
225
central MOA for tolcapone
inhibits COMT centrally to prevent conversion of dopamine to 3-MT
226
memantine MOA
NMDA receptor antagonist used in Alzheimer
227
AChE inhibitors used in Alzheimer
donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine, tacrine
228
tetrabenazine and reserpine MOA
inhibit VMAT to decrease dopamine packaging, used in Huntington
229
MOA riluzole
decreases glutamate excitotoxicity to modestly improve ALS survival
230
MOA triptans
5HT-1B/1D agonists that inhibit trigeminal nerve activation, prevent vasoactive peptide release, and induce vasoconstriction
