Random Questions Flashcards

1
Q

most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

ethanol abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

low HB and high MCV

A

macrocytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the single carbon donor that is required for the synthesis of pyrimidines and purines (thymidine) bases incorporated into DNA and without it megaloblastosis will occue

A

folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

why is pancreatic insufficiency associated with B12 defficiency

A

because B 12 needs to pancreas so that it can cleave R factor so that B12 can bind to intrinsic factor and be absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what vitamin catalyzes the transaminase reactions by acting as a carrier of amino groups

A

vitamine b6 (pyridoxine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the water shed areas in the brain

A

where the ACA and MCA meet and where the PCA and MCA meet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how do cortical watershed infarcts usually appear?

A

like bilateral wedge shaped strips of necrosis that are parallel and adjacent to the longitudinal issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

these aneurysms usually cause cerebral hemorrhage when they rupture and involve deep brain structures like the basal ganglia and thalamus, what are they called

A

Charcot-Bouchard Aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

lacunar infarcts that occur in the basal ganglia, internal capsule, pons and thalamus are due to what

A

hypertensive arteriolar sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what kind of aneurysm rupture usually results in subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

saccular aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if there is alcohol abuse what will be elevated AST or ALT

A

AST (Think SHOTS SHOTS SHOTSS!!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

why is pancreatitis associated with low levels of calcium in the serum

A

because the pancreatitis spreads into the retroperitoneal fat, omentum and mesentery and then calcium form your system joins it and causes sopinification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the second most common cause of pancreatitis

A

alcohol abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what lung tumor is associated with producing ACTH or vasopressin

A

small cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what lung cancer is associated with producing PTHrP and hypercalcemia

A

squamous cell cancer of the lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how to differentiate between ectopic production of ACTH like in small cell lung cancer and pituitary production of ACTH

A

pituitary would respond to corticosteroid administration by decreasing ACTH release due to negative feedback, while the ectopic form would not decrease with administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

wat is another name for small cell lung cancer

A

oat cell lung cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

an upper motor neuron lesion will elicit what on a babinski test

A

dorsiflexion of the toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

spasticity, hyperreflecia, muscle paralysis and weakness are caused by what kind of brain lesion

A

upper motor neuron lesion (aka pyramidal signs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

lower motor neuron lesions cause what three things

A

muscle atrophy, muscle fasciculation and loss of tendon reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the positive straight leg test

A

this test for sciatic nerve (l4-S3) root irritation, the patient lays supine and the leg is lifted and held straight it means that there is probably an intervertebral disc herniation causing sciatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the triad for McCune-Albright Syndrome

A
  1. endocrine problems (hyperthyroid)
    - precocious puberty (age 7)
  2. cafe-au-alit spots
  3. fibrous dysplasia (osteolytic lesions that appear on the hip and pelvis bone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

persistant G protéine stimulation of melanocytes results in?

A

cafe-au-lait-macules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are the first sign of McCune Albright Syndrome
cafe au last spots "Coast of Maine Border"
26
what is the main problem in McCune Albright Syndrome
mutation in the GNAS gene in embryogenesis that makes it so that G protein is ALWYAS stimulates
27
what is the lysosomal disease in A. Jews that results in diffuse painful lytic bone lesions and delayed puberty and growth
Gaucher Disease
28
what is the disease of young children that results in isolated idiopathic osteonecrosis of the hip
Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease
29
ischemic injury usually affects what part of the kidney and why t
the medulla because even under normal conditions this is the area that gets the least amount of blood
30
what are the two parts of the nephron that are susceptible to hypoxia
PCT and thick ascending limb
31
what kindey problem can be caused by surgery, hypovolemic shock or cariogenic shock usually in patients who are in the hospital
acute tubular necrosis
32
what are the three acute clinical features of rheumatic fever
migratory arthralgia (usually first in l. extremities) pancarditis sydenham chorea
33
acute morbidity in patients with rheumatic fever is usually due to?
pancarditis (inflammation of the endocardium, pericardium and epicardium)
34
what is the most common cause of septic arthritis and infects inly one joint
S Aureus
35
what does septic shock mean
that there is end stage organ damage because there is poor perfusion due to overwhelming inflammation response to infection
36
what is the initial test for subarachnoid hemorrhage and should be done within the first 24 hours
CT without contrast
37
what will be found in the LP of someone with a subarachnoid hemorrahage
xanthochromia (yellow discoloration due to bilirubin and means that there is bleeding)
38
deposits of what are seen in pancreatic islets of patients with type 2 diabetes
amylin
39
HLA Dq and DR are the most important determinants of what disease
diabetes type 1
40
burr cells and helmet cells are consistent with what kind of hemolysis
traumatic hemolysis (prosthetic valve or microangiopathic hemolytic anemia)
41
what kind of cells are characteristic for thalasemias
target cells
42
which brain tumor commonly crosses the midlien
GBM
43
pseudopalisading necrosis is what? and what is it seen in
seen in GBM and this is when there is necrosis that is surrounded by tumor cells (blue dots)
44
late APC genen mutation and early p53 mutation in people with colorectal cancer means that they have what underlying condition
ulcerative colitis, pan colitis or crohns disease
45
what usually causes the left ventricular outflow obstruction in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
anterior leaflet of the mitral valve moving towards the hypertrophied septum, closing of the outflow of the LV into the aorta
46
what cell cannot use ketones for energy and why
RBC, because they don't have a mitochondria to turn the ketones into ACOA
47
what implies alveolar ventilation
hypcapneia
48
what are three things that are consistent with alveolar hyperventilation
dyspnea hypocapniea hypoxemia
49
what is the name for a primary gastric tumor that metates to the ovaries?
Kruckenberg Tumor
50
signet cells with displaced nucleus due to large amounts of mucous in them is a hallmark sign for what condition
Kruckenberg Tumor
51
Reed sternerg cells
Hodgkin lymphoma
52
name the two promotor regions in DNA
CAAT and TATA
53
coding region of DNA
Exon
54
non coding region of DNA
intron
55
when RNA polymerase II bind to promotor region what happens
transcription begins
56
what is the foramen that connects the lateral and third ventricles
monroe
57
what spereates the 3rd and lateral ventricles from the fourth?
cerebral aqueduct
58
dilated ventricles, normal ICP, cerebral atrophy
hydrocephalus ex vacuo
59
normal ICP, enlarged ventricles, adults
normal pressure hydrocephalus
60
global ventricular dilation and increased ICP
communicating hydrocephalus
61
methylation of the amino glycoside binding portion of the 30s ribsomone does what
it doesn't allow amino glycoside to bind to this area and halt protein synthesis, so this bacteria that does this is resistant to this drug
62
BK virus is a DNA polymavirus that is associated with what two things
nerphropathy and hemorrhagic cystitis in immunocompromised people
63
internal hemorrhoids drain into which veins
middle and superior rectal which drain into inferior iliac and inferior mesenteric vein
64
external hemorrhoids drain into which veins
inferior rectal vein and then into inferior pudendal vein
65
why is fructose the fastest in metabolism?
because it is the only one that bypasses Phosphofrucktokinase-1
66
what is an early sign of GVHD
maculopapular rash that is on the palm and soles
67
what inhibits cholesterol absorbtion from the gi
ezetimbe
68
what inhibits 3' to 5' phosphodiesterase bond formation in HIV
Zidovudine (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor)