Random Questions Flashcards

1
Q

most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

ethanol abuse

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2
Q

low HB and high MCV

A

macrocytic anemia

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3
Q

what is the single carbon donor that is required for the synthesis of pyrimidines and purines (thymidine) bases incorporated into DNA and without it megaloblastosis will occue

A

folic acid

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4
Q

why is pancreatic insufficiency associated with B12 defficiency

A

because B 12 needs to pancreas so that it can cleave R factor so that B12 can bind to intrinsic factor and be absorbed

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5
Q

what vitamin catalyzes the transaminase reactions by acting as a carrier of amino groups

A

vitamine b6 (pyridoxine)

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6
Q

what are the water shed areas in the brain

A

where the ACA and MCA meet and where the PCA and MCA meet

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7
Q

how do cortical watershed infarcts usually appear?

A

like bilateral wedge shaped strips of necrosis that are parallel and adjacent to the longitudinal issue

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8
Q

these aneurysms usually cause cerebral hemorrhage when they rupture and involve deep brain structures like the basal ganglia and thalamus, what are they called

A

Charcot-Bouchard Aneurysm

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9
Q

lacunar infarcts that occur in the basal ganglia, internal capsule, pons and thalamus are due to what

A

hypertensive arteriolar sclerosis

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10
Q

what kind of aneurysm rupture usually results in subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

saccular aneurysm

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11
Q

if there is alcohol abuse what will be elevated AST or ALT

A

AST (Think SHOTS SHOTS SHOTSS!!)

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12
Q

what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstones

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13
Q

why is pancreatitis associated with low levels of calcium in the serum

A

because the pancreatitis spreads into the retroperitoneal fat, omentum and mesentery and then calcium form your system joins it and causes sopinification

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14
Q

what is the second most common cause of pancreatitis

A

alcohol abuse

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15
Q

what lung tumor is associated with producing ACTH or vasopressin

A

small cell lung cancer

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16
Q

what lung cancer is associated with producing PTHrP and hypercalcemia

A

squamous cell cancer of the lung

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17
Q

how to differentiate between ectopic production of ACTH like in small cell lung cancer and pituitary production of ACTH

A

pituitary would respond to corticosteroid administration by decreasing ACTH release due to negative feedback, while the ectopic form would not decrease with administration

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18
Q

wat is another name for small cell lung cancer

A

oat cell lung cancer

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19
Q

an upper motor neuron lesion will elicit what on a babinski test

A

dorsiflexion of the toes

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20
Q

spasticity, hyperreflecia, muscle paralysis and weakness are caused by what kind of brain lesion

A

upper motor neuron lesion (aka pyramidal signs)

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21
Q

lower motor neuron lesions cause what three things

A

muscle atrophy, muscle fasciculation and loss of tendon reflexes

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22
Q

what is the positive straight leg test

A

this test for sciatic nerve (l4-S3) root irritation, the patient lays supine and the leg is lifted and held straight it means that there is probably an intervertebral disc herniation causing sciatica

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23
Q

what is the triad for McCune-Albright Syndrome

A
  1. endocrine problems (hyperthyroid)
    - precocious puberty (age 7)
  2. cafe-au-alit spots
  3. fibrous dysplasia (osteolytic lesions that appear on the hip and pelvis bone)
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24
Q

persistant G protéine stimulation of melanocytes results in?

A

cafe-au-lait-macules

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25
Q

what are the first sign of McCune Albright Syndrome

A

cafe au last spots “Coast of Maine Border”

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26
Q

what is the main problem in McCune Albright Syndrome

A

mutation in the GNAS gene in embryogenesis that makes it so that G protein is ALWYAS stimulates

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27
Q

what is the lysosomal disease in A. Jews that results in diffuse painful lytic bone lesions and delayed puberty and growth

A

Gaucher Disease

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28
Q

what is the disease of young children that results in isolated idiopathic osteonecrosis of the hip

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

29
Q

ischemic injury usually affects what part of the kidney and why t

A

the medulla because even under normal conditions this is the area that gets the least amount of blood

30
Q

what are the two parts of the nephron that are susceptible to hypoxia

A

PCT and thick ascending limb

31
Q

what kindey problem can be caused by surgery, hypovolemic shock or cariogenic shock usually in patients who are in the hospital

A

acute tubular necrosis

32
Q

what are the three acute clinical features of rheumatic fever

A

migratory arthralgia (usually first in l. extremities)
pancarditis
sydenham chorea

33
Q

acute morbidity in patients with rheumatic fever is usually due to?

A

pancarditis (inflammation of the endocardium, pericardium and epicardium)

34
Q

what is the most common cause of septic arthritis and infects inly one joint

A

S Aureus

35
Q

what does septic shock mean

A

that there is end stage organ damage because there is poor perfusion due to overwhelming inflammation response to infection

36
Q

what is the initial test for subarachnoid hemorrhage and should be done within the first 24 hours

A

CT without contrast

37
Q

what will be found in the LP of someone with a subarachnoid hemorrahage

A

xanthochromia (yellow discoloration due to bilirubin and means that there is bleeding)

38
Q

deposits of what are seen in pancreatic islets of patients with type 2 diabetes

A

amylin

39
Q

HLA Dq and DR are the most important determinants of what disease

A

diabetes type 1

40
Q

burr cells and helmet cells are consistent with what kind of hemolysis

A

traumatic hemolysis (prosthetic valve or microangiopathic hemolytic anemia)

41
Q

what kind of cells are characteristic for thalasemias

A

target cells

42
Q

which brain tumor commonly crosses the midlien

A

GBM

43
Q

pseudopalisading necrosis is what? and what is it seen in

A

seen in GBM and this is when there is necrosis that is surrounded by tumor cells (blue dots)

44
Q

late APC genen mutation and early p53 mutation in people with colorectal cancer means that they have what underlying condition

A

ulcerative colitis, pan colitis or crohns disease

45
Q

what usually causes the left ventricular outflow obstruction in patients with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

anterior leaflet of the mitral valve moving towards the hypertrophied septum, closing of the outflow of the LV into the aorta

46
Q

what cell cannot use ketones for energy and why

A

RBC, because they don’t have a mitochondria to turn the ketones into ACOA

47
Q

what implies alveolar ventilation

A

hypcapneia

48
Q

what are three things that are consistent with alveolar hyperventilation

A

dyspnea
hypocapniea
hypoxemia

49
Q

what is the name for a primary gastric tumor that metates to the ovaries?

A

Kruckenberg Tumor

50
Q

signet cells with displaced nucleus due to large amounts of mucous in them is a hallmark sign for what condition

A

Kruckenberg Tumor

51
Q

Reed sternerg cells

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

52
Q

name the two promotor regions in DNA

A

CAAT and TATA

53
Q

coding region of DNA

A

Exon

54
Q

non coding region of DNA

A

intron

55
Q

when RNA polymerase II bind to promotor region what happens

A

transcription begins

56
Q

what is the foramen that connects the lateral and third ventricles

A

monroe

57
Q

what spereates the 3rd and lateral ventricles from the fourth?

A

cerebral aqueduct

58
Q

dilated ventricles, normal ICP, cerebral atrophy

A

hydrocephalus ex vacuo

59
Q

normal ICP, enlarged ventricles, adults

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

60
Q

global ventricular dilation and increased ICP

A

communicating hydrocephalus

61
Q

methylation of the amino glycoside binding portion of the 30s ribsomone does what

A

it doesn’t allow amino glycoside to bind to this area and halt protein synthesis, so this bacteria that does this is resistant to this drug

62
Q

BK virus is a DNA polymavirus that is associated with what two things

A

nerphropathy and hemorrhagic cystitis in immunocompromised people

63
Q

internal hemorrhoids drain into which veins

A

middle and superior rectal which drain into inferior iliac and inferior mesenteric vein

64
Q

external hemorrhoids drain into which veins

A

inferior rectal vein and then into inferior pudendal vein

65
Q

why is fructose the fastest in metabolism?

A

because it is the only one that bypasses Phosphofrucktokinase-1

66
Q

what is an early sign of GVHD

A

maculopapular rash that is on the palm and soles

67
Q

what inhibits cholesterol absorbtion from the gi

A

ezetimbe

68
Q

what inhibits 3’ to 5’ phosphodiesterase bond formation in HIV

A

Zidovudine (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor)