NEURO Flashcards

1
Q

familial ALZ is associated with what

A

presenilin 1 and 2 mutations

`

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

degenerative disease of the frontal and temporal cortex that has round tau protein

A

Pick Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hallucinations, parkinsonian features and dementia is what

A

Ley body dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

urinary incontinece
gait instability
dementia

wet wacky and wobbly

A

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CAG repeat

A

Huntington’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

ventriculoperitoneal shunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

spike wave complexes on ECG signifies

A

Creuz Feld Jacob Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

a-synuclein is another name for what

A

Lewy Bodies (Parkinsons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

pronounced frontotemporal brain atrophy with changes in personality and behavior. The patient also has abnormal speech

A

Pick Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Silver stain that shows round cytoplasmic inclusions with aggregates of tau protein in frontotemporal lobes

A

Pick Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

APP processing by beta and gamma secretes pathway produces what

A

beta amyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

name of ad cow disease

A

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cytoplasmic inclusions in oligodendrocytes describes what pathology

A

progressive multifocal leukoencphalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

patches of white matter destruction are characteristic of what

A

multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

acute and painless vision loss in one eye is characteristic of what

A

central retinal artery occlusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is Amaurosis Fugax

A

painless, transient, vision loss in one eye that is caused by a small embolus to the ophthalmic artery ( only last a few seconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

blurry vision, black spots, floaters and decreased peripheral vision are all seen in what pathology

A

diabetic retinpoathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how can patients with long standing dialysis get carpal tunnel

A

because of the deposition of B2 micro globulin in the carpal tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

endomysial inflammatory infiltration is found on the muscle biopsy of what disease

A

polio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

endoneural inflammatory infiltration with multifocal demylenation is seen in

A

Gillian Barre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what do NIssel substances in nerve cell bodies represent

A

RER where proteins are made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Shrinking of the cell body
pyknosis of the nucleus
loss of nissl substance
eosinophilic cytoplasm

A

acute neuronal injury Red Neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

enlargement of cell body
eccentric uncles
enlargement of the nucleolus
dispersion of the nissle substance

A

axonal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

loss of neurons and functional groups of neurons

reactive gliosis

A

neuronal atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a neurons that is reaction to acute irreversible damage is called a

A

red neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the most common cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhage in the brain

A

amyloid angiopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where do cerebral amyloid angiopathy usually occur

A

in the occipital ( eye loss) or parietal lobes ( hearing loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

most common cause of intracranial hemorrhage in children

A

atriovenous malformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

progressive headaches, nausea and vomiting and confusion are all sins if

A

hypertensive encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ataxia
kyphoscoliosis
loss of vibration and proprioception

A

Friedrich ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

chiari malformations are congenial disorders that result from what

A

underdevelopment of the posterior fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

tetanus prevents the release of what

A

inhibitory NT from the brian and SC ( glycine and gaba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

botulinum inhibits the release of what

A

Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

cholera stimulates what in the enterochromaffin cells

A

serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

normal CSF expansion following cerebral volume loss ( there is more space in the brain so it looks like there is more CSF) is seen in

A

hydrocephalus ex vacuo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

why do children with hydrocephalus get hyperreflexia and hypertonicity

A

because of the UMN injury that is caused by the stretching of the periventricular pyramidal tracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are the effects of inca herniation on the ipsilateral oculomotor nerve

A

fixed dilated pupil with down and out eye deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

injury to the midbrain and the pons from an increasing hernia will cause what to the eye

A

mid positioned and fixed pupils bilaterally with loss of vestibule-ocular reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

lesion before the red nucleus causes

A

decorticate posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

lesions after the red nucleus causes

A

decerebrate posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

acute onset of diplopia, with the eye in a down and out position because of the unopposed pull of the super oblique, CN 4 and the lateral rectus, CN 6 is seen in

A

diabetic CN 3 mononeuropathy

42
Q

the somatic compartment of CN 3 that control s the extrocular muscles is located where

A

centrally

43
Q

the autonomic component of the CN 3 that is responsible for constriction of the pupil and accommodation is located where

A

on the periphery

44
Q

what part of CN 3 is affected in diabetic mononeuropathy

A

the central part (this is why the pupil size and accommodation are normal in diabetic mononeuropathy)

45
Q

location of subdural hematoma

A

between the dura and the arachnoid

46
Q

frontotemporal dementia is also called

A

Pick Disease

47
Q

main difference between Picks and Alz

A

ALZ has impairment in recent memory and atrophy all over the brain not just in the frontal or temporal lobes

48
Q

lentiform nucleus

A

globus pallidus and putamen

49
Q

one of the first regions to suffer in ALZ patients

A

hippocampus ( new memories)

50
Q

what is Gerstmann Syndrome (dominant side)

A

there there is a destruction in the inferior parietal lobe causing right/left confusion, dyscalculia and finger agnosia.

51
Q

destruction of the sub thalamic nucleus cases what

A

hemiballismus

52
Q

what is part of the basal ganglia system that sends glutamate to the globes pallid us

A

sub thalamic nucleus

53
Q

best test to identify kaiser Fleischer ring

A

slit lamp examination

54
Q

wilson disease presents with copper deposition in organs such as the liver and the

A

brain

55
Q

copper chelators used in wilsons disease are

A

d-penicillamine and trientine

56
Q

advanced hemochromatosis has an association with wha disease

A

diabetes mellitus

57
Q

pure motor hemiparesis and a small cavitary lesion in the internal capsule likely is what

A

lacunar infarct

58
Q

lacunar infarcts are caused by

A

chronic HTN

59
Q

why is there impaired eye ADDuction in the latter gaze in MS

A

because of the demyelination of the medial longitudinal fasiculus

60
Q

most common UDE of MS

A

fatigue

61
Q

why can patients with MS feel fatigued after a hot shower or after strenuous physical activity

A

because of the decreased axonal transmission associated with increased heat

62
Q

black curtain coming down into the visual eye field is associated with

A

amaurosis fugax

63
Q

infection that precedes Guillian Barre

A

Campylobacter

64
Q

what causes the segmental demyelnatino of the peripheral nervous tissue seen in Guillian Barre

A

infiltration with t cells and macrophages

65
Q

what is myotonia

A

abnormally slow relaxation of muscles

66
Q

difficulty lossening teh grip after a handshake or to release a doorknob suggests what disease

A

myotonic dystrophy

67
Q

CTG repeat seen in

A

myotonic dystrophy

68
Q

frontal balding, gonadal atrophy, cataracts, and weakness and gait disturbance are indications of

A

myotonic dystrophy

69
Q

muscle fiber most affected in myotonic dystrophy

A

Type 1

70
Q

tram track calcifications on skull radiograph is present in

A

Sturge Weber Syndrome

71
Q

what is a name for NFB 1

A

Von Recklinghausen’s disease

72
Q

peripheral nervous system tumor
neurofibromas
optic nerve gliomas
lisch nodules cafe au last spots

A

NFB 1

73
Q

mutations of VHL are on chromosome

A

3

74
Q

mutations of APC are on chromosome

A

5

75
Q

mutations of NF1 are on chromosome

A

17

76
Q

mutations of NFB2 are on chromosome

A

22

77
Q

mutation of RB1 are on chromosome

A

13

78
Q

NF2 codes for

A

merlin

79
Q

NF1 codes for

A

neurofibromin

80
Q

synaptophsin is a

A

transmembrane glycoprotein that is on neurons and signifies a neuronal origin tumor

81
Q

what tumors stain with GFAP

A

GBM
oligodendroliomas
ependymomas

82
Q

what is it when there is decreased CSF resorption by the arachnoid granulations of the arachnoid matter

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

83
Q

individuals with normal pressure hydrocephalus have a past history of what

A

brian trauma or subarachnoid hemorrhage

84
Q

magnetic gait presents with decreased step height an looks like the patients legs are stuck to the ground, this is seen in

A

normal pressure hyrdocephalus

85
Q

what is a late complication of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

urge incontinence

86
Q

gait disturbance
urge incontince
cognitive disturbance

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

87
Q

name the seziure:

no loss of consciousness
motor, sensoromic, or psychics symtpoms

A

simple

88
Q

loss of consciousness and may have automatisms like lip smacking

A

complex

89
Q

anticonvulsants for simple and complex seizures

A
  • carbamazepine
  • gabapentin
  • phenobarbital
  • phenytoin
90
Q

loss of consciousness
diffuse muscle contraction of the limbs
rhythmic jerking

A

tonic clonic

91
Q

no loss of consciousness

brief jerking movements

A

myoclonic

92
Q

brief loss of consciousness
mau have automatism like lip smacking
usually no postictal state

A

absence

93
Q

treatment for absence seizure

A

euthosuxomide

94
Q

treatment for tonic clonic and myoclonic

A

lamotrigine
lecetiracetam
topirmate
valproic acid

95
Q

which seizure presents with a preceding aura

A

complex partial

96
Q

Kopek spots are seen in what

A

measles

97
Q

name the structural protein in measles

A

hemagglutin and metric protein

98
Q

what kind of virus is measles

A

single strand RNA virus that is a member of the paramyxovirus family

99
Q

what is a complication that happens in children after they have had the measles virus

A

subacute sclerosing pan encephalitis

100
Q

anti smooth muscle antibodies go with

A

autoimmune hepatitis

101
Q

increased intestinal iron absorption is seen in

A

hemochromatosis

102
Q

mutation in ATP7B specifically does what

A

stops hepatocyte copper transport so there is a decreased formation of ceruloplasmin and there is a build up of copper in the tissues