9/28 Flashcards

1
Q

what can be overcome by high ate receptive nerve stimulation causing compound muscle fasciculation

A

botulin toxin

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2
Q

what is a drug that blocks the action of AcH when the vagus nerve si stimulated, causing bronchial dilation

A

ipratropium

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3
Q

what drug enhance the dilation effects seen in beta 2 agonist

A

ipratropium

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4
Q

what drug blocks the parasympathetic stimulation of tracheobronchial submucosal gland stimulation n the lungs

A

ipratropium

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5
Q

what are the preferred drugs for the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma

A

inhaled glucocorticoids like Flunisolide

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6
Q

how does theophylline work

A

blocks phosphodiesterase activity causing vasodilation by increasing cAMP

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7
Q

what disease has a decreases in ADAMTS13 which leads to large vWF multimuers that cause crovascualr plateltlt rich thrombi

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purport

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8
Q

what does TTP result in

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia

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9
Q

direct and consensual light reflex comes from what part of the brain stem

A

midbrain ( cranial nerve 3 is there)

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10
Q

when light comes into the retina and is transmitted to the pretectal nucleus it is relayed to the bilaterally so the both eyes will read with what uncles

A

Edinger-Westphal nuclei

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11
Q

what cranial nerves are in the medulla

A

9 and 10

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12
Q

what is Gertsman syndrome

A

lesion of the left parietal area of the brain which caused

  • right left confusion
  • agraphia (disorder of writing and spelling)
  • acalculia
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13
Q

what area of the brian controls horizontal gaze ( oculocephalic gaze)

A

pons

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14
Q

pinpoint pupils means the what brian structure is damage due to loss of descending sympathetic tracts

A

pons

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15
Q

how does the killed flu vaccine work

A

by producing antibody to hemagglutinin so that it cannot bind to the host cell and enter. it stops entering into the host cell

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16
Q

what kind of vaccine stimulates the MHC class and can generate CD 8 cells

A

live vaccine

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17
Q

what is the neuroamindias blocker that stops the release of irons

A

oseltamivir

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18
Q

a seizure that last more then 5 minuets or a series of seizures that happen without the gain of conciseness is known as

A

status epilepticus

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19
Q

what is the initial treatment for status epileptics

A

lorazepam and phenytoin

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20
Q

how does phenytoin work

A

it reduces the ability of sodium channels to recover m inactivation (anticonvulsant)

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21
Q

what two antisezuire drugs block sodium channels

A

phenytoin and carbamezepine

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22
Q

hat antisezuire drug blocks sodium channels and increases GABA levels

A

valproic acid

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23
Q

hat two drugs that are for seizures increase the action of GABA

A

benzos and phenobarbital

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24
Q

what antiseziure drug modulates GABA and Glutamate release

A

levetiracetam

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25
Q

what antisezuire drug blocks t type thalamic calcium channels

A

ethosuximide

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26
Q

what drug is an irreversible inhibitor of GABA transaminase that is responsible for the break down of GABA in the CNS

A

Vigabatrin

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27
Q

what is the cause of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

a mutation in the PIGA gene that cause a deficiency of GPI anchor, CD55 (decay accelerating factor) and CD 59 (MAC inhibitor) which inhibit complement from binding to RBC

28
Q

what is a main cytokine that is produced in giant cell arteriritis

A

IL-6 (inflammation)

29
Q

what is the inflammatory infiltrate in giant cell arteritis mainly composed of

A

CD4 cells and Macrophages

30
Q

tocilizumab is what

A

monoclonal antibody against IL-6, treats giant cell arteritis

31
Q

what is the mechanism behind hypoxic vasoconstriction in the lungs

A

there is an increase in pulmonary artery systolic calcium secondary to hypoxia induced modulation of K+ channels

32
Q

when the secretory phase happen in the menstrual cycle

A

between ovulation and menses (day 15-28)

33
Q

when does the proliferative stage of the menstrual cycle occur

A

in the beginning day 1-14 ( begins with the first say of menses and ends with ovulation)

34
Q

linitus plastics “ leather bottle stomach” is caused by

A

signet ring gastric adenocarcinoma

35
Q

what is the underlying mechanism for Zener Diverticulum

A

cricothyroid muscle dysfunction

36
Q

PDA is best heard at what heart sound

A

S2

37
Q

what is the reason there are fluctuation in symptoms of parkinson patients on levodopa

A

progressive neruodegeneration of the nigrostriatal pathway

38
Q

capsaicin causes a decrease in what

A

substance P (pain)

39
Q

what is the most common benign liver tumor

A

cavernous hemangioma

40
Q

what kind of liver cancer can regress with the termination of OCP

A

Hepatic Adenoma

41
Q

what should you avoid doing to a cavernous hemangioma in the liver

A

biopsy because it can cause fatal hemorrhage

42
Q

what converts urea to carbon dioxide and ammonia, causing an increase in pH

A

urease ( this is how H. Pylori lives in the acidic stomach)

43
Q

what are the cells that shigella enters to cause shigellosis

A

the microfold (M cells) in ill peyers patches through endocytosis

44
Q

history of thrombosis
spontaneous abortion
anticardiolipin AB
lupus anticoagulant

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

45
Q

nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis is most commonly associated with what

A

cancer and chronic inflammatory disorders like lupus

46
Q

the ventral body of the pancreas forms what

A

ucinate prices and the main pancreatic duct

47
Q

what is the triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

gait ataxia
urinary incontinence
dementia

48
Q

what inhibits the sacral micturition center

A

cerebral cortex

49
Q

what relaxes the external sphincter when you are about to pee

A

pontine reticular formation

50
Q

enlargement of the ventricles because there is decreased absorption of the CSF in the brian is?

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

51
Q

how does normal pressure hydrocephalus cause urge incontinnce

A

because there is no inhibition of peeing because of the lack of cerebral cortical fibers due to the increased ventricles with CSF. so the bladder gets full without the patient feeling like the bladder is full and it reflexively empties

52
Q

egg shell calcifications of the hillier nodes and nodular densities are seen in

A

silicosis

53
Q

pleural thickening, calcified plaques and pleural effusion are seen in

A

asbestosis

54
Q

oligoclonal bands of IgG is seen in

A

MS

55
Q

how does atherosclerosis begin

A

with endothelial cell injury

56
Q

chronic lymphedema predisposes people to what problem

A

angiosarcoma

57
Q

what is Stewart Treves Syndrome

A

it is when chronic lymphedema predisposes you to cutaneous angiosarcoma

58
Q

dilation of the left ventricle when there is increased preload can result in what kind of murmur

A

mitral regurgitation

59
Q

first line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder

A

cognitive therapy and then SSRI and SNRI

60
Q

citalopram is what kind of medication

A

SSRI

61
Q

what is bupropion

A

it is a NE and D re-uptake inhibitor used for the treatment of major depressive disorder and smoking cessation

62
Q

treatment for social anxiety disorder

A

propranolol

63
Q

what is the prophylaxis given to people who have been around meningococcal disease

A

rifampin

64
Q

what drug treats ach activity in the gut causing nausea and vomiting

A

scopolamine and hoyscyamine

65
Q

what antibody most stimulates the complement cascade

A

IgM because it is a pentamer