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UWORLD Notecards > 9/27 > Flashcards

9/27 Flashcards

1
Q

what immunosuppression drug is mainly used for solid organ transplants and inhibits T cella activation

A

Cyclosporin

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2
Q

anticholinergic that treats drug induced parkinsonism

A

Benztropine

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3
Q

what is the mixing of genomic segments in segmented viruses that affect the host cell called

A

reassortment

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4
Q

what is it called when a host cell is infected with 2 viral strains and progeny irons contain unchanged parental genome from one strain and nucleocapsid proteins from the other strain

A

phenotypic mixing

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5
Q

what is it called when there is gene exchange from the crossing over of 2 double stranded DNA molecules

A

recombination

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6
Q

what is the uptake of naked DNA by a prokaryote or eukarytoci cell

A

transformation

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7
Q

incorporation of viral DNA into a host cell chromosome is known as

A

transformation

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8
Q

what is acute cholecystitis caused by

A

obstruction by a gall stone

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9
Q

what gives similar results on repeat measurements and is reproducible

A

reliable test

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10
Q

ability for test to measure what it is supposed to measure is known as

A

validity ( accuracy)

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11
Q

dura mater ends at what level

A

S2

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12
Q

what is the bony attachment site for the sartorius muscle

A

anterior superior iliac spine

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13
Q

what is the bony attachment site for the sacrotuberous and posterior sacroiliac ligaments in the iliac crest

A

posterior superior iliac spine

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14
Q

inactivation of the HFE protein causes

A

hemochromatosis

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15
Q

why does inactivation of the HFE protein cause hemochromatosis

A

because hepcidin is decreased and the hepatocytes have an increased expression of DMT1 by enterocytes that lead to iron overload

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16
Q

patients with hemochromatosis are at an increased risk for what

A

liver cirrhosis and hepatocellualr carcinoma

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17
Q

what protein is known to interact with transferrin receptor to sense iron stores

A

HFE protein

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18
Q

what is bronze diabetes

A

when body iron level exceed 20 g and there is a triad of

  • diabetes mellitus
  • skin pigmentation
  • micro nodular cirrhosis
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19
Q

what is an Anti IgE antibody that is given to people with moderate to severe allergic asthma

A

omalizumab

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20
Q

what is Bortezomib

A

a proteasome inhibitor that is used in the treatment of multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

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21
Q

name 3 anti TNF-a drugs

A

infliximab
Etanercept
Golimumab

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22
Q

40 s subunit of ribosomes does what

A

binds mRNA and tRNA

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23
Q

60s subunit of ribosomes does what

A

has peptide transferase which is the enzyme that causes peptide bond formation between amino acids ( protein synthesis)

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24
Q

how do ribosomes attach to the RER

A

via the translocon which is a protein complex that contains ribophorins that bind the large 60s subunit

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25
what do the lamellar bodies of type 2 pneumocytes do
they store and release pulmonary surfactant into the fluid layer lining the alveoli
26
where do goblet cells end in the air way
larger bronchioles, then club cells take over
27
particles that lodge distally to the terminal bronchioles where there is no cilia present is cleared by
macrophages
28
what stimulates the granuloma cells inside the follicle to produce estrogen which leads to the rise of estrogen seen in the follicular stage of the menstrual cycle
FSH
29
where is androstenedione synthesized in women
in the theca cells and turned into estrogen in the granuloma cells
30
there is an increased activity of what cells in Crohns Disease
TH 1 cells ( IFN-y, TNF and IL-2)
31
where is crohns most common to be seen
terminal ileum
32
TH1 cells mediate what
delayed hypersensitivity reaction and granuloma formation
33
what cells are involved in ulcerative colitis
TH 2 cells
34
TH 2 cells produce what 4 cells
IL-4 IL-5 IL-6 IL-10
35
what is a non antidepressant drug that treats bacterial infections that has MAOI activity and can cause serotonin syndrome when combines with an SSRI, SNRI or TCA
linezolid
36
what is the triad of serotonin syndrome
- autonomic instability ( hyperthermia, HTN, tacky) - altered mental status ( agitation and confusion) - neuromuscular hyperactivity (tremor, hyperreflexia and myoclonus)
37
linezolid treats what
vanco resistant enterococcus and MRSA
38
how does stress incontince present
leaking when coughing, sneezing, or laughing
39
how does urge incontince present
sudden, overwhelming and frequent need to pee
40
how does overflow incontince present
constant involuntary dribbling of urine and incomplete emptying of bladder
41
what can cause a loss of higher center control of micturition and lead to detrusor hyperrefflexia and urge incontince
spinal cord lesions above the sacral region
42
patients with MS usually develop what kind of incontinence
urge
43
flaccid bladder typically occurs in the setting of lower motor neuron lesions seen in situations like
cauda equina syndrome
44
anterior motion of the mitral valve is seen in
HOCM
45
intimal hyperplasia and fibrosis, medial hypertrophy and capillary tufts in a woman between the age of 20-40 is associated with
pulmonary arterial HTN
46
what is the main difference from schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder
schizophreniform last for less then 6 months
47
levels of EPO in people with polycythemia vera are
low
48
what is the mutation people have who have polycythemia vera
V617 involving JAK2 ( replaces valine with phenylalanine at the 617 position making hematopoietic stem cells more reactive to growth factors)
49
wha does ticagrelor do
it binds ADP receptor on platelets and blocks it
50
what is associated with the first aortic arch
a portion of the maxillary artery
51
what is a derivative of the second aortic arch
stapedial artery ( regresses in humans)
52
what are the derivatives of the third aortic arch
common and proximal internal carotid arteries
53
what are the derivatives of the fourth aortic arch
true aortic arch and subclavian arteries
54
what nerve is nerve associated with the fourth pharyngeal arch
superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve
55
what nerve is associated with the first pharyngeal arch
trigeminal nerve
56
what nerve is associated with the second pharyngeal arch
facial nerve
57
what nerve is associate with the third pharyngeal arch
glossopharyngeal nerve
58
what nerve is associated with the 6th pharyngeal arch
recurrent laryngeal branches of the vagus nerve
59
what is the drug used to control carcinoid syndrome
ocreotide
60
carcinoid tumors are mainly where
ileum
61
what is cabergoline
it is a dopamine agonist that is used for prolactinomas
62
what is Leuprolide
it is a GnRH analogue
63
what is the only medicine that reverses both muscarinic and nicotinic effects of organophosphates
pralidoxime
64
patients who are treated with atropine for organophosphate poisoning are still at a risk for what
muscle paralysis
65
polysaccharide vaccine (Pneumovax) for pneumococcus should be given to who and why
adults >65 because it is not immunogenic in children and the antibody levels decline over 5 years
66
anesthetics that have large arteriovenous concentration gradients have what kind of solubility in the tissue
high ( slower onset of action)
67
potent anesthetics have high or low MAC?
low
68
what area of the brain has the greatest amount of atrophy in Alzhemiers disease
hippocampus
69
hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules that cause infertility is seen in what disease
kleinfelter syndrome
70
what is the autosomal recessive disorder that is due to a lack of neutrophil phagosome lysosome fusion resulting in - neurological abnormalities (nystagmus) - partial albinsim - immunodeficiency due to bad neutrophil function
Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
71
x linked disorder that is marked by - eczema - immunodeficiency - thrombocytopenia
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
72
what is the immunodeficiency in Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome
combine B and T cell disorder

UWORLD Notecards (32 decks)

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