Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWORLD Notecards > 9/27 > Flashcards

9/27 Flashcards

1
Q

what immunosuppression drug is mainly used for solid organ transplants and inhibits T cella activation

A

Cyclosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

anticholinergic that treats drug induced parkinsonism

A

Benztropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the mixing of genomic segments in segmented viruses that affect the host cell called

A

reassortment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is it called when a host cell is infected with 2 viral strains and progeny irons contain unchanged parental genome from one strain and nucleocapsid proteins from the other strain

A

phenotypic mixing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is it called when there is gene exchange from the crossing over of 2 double stranded DNA molecules

A

recombination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the uptake of naked DNA by a prokaryote or eukarytoci cell

A

transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

incorporation of viral DNA into a host cell chromosome is known as

A

transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is acute cholecystitis caused by

A

obstruction by a gall stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what gives similar results on repeat measurements and is reproducible

A

reliable test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ability for test to measure what it is supposed to measure is known as

A

validity ( accuracy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

dura mater ends at what level

A

S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the bony attachment site for the sartorius muscle

A

anterior superior iliac spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the bony attachment site for the sacrotuberous and posterior sacroiliac ligaments in the iliac crest

A

posterior superior iliac spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

inactivation of the HFE protein causes

A

hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

why does inactivation of the HFE protein cause hemochromatosis

A

because hepcidin is decreased and the hepatocytes have an increased expression of DMT1 by enterocytes that lead to iron overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

patients with hemochromatosis are at an increased risk for what

A

liver cirrhosis and hepatocellualr carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what protein is known to interact with transferrin receptor to sense iron stores

A

HFE protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is bronze diabetes

A

when body iron level exceed 20 g and there is a triad of

  • diabetes mellitus
  • skin pigmentation
  • micro nodular cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is an Anti IgE antibody that is given to people with moderate to severe allergic asthma

A

omalizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is Bortezomib

A

a proteasome inhibitor that is used in the treatment of multiple myeloma and Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

name 3 anti TNF-a drugs

A

infliximab
Etanercept
Golimumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

40 s subunit of ribosomes does what

A

binds mRNA and tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

60s subunit of ribosomes does what

A

has peptide transferase which is the enzyme that causes peptide bond formation between amino acids ( protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how do ribosomes attach to the RER

A

via the translocon which is a protein complex that contains ribophorins that bind the large 60s subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what do the lamellar bodies of type 2 pneumocytes do

A

they store and release pulmonary surfactant into the fluid layer lining the alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

where do goblet cells end in the air way

A

larger bronchioles, then club cells take over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

particles that lodge distally to the terminal bronchioles where there is no cilia present is cleared by

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what stimulates the granuloma cells inside the follicle to produce estrogen which leads to the rise of estrogen seen in the follicular stage of the menstrual cycle

A

FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

where is androstenedione synthesized in women

A

in the theca cells and turned into estrogen in the granuloma cells

30
Q

there is an increased activity of what cells in Crohns Disease

A

TH 1 cells ( IFN-y, TNF and IL-2)

31
Q

where is crohns most common to be seen

A

terminal ileum

32
Q

TH1 cells mediate what

A

delayed hypersensitivity reaction and granuloma formation

33
Q

what cells are involved in ulcerative colitis

A

TH 2 cells

34
Q

TH 2 cells produce what 4 cells

A

IL-4
IL-5
IL-6
IL-10

35
Q

what is a non antidepressant drug that treats bacterial infections that has MAOI activity and can cause serotonin syndrome when combines with an SSRI, SNRI or TCA

A

linezolid

36
Q

what is the triad of serotonin syndrome

A
  • autonomic instability ( hyperthermia, HTN, tacky)
  • altered mental status ( agitation and confusion)
  • neuromuscular hyperactivity (tremor, hyperreflexia and myoclonus)
37
Q

linezolid treats what

A

vanco resistant enterococcus and MRSA

38
Q

how does stress incontince present

A

leaking when coughing, sneezing, or laughing

39
Q

how does urge incontince present

A

sudden, overwhelming and frequent need to pee

40
Q

how does overflow incontince present

A

constant involuntary dribbling of urine and incomplete emptying of bladder

41
Q

what can cause a loss of higher center control of micturition and lead to detrusor hyperrefflexia and urge incontince

A

spinal cord lesions above the sacral region

42
Q

patients with MS usually develop what kind of incontinence

A

urge

43
Q

flaccid bladder typically occurs in the setting of lower motor neuron lesions seen in situations like

A

cauda equina syndrome

44
Q

anterior motion of the mitral valve is seen in

A

HOCM

45
Q

intimal hyperplasia and fibrosis, medial hypertrophy and capillary tufts in a woman between the age of 20-40 is associated with

A

pulmonary arterial HTN

46
Q

what is the main difference from schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder

A

schizophreniform last for less then 6 months

47
Q

levels of EPO in people with polycythemia vera are

A

low

48
Q

what is the mutation people have who have polycythemia vera

A

V617 involving JAK2 ( replaces valine with phenylalanine at the 617 position making hematopoietic stem cells more reactive to growth factors)

49
Q

wha does ticagrelor do

A

it binds ADP receptor on platelets and blocks it

50
Q

what is associated with the first aortic arch

A

a portion of the maxillary artery

51
Q

what is a derivative of the second aortic arch

A

stapedial artery ( regresses in humans)

52
Q

what are the derivatives of the third aortic arch

A

common and proximal internal carotid arteries

53
Q

what are the derivatives of the fourth aortic arch

A

true aortic arch and subclavian arteries

54
Q

what nerve is nerve associated with the fourth pharyngeal arch

A

superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve

55
Q

what nerve is associated with the first pharyngeal arch

A

trigeminal nerve

56
Q

what nerve is associated with the second pharyngeal arch

A

facial nerve

57
Q

what nerve is associate with the third pharyngeal arch

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

58
Q

what nerve is associated with the 6th pharyngeal arch

A

recurrent laryngeal branches of the vagus nerve

59
Q

what is the drug used to control carcinoid syndrome

A

ocreotide

60
Q

carcinoid tumors are mainly where

A

ileum

61
Q

what is cabergoline

A

it is a dopamine agonist that is used for prolactinomas

62
Q

what is Leuprolide

A

it is a GnRH analogue

63
Q

what is the only medicine that reverses both muscarinic and nicotinic effects of organophosphates

A

pralidoxime

64
Q

patients who are treated with atropine for organophosphate poisoning are still at a risk for what

A

muscle paralysis

65
Q

polysaccharide vaccine (Pneumovax) for pneumococcus should be given to who and why

A

adults >65 because it is not immunogenic in children and the antibody levels decline over 5 years

66
Q

anesthetics that have large arteriovenous concentration gradients have what kind of solubility in the tissue

A

high ( slower onset of action)

67
Q

potent anesthetics have high or low MAC?

A

low

68
Q

what area of the brain has the greatest amount of atrophy in Alzhemiers disease

A

hippocampus

69
Q

hyalinization and fibrosis of the seminiferous tubules that cause infertility is seen in what disease

A

kleinfelter syndrome

70
Q

what is the autosomal recessive disorder that is due to a lack of neutrophil phagosome lysosome fusion resulting in

  • neurological abnormalities (nystagmus)
  • partial albinsim
  • immunodeficiency due to bad neutrophil function
A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

71
Q

x linked disorder that is marked by

  • eczema
  • immunodeficiency
  • thrombocytopenia
A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

72
Q

what is the immunodeficiency in Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

A

combine B and T cell disorder

UWORLD Notecards (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions