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UWORLD Notecards > Gastrointestinal System > Flashcards

Gastrointestinal System Flashcards

1
Q

where is iron absorbed

A

duodenum

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2
Q

where is folate absorbed

A

small intestine

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3
Q

where is b12 absorbed

A

with bile salts in the ileum

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4
Q

wha converts trypsinogen to trypsin

A

enterokinase/enteropeptidase

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5
Q

what is a molten receptor agonist that is used to cause peristalsis

A

erythromycin

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6
Q

B cells in the germinal centers of Peyers Patches turn into what

A

IgA secreting cells that protect the gut from antigens

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7
Q

what is the enzyme that turns unconjugated bilirubin into conjugated bilirubin

A

UDP-Glucuronosyl Transferase

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8
Q

complications of Chafas Disease

A

achalasia
mega colon
cardiomegaly

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9
Q

mucosal lacerations at the base of the esophagus that is due to vomiting

A

malloy-weiss syndrome

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10
Q

dysphagia
esophageal webs
iron deficiency

A

Plummer Vinson Syndrome

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11
Q

hypertrophied Ruggae in the stomach associated with protein loss and decreases acid production

A

Menetrier Disease

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12
Q

what is the main difference between angiodysplasa and diverticulosis

A

constipation

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13
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis + osseous and soft tissue tumors
supernumerary teeth

A

Gardner syndrome

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14
Q

FAP + malignant CNS tumor

A

Turcos Syndrome

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15
Q

harmatomas in the g.i. and hyper pigmentation of the mouth, lips, hands and genitalia

A

Peutz-Jehers Syndrome

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16
Q

tumor marker for colon cancer

A

CEA

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17
Q

AST>ALT in non alcoholic liver situations means what

A

that there is a progression to cirrhosis and fibrosis of the liver

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18
Q

what is Budd Chiari syndrome

A

when there is a thrombotic or non thrombotic obstruction of the hepatic vein that causes hepatomegaly and abdominal pain

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19
Q

alkaline phosphatase is elevated in what conditions

A

bone
biliary obstruction
infiltrative disorders

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20
Q

what is Reye Syndrome

A

rare fatal childhood hepatic encephalopathy that causes fatty liver, hypoglycemia and vomiting

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21
Q

what are mallory bodies

A

intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of damaged keratin filaments found in hepatitis

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22
Q

what is hepatic adenoma usually due to

A

OCP use or anabolic steroids

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23
Q

what is angiosarcoma

A

a malignant tumor of the epithelial cells in the liver that is usually due to exposure to arsenic or vinyl chloride

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24
Q

a rare inherited disorder affecting the metabolism of bilirubin, a chemical formed from the breakdown of the heme in red blood cells. The disorder results in a form of nonhemolytic jaundice, which results in high levels of unconjugated bilirubin and often leads to brain damage in infants.

A

Crigler-Naijar Syndrome

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25
Q

a condition where hepatocytes cannot properly secrete conjugated bilirubin into the bile leaving the patient with a black liver

A

Dubin-Johnoson Syndrome

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26
Q

hepatocytes have a problem secreting conjugated bilirubin into the bile but the liver does not turn black

A

Rotor Syndorome

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27
Q

increases levels of uncongugated bilirubin that is usually noticed in adolescent years but doesn’t have significant consequences, happens in times of stress

A

Gilbert Syndrome

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28
Q

unknown cause of onion skining bile duct fibrosis with alternating strictures and dilation with beading of the extra hepatic and intrahepatic bile ducts seen in men

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

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29
Q

autoimmune reactions with lymphocytic infiltration and granulomas and destruction of the interlobular bile ducts

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

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30
Q

extra hepatic biliary obstructions with increased pressure in the intrahepatic ducts seen in people with known obstructive sessions like gallstones

A

secondary biliary cirrhosis

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31
Q

a very aggressive tumor that arises from the pancreatic ducts with a one year survival rate

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

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32
Q

what is it called when there are episodes of vessel inflammation due to blood clots which are recurrent and appear in different locations. - associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

Trousseau Syndrome

33
Q

What is the MOA of Fidaxomicin

A

Is a macrocyclic antibody that inhibits the sigma subunit of he RNA POLYMERASE therby stoping protein synthesis and causing cell death. Used to treat c diff

34
Q

Treatment for recurrent c diff

A

Fidaxomicin

35
Q

Treatment for c perfringens

A

Doxycycline

36
Q

Recurrent aphthous ulcers, genital ulcer and uveitis

A

Bechete syndrome

37
Q

what needs to be supplemented into the breast milk after 4 months

A

iron

38
Q

Lynch syndrome is associated with what cancers

A

colorectal
ovarian
endometrial

39
Q

FAP is associated with what cancers

A

colorectal
osteomas/ desmoids
brain

40
Q

Von Hipple Lindau is associated with what cancers

A

Hemangioblastomas
clear cell real cancer
pheochromocytoma

41
Q

name of inactivated polio vaccine

A

salk

42
Q

name of activated live polio vaccine

A

sabin

43
Q

what would a biopsy of someone with lactose intolerance look like

A

normal

44
Q

atrophy of intestinal villi is seen in what pathology

A

celiac Disease

45
Q

colon problem where you see non caveating granulomas and abdominal pain is associated with what

A

Crohn’s Disease

46
Q

diffuse infiammatori infiltrates with neutrophilic micro abscesses in the crypt lumina is seen in what disease

A

U. Colitis

47
Q

Distended macrophages in the lamina propria are a finding in what

A

Whipple Disease (malabsorptive diarrhea, weight loss, joint pain)

48
Q

what kind of lesions are in the esophagus of someone with HSV

A

punched out ulcers with eosinophilic nuclear inclusions

49
Q

what kind of lessons are seen in the esophagus of someone with CMV

A

shallow/linear ulcers with nuclear/cytplasmic viral inclusions

50
Q

Pill induced esophagitis can be caused by what drugs

A

tetracycline
bisphosphonates
potassium chloride

51
Q

what part of the colon is always involved in HIrscsprung disease

A

rectum

52
Q

what is a nucleoside antimetabolite drug that interferes with the duplication of viral genetic material and is used in Hep C and RSV

A

Ribavirin

53
Q

Raltegravir

A

integrase inhibitor used to treat HIV

54
Q

Indinavir

A

inhibit viral proteases (HIV)

55
Q

Amantadine

A

inhibits uncoating of the influenza A viron

56
Q

anti motility agent that works on the u opiod receptor

A

Loperamide

57
Q

effective for treating central nausea (in acute migrants) and are D receptor blockers

A

Metoclopromide

Promethazine

58
Q

why are D2 antagonist not the first line treatment for GI upset nausea

A

Because they can cause heavy sedation

59
Q

ranitidine

A

H2 blocker that is used to reduce gastric acid secretions

60
Q

what are the most important risk factors for getting squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus

A

smoking and drinking

61
Q

finley granular, homogenous, dull eosinophilic inclusions that fill the cytoplasm of the hepatocyte “ground glass hepatocyte” is?

A

HBV

62
Q

when the mucosa of the terminal ileum is inflamed from Crohns, what happens to bile acids?

A

they are not able to be reabsorbed and become lost in the poo and make the patient susceptible to gall stones

63
Q

describe breast milk jaundice

A

indirect hyperbillirubinemia that peaks at age two weeks because of an enzyme called beta glucuronidase in breast milk that deconjugates bilirubin

64
Q

what part of the bowel should be biopsied in Hirrschsrpung disease

A

the SUBMUCOSA of the rectum to see if there are any ganglionic cells

65
Q

pancreatic insufficiency is a problem in what disease

A

Cystic Fibrosis

66
Q

what is the pancreas like in CF

A

unable to absorb fats and is obstructed and distended because of blockage by the mucous produces in CF

67
Q

nodular lymphoid hyperplasia of the intestine is seen in what disease

A

common variable immunodeficiency syndrome (CVID)

68
Q

what is common variable immunodeficiency syndrome

A

a disorder of low immunoglobulin and B cells that predispose people to recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infections

69
Q

what is the only cytokine with anti-inflammatory properties

A

IL-10

70
Q

name some inflammatory TH1 cytokines

A

IL-2 and INF-gamma

71
Q

IL-1 is secreted by

A

macrophages and epithelial cells

72
Q

what cytokine stimulated humoral response by stimulating differential of B cells and increasing IGA production

A

IL-5

73
Q

IL-5 is secreted by?

A

TH2 cells

74
Q

which cytokine is related to the growth of eosinophils and is associated with allergic reactions

A

IL-5

75
Q

which cytokine induces the differentiation of TH1 cells and activation of NK cells

A

IL-12

76
Q

pro inflammatory cytokine that is a mediator of promoting leukocyte recruitment and activates the endothelium

A

TNF- alpha

77
Q

the fraction of those people who truly have the disease amongst the POSITIVE reading people

A

positive predictive value

78
Q

what can be measured when alkaline phosphatase is elevated to make sure it is elevated due to liver problems and not bone problems

A

gamma-glutamyl transferace ( because it isn’t present in a significant number in bone)

UWORLD Notecards (32 decks)

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