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UWORLD Notecards > MICRO > Flashcards

MICRO Flashcards

1
Q

what is the aniline dye used in acid fast stain to identify mycoplasma

A

carbolfuchsin

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2
Q

what is stained in an acid fast stain

A

mycolic acid

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3
Q

what does IFN-g do

A

it activates macrophages and causes the differention of helper t cells

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4
Q

IFN-g is produced by

A

activated t lymphocytes and NK cells

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5
Q

IFN-g release assy test for what

A

latent TB

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6
Q

IFN-g test what kind of immune response

A

cell mediated

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7
Q

what does elevated lactate DH mean

A

that there is cell damage or tissue damage, it is also high when bacteria is present

also seen when there is hemolytic anemia

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8
Q

due to the immune response seen when someone has mycoplasma what can happen

A

the patient can have hemolytic anemia because the antigens on the bacteria are the same as the ones on the red blood cells ( production of cold agglutinins IgM)

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9
Q

what is shown on buffered charcoal yeast extract medium supplemented with L-cystene and iron

A

Legionella

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10
Q

silver stains improve the visualization of what organism

A

Legionella

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11
Q

ETEC causes battery diarrhea in

A

travelers and kids

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12
Q

The LT enterotoxin in ETEC is similar to what

A

Cholera Like Toxin

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13
Q

what ETEC toxin increases cAMP by stimulating Gs

A

LT

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14
Q

what ETEC toxin increases cGMP in the apical membranes of the host gut mucosa

A

ST

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15
Q

what inhibits the 60s subunits in human cells and inhibits the human cell protein production and causes death

A

Shigga Toxin (EHEC)

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16
Q

stacked brick intestinal adhesion is characteristic of what bacteria

A

EAEC enteroaggregative e.coli

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17
Q

aspergliomas usually occur in what lung lobe

A

the upper one

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18
Q

thick walled spherules packed with endospores is indicative of

A

Coccidies immitis

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19
Q

agar for Cocciodies Immitis

A

Sabourad Agar

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20
Q

small oval yeast inside macrophages is seen in ( smaller then an RBC)

A

Histoplasma

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21
Q

ribbon like hyphae with rare separations . wide angles

A

Rhizupus

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22
Q

spiral shaped gram - spirochete

A

T. Palladium ( so thin it cannot be seen on gram stain)

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23
Q

what test is used to see t. palladium

A

dark field light microscopy

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24
Q

painful ulcer (chancroid) with regional lymphadenopathy is seen in what bacteria

A

Haemophillus Ducreyi

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25
Q

hematin ( factor X) is on a medium that test for

A

Copyright (c) UWorld, Please do not save, print, cut, copy or paste anything while a test is active.

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26
Q

retro-orbital pain, epistaxis, melena, headache, joint and muscle pain and fever are signs of

A

dengue Fever

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27
Q

aedes mosquito causes what two thing

A

Chickungunya and Dengue Fever

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28
Q

partially ds circular DNA molecule in a capsid

A

HEP B

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29
Q

oxidase positive non lactose fermenting gram negative rod that causes UTI in patients with indwelling catheters

A

pseudommonas

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30
Q

lactose fermenting gram negative rod that causes UTI

A

e. Coli

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31
Q

intrabdominal bacterial infections are caused by

A

E. Coli and Bacteroidis Frigalis

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32
Q

non lactose fermenting
oxidase negative
motile organisms that causes osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients is

A

Salmonella

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33
Q

main virulence factor for S. Aureus osteomyletiits

A

adhesion to collagen

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34
Q

latex agglutinin text shows polysaccharide capsule in what bacteria

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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35
Q

transmission of Giardia

A

fecal oral

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36
Q

cyst get transmitted fecal orally in what parasite

A

giardia

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37
Q

giardia is associated with

A

campers and hikers who don’t purify their water

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38
Q

flatulence, foul smelling diarrhea and steatohrrea is seen in

A

giardia

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39
Q

why does giardia cause fatty poo

A

it stimulates mucos production so nothing can be absorbed in the gut

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40
Q

trophozoites that attach but don’t invade the intestinal wall is seen in

A

giardia

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41
Q

finding trophozoites in the stool (stool O and P test) is seen in

A

giardia

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42
Q

Elisa stool antigen test diagnoses what

A

giardia

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43
Q

treat giardiasis

A

metronidazole

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44
Q

two life cycle stages of entamoeba histolytic

A

cyst form- infection ( contaminated water)

trophozoites- invades colon and goes through portal circulation and affect the liver

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45
Q

most common site of liver abscess in entamoeba histolytic

A

right lobe

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46
Q

Amebeosis is caused by

A

entamoeba histolytic

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47
Q

anchovy paste pus in the liver abscess is associate with what parasite

A

entamoeba histolytic

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48
Q

intestinal amebiasis. flask shaped ulcers in the colon is caused by

A

entamoeba histolytic

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49
Q

entamoeba histolytic causes what kind of diarrhea

A

bloody

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50
Q

presence of trophozoites that contain endocytosed RBC is seen in

A

entamoeba histolytic

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51
Q

drug that treats entamoeba histolytic

A

metronidazole

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52
Q

drugs the eliminate cyst in the lumen of the intestine in entamoeba histolytic “luminal agents”

A

paramycin

iodoquinol

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53
Q

if there is a liver mass that doesn’t need to be drained or surgically removed what is it caused by

A

entamoeba histolytic

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54
Q

cryptosporidum causes what in immune compromised patients (HIV+)

A

severe diarrhea

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55
Q

in immunocompetent patients cryptosporidum cause

A

mild diarrhea

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56
Q

unicellular partially acid fast organisms that creat oocytes that are released in poo and can be transmitted fecal orally ?

A

cryptosporidum

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57
Q

who is at risk for cryptosporidum

A

people who swim in dirty water

campers

people who work with animals

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58
Q

only parasite that stain acid fast

A

cryptosporidum

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59
Q

infectious cyst that are passed through watery stool is seen in

A

giardia and cryptosporidum

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60
Q

cysts that are made of 4 motile sporozoites that attach to the intestinal wall and cause diarrhea is seen in

A

cryptosporidum

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61
Q

tx for cryptosporidum

A

nitazoxanide in an immunocompetent host

spiramycin (macrolide)-not FDA approved in the US

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62
Q

intracellular parasitic protozoan that can affect any warm blooded animal is?

A

toxoplasma gondii

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63
Q

ways toxoplasma gondii can be transmitted

A
  • eating undercooked meat that has too tissue cyst
  • eating water or veggies that have oocytes from infected animals poo
  • through placenta
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64
Q

toxoplasma gondii has what in cat poo

A

oocytes

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65
Q

brain accesses in immunocompromised that are ring enhancing lesions on CT or MRI is seen in

A

toxoplasma gondii

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66
Q

how to differentiate lymphoma from toxoplasma gondii (toxoplasma encephalitis)

A

biopsy of the brain

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67
Q

triad in congenital toxoplasma gondii

A
  • intracranial calcification
  • hydrocephalus
  • chorioretinits
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68
Q

babies with toxoplasma gondii can become

A

death

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69
Q

tx for toxoplasma gondii

A

pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

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70
Q

when to start prophylaxis for toxoplasma gondii who have IgG antibodies to it

A

when CD4 is

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71
Q

what causes african sleeping sickness

A

trypanosome bruce gambiense and rhodesiense

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72
Q

Painful bite of Testes Fly is from what parasite

A

trypanosome brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

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73
Q

after biting these parasites move from the blood to the lymph nodes ( cerivical and axillary)

A

trypanosome brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

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74
Q

undulating recurrent fevers and sleepiness is

A

trypanosome brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

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75
Q

trypomastigotes seen on blood smear?

A

trypanosome brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

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76
Q

motile parasites with a single flagella

A

trypanosome brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

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77
Q

treatment for trypanosome brucei gambiense and rhodesiense

A

suramin ( blood infection) and melarsoprol (CNS infection)

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78
Q

swimming in fresh water lakes can transmit

A

naegleria Fowleri

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79
Q

meningoencephalitis due to swimming in fresh water lakes that is rapidly fatal is seen from

A

naegleria Fowleri

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80
Q

bacteria associated with swimmin in fresh water

A

leptospirosis

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81
Q

enter way for naegleria Fowleri

A

cribriform plate

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82
Q

rare source of naegleria Fowleri

A

contact lenses solution and nasal irrigation systems

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83
Q

CSF with amoebas when a patient presents with fever, headache and nuchal rigidity

A

naegleria Fowleri

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84
Q

treatment for naegleria Fowleri

A

amphoteericin B

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85
Q

trypanosoma cruzi causes

A

Chugs disease

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86
Q

Reduvide bug that deposits poo into the wind is the vector for

A

chagas disease

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87
Q

what are the symptoms of Chagas Disease

A
  1. Megacolon
  2. Megaesophagus
  3. Dilated Cardiomyopathy
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88
Q

virus that cause dilated cardiomyopathy

A

cocsackie

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89
Q

how to diagnose trypanosoma cruzi

A

blood smear ( see motile trypanosomes during active infection)

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90
Q

in chronic chugs how do you diagnose

A

serology and clinical symptoms

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91
Q

bug that burrows into the endocardium when it gets into system

A

reduvide bug

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92
Q

tx for chagas

A

nifurtimox

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93
Q

malaria like symptoms and even death can be caused by

A

Babesia

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94
Q

-hemolytic anemia
-hemoglobinuria
-jaundice
due to (deer tick) ixodes tick

A

Babesia

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95
Q

where is Babesia common

A

northeast america

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96
Q

irregular cycling fevers is seen in

A

Babesia

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97
Q

higher risk of Babesiain what disease

A

sickle cell patients from autospleenectomy

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98
Q

how to diagnose Babesia

A

on blood smear, the presence of a maltese cross

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99
Q

tetrode of trophozoites is seen in

A

Babesia (maltese cross)

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100
Q

tx for Babesia

A

Atovaquone and Azithryomycin

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101
Q

Geimsa stain and blood smear are done to determine

A

malaria

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102
Q

fever occurs on day one and then on day four malaria “quartent fever”

A

Plasmodium malariae

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103
Q

produce dormant forms in the liver called hypnozoites type of malaria

A

Plasmodium vivax and ovale

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104
Q

fever on first day and then on the third day malaria

A

Plasmodium vivax and ovale

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105
Q

causes the worst malaria illness

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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106
Q

fever that is irregular in malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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107
Q

RBC with parasites occlude the capillaries in the brain ( confusion)and the vessels that lead to the kidney and the lungs malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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108
Q

malaria the is banana shaped in the peripheral blood smear

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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109
Q

works by blocking plasmodium heme polymerase

A

chloroquine

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110
Q

primaquine is aded to malaria treatment to destroy what

A

hypnozoites in the liver of Plasmodium vivax and ovale

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111
Q

be careful to give what drug to a patient with malaria so you do not cause severe anemia?!

A

primaquine

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112
Q

what drug is given because of resistance to chloroquine

A

mefloquine

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113
Q

prophylactic medicine to prevent getting malaria

A

mefloquine

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114
Q

combination of atovaquone and proguanil is a good treatment for

A

malaria ( or for prophylaxis)

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115
Q

p falciparum is treated by

A

artemisins

atovoquonw/proguanil

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116
Q

Artesunate is to treat

A

severe malaria

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117
Q

quinidine treats really sever

A

malaria (resistant species)

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118
Q

UDE of quinidine

A

cinchonism ( headache and tinnitus)

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119
Q

rupture of hepatocytes with the release of merozoites and go into red blood cell

A

malaria

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120
Q

Leishmania brazilinesis causes

A

cutaneous leishmaniasis

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121
Q

sand fly is the vector for

A

Leishmania brazilinesis

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122
Q

amastigote is the intracellular form seen in macrophages and is a sign of

A

Leishmania brazilinesis

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123
Q

Leishmania donovani causes

A

visceral Leishmaniasis “black fever”

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124
Q

when bone marrow is infected Leishmania causes

A

pancytopenia

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125
Q

viceral Lesmaria affects what organs

A

liver and spleen

126
Q

tx for Leishmania (cutaneous)

A

stibugluconate

127
Q

what is the treatment for visceral Leshmanias

A

amphotericin B

128
Q

strawberry cerix inflammation is a sign of

A

trichomonas vaginalis

129
Q

burning
itching
malodorous yellow/green discharge

A

trichomonas vaginalis

130
Q

wet mount that shows trophozoites that are motile

A

trichomonas vaginalis

131
Q

wet mount for gardnirella will show

A

clue cells

132
Q

ph of vaginal fluid in trichomonas vaginalis is

A

> 4.5

133
Q

ph of vagina in Gardnerella

A

> 4.5

134
Q

candida ph of the vagina

A
135
Q

tx for trichomonas vaginalis

A

treat their partner as well

- Metronidazole

136
Q

Enterobius vermicularis is also known as

A

pinworm

137
Q

at night the female worms migrate to the anus and lay their eggs in what nematode

A

Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

138
Q

transmission of Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

A

fecal-oral route

139
Q

treatment for Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)

A

pyrantal pamoate and Bendazoles

140
Q

Ancylostoma and Necator hook worms found where

A

rural southern US

141
Q

how to get infected with Ancylostoma and Necator

A

walking barefoot

142
Q

hookworm that comes through foot, then into the lungs, coughed up and then into the small intestine is seen in

A

Ancylostoma and Necator

143
Q

nematodes that attach to gut wall that can cause severe iron deficiency anemia is seen in

A

Ancylostoma and Necator

144
Q

high eosinophil count and eggs in poo are seen in

A

Ancylostoma and Necator

145
Q

tx for Ancylostoma and Necator

A

albendazole and pyrantel pamoate

  • wear shoes
146
Q

Ascaris Lumbricoides transmission

A

eating eggs in contaminated food or water

147
Q

large nematode go into capillary and alveoli, ascend to the bronchus and them move to small intestine is seen in

A

Ascaris Lumbricoides

148
Q

worm most likely to cause respiratory symptoms

A

Ascaris Lumbricoides

149
Q

major complication of Ascaris Lumbricoides

A

intestinal obstruction at the ideal cecal valve

150
Q

how to diagnose Ascaris Lumbricoides

A

eggs in the poo and high eosinophil count

151
Q

how to treat Ascaris Lumbricoides

A

albendazole

152
Q

how does albendazole work

A

destroys microtubule function and stops the worms from moving

153
Q

how do strongoloyides get into the body

A

through the feet ( climbs bronchial tree and gets swallowed)

154
Q

what do strongoloyides do in the intestinal wall

A

they lay eggs that hatch, break through and re infect the blood

155
Q

treatment for strongyloides

A

albendazole and ivermectin

156
Q

trichinella spiralis is found where

A

in undercooked meat

157
Q

what does trichinella spirals cause

A

fever
vomiting
periorbital edema
severe myalgia

158
Q

cyst within striated muscle cells is seen in

A

trichinella spiralis

159
Q

treatment for trichinella spirals

A

albendazole

160
Q

Dracunculus Medinensis infection occurs how

A

drinking contaminated water that has copepods in it

161
Q

adult females emerge from painful ulcer in the skin, the doctor gets the worm out by twisting the worm around a stick slowly to get it out

A

Dracunculus Medinensis

162
Q

Dracunculus Medinensis can cause what in the blood

A

peripheral eosinophilia

163
Q

onchocerca Volvulus is spread by

A

black fly

164
Q

scattered puritic papaules that can become hyper pigment

hyopigmented spots on older patients on the shins

A

onchocerca Volvulus

165
Q

blindness can be caused by a microfilaria floating into the eyeball, this is associated with

A

onchocerca Volvulus

166
Q

microfilariae on a skin biopsy under a microscope?

A

onchocerca Volvulus

167
Q

treatment of onchocerca Volvulus

A

ivermectin

168
Q

Wuchereria Bancrofti presents as

A

elephantiasis

169
Q

cough from a microfilarie in the lungs causing a hypersensitivity reaction is seen in

A

Wuchereria Bancrofti

170
Q

intermediate host for Wuchereria Bancrofti

A

mosquitos

171
Q

thick blood smear to see organisms is diagnostic for

A

Wuchereria Bancrofti

172
Q

treatment fro Wuchereria Bancrofti

A

diethylcarbamazine

173
Q

Toxocara Canis transmitted how

A

food with dog, or cat feces

174
Q

parasitic larva get in bodie but down mature and cause visceral larva migranse

A

Toxocara Canis

175
Q

ocular larva migranse because the larva travel to the eye, this is caused by

A

Toxocara Canis

176
Q

treatment for Toxocara Canis

A

albednazole

177
Q

Loa Loa causes

A

transient angioedma

178
Q

worm that crawls under the conjunctiva that causes inflammation and edema is seen in

A

Loa Loa

179
Q

deer flies causes?

A

Loa Loa

180
Q

treatment for Loa Loa

A

diethylcarbamazine and albendazole

181
Q

Taenia saginata is due to eating

A

cattle

182
Q

Taenia Solium comes on by eating

A

pork

183
Q

what is seen on stool O and P in Taenia Solium

A

hooks on proglottid heads

184
Q

neurocysticercosis is caused by ingesting

A

tania EGGS that are floating around in contaminated water with animal poo

185
Q

swiss cheese on head CT is characteristic of

A

neurocysticercosis

186
Q

ingesting taenia cysts does what

A

asymptomatic or g.i. problems

187
Q

treatment for tania

A

Praziquantel

188
Q

treatment for neurocysticercosis

A

Albendazole + Praziquantel

189
Q

Diphyllobothrium Latum transmission

A

eating undercooked fish ( fish tape worm)

190
Q

diarrhea and an association with b12 deficiency causing megaloblastic anemia is associated with

A

Diphyllobothrium Latum

191
Q

largest tape worm that can grow up to 10 meters long is

A

Diphyllobothrium Latum

192
Q

proglottid segments that break off and can be seen in stool

A

Diphyllobothrium Latum

193
Q

tx: for Diphyllobothrium Latum

A

Praziquantel and Niclosamide

194
Q

Echinococcus Granulosos has a host of

A

dogs and sheep

195
Q

transmission of Echinococcus Granulosos is through

A

dog poo

196
Q

hydatid cyst is due to sheep tapeworm in

A

Echinococcus Granulosos

197
Q

egg shell calcification in cyst mass on the liver is seen in

A

Echinococcus Granulosos

198
Q

ruptured cyst in the liver that cause anaphylaxis reaction and acute abdomen is seen in

A

Echinococcus Granulosos

199
Q

schistosome causes what

A

schistosomiasis

200
Q

penetrates skin in aquatic environment and then go through blood to the liver

A

schistosoma

201
Q

intermediate host for schistosoma

A

snails

202
Q

lateral spine

A

schistosome mansoni

203
Q

very small spin is seen in

A

schistosome japonicum

204
Q

swimmers itch where the larva penetrate the skin is seen in

A

schistosoma

205
Q

portal hypertension that can lead to g.i hemorrhage and abdominal pain, can eventually cause cirrhosis is due to

A

schistosome mansoni and japonicum

206
Q

schistosome hematobium resides where

A

in the veins of the bladder

207
Q

large terminal spine at the end is associated with

A

schistosome hematobium

208
Q

schistosome hematobium causes what two things

A

hematuria and bladder cancer

209
Q

treatment for schistosome hematobium

A

praziquantel

210
Q

Clonorchis Sinensis is transmitted how

A

through snails

211
Q

biliary tact fibrosis, pigment gallstone and chorioangiocarcinoma is caused by what trematode

A

Clonorchis Sinensis

212
Q

operculated eggs

A

Clonorchis Sinensis and Paragonimus Westermani

213
Q

treatment for Clonorchis Sinensis

A

praziquantel

214
Q

Paragonimus Westermani causes?

A

chronic cough with bloody sputum

215
Q

host for Paragonimus Westermani

A

snail

216
Q

undercooked crab meat that carry the larvae is how you get

A

Paragonimus Westermani

217
Q

treatment for Paragonimus Westermani

A

praziquantel

218
Q

associated with bird or bat droppings or recently inside a cave

A

Histoplasma

219
Q

exposure to chicken coops can give you what fungi

A

Histoplasma

220
Q

Histoplasma can bee seen where

A

along missisippi or ohio river valley

221
Q

transmission of Histoplasma is through

A

spores in bird or bat droppings that go to lungs and is ingested by macrophage

222
Q

macrophage with small intracellular oval bodies

A

Histoplasma

223
Q

mold in the cold and yeast in the

A

heat

224
Q

chronic histoplasmosis can resemble

A

tb

225
Q

erythema nodosum is seen in what fungus

A

Histoplasma

226
Q

calcifications in the liver and the spleen is seen in what fungus

A

Histoplasma

227
Q

eastern US and central America has what fungus

A

Blastomycosis

228
Q

treatment for histoplasmosis

A

Azole drugs ( local infections)

systemic infection ( Amphotericin B)

229
Q

fungus found in southwestern US and california that cause pneumonia and meningitis

A

coccidioidomycosis

230
Q

case rate of what fungus increases after earthquakes

A

coccidioidomycosis because of spores in the dust being thrown into the air

231
Q

spherule filled with endospore

A

coccidioidomycodid

232
Q

found in Latin America this fungus has a budding yeast in the shape of a captions wheel

A

Paracoccidioidomycosis

233
Q

Culture on Sabouraud agar

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

234
Q

mucicarmine shows the red inner capsule of

A

Cryptococcus

235
Q

mucicarmine (red inner capsule

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

236
Q

Disc-shaped yeast seen on methenamine silver stain of lung tissue

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

237
Q

cigar-shaped budding yeast that grows in branching hyphae with rosettes of conidia; lives on vegetation.

A

Sporothrix schenckii

238
Q

treatment for sporothrix schenckii

A

itraconazole or potassium iodide.

239
Q

aerobic gram +

A

Listeria
Bacillus
Corneybacterium

240
Q

Anaerobic gram +

A

clostridium

241
Q

anaerobic bracing gram +

A

actinomyces

242
Q

Partial reduction of hemoglobin causes greenish or brownish color without clearing around growth on blood agar

A

alpha hemolytic strep ( pneuma and viridian’s )

243
Q

Protein A (virulence factor) binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement activation and phagocytosis seen in

A

S. Aureus

244
Q

TSST-1 is a superantigen that binds to

A

MHC class 2 and T cells

245
Q

ASO titer detects recen

A

S progenies infection

246
Q

Hippurate test ⊕

A

S. Agalactiae

247
Q

The only bacterium with a polypeptide capsule (contains d-glutamate).

A

bacillus Anthrax

248
Q

Nausea and vomiting within 1–5 hr. Caused by cereulide, a preformed toxin.
Diarrheal type causes watery, nonbloody diarrhea and GI pain within 8–18 hr.

A

bacillus Cerus

249
Q

MOA of C. Tetani

A

Blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, GABA and glycine, from Renshaw cells in spinal cord.

250
Q

Produces α toxin (lecithinase, a phospholipase) that can cause myonecrosis

A

c perfringens

251
Q

describe the two toxins in c diff

A

Toxin A, enterotoxin,
binds to the brush border of the gut.

Toxin
B, cytotoxin, causes cytoskeletal disruption
via actin depolymerization diarrhea pseudomembranous colitis

252
Q

Lab diagnosis based on gram ⊕ rods with metachromatic (blue and red) granules and ⊕ Elek test for toxin.

A

c diphtheria

253
Q

Black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar

A

c. diphtheria

254
Q

Gram ⊕, facultative intracellular rod

A

listeria

255
Q

rocket tails” and tumbling motility is seen in

A

listeria

256
Q

treatment for listeria in infants

A

ampicillin

257
Q

act fast rod gram + that causes pulmonary infections that look like TB

A

norcardia

258
Q

Causes oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts, forms yellow “sulfur granules;” can also cause PID with IUDs

A

actinomyces

259
Q

cervical lymphadenitis in children).

A

M scrofulaceum

260
Q

hand infection in aquarium handlers

A

M marinum

261
Q

dapsone and rifampin treat

A

tuberculoid form of leprosy

262
Q

clofazimine, dapsone and rifampin treat

A

lepramaotus form of leprosey

263
Q

pink colonies on MaconKey Agar signifies

A

lactose fermenters

264
Q

what produces β-galactosidase, which breaks down lactose into glucose and galactose.

A

e coli

265
Q

e coli grows colonies with a green sheen on what agar

A

EMB

266
Q

Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome seen in

A

N gonorrhea infection

267
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome associated with

A

N meningitides

268
Q

Culture on chocolate agar, which contains factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin) for growth; is used ro

A

H flu

269
Q

Gram ⊝ rod. Gram stains poorly—use silver stain

A

legionella

270
Q

Grow on charcoal yeast extract medium with iron and cysteine.

A

legionella

271
Q

tx for legionella

A

macrolife or quinolone

272
Q

severe pneumonia

(often unilateral and lobar, fever, GI and CNS symptoms. Common in smokers and in chronic lung disease.

A

Legionnaires’ disease

273
Q

mild flu like syndrome caused by legionella is called

A

pontiac fever

274
Q

Aerobic, motile, gram ⊝ rod. Non-lactose

fermenting, oxidase ⊕. Produces pyocyanin (blue-green pigment

A

pseudomonas

275
Q

what may contribute
to chronic pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients
due to biofilm formation in pseudomonas .

A

the mucopolysaccharide capsule

276
Q

causes lobar pneumonia in alcoholics and diabetics when aspirated.

A

klebsiella

277
Q

Usually transmitted from pet feces (eg, puppies), contaminated milk, or pork

A

yersinia

278
Q

Causes acute diarrhea or pseudoappendicitis

A

yersinia

279
Q

Spirochete found in water contaminated with animal urine,

A

Leptospira interrogans

280
Q

flu-like symptoms, myalgias (classically of calves), jaundice, photophobia with conjunctival suffusion (erythema without exudate)

A 
Leptospira interrogates
(leptonpirosis)
281
Q

Facial nerve palsy (typically bilateral) Arthritis
Cardiac block
Erythema migrant are seen in

A

Lyme disease

282
Q

painless chancre

A

syphillis

283
Q

Disseminated disease with constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash, condylomata late and patchy hair loss; also con rmable with dark- eld microscopy.

A

secondary syphillis

284
Q

Argyll Robertson pupil (constricts with accommodation but is not reactive to light; also called “prostitute’s pupil” since it accommodates but does not react). seen in

A

tertiary spyhillis

285
Q

Flu-like syndrome (fever, chills, headache, myalgia) after antibiotics are started; due to killed bacteria (usually spirochetes) releasing toxins.

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

286
Q

Cat scratch disease, bacillary angiomatosis

A

Bartonella

287
Q

Q fever

A

Coxiella

288
Q

treatment for Rickettsia

A

doxycycline

289
Q

common in North carolina, rash that starts on the wrists and ankles and spreads to the trunk and the palms and soles

A

Rickettsia

290
Q

Rickettsia Typhus has what kind of rash

A

starts centrally and spreads out, sparing

palms and soles.

291
Q

Monocytes with morulae (mulberry-like inclusions) in cytoplasm.

A

Ehrlichiosis

292
Q

Granulocytes with morulae in cytoplasm.

A

Anaplasmosis

293
Q

Spores inhaled as aerosols from cattle/sheep amniotic uid. Presents as pneumonia. Most common cause of culture ⊝ endocarditis.

A

Q fever

294
Q

what four things does chlamydia cause

A

reactive arthritis
follicular conjunctivitis
PID
neonatal gonnococal urethritis

295
Q

X-ray looks worse than patient, walking pneumonia is a sign of

A

mycoplasma

296
Q

IgA protease is an enzyme that cleaves IgA secreted by what organisms to to colonize in the respiratory mucosa

A

S. Pneumo
H. Flu
Neisseria

297
Q

What is M protein

A

it prevents phagocytosis and is seen in group A strep

298
Q

what is the term for the outer cell membrane of most gram - organisms

A

endotoxin

299
Q

two bacteria that cause Inactivate elongation factor (EF-2)

A

diphtheria and pseudomonas

300
Q

what two bacteria Inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA

A

e. coli and shigella

301
Q

Overactivates adenylate cyclase (increasing cAMP) increasing Cl− secretion in gut and H2O eflux

A

Heat Labile LT toxin in ETEC

302
Q

Overactivates guanylate cyclase ( increasingcGMP) decreasing resorption of NaCl and H2O in gut

A

Heat Stable ST toxin in ETEC

303
Q

Overactivates adenylate cyclase ( increasing cAMP) by permanently activating Gs, increasing Cl− secretion in gut and H2O efflux

A

cholera

304
Q

Overactivates adenylate cyclase (increasing cAMP) by disabling Gi, impairing phagocytosis to permit survival of microbe

A

bordatella

305
Q

The k1 capsular antigen in E. coli causes what

A

Neonatal meningitis

306
Q

Bacteria that causes hyponatremia and is associated with recent travel

A

Legionella

307
Q

Facultative intracellar gram neg organism

A

Legionella

308
Q

important clinical finding of someone with Legionella Pnemonia

A

hyponatremia

309
Q

treatment for Lymphogranuloma Venererum

A

Doxycycline

310
Q

intracytoplasmic Donovan Bodies are seen in

A

Granuloma INguinale from Klebsiella

311
Q

bilateral facial nerve also can be caused by

A

Lyme Disease

312
Q

the serpentine growth pattern seen in M. TB is consistent with the presence of what

A

cord factor ( virulence factor)

UWORLD Notecards (32 decks)

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