9/29 Flashcards

1
Q

what cells produce anti mullein hormone

A

serotli cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what cells produce internal make reproductive organs

A

leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what stimulates the wollfian duct to turn into male internal genitalia

A

leydig cell (testosterone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is responsible for the external male genitalia

A

dihydrotestosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ambiguous genitalia in men occurs when

A

17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ambiguous genitalia in females occurs when

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia ( androgen excess)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

deficiency in MAC complements C5b-C9b will cause

A

constant neisseria infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

releasing factors recognize what kind of codons?

A

stop codons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what facilitates the release of the polypeptide from the ribosome, stopping protein synthesis

A

releasing factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

charged tRNA does what

A

delivers the amino acids for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

prior to fertilizations what stage is the secondary oocyte in

A

arrested at metaphase of meiosis 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what phase is the primary oocyte arrested in before puberty

A

prophase of meiosis 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

name some antiEGFR drugs

A

cetuximab and panitumumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the first line treatment for bulimia

A

fluoxetine. nutritional rehabilitation and psychotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what amphetamine drug has been used to treat binge eating disorder

A

lisdexamfetamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what kind of drug is desipramine

A

TCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

use of ACEI and ARBS during pregnancy can cause what in the baby (5)

A
anuria (failure of kidney to make urine)
oligohydraminos 
pulmonary hypoplasia 
limb contractures 
calvarium problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what kind of drug is methyldopa

A

alpha 2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pancreatic islet cell tumor called VIPOma can cause what symptoms

A

large watery diarrhea

hypokalemia and lack of acid production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what antibiotic is an agonist to motion and stimulates movement in the stomach and the duodenum

A

erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

someone with korsakoff syndrome who receives thiamine will have a reverse in every symptom except

A

memory loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CD15 is seen on what cell

A

Reed Sternburg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

iron absorption in the gut mainly happens where

A

in the primal jejunum and the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

in a Billroth 2 gastrojejunostomy what part of the stomach is removed to decrease acid production

A

antrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
pyridoxine is absorbed where in the bowel
jejunum and ileum
26
st elevation in leads II, III and aVF shows an infarct in what vessel in 90% of people
RCA
27
st elevations in V1-V4 ( anterior septum) would be an infarct in what vessel
LAD
28
ST elevation in V5-V6 is an infarct in what vessel
LCX
29
the posterior inferior wall of the heart is supplied by
the posterior descending branch of the RCA (90% OF PEOPLE)
30
SA NODE RECEIVES blood from the
RCA
31
what is a well known complication of prolactinoma
low bone density
32
in women what happens if hyperprolactinoma is not treated
there will be prolonged hypogonadism that can lead to low levels of estrogen which causes bone loss and vaginal dryness
33
UDE of colchicine
diarrhea and nausea
34
what drug that treats MRSA causes myopathy
daptomysin
35
what is the MOA of daptomysin
depolarizes the cellular membrane by creating transmembrane channels
36
why can you not use daptomyicin to treat pneumonia
because it is inactivated by surfactant
37
3 drugs that treat MRSA
vancomycin daptomycin linezolid
38
what is kussmal sign
a rise in JVP during inspiration due to pericarditis even though usually JVP would fall
39
holosytolic murmur at the apex?
mitral regurgitation
40
loud P2 is heard when
pulmonary HTN
41
difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a chair are classic signs of
polymyositis
42
polymyositis has an increased expression of what
MHC 1 on the sarcolemma causing auto antigens to CD8 cells and causing muscle damage
43
what can improve a praitents with CF condition longterm
pancreatic lipase, helps with the absorption of macronutrients
44
how does sulfalazine and mesalamine work
inhibit cytokine, PG, and leukotriene synthesis and create Crohns disease
45
in granulomatous diseases like sarcoidosis, why is there an increase in calcium
because the macrophages in the granuloma express 1-alpha-hydroxylase which increases serum 1,25DH vitamin D synthesis, leading to increased absorption of calcium from the intestine
46
why is lung infarction rare after emboli
because there is collateral blood supply with bronchial and pulmonary arteries
47
when does intrapulmonary shunting occur
when the lung is getting good perfusion but bad ventilation in an area
48
a child who presents with white pupils, meant retardation and a PDA was exposed to what in utero? how could this be prevented
Rubella | Live Vaccine
49
who should receive the live rubella vaccine
12months-15months 4-6 year olds non pregnant women who are childbearing age who have no rubella antigen
50
what is enfurvitide
fusion inhibit use in HIV
51
reversible decline in neurological function because the liver is failing to get ride of waste products is called
hepatic encephalopathy
52
what is the treatment for high blood ammonia seen in hepatic encephalopathy
lactulose
53
what amyloidosis is associated with multiple myeloma
AL amyloidosis
54
most common lung cancer in women and non smokers
adenocarcinoma
55
small cell lung carcinoma usually occurs where
in the major bronchi
56
what is the most common cause of DIC (bleeding from incision sights) in a pregnant woman
release of tissue factor (thromboplastin) from injured placenta into the maternal circulation
57
what is acute fatty liver of pregnancy?
micro vesicular fatty infiltrates of hepatocytes which impairs the production of coagulation factors causing DIC
58
what kind of inheritance is sickle cell
AR
59
what is the most common indicator of obesity related restrictive lung disease
decreased ERV
60
immunoglobulin light rain found in urine of people with multiple myeloma
bence jones protein
61
name two dopamine agonist that stimulate the dopamine receptor directly
bromocriptine (ergo compound) and pramiprexole (non ergo compound)
62
selegiline does what
inhibits MAOIB so dopamine won't be broken down
63
what does amantadine do
enhances the endogenous effects of dopamine to alleviate some of the motor symptoms of PD
64
what two COMT inhibitors stop the breakdown of levodopa
entacopone and tolcapon
65
what are the main cells found in sarcodoisis granulomas
CD4
66
what virus is anicteric 80% of the time ?
hep a in children, means there are no clinical symptoms
67
how do ADHD meds work
increase the amount of stimulants ( NE and D) in the prefrontal cortex
68
what is an over intense WBC increase response to bacterial infection or malignancy called
leukemia reaction
69
what granulocytes are greatly increased in CML
basophil eosinophil neutrophil
70
normal venous Co2
45
71
normal alveolar co2
40
72
normal venous O2
40
73
normal alveolar O2
104
74
what presents with rose spots on the trunk and abdomen, diarrhea and escalating fever
typhoid fever
75
in regards to collagen what is seen in aging and the formation of wrinkles
decreased collagen fibril production
76
a palpable contender gallbladder , weight loss and obstructive jaundice are signs of what
pancreatic adenocarcinoma blocking the head of the pancreas blocking the common bile duct
77
most important environmental risk factor for pancreatic cancer
smoking
78
what part of the kidney can uric acid precipitate
distal tube and collecting duct because of the low acidic pH of the urine here
79
Abacavir (NRTI) hypersensitivity is strongly associated with what?
HLA-B57:01 allele
80
what horrible side effect can efavirenz and nevi rapine cause
NNRTI drugs that can cause SJS and toxic epidermal necrolysis
81
treatment for restless leg syndrome
dopamine agonist (pramipexole)
82
low concentrations of what have been found in the substantia nigra of patients with RLS?
iron
83
two dopamine receptor antagonist
metoclopromide | prochlorperazine
84
neurokinin 1 antagonist for nausea
aprepitant | fosaprepitant
85
what is the antibiotic of choice to treat lung abscess
clindamycin
86
name the 8 inducers of CYP 450
- St. Johns Wart - Rifampin - Phenytoin - Barbiturates - Carbamazepine - Floroquinolones - Cyclophosphamide - Modafinil - Griseflouvin
87
what is the cause of laneway lesions
septic micro emboli in skin vessels from infective endocarditis
88
most common valve affected in infective endocarditis
mitral valve
89
in developed countries what is the most common underlying disease that causes infective endocarditis
mitral valve prolapse