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UWORLD Notecards > 9/29 > Flashcards

9/29 Flashcards

1
Q

what cells produce anti mullein hormone

A

serotli cells

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2
Q

what cells produce internal make reproductive organs

A

leydig cells

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3
Q

what stimulates the wollfian duct to turn into male internal genitalia

A

leydig cell (testosterone)

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4
Q

what is responsible for the external male genitalia

A

dihydrotestosterone

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5
Q

ambiguous genitalia in men occurs when

A

17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency

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6
Q

ambiguous genitalia in females occurs when

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia ( androgen excess)

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7
Q

deficiency in MAC complements C5b-C9b will cause

A

constant neisseria infections

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8
Q

releasing factors recognize what kind of codons?

A

stop codons

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9
Q

what facilitates the release of the polypeptide from the ribosome, stopping protein synthesis

A

releasing factors

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10
Q

charged tRNA does what

A

delivers the amino acids for protein synthesis

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11
Q

prior to fertilizations what stage is the secondary oocyte in

A

arrested at metaphase of meiosis 2

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12
Q

what phase is the primary oocyte arrested in before puberty

A

prophase of meiosis 1

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13
Q

name some antiEGFR drugs

A

cetuximab and panitumumab

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14
Q

what is the first line treatment for bulimia

A

fluoxetine. nutritional rehabilitation and psychotherapy

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15
Q

what amphetamine drug has been used to treat binge eating disorder

A

lisdexamfetamine

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16
Q

what kind of drug is desipramine

A

TCA

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17
Q

use of ACEI and ARBS during pregnancy can cause what in the baby (5)

A 
anuria (failure of kidney to make urine)
oligohydraminos 
pulmonary hypoplasia 
limb contractures 
calvarium problems
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18
Q

what kind of drug is methyldopa

A

alpha 2 agonist

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19
Q

pancreatic islet cell tumor called VIPOma can cause what symptoms

A

large watery diarrhea

hypokalemia and lack of acid production

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20
Q

what antibiotic is an agonist to motion and stimulates movement in the stomach and the duodenum

A

erythromycin

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21
Q

someone with korsakoff syndrome who receives thiamine will have a reverse in every symptom except

A

memory loss

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22
Q

CD15 is seen on what cell

A

Reed Sternburg cells

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23
Q

iron absorption in the gut mainly happens where

A

in the primal jejunum and the duodenum

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24
Q

in a Billroth 2 gastrojejunostomy what part of the stomach is removed to decrease acid production

A

antrum

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25
Q

pyridoxine is absorbed where in the bowel

A

jejunum and ileum

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26
Q

st elevation in leads II, III and aVF shows an infarct in what vessel in 90% of people

A

RCA

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27
Q

st elevations in V1-V4 ( anterior septum) would be an infarct in what vessel

A

LAD

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28
Q

ST elevation in V5-V6 is an infarct in what vessel

A

LCX

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29
Q

the posterior inferior wall of the heart is supplied by

A

the posterior descending branch of the RCA (90% OF PEOPLE)

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30
Q

SA NODE RECEIVES blood from the

A

RCA

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31
Q

what is a well known complication of prolactinoma

A

low bone density

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32
Q

in women what happens if hyperprolactinoma is not treated

A

there will be prolonged hypogonadism that can lead to low levels of estrogen which causes bone loss and vaginal dryness

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33
Q

UDE of colchicine

A

diarrhea and nausea

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34
Q

what drug that treats MRSA causes myopathy

A

daptomysin

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35
Q

what is the MOA of daptomysin

A

depolarizes the cellular membrane by creating transmembrane channels

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36
Q

why can you not use daptomyicin to treat pneumonia

A

because it is inactivated by surfactant

37
Q

3 drugs that treat MRSA

A

vancomycin
daptomycin
linezolid

38
Q

what is kussmal sign

A

a rise in JVP during inspiration due to pericarditis even though usually JVP would fall

39
Q

holosytolic murmur at the apex?

A

mitral regurgitation

40
Q

loud P2 is heard when

A

pulmonary HTN

41
Q

difficulty climbing stairs and getting up from a chair are classic signs of

A

polymyositis

42
Q

polymyositis has an increased expression of what

A

MHC 1 on the sarcolemma causing auto antigens to CD8 cells and causing muscle damage

43
Q

what can improve a praitents with CF condition longterm

A

pancreatic lipase, helps with the absorption of macronutrients

44
Q

how does sulfalazine and mesalamine work

A

inhibit cytokine, PG, and leukotriene synthesis and create Crohns disease

45
Q

in granulomatous diseases like sarcoidosis, why is there an increase in calcium

A

because the macrophages in the granuloma express 1-alpha-hydroxylase which increases serum 1,25DH vitamin D synthesis, leading to increased absorption of calcium from the intestine

46
Q

why is lung infarction rare after emboli

A

because there is collateral blood supply with bronchial and pulmonary arteries

47
Q

when does intrapulmonary shunting occur

A

when the lung is getting good perfusion but bad ventilation in an area

48
Q

a child who presents with white pupils, meant retardation and a PDA was exposed to what in utero? how could this be prevented

A

Rubella

Live Vaccine

49
Q

who should receive the live rubella vaccine

A

12months-15months
4-6 year olds
non pregnant women who are childbearing age who have no rubella antigen

50
Q

what is enfurvitide

A

fusion inhibit use in HIV

51
Q

reversible decline in neurological function because the liver is failing to get ride of waste products is called

A

hepatic encephalopathy

52
Q

what is the treatment for high blood ammonia seen in hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose

53
Q

what amyloidosis is associated with multiple myeloma

A

AL amyloidosis

54
Q

most common lung cancer in women and non smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

55
Q

small cell lung carcinoma usually occurs where

A

in the major bronchi

56
Q

what is the most common cause of DIC (bleeding from incision sights) in a pregnant woman

A

release of tissue factor (thromboplastin) from injured placenta into the maternal circulation

57
Q

what is acute fatty liver of pregnancy?

A

micro vesicular fatty infiltrates of hepatocytes which impairs the production of coagulation factors causing DIC

58
Q

what kind of inheritance is sickle cell

A

AR

59
Q

what is the most common indicator of obesity related restrictive lung disease

A

decreased ERV

60
Q

immunoglobulin light rain found in urine of people with multiple myeloma

A

bence jones protein

61
Q

name two dopamine agonist that stimulate the dopamine receptor directly

A

bromocriptine (ergo compound) and pramiprexole (non ergo compound)

62
Q

selegiline does what

A

inhibits MAOIB so dopamine won’t be broken down

63
Q

what does amantadine do

A

enhances the endogenous effects of dopamine to alleviate some of the motor symptoms of PD

64
Q

what two COMT inhibitors stop the breakdown of levodopa

A

entacopone and tolcapon

65
Q

what are the main cells found in sarcodoisis granulomas

A

CD4

66
Q

what virus is anicteric 80% of the time ?

A

hep a in children, means there are no clinical symptoms

67
Q

how do ADHD meds work

A

increase the amount of stimulants ( NE and D) in the prefrontal cortex

68
Q

what is an over intense WBC increase response to bacterial infection or malignancy called

A

leukemia reaction

69
Q

what granulocytes are greatly increased in CML

A

basophil
eosinophil
neutrophil

70
Q

normal venous Co2

A

45

71
Q

normal alveolar co2

A

40

72
Q

normal venous O2

A

40

73
Q

normal alveolar O2

A

104

74
Q

what presents with rose spots on the trunk and abdomen, diarrhea and escalating fever

A

typhoid fever

75
Q

in regards to collagen what is seen in aging and the formation of wrinkles

A

decreased collagen fibril production

76
Q

a palpable contender gallbladder , weight loss and obstructive jaundice are signs of what

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma blocking the head of the pancreas blocking the common bile duct

77
Q

most important environmental risk factor for pancreatic cancer

A

smoking

78
Q

what part of the kidney can uric acid precipitate

A

distal tube and collecting duct because of the low acidic pH of the urine here

79
Q

Abacavir (NRTI) hypersensitivity is strongly associated with what?

A

HLA-B57:01 allele

80
Q

what horrible side effect can efavirenz and nevi rapine cause

A

NNRTI drugs that can cause SJS and toxic epidermal necrolysis

81
Q

treatment for restless leg syndrome

A

dopamine agonist (pramipexole)

82
Q

low concentrations of what have been found in the substantia nigra of patients with RLS?

A

iron

83
Q

two dopamine receptor antagonist

A

metoclopromide

prochlorperazine

84
Q

neurokinin 1 antagonist for nausea

A

aprepitant

fosaprepitant

85
Q

what is the antibiotic of choice to treat lung abscess

A

clindamycin

86
Q

name the 8 inducers of CYP 450

A
  • St. Johns Wart
  • Rifampin
  • Phenytoin
  • Barbiturates
  • Carbamazepine
  • Floroquinolones
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Modafinil
  • Griseflouvin
87
Q

what is the cause of laneway lesions

A

septic micro emboli in skin vessels from infective endocarditis

88
Q

most common valve affected in infective endocarditis

A

mitral valve

89
Q

in developed countries what is the most common underlying disease that causes infective endocarditis

A

mitral valve prolapse

UWORLD Notecards (32 decks)

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