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Step One R&M > Random facts > Flashcards

Random facts Flashcards

1
Q

X-ray effects on fetus

A

Microcephaly, intelletual disability

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2
Q

Scoliosis + high or flat arches

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth (loss of structural proteins for myelin sheath or peripheral nerve function)

Freidrich ataxia (no frataxin = mitochondrial iron storage protein)

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3
Q

Increases level of 6-MP and azathioprine

A

Allopurinol (inhibits XO)

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3
Q

Action of teres minor

A

Adduction and lateral rotation of arm

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3
Q

Mitral regurgitation, multiple hamartomas, renal angiomyolipoma, seizures, mental retardation, increased incidence of subependymal astrocytomas, ungal fibromas

A

Tuberous sclerosis

(+ cardiac rhabdomyomas, Shagreen patches, Ash-leaf spots)

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4
Q

Activating mutation of GNAQ gene

A

Sturge Weber

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5
Q

Flat, well-circumscribed lesion < 1 cm

A

Macule

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6
Q

Remnant of gubernaculum

A

Males - anchors testes in scrotum

Females - round ligament and ovarian ligament

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7
Q

Failure of genital tubercle to position properly

A

Epispadias

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8
Q

Increased thickness of stratum corneum with retention of nuclei

A

Parakeratosis

(psoriasis)

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8
Q
A

Pityriasis with herald patch and Christmas tree distribution

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8
Q

Pain to anterior 2/3 of tongue

A

V3

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8
Q

Which 3 areas of the brain have no BBB?

A
  1. Area postrema - vomiting
  2. OVLT - osmoregulation
  3. Neurohypophysis - ADH release/osmoregulation
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8
Q

Sequence

A

Abnormalities result from a single primary embryological event (ex. Potter sequence)

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9
Q

Glabrous (hairless) skin info

A

Meissner corpuscle

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10
Q

Pain on external rotation of knee

A

Medial meniscus

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10
Q

What (besides HIV) increases the risk of developing PML?

A

Natalizumab (alpha-4 integrin used for AI d/o’s)

(PML = JC virus reactivation)

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10
Q

Early-onset glaucoma

A

Sturge-Weber

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11
Q

Pain on internal rotation of knee

A

Lateral meniscus injury

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11
Q

Meissner corpuscle function

A

Dynamic, fine touch, position sense for glabrous (hairless) skin

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11
Q

Down and out eye with mydriasis

A

PCOM aneurysm

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11
Q

Congenital cause of Fanconi syndrome

A

Wilson disease

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12
Q

Defective osteoclasts

A

Osteopetrosis (CA deficiency)

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13
Q

3rd arch

A

Stylopharyngeus, CN IX

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14
Q

Osteoma of facial bones

A

Gardner syndrome

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15
Q

Vesicle containing pus

A

Pustule

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16
Q

5-FU rescue

A

Uridine

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17
Q
A

Keratoacanthoma - rapidly evolving SCC that may spontaneously involute

(Cup-shaped lesion filled with necrotic keratin debris)

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18
Q

Locked-in syndrome

A

Basilar artery stroke or central pontine myelinolysis

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19
Q

Perimysial inflammation

A

Dermatomyositis

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19
Q
A

Pityriasis

(all this crap will self-resolve within 6-8 weeks)

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19
Q

Paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus

A

Oxytocin

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20
Q

Destruction of this nucleus causes obesity

A

Ventromedial

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21
Q

Gottron patches

A

Dermatomyositis

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22
Q

Neurofibromin

A

Mutated TSG in NF1 = negative regulator of Ras

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23
Q

Cafe au lait spots, Lisch nodules, pheochromocytomas, neurofibromas in skin, optic gliomas

A

NF1

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24
Q

Separation of epidermal cells

A

Acantholysis

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24
Q

Where is ADH made?

A

Supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus

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25
Q

Basal nucleus of Meynert

A

ACh synthesis

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26
Q

Broken down by XO

A

6-MP, azathioprine

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27
Q

Lateral rotation of arm

A

Infraspinatus (suprascapular N)

Teres minor (axillary N)

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27
Q

Loss of sensation over dorsal and palmar aspects of lateral 3 1/2 fingers

A

Median nerve (C5-T1)

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27
Q

Origin of upper 1/3 of vagina? Lower 2/3?

A

Upper 1/3 = paramesonephric ducts

Lower 2/3 = urogenital sinus

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28
Q

Two free nerve endings

A

C and A-delta fibers

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28
Q

Renal tubular defect that causes HTN + too much Na+

A

Liddle syndrome

(Overactive Na+ transport in collecting duct)

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29
Q

Keratoacanthoma

A

Rapidly progressive SCC of skin that may spontaneously regress within months

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30
Q

Actions of supraspinatus

A

Abducts arm initially before deltoid

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31
Q

Loss of eversion and dorsiflexion

A

Common peroneal (L4-S2)

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33
Q

Avascular necrosis risk after fracture

A

Scaphoid

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33
Q

Loss of sensation on sole of foot

A

Tibial nerve (L4-S3)

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34
Q
A

Schiller Duval body - yolk sac tumor

(look like glomeruli)

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35
Q

Optic glioma

A

NF1

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36
Q

Lichen planus is associated with:

A

HCV!!

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37
Q

Amifostine

A

Free radical scavenger that prevents nephrotoxicity with cisplatin

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37
Q

Where is GABA synthesized?

A

Nucleus accumbens

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39
Q

McMurray test

A

Medial/lateral meniscus injuries

Pain on external injury = medical meniscus

Pain on internal injury = lateral meniscus

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40
Q

Supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus

A

ADH

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41
Q
A

Ungal fibroma - tuberous sclerosis

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42
Q

Treatment of CNS tumors

A

Nitrosureas

(carmustine, lomustine, semustine, streptozocin)

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42
Q

Dried exudate

A

Crust

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42
Q

Pigmented iris

A

NF1 (Lisch nodules)

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43
Q

Prognosis of pityriasis rosea

A

Self-limited, 6-8 weeks

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44
Q

Inhibits thymidylate synthase

A

5-FU

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45
Q

Action of infraspinatus

A

Laterally rotates arm

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45
Q
A

Port-wine stain of Sturge-Weber

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47
Q

Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

A

Hydroxyurea

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48
Q

Space constant

A

Distance at which 37% of graded potential has disappeared

(Increased by myelination)

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49
Q

Slow pain/temp fibers

A

C fibers

(unmyelinated)

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49
Q

Ipsilateral tongue paralysis

A

Specific for Anterior spinal artery stroke

(CN XII + lateral corticospinal tract + medial lemniscus)

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49
Q

Treacher Collins syndrome

A

Failure of 1st branchial arch to develop

(mandibular hypoplasia, facial abnormalities)

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50
Q

Used to ablate BM before transplant

A

Busulfan

(can cause hyperpigmentation and pulmonary fibrosis if used in actual patient)

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51
Q

Autoantibodies associated with dermatomyositis and polymyositis

A

Anti-Jo1, anti-SNP, anti-Mi-2

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52
Q

Risk with scaphoid fracture

A

Avascular necrosis

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53
Q

4 stages of Paget disease

A
  1. Lytic = osteoclasts
  2. Mixed = osteoclasts + osteoblasts
  3. Sclerotic = osteoblasts
  4. Quiescent = minimal activity
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54
Q

Large, myelinated, quickly adapting sensory corpuscles

A

Meissner corpuscle

Pacinian corpuscle

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55
Q

Pitching injury

A

Infraspinatus (suprascapular N)

(Can’t laterally rotate or adduct as well)

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56
Q

Loss of interossei/abduction and adduction of fingers

A

Ulnar nerve (C8-T1)

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56
Q

Elevated solid lesion > 1 cm

A

Plaque

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56
Q

Effect of myelin on conduction

A

Increases space constant and velocity

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56
Q

Ipsilateral leptomeningeal angioma (=epilepsy) + intellectual disability + espiscleral hemangioma

A

Sturge-Weber

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57
Q

Decreased thigh flexion and leg extension

A

Femoral nerve (L2-L4)

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58
Q

List the deep nuclei of the cerebellum from lateral to medial

A

Dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial

(don’t eat greasy food)

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59
Q

In utero exposure increasing risk for ADHD

A

Nicotine/CO

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61
Q

Posterior hip dislocation

A

Superior gluteal nerve (L4-S1) and/or inferior gluteal nerve (L5-S2)

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61
Q

Destruction of this nucleus causes anorexia

A

Lateral

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62
Q

Trauma to politeal fossa - which nerve and artery?

A

Tibial nerve and popliteal artery

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62
Q

Shagreen patches

A

Tuberous sclerosis

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62
Q

Cardiac rhabdomyoma

A

Tuberour sclerosis - blocks valves

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64
Q

Use for nitrosureas

A

CNS tumors

(carmustine, lomustine, streptozocin, semustine)

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65
Q

MRI on the right?

(left is normal)

A

Dandy Walker

(No vermis + cystic dilation of 4th ventricle)

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65
Q

Basal epidermal layer + hair follicle info

A

Merkel disc

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67
Q

SERM for breast CA? Osteoporosis?

A

BCA - Tamoxifen

Osteoporosis - Raloxifene

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68
Q

Endomysial inflammation

A

Polymyositis

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70
Q

3 diseases predisposing to osteosarcoma

A

Paget disease

Retinoblastoma

Li-Fraumeni

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72
Q

Risk with hook of hamate fracture

A

Ulnar nerve injury

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73
Q
A

Erythema multiforme

(Target lesions - most commonly HSV, also mycoplasma, sulfas, beta-lactams, phenytoin, cancers, and autoimmune diseases)

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73
Q

Contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing

A

PCA stroke (wipes out occipital cortex)

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73
Q

Extremely high risk for spontaneous abortion

A

Vitamin A

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75
Q

Dexrazoxne

A

Chelates iron to prevent cardiomyopathy with doxorubicin

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76
Q

Facial nucleus lesion

A

Specific to AICA stroke = paralysis of face, no taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue (but can still feel it = V3), no lacrimation from submandibular/sublingual glands, no corneal reflex

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78
Q

Loss of sensation of dosrum of foot

A

Common peroneal nerve (L4-S2)

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79
Q

Varus stress

A

LCL injury

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80
Q

Childhood tumors

A

Dactinomycin

(Ewing sarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, Wilms tumor)

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80
Q

Congenital activation of epithelial Na+ channel

A

Liddle syndrome

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81
Q

Risk with lunate dislocation

A

CTS

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82
Q

Loss of sensation over dorsal hand

A

Radial nerve (C5-T1)

84
Q

Decreased adduction of thigh

A

Obtruator (L2-L4)

85
Q

Failure of 1st branchial arch to develop

A

Treacher Collins

86
Q

Appendages in wrong location

A

Homeobox mutations

87
Q

Tamoxifen vs raloxifene

A

Tamoxifen = agonist in endometrium and bone, antagnoist in breast

Raloxifene = antagonist in endometrium, agonist in bone, no action on breast

88
Q

Palpate which landmark for pudendal nerve block during labor?

A

Ischial spine

88
Q

Hard time getting up from seat

A

Inferior gluteal nerve (L5-S2)

88
Q

Leptin inhibits which nucleus of the hypothalamus?

A

Lateral, which stimulates hunger

90
Q

Snuff box

A

Scaphoid

90
Q

Ophthalmological abnormalities in neonate

A

Mom used warfarin

(This is why we use HEPARIN in pregnancy = doesn’t cross placenta; warfarin also associated with bone deformities, fetal hemorrhage, and abortion)

91
Q

Ulnar nerve injury with fracture

A

Hook of hamate

92
Q

Diaphyseal tumor

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

94
Q

Loss of forearm flexion

A

MC (C5-C6)

95
Q

Garnder syndrome

A

FAP + osteomas + fibromatosis of retroperitoneum

96
Q

Cause of dermatitis herpetiformis

A

IgA deposition at papillae

97
Q

Defect in ability of alpha intercalated cells to secrete H+

A

RTA type I (pH > 5,5)

99
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome with dislocation

A

Lunate

100
Q

Loss of sensation over medial 1 1/2 fingers

A

Ulnar nerve (C8-T1)

100
Q

Defect in ability to proximal tubule cells to secrete HCO3-

A

RTA type II (pH < 5.5)

101
Q

Placental ALP

A

Seminoma

(vs. LDH and hCG in dysgerminoma)

102
Q

Muscles of facial expression

A

2nd arch, CN VII

103
Q

Connexons

A

Components of gap junctions that permit electrical and chemical signaling between cells

104
Q

Hyperkalemic RTA

A

Type IV (hypoaldosteronsim)

105
Q

Salt and pepper skull

A

Hyperparathyroidsm

106
Q

Stylopharyngeus muscle

A

3rd arch, CN IX

107
Q

Arylsulfatase A deficiency

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy = ataxia + dementia

108
Q

CNS hamartomas

A

Tuberous sclerosis

(+ skin hamartomas)

110
Q

Epiderminal accumulation of fluid in the intercellular spaces

A

Spongiosis

(eczema)

111
Q

Leptin stimulates which nucleus of hypothalamus?

A

Ventromedial

112
Q

Ebstein anomaly

A

Mother uses lithium during pregnancy; atrialized right ventricle

113
Q

Fibular neck fracture

A

Common peroneal (L4-S2)

114
Q

Adherens junctions

A

Below tight junctions; connect cytoskeleton of adjacent cells via cadherins

115
Q

Cavernous hemangiomas in skin + hemangioma in cerebellum, retina, brainstem

A

VHL

116
Q

Fractured surgical neck of humerus or anterior dislocation of humerus

A

Axillary nerve +/- posterior circumflex artery injury

(no abduction > 15 degrees, loss sensation over deltoid and lateral arm)

117
Q

Medial epicondyle of humerus fracture

A

Ulnar nerve (C8-T1)

(Radial deviation with wrist flexion, loss of abduction and adduction of fingers, loss of sensation over medial 1 1/2 fingers)

119
Q

Increased hat size

A

Paget disease

120
Q

Inability to curl toes

A

Tibial nerve (L4-S3)

121
Q

Crutches

A

Radial nerve compression (wrist drop)

122
Q

Anterior nucleus of hypothalamus

A

Cooling, parasympathetic

123
Q

Sublimation vs. reaction formation

A

Sublimation - mature - replacing unwanted desire with a similar course of action that doesn’t conflict with values

Reaction formation - immature - replacing unwanted desire with its opposite

124
Q

Large, fluid-filled blister > 1 cm

A

Bulla

126
Q

Increased thickness of stratum corneum

A

Hyperkeratosis

128
Q
A

Lichen planus

(sawtooth infiltration of lymphocytes at dermal-epidermal junction)

129
Q

MC rotator cuff injury

A

Supraspinatus

(Trouble abducting below 15 degrees)

130
Q

Sonic hedgehog mutations

A

Holoprosencephaly

131
Q

Posterior nucleus of hypothalamus

A

Heating, sympathetic

133
Q
A

Bullous pemphigoid

(IgG against hemidesmosomes)

134
Q

Rescue with uridine

A

5-FU

135
Q

Most common testicular tumor in older males

A

Lymphoma (metastasis)

137
Q

Toxicity with allopurinol

A

6-MP, azathioprine = metabolized by XO

(purine analogs that inhibit de novo purine synthesis)

139
Q

Artery involved in avascular necrosis of femoral head

A

Medial circumflex around femoral head

140
Q

How might a pinealoma manifest?

A

Paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze due to compression of superior colliculi below pineal gland

(Parinaud syndrome)

142
Q

BRAF mutation

A

Melanoma

(if metastatic, use vemuRAFinib)

143
Q

Infectious cause of a lower nerve palsy?

A

Polio can cause superior gluteal nerve paralysis –> Trendelenburg gait

145
Q

Difficulty climbing stairs

A

Inferior gluteal nerve (L5-S2)

147
Q

Trauma to lateral thorax - which artery and nerve?

A

Long thoracic nerve, lateral thoracic artery

147
Q

Tumor within medullary cavity

A

Chondrosarcoma

148
Q

Superficial laceration of palm

A

Recurrent branch of median nerve

(NO SENSORY LOSS + ape hand = loss of opposition, flexion, and abduction of thumb)

150
Q

Loss of sensation over lateral forearm

A

MC (C5-C6)

152
Q

Trauma to cubital fossa - which nerve and artery?

A

Median nerve + brachial artery

153
Q

Ash-leaf spot

A

Tuberous sclerosis

155
Q

Epidermal hyperplasia (increased stratum spinosum)

A

Acanthosis

155
Q

Fast pain/temp fibers

A

A-delta fibers

(myelinated)

156
Q

Small, fluid-filled blister < 1 cm

A

Vesicle

158
Q

Pacinian corpuscle function

A

Vibration and pressure from deep skin layers, tendons, and joints

159
Q

Axillary nerve (rotator cuff)

A

Teres minor

160
Q

4 mature defense mechanisms

A
  1. Altruism
  2. Sublimation
  3. Suppression
  4. Humor
162
Q

Suprascapular nerve

A

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus

163
Q

Muscles of mastication

A

1st arch - CNV2,V3

164
Q

Elevated solid lesion < 1 cm

A

Papule

165
Q

Epiphyseal tumor

A

Giant cell tumor (soap bubble)

166
Q

Treatment of osteopetrosis

A

BM transplant - osteoclasts derived from monocytes

166
Q

Placental abruption

A

Cocaine

167
Q

Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus

A

Satiety, stimulated by leptin

167
Q

Defective breakdown of VLCFA’s

A

Adrenoleukodystrophy

(Buildup of VLCFA in adrenals, testes, and nervous system)

169
Q

Unmineralized osteoid around trabeculae

A

Vitamin D deficiency

170
Q

Transient smooth papule or plaque

A

Wheal

171
Q

Chloride diuresis

A

Prevents nephrotoxicity with cisplatin as the drug requires a low Cl- enviornment to become active

173
Q

Loss of inversion and plantarflexion

A

Tibial nerve (L4-S3)

174
Q
A

Wickham striae

(Oral manifestation of lichen planus)

175
Q

Fracture to medial malleolus - which nerve and artery?

A

Tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery

177
Q

Desomosome function

A

Structural support via keratin interactions

179
Q

Merkel disc function

A

Static pressure (edges, shapes), position sense for basal epidermal layer and hair follicles

180
Q

Impaired ammoniagenesis due to hyperkalemia

A

RTA IV

(Due to hypoaldosteronism or K+ sparing diuretics = less buffering ability so decreased H+ excretion = acidosis)

181
Q

Abnormalities result from a single embryological event

A

Sequence

182
Q

Failure of urogential folds to fuse

A

Hypospadias

184
Q

Prevent cardiomyopathy with doxorubicin

A

Dexrazoxane (iron chelating agent)

185
Q

Flat, well-circumscribed lesion >1 cm

A

Patch

186
Q

Maternal diabetes defects

A

Macrocephaly

Transposition of great vessels

Caudal regression

Neural tube defects

(Give insulin for gestational diabetes!)

188
Q

Use for busulfan

A

Ablate BM before transplant

190
Q

Cooling, parasympathetic

A

Anterior nucleus of hypothalamus

(Anterior = A/C)

191
Q

Low birth weight

A

Nicotine/CO

192
Q

Supracondylar fracture of humerus

A

Median nerve (C5-T1)

193
Q

Ostetitis fibrosa cystica

A

Hyperparathyroidsim –> “Brown tumors” due to fibrous replacement of bone + subperiosteal thinning

194
Q

Aneurysm that can create visual field problems

A

ACom aneurysm

195
Q

HOX mutation

A

Limbs in wrong place

196
Q

Isolated increase in alk phos

A

Paget disease

197
Q

Most commonly used GC’s in chemo? MOA?

A

Prednisone, prednisolone

Trigger apoptosis of lymphocytes (so good for CLL, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma)

198
Q

Natalizumab

A

Increases risk for PML

199
Q

PV vs BP:

Nikolsky sign +

A

PV

(Nitolsky sign = separation of epidermis when you stroke skin)

200
Q

Action of subscapularis

A

Medial rotation of arm and adduction

201
Q

Bone pain resolves with ASA

A

Osteoid osteoma (osteoblast proliferation)

202
Q

Hypoaldosteronism

A

Type IV RTA (pH < 5.5)

204
Q

Hunger mediated by:

A

Lateral nucleus of hypothalamus

206
Q

Scoliosis + high arched foot + stumbling + loss of DTRs + nystagmus + hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Freidrich ataxia

(No frataxin = mitochondrial iron storage protein)

207
Q

Heating, sympathetic

A

Posterior nucleus of hypothalamus

208
Q

2 uses for trastuzumab

A

HER2/neu+ breast cancer

Gastric cancer

(causes cardiotoxicity!)

209
Q

Besides a retinoblastoma, what other tumor do patients with Rb mutation get?

A

Osteosarcoma

209
Q

Resorptive damage to 2nd and 3rd phalanges

A

Hyperparathyroidism

210
Q

No galactocerebrosidase

A

Krabbe disease

(Destruction of myelin = optic atrophy, developmental delay, peripheral neuropathy)

211
Q

Bilateral renal cell carcinoma

A

VHL

212
Q
A

Angiofibromas of tuberous slerosis

213
Q

Tendon, deep skin layers, and joint info

A

Pacinian corpuscle

214
Q

AFP tumor marker

A

Yolk sac tumor

216
Q

Lateral nucleus of hypothalamus

A

Hunger, inhibited by leptin

217
Q

Metaphyseal tumor

A

Osteochondroma

Osteosarcoma

219
Q

Patient drops right hip when standing on left leg. What nerve is injured?

A

LEFT superior gluteal

(Lesion is contralateral to side of dropped hip)

220
Q

K+ sparing diuretics can cause which type of RTA?

A

IV

(Remember type IV causes hyperkalemia and is due to defective ammonia production)

222
Q

Neurofibromas in skin

A

NF1

223
Q

Scoliosis + high arched or flat foot + sensory defects + motor defects

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

(Defective proteins for peripheral nerve function or myelin production)

224
Q

Paget disease predisposes to:

A

High-out CF

Osteosarcoma

225
Q

PV vs. BP:

Oral mucosa

A

PV

227
Q

Bone-in-bone appearance on X ray

A

Osteopetrosis

228
Q

Remnant of 2nd-4th branchial clefts

A

Branchial cleft cyst in lateral neck

230
Q

Mutation associated with holoprosencephaly

A

Sonic hedgehog

231
Q

Adduction of arm

A

Teres minor (axillary N)

Subscapularis (subscapular N)

232
Q

Laryngeal muscles

A

6th arch, recurrent branch of X

(except cricothyroid)

233
Q

Prevention of nephrotoxicity with cisplatin

A

Amifostine (free radical scavenger) and chloride diuresis (cisplatin has to be activated in low Cl- enviornments)

234
Q

Inhibits topo I

A

Irinotecan, topotecan

235
Q

Function of integrins

A

Maintain integrity of basolateral cell membrane by binding collagen and laminin in basement membrane

236
Q

hCG, LDH tumor markers

A

Dysgerminoma

(vs. placental ALP in seminoma)

237
Q

Where is oxytocin made?

A

Paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus

238
Q

What’s contained in the blisters of bullous pemphigoid?

A

Eosinophils

239
Q

Loss of ____ promotes metastasis

A

E-cadherin (adherens junctions)

240
Q
A

Call-Exner bodies (pseudo-follicles) or granulosa cell tumor

241
Q

Loss of supination

A

MC (C5-C6)

242
Q

Loss of hip extension

A

Inferior gluteal nerve (L5-S2)

243
Q

Use for dactinomycin

A

Childhood tumors

(Wilms tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma)

244
Q

Galant reflex

A

Stroke along spine when baby face down and spine laterally flexes toward stimulation

245
Q

Moro reflex

A

Extend and abduct limbs when startled, followed by drawing limbs in

246
Q

Loss of abduction, opposition, and flexion of thumb with no sensory loss

A

Recurrent branch of median nerve

246
Q
A

BCC

(Pallisading nuclei!)

247
Q
A

Pemphigus vulgaris

(IgG against desmoglein in stratum spinosum)

248
Q

Inhibits topo II

A

Etopside, teniposide

250
Q

Caudal regression syndrome

A

Uncontrolled maternal diabetes

Absent sacral and sometimes lumbar plexi = flaccid paralysis of lower limbs

(Think baby with diabetic neuropathy)

251
Q

2 uses for imatinib

A

CML, c-kit GIST

252
Q

Sporadic neurocutaneous disorder

A

Sturge-Weber

253
Q

Muscles of palate and pharynx + cricothyroid from larynx

A

4th pharyngeal arch, CN X

254
Q

Aplasia cutis congenita

A

Methimazole

255
Q

Function of hemidesomosomes

A

Connect keratins in basal cells to basement membrane

256
Q

Nucleus ambiguus lesions

A

Specific to PICA stroke = dysarthria + hoarseness (CN IX and X)

257
Q

Decreased sensation of medial thigh

A

Obtruator

258
Q

Valgus stress

A

MCL injury

259
Q

Flaking off of corneum stratum

A

Scale

260
Q

Developmental delay + peripheral neuropathy + optic atrophy

A

Krabbe disease

(No galactocerebrosidse = myelin damage)

261
Q

Mab for ITP

A

Rituximab

(inhibits CD20+ = no B cell activity)

262
Q

Large, myelinated, slowly adapting sensory corpuscle

A

Merkel disc

263
Q

Herald patch followed by Christmas tree distribution

A

Pityriasis rosea

Step One R&M (38 decks)

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