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Q400 > Q-LINE INDOC HANDBOOK > Flashcards

Q-LINE INDOC HANDBOOK Flashcards

0
Q

How Long is your PPC valid for ?

A

Initial and Upgrade are valid from the - 1st day of the 7th month after the PPC

Recurrent PPC - 1st day of the 13th month after the PPC, provided a loft is done in between.

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1
Q

How long is a Temp authorization valid for ?

A

90 Days

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2
Q

How long is the maximum duty day ?

A

14 in 24hrs

24hrs off in 3-12 hr consecutive duty days unless 24hrs off in between each duty day

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3
Q

What do we do if we are scheduled for a 14 hour but we’re too tired to continue flying

A

Call in Fatigued

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4
Q

What happens to your duty day if you are notified of a delayed reporting time before leaving the rest facility ?

A

If its an excess of the 3 hour, then the duty starts 3 hours after the original scheduled duty start. If the delay is less then 3 hours then the duty starts at the revised duty start.

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5
Q

What if you’re notified of a delay after you have left the rest facility ?

A

look up ?

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6
Q

When can we extend our duty beyond 14HR and what must we get in terms of rest ?

A

When crew agrees and its safe to do so
UOC

the rest period must be increased by at least the amount of the extension

PIC shall submit paper work
Porter has to keep the paper work until the next audit and notifies their assigned inspector within 30 days

15 HR crew augmented may be increased by 2 hours

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7
Q

What is the company policy on minimum scheduled rest, at home base, away and on a monthly schedule to meet transport Canada regulations ?

A

11 base
10 away from base
36 in 7
3 in 17

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9
Q

What is meant by “suitable rest facility ?

A

single occupancy room, well ventilated with minimum noise.

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10
Q

How many days free from duty do we need according to the regulations ?

A

36-7

3-17

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11
Q

How much notice do you need for a split duty ?

A

Minimum of 2 HRS or its already on your monthly schedule

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11
Q

How long can your split duty be ?

A

a split duty can extend your duty up to one half the length of the rest period to a maximum of 3 hours if :

  1. Advance notice ( on your monthly schedule or at least 2 HRS )
  2. At least 4 hours in suitable accommodations
  3. No interruption during the rest period
  4. The next day rest period is increased at least the amount of the extension
    54
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12
Q

Are there any situations that Porter says definitely do NOT count as UOC ?

A

crewing issues the company was aware before crew left the rest facility, forecast weather, mechanical problem, connections etc.

If any of these are the case then delayed reporting time should be practiced.

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13
Q

Who makes the final decision for to extend the duty day based on UOC ?

A

The captain after consulting with the rest of the crew and they all agree.

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14
Q

Is adverse weather UOC ?

A

it can be depending if it was forecast or not.

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15
Q

Is a mechanical problem UOC ?

A

yes, sudden mechanical problems may be considered for UOC.

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16
Q

What happens if SOCC said “we’re considering this and UOC and you’re good to g,” but the Captain and crew don’t agree.

A

contact the chief pilot or DFO. mediate the situation

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18
Q

DEST fuel: How is it calculated, and what does it mean ?

A

it is compromised of:

  1. Take off and climb to 1500’ at take off power
  2. Climb to the anticipated cruise altitude
  3. Cruise to the TOD considering winds and temperature (
    wights )
  4. Descend to the final approach fix and at destination and land also considering or vectors and holding.
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19
Q

ENRT RES: how is it calculated ? is it really 5% percent ?

A

Its 5% of the DEST Fuel to a maximum of 15min.

you may not have to carry it if you comply with 725.25

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20
Q

HOLD Fuel, how is it calculated ?

A

Holding Fuel for 45min at 5000’ above the alternate airport for a forecast wight and ISA.

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21
Q

ALTN Fuel: how is it calculated ?

A
  1. Climb from the missed approach point to the cruising altitude
  2. All flight plan Fuel burns to the alternate are based on LRC
  3. Descend to the final approach fix and land at the alternate
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22
Q

ADD Fuel: When would you need it ?

A

contingency fuel

loose and engine, descend to MSA or 10,000’ divert to suitable alternate shoot and approach miss and hold at 1,500’ for 30 min

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22
Q

EXTRA Fuel:

A

This is extra fuel loaded in excess of the minimum on the OFP

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23
Q

How is MIN BRF calculated ?

How do we reduce MIN BRF ?

A

the sum of:

DEST
ENRT RES
ALTN 
HOLD
ADD
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24
Q

RAMP Fuel: Can we Leave the gate with less than ramp fuel ?

What is the minimum fuel that we can depart the gate at ?

A

Yes but as long as its the fuel is not less then MIN BRF

The Minimum we can depart the gate, would be MIN BRF plus TAXI

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25
Q

What is “minimum final Fuel” ?

A

This is when all you have left is HOLD fuel

NOT A GOOD IDEA
and if the crew thinks that this will be the situation, the crew must inform socc.

The flight may be required to land short

the

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27
Q

What actions are to be taken upon reaching MIN DIV fuel ?

A

Adjust the flight profile, for example adjusting power settings

The only way to reduce MIN DIV in flight is to select a closer alternate or proceed using NO ALTERNATE IFR if it warrants

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28
Q

Can we continue to destination below MIN DIV fuel ? When and Why ?

A

Yes, if we are within the Terminal Area and because of Unforeseen circumstances the PIC believes that the landing will be assured.

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29
Q

When do we make a “minimum fuel advisory” ?

A

When we have reached our MIN DIV and are either diverting and or are within the Terminal Area continuing to land.

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30
Q

When do we declare a fuel emergency ?

A

as soon as we start eating into our HOLD fuel

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31
Q

NO Alternate IFR, Where can we find the conditions ?

when can it be used ?

A

Route manual

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31
Q

How can we determine if an airport has emergency power ?

A

look up ?

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32
Q

What circumstances require a TDR ?

A

Temperature greater then the MAX temp for take off
Altimeter setting greater the .10” of the planned altimeter setting
when actual wright exceeds plus 2000 number

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33
Q

What conditions require a new OFP ?

A
  1. TOW exceeds plus 2000 numbers
  2. Tail Swaps
  3. Alternate airport change
  4. Fuel Burn changes
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34
Q

Who is in socc?

A 
Dispatch
Crew Scheduling
Duty Officer 
OPS Coordinator 
Maintennace operational Control
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35
Q

When is SOCC staffed and opened ?

A

?

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37
Q

What is the definition of joint operation control ?

TYPE “A” Dispatch

A

means the exercise of authority over the initiation, continuation, and termination of a flight

Begins with the formation of an OFP and ends when the aircraft is shut down

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38
Q

When does Operational Control begin, in terms of Type “A” dispatch ?

A

When the dispatcher formerly excepts the OFP and releases it to the PIC.

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39
Q

The CARS say you have to leave a copy of the OFP at the point of departure. Why don’t we leave one behind at porter ?

A

Because an electronic copy is generated by SOCC so theres no need to leave one behind.

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40
Q

If SOCC says HOLD at the gate, can we depart ?

A

NO! because they have joint operational control

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41
Q

After break release for take off, who has operational control ?

A

PIC

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42
Q

If SOCC advises you to do something after break release for take off, who’s responsible ?

A

THE PIC

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43
Q

Where is the W & B manual ?

A

On some aircraft it is located behind the first officer seat. On other aircraft its located in the aircraft library.

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44
Q

MAX Ramp weight ?

A

64130 lbs

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44
Q

Max TOW ?

can we always take off at a max take of weight ?

A

63930 Ibs

No it will specify in the OFP what the actual MAX TOW is for that specific flight and aircraft .

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45
Q

Max landing weight, can we always land at Max LDW ?

A

61750 lbs

NO it will specify the specific MAX

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46
Q

When can the APU bleeds be selected to ON ?

A

at least 20 sec after the APU RUN light is illuminated
if it shuts down then wait 5 min, then wait 2 min after the second time.
if it shuts down again then you must call maintenance and not try a restart

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47
Q

What is the minimum fuel required to start the APU ?

A

1000lbs in the left collector bay

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48
Q

What are the GPU starter limits ?

A

ON 60sec-OFF 5MIN

ON 60sec-OFF 30min off and call maintenance

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49
Q

Can the APU be used in flight ?

A

NO

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50
Q

Can the APU be used during pressure refuelling and gravity refuelling?

A

Yes during pressure refuelling but the APU must already be running and not started or stopped while the refuelling has already started

No the APU can not be used during gravity refuelling

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51
Q

Fuelling with pax on board

A
  1. Min Crew in the cockpit
  2. Flight attendants advised by turing seat belts sign off
  3. No smoking sign
  4. Exits 1L and rear 2L are clear
  5. 1L shall remain open
  6. Emergency lights are armed
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52
Q

Where are the Portable fire extinguishers ?

A

We have 4 Halon 1211

1 in cockpit
3 in cabin ( one above the closet and two in the back )

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53
Q

Where is the First Aid O2 ?

A

We have 2

one in the front and one in the back

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54
Q

Crew Oxygen Requirements, how to use if its colder or warmer then 21 degrees.

A

use the graph

and you could also check in the nose to see the actual amount

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55
Q

How many emergency exits do we have ?

Where are the located ?

A

5

1L Door type 1
1R Door type 2/3 this one has both land and water capabilities

2L galley service door
2R galley service door

Escape Hatch

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56
Q

How are the emergency exits lighted ?

A

With luminescent strips

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57
Q

How is the Emergency lighting System activated

A

The Switch is turned ON or the switch is AMRMED and will activate when the plane is in EMERGENCY mode.

2DC GENs and 1 TRU INOP

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58
Q

Escape Hatch, How do you open it ?

A

Turn handle towards arrow
pull hatch inward
place on seat
climb out and use rope

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59
Q

First Aid Kit, where is it located ?

A

1 above the closet

1 in the back

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60
Q

Can we depart if the First Aid kit has been used ?

A

Yes but we have to check if the amount meets the requirements

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61
Q

How do we turn ON the ELT ?

How do know its ON ?

A

Manually or self activates through an inertia switch that goes off when the G’s are exceeded.

The red light comes ON

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62
Q

When does the CVR activate ?

A

as soon as there is electrical power

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63
Q

When does the FDR activate ?

A

Anti collision light red or white
Both engines running
Aircraft is airborne

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64
Q

MEL considerations CVR,FDR, ELT

A

MEL Page 31.30

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65
Q

What do we look for in the Journey Log ?

A
  1. Open snags
  2. Active MEL’s
  3. The two 24 hour system checks are in the journey log
  4. Maintenance sign off
  5. Release certificate
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66
Q

Where can we find the MEL book ?

A

its in the IPAD and in the aircraft library under the floor

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67
Q

When does a new hard copy of the OFP/TLR have to be issued if last minute MEL is added ?

A

If the new MEL item does not affect performance then SOCC does not need to issue a new OFP, however if time permits they can issue a new one and add a note .

If the new MEL item affects performance, then a new OFP must be issued prior to dispatch

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68
Q

MEL CAT “A”

A

Specific time and exceptions

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69
Q

MEL CAT “B”

A

3 Calendar days excluding the day of discovery

70
Q

MEL CAT “C”

A

10 Days excluding the day of discovery

71
Q

MEL CAT “D”

A

120 Days excluding the day of discovery

72
Q

What if the MEL expires while you’re in flight ? can we depart ?

A

Yes, you can. MEL is a dispatching document, However, the plane will be grounded as soon as you land.

73
Q

MEL, What is meant by “0”

A

Specific procedures that can be made by the crew or someone designated to do so

74
Q

MEL, What is meant by “M”

A

Normally done by maintenance and or someone qualified to do the task. Normaly pilots don’t perform these tasks

75
Q

MEL, What is meant by M#

A

Only maintenance can perform these task

76
Q

Where can we find how to record an OSG test ?

A

The route Manual

77
Q

Where Can find how to properly record the CAT 2 verification ?

A

The route manual

78
Q

Whats the difference between a CDL and a MEL

Configuration Deviation List

A

CDL is similar to the MEL but it applies to aircraft components that may be missing.

example: Static wicks, flap fairings etc

make sure the OFP list any items on the CDL because most of them affect performance

Only maintenance can do CDL’s

79
Q

How do we know that a CDL performance penalty has been applied ?

A

it should indicate in the OFP

80
Q

Where is the Cabin Defect Logbook ?

A

?

82
Q

What do we do if an item affects airworthiness when the PU writes it in the CDL,how do we know if it does or not ?

A

the pic will then transfer it to the journey log and see if its MEL’able

83
Q

What if the cabin defect log book is missing ?

A

Ground the Airplane

84
Q

How do we use the main door lock ?

A

?

85
Q

What does Lock Isolate do on the Remote access panel ?

A

removes electric locking of cockpit door

normally used on the ground

86
Q

What will DENY do on the Remote access panel ?

A

will stop an auto when the emerg access swith is pressed on from the outside.

when button is pressed the “internal doors” and AUTO UNLCK on the panel will light up.

the crew has 45 sec to deny access.

87
Q

So what does cabin secure mean ?

A

we need it before landing and before accepting a take off clearance!

87
Q

What are the starter limits ?

A

70 ON, 2MIN OFF
70 ON, 2MIN OFF
70 ON, 30 MIN OFF AND CALL MAINTENANCE

88
Q

What calls do we make when the captain is starting the engines in terms of caution lights ?

A

“associated with the start”
“engine adapt heat 1or 2”

this is because when you’re starting the engines in feather the ac gens are not powering the heaters

89
Q

If we get a FUEL TANK LOW caution light, what does that mean?
can we depart ?

A

It means that the collector bay has 305lbs of furl left

you can not depart

90
Q

What indicates a Hot Start ?

What do we about it ?

A

A rapid rise in ITT that exceeds 920 or an abnormal rise
Aborted Engine Start Memory Items

Condition lever……….Fuel Off
Start Select……………Off

91
Q

What indicates a Hung Start ?

What do we do about it ?

A

Slow start is when there is no rise in Nh and or it doesn’t reach 50% in 70 seconds

Aborted Engine Start memory Items

92
Q

What indicates a No Light up ?

What do we do about it ?

A

No indication of Nh when the fuel is introduced

Aborted Engine Start memory items

93
Q

What do we do if the starter doesn’t cut out ?

A

QRH “NO STARTER CUT OUT”

94
Q

How do we know that we’ve got a starter failure ?

What do we do about ?

A

The SELECT light remains illuminated

QRH

96
Q

What is the maximum BAT loads for starting the other engine ?

A

Ensure MAIN, AUX, STBY loads are 0.4 or less

97
Q

When can we go from BLEEDS OFF on the TLR to BLEEDS ON ?

A

When TLR indicates RDC TOP , but crew decides to use NTOP bleeds may be selected ON when the difference between the actual outside air temp and MAX temp on the TLR is greater then 11 degrees.

98
Q

Based on the break cooling chart, if we rejected a takeoff, how long would we have to wait before attempting another take off ?

A

Use chart ?

99
Q

How long do we have to wait after landing before we can take off again ( minimum turn around time ) ?

Where can we find this information ?

A

10 MIN

Look up to make sure

100
Q

What do we reject a take off for ?

A
  1. Master Warning, Engine Failure, or Direction control Prior to V1
  2. Spoiler Advisory lights go out
  3. Spoilers Retracted on the PFCS screen
  4. Auto-Feather ARM on the ED
101
Q

If the engine-out calls for a straight ahead but the SID or ATC says turn, what do we do ?

A

If the engine fails below 1000’ AFE then the engine out procedure is mandatory!!! ATC must be advised as soon as practical.

They may be discontinued unless other wise noted above 3000’AFE

These procedures will provide obstacle clearances!!!

102
Q

If the Engine Fails after turning to the SID or assigned heading, what do we do ?

A

Normally at this point, we are already above 1000’AFE in which case we then have to fly the SID or assigned heading.

We don not start flying the engine out procedure

103
Q

Can we turn if the engine out procedure calls says to turn before 400’ ?

A

Yes but bank angle must not exceed 15 degrees
you cannot bank the aircraft below 50’
and only if the procedures specifically calls for it

104
Q

If no turning altitude is specified on the SID and the tower assigns a turn with the take-off clearance, what altitude are we excepted to turn at ?

A

VFR - Not below 400’AAE or the “minimum turning altitude” in the SID whichever is higher

IMC- Not Below 1000’AAE or the “minimum turing altitude” in the SID whichever is higher, ***unless the SID specifically requires a turn below 1000’AAE

104
Q

Speed Limits

A

Canada

250 below 10,000 ASL
200 within 10NM of a controlled airport below 3000’ AGL

USA

250 below 10,000ASL
200 within 4NM of class C or D below 2500 AGL 
200 below a class B Shelf
105
Q

RVR 1200 takeoff requirements

A
  1. The runway LOS is 1/4
  2. RVR is 1200 or ground Vis is 1/4 or greater
  3. HIRL or CLLor CLM
106
Q

RVR 600

A
  1. Runway LOS is RVR 600
  2. RVR A and B must be 600 or greater
  3. If RVR B is not available, the RVR A and C must be available
  4. HIRL and CLL and CLM
108
Q

If we hit our TOC and we have less fuel then we planned to have, what do we do ?

A

Start looking for the cause and see if we need a diversion

We might still be above MIN DIV fuel.

109
Q

What might indicate a FUEL leak ?

A

Tank IMBALANCE indication

possible fuel smell in the cabin

110
Q

When do we need a takeoff alternate, generally speaking ?

A

Take off limits are lower then landing limits

111
Q

How far can the take off alternate be ?

A

Within 60 minutes with a single engine cruise with still air

112
Q

How could we get a new fuel Burn to destination if we changed altitudes ?

A

We could call SOCC or send an ACARS

Or you could check the PERF page ????????

113
Q

How Do we know the runway allows LAHSO ?

How can we determine the available ALD ?

A

look it up in the Jeppesen Airport/Facility directory

Also ATC can provide ALD if requested

114
Q

How do you calculate LAHSO ?

A
  1. Determine LAHSO Distance
  2. Is the Distance 5000’ or greater ? if YES next Step 100’/1000’ elev
  3. Demonstrated Landing Distance add ice if required then add 1000’

If the Calculated distance is equal to or less then the ALD for that particular LAHSO then you may accept it

115
Q

When would you use a rejected landing procedure ? LAHSO
and where to find it ?

Hint *its not in the JEPP

A

It is in the Route Manual

Above 1000’ Follow the Published missed
Below 1000’ Follow the Rejected Landing procedures

116
Q

What are the weather Minimums for LAHSO ?

A

5 miles 1500’ ceiling with an ILS

3 miles 1000’ ceiling with VASIS or PAPI

117
Q

What part of the runway do we have to touch down on ?

Go around if you cant make it!!

A

one third of the ALD, and in no case 3000 down the runway

118
Q

LAHSO Limitations

A
  1. MEL, CDL affecting stoping distance
  2. Wet or contaminated runway
  3. Tailwind 3 Knots or greater
  4. Wind-shear in the last 20min or TB’s in the area
  5. No Late LAHSO acceptance
119
Q

Speed Gates

A

FLAP 5……..180
FLAP 15……160
FLAP 35……140 / 150 (ICING REF SPEED ON )

120
Q

Landing Performance Requirements

A

Before the plane is dispatched the Runway Available Landing Distance must be longer the then Factored Landing Distance

Factored = Demonstrated x 1.43

Demonstrated

Cross Threshold 50’ AGL touch down 1000’ down the runway discing and MAX braking to a full stop

121
Q

Approach Ban Exemptions

A
  1. Past the FAF
  2. Training flight and intending to go missed
  3. Fluctuating RVR or ground VIS values
  4. Localized Phenomenon
122
Q

What do need to in order to use the 50% criteria in terms of the approach ban ?

A
  1. Crew must be certified
  2. The approach must be flown with AP or PMA
  3. HIAL’s, HIRL, HICL
123
Q

MAX Speed Flaps

A

FLAP 5……..200
FLAP 10……181
FLAP 15……172
FLAP 35……158

124
Q

VLO

A

200

125
Q

VLE

A

215

126
Q

PITCH HOLD, when will the aircraft revert to pitch hold ?

A

If you make any changes to while the aircraft is in ALT* it will kick off ALT SEL and revert to PITCH MODE

127
Q

How many ways to disengage the AUTO PILOT ?

A
  1. AP of YD push button the FGCP
  2. AP disengage and GO around switch
  3. Operating Manual Trim
  4. IF you manually override the control column
128
Q

When will the Auto Pilot disengage without the pilot input ?

A
  1. AHRS 1 and 2 have failed or disagree
  2. ADC 1 and 2 have failed or disagree
  3. TCS system has failed
  4. Stall warning
  5. AP actuators have failed
129
Q

What are the Requirements for Dual FD’s CAT II

A
  1. Both FGM’s are available
  2. Both AHRS and ADC are valid for the FGM’s
  3. AHRS and ADC are in NORM
  4. ILS for both receivers are valid and agree
  5. ILS on each side set to their respective nav source
  6. ILS are tunes to the same frequency
  7. ILS are both set to the same inbound course
  8. LOC and GS are active
  9. RA is valid and below 1200’ AGL
130
Q

High Pitch Angle Recovery

A

Add power and lower the nose!

AT 5 degrees below 100’AGL don’t flare anymore, add power instead

131
Q

What are some countermeasures to prevent intrusion into the flight deck ?

A

?

132
Q

How can we notify ATC that theres an “unlawful interference” occurring ?

A

Transponder 7500

or say porter “squaking 7500”

133
Q

Whats the code word between pilots and cabin crew for an unlawful interference ?

A

“TRIP” in an exaggerated manner !!!

134
Q

What Procedures do we have if we get a bomb threat ?

A
  1. Decent to an altitude where the aircraft can be safely unpressurized
  2. Advice ATC and SOCC
  3. Proceed to nearest suitable airport
  4. Inform the back on how to proceed
  5. If the location of the bomb is unknown tell the purser to look or it. the purser should not touch it, but instead draw a diagram or explain what it looks like
  6. Once on the ground we deplane and ask passengers to leave everything behind
135
Q

AFF is it a necessity ?

A

Its Porters policy to operate in and out of airports that has the level appropriate to the type of aircraft. However it is not mandatory and when its temporarily downgraded or unavailable, it will be informed to PIC.

136
Q

CYTZ Post-Curfew Services, where can we find the information, and what do we need to know ?

A

Route Manual

Curfew is 2300L

  1. ACAL type “K” on 118.2
  2. SAGA must be activated prior to closer by tower
  3. 118.2 Becomes an MF and must be treated as uncontrolled
  4. For departures, we must get clearance first on the ground and not depart and get clearance in the Air
137
Q

If an engine is failed, when do we have to turn off the Auto-Pilot.

A

Prior to Actioning the ENGINE/FIRE DRILL

138
Q

If we get an engine failure at high Altitude, what do we have check if we’re mountains terrain ?

A

Use the Drift-down Charts in the Additional Procedures Manual.

139
Q

What is Bombardiers definition of a contaminated runway ?

A

When more the 25% of the runway surface area being use is covered by standing water, slush and loose snow.

140
Q

What is a wet runway ?

A

Enough moisture to cause the surface to be reflective

141
Q

When would a runway that meets the bombardiers definition of contaminated be considered “Not Contaminated” ? A few exemptions

A
  1. Trace Snow or Slush Less 3mm i depth

2. Snow that is Blowing or drifting and not adhering to the surface

142
Q

Wha is the Maximum Contaminated Level depth for take off and Landing ?

A

Level 3

143
Q

Recalculating Landing Distance with a CRFI

A
  1. Take TLR demonstrated DRY landing distance, add ICE ACC if needed
  2. Take the total and apply it to the CRFI Factored landing distance chart found in the QRH
144
Q

If CRFI is Below 0.6 or runway is contaminated reported in CYTZ , what do we do ?

A

We refer to the Route Manual and Determine the Limitations.

145
Q

What are the Pilots responsibilities with respect to de-icing ?

A
  1. Initiate the de-ice process unless its already been started by a qualified person ( De-icing Contractor, Flight Dispatch, Local airport authority )
  2. Bare the responsibility of the final decision that the aircraft is free from contaminants
146
Q

What is considered ICING conditions ?

A

Air Temp less the 5 degrees
Ground Temp less then 5 degrees

visible moisture in the form

  1. Fog with vis less then 1 mile
  2. Rain
  3. Snow
  4. Sleet
  5. Ice Crystals
147
Q

What happens if the First Officer feels that we need to deice ?

A

It cannot be ignored, there must me some action required by the crew. Either get de-iced or have a tactile inspection be done on the aircraft.

148
Q

Who is a qualified Person ?

A

A crew member or a company employee or a contractor trained in accordance with cars 602.11

Examples:

  1. Pilots
  2. Ground Leads
  3. Dispatchers
  4. “spray” Personal
149
Q

What is a CSI and when is it done ?

A

Its a Pre flight External check to see if any critical surfaces have any contaminants adhering to its surfaces

  1. Wings and Horizontal and Vertical Stabilizers
  2. Apu, inlets, gears, Pitot static ports, AOA vanes must all be cleared of contaminants
150
Q

Inspection times for CSI

A
  1. If the minimum HOT is less then 20 min you need a full external CSI check
  2. If the minimum HOT is greater then 20min, then you can do a PCI and as long as its done within 5 min of beginning the take off roll

** In any case, NO aircraft can take off if the MAX HOT is exceeded in any case*

151
Q

If we are expecting to fly an approach and land in icing Conditions, what do we need to do to our V-speeds and landing Distances ?

A

FLAP 15 - ADD 20 knots
FLAP 35 - ADD 15 knots

ICE ACC numbers must be added to the Demonstrated Landing Distances.

  • ** You may also add HW numbers to decrease the landing distance***
  • ** If the Required Landing Distance is longer then the ALD then you must divert to your alternate or suitable airport**
152
Q

Why do we use a “Visibility in snow vs Snow fall Intensity Chart” ?

A

Because the HOT and the de-ice fluid is directly related to the amount of moisture it can absorb before freeing.

This Chart accounts for OAT, Lighting, and also the wind component and the catch rate of the wings with Anti-icing fluid applied.

METAR are just FIXED value

The Chart is for snow intensity only

153
Q

How to do HOTDS work ?

A

They use sensors from around the airport to determine the liquid water equivalent of the precipitation to give us a single value HOT!

154
Q

What is Bombardiers Definition of “Severe Icing” ?

A

Freezing Rain
Freezing Drizzle
Mixed Icing Conditions ( Super cooled water droplets and Ice crystals )

155
Q

How can we identify severe icing ?

A

Look at the side windows of the flight compartment

156
Q

What do we do if we encounter “severe icing” ?

A
  1. Turn on all Ice protection systems
  2. Disengage the Auto Pilot
  3. Exit ASAP ( climb or decent )
  4. File a PIREP
157
Q

When do we use “Ice Protection-Standard” ?

A

When use this when we are not in Icing

158
Q

When do we use “Standard Plus Props and Windshield” ?

A

When we are in icing conditions without ICING accretion

159
Q

When do we use “ICE PROTECTION ON” ?

A

Icing and with ICE accretion

159
Q

When do we use Ice protection “Standard Plus Props and Windshields” ?

A

This is normally used when in icing conditions without ICE accumulation

160
Q

How long do we have to wait before turning OFF the d-ice boots after turning off the REF SPEED ?

A

2 full cycles of the boots in fast

the call is Standard or Standard plus props and windshields”Boot to go”

161
Q

What are some visual cues of a microburst ?

Intense downdraft currents exceeding 720’ per minute at 300’ above the ground.

A
  1. Descending globular mass of rain
  2. Virga Shaft
  3. Upward Curl and downward curl of a shaft
162
Q

Where are we likely to expect hail ?

A
  1. U shape
  2. Hook
  3. Finger

Returns on the radar

163
Q

EGPWS caution, what are they ?

A
  1. TERRAIN
  2. SINK RATE
  3. DONT SINK
  4. GLIDLESLOPE
  5. TOO LOW, GEAR
  6. TOO LOW, FLAP
  7. BANK ANGLE

THE CALL IS “CORRECTING”

164
Q

EGPWS Warning, what are they and what is the call ?

A
  1. WHOOP, WHOOP PULL
  2. TOO LOW, TERRAIN

The call is “CHECK POWER”

165
Q

Category A

A

Requires no special operational considerations. Characteristics of Category A airfields include:

a) An approved instrument approach procedure;
b) At least one runway with no performance limited procedures for take-off or landing;
c) Published circling minima not higher than 1000’ AGL; and
d) Night operations capable.

No special crew training is required for operation at Category A airfields.

166
Q

Category B

A

An airfield the does not meet all the requirements of Category A or has other special characteristics. Characteristics of Category B airfields include:

a) Non-standard approach aids or patterns;
b) Unusual local weather conditions;
c) Unusual performance limitations; or
d) Any other relevant unusual considerations (such as obstructions, layout, etc).

Pilots are required to complete special qualifications requirements before operating to Category B airfields. Necessary qualifications are site specific and can be found in the Route Manual under the
appropriate airport. By signing the OFP, the PIC is stating that the crew has completed the qualifications requirements as specified in the route manual.

167
Q

Category C

A

An airfield which presents the hazards of a Category B airfield in a significant and pronounced way. Pilots are required to complete airfield specific simulator training before operating to Category C airfields;
the training requirements are located in the Training Control Manual. This training shall be recorded on the pilot’s file.

168
Q

Cabin Defect Logbook

A

When a cabin defect is discovered, the Purser shall record the defect in the Cabin Defect Logbook and the PIC must review the entry and initial that it has been reviewed. Items which do not affect airworthiness may remain in the log for maintenance to address in the future. Items which do affect airworthiness are to be transcribed to the Journey Logbook and addressed as any other airworthiness defect.

169
Q

What start protections do the FADEC provide ?

A

if the engine doe not light within 16 seconds if ITT limit of 920 NH does not reach 50% within 70 Seconds meaning a hung start or a slow start

170
Q

Q400 OSG TEST ENTRY

A 
Overspeed Governor (OSG) testing on the Q400 is accomplished only when required.  At CYTZ, it is to be done on the runway prior to takeoff only.  In all cases, advise the tower/FSS/traffic of the need for about 30 seconds in position on the runway.  The OSG test will NOT be done on a contaminated surface. MOC will advise crews when an OSG test is required, via VHF, ACARS or in person, as needed. If the OSG TEST PASSED message is not produced, the aircraft must return to 
the gate and maintenance action taken prior to flight. For a successful OSG test, the Journey Log entry is similar to that of an MTOP takeoff.  See the example below.
171
Q

Rain Echo Attenuation Compensation Technique (RCT)

A

The RCT button switches on this mode.The REACT circuitry compensates for attenuation of the radar signal as it passes through rainfall. The cyan field indicates areas where further compensation is not possible. Any target detected within the cyan field cannot be calibrated and should be considered dangerous. All targets in the cyan field are displayed as fourth level precipitation magenta.

172
Q

Target (TGT) Mode

A

The TGT switch is an alternate action button that enables and disables the radar target alert feature. Target alert is selectable in all but the 300 mile range. When selected, target alert monitors beyond the
selected range and 7.5 degrees on each side of the aircraft heading. If a return with certain characteristics is detected in the monitored area, the target alert changes from the green armed condition
to the yellow TGT warning condition. This annunciation advises the pilot that a potentially hazardous target lies directly in front and outside of the selected range. When this warning is received, the pilot
should select longer ranges to view the questionable target. Note that target alert is inactive within the selected range

173
Q

GAIN

A

The GAIN is a single turn rotary control and push/pull switch that is used to control the receiver gain.When the GAIN switch is pushed, the system enters the preset, calibrated gain mode. Calibrated gain is
the normal mode and is used for weather avoidance. In calibrated gain, the rotary position of the GAIN control does nothing.

Q400 (37 decks)

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