Practice Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

An example of an intangible asset is

a utility
a fixture
a tool
goodwill

A

goodwill

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2
Q

Effective project managers have the following characteristic:

knowledge
performance
personal commitment
all of the above

A

all of the above

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3
Q

The difference between a project manager and a functional manager is

a project manager is a specialist.
a project manager is a technical supervisor.
a project manager is a facilitator.
a functional manager develops how work will be done.

A

a project manager is a facilitator.

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4
Q

The new manager (on his first day) held a meeting with all department employees. He passed out and discussed a list of changes that included those to the environment as well as methods. Before he concluded the meeting, he emphasized a demand for quality, skilled, knowledgeable, and self-reliant individuals. What type of new manager were the employees going to be working with?

Authoritarian.
One with a strong external locus of control.
Bureaucratic.
Tyrant.

A

One with a strong external locus of control.

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5
Q

What is the “360-degree feedback principle?

The individual’s performance is evaluated by the supervisor, and the supervisor performance is “evaluated” in turn by the individual.
Feedback is provided by peers and subordinates as well as from supervisors.
Performance feedback is provided by upper management as well as the supervisor.
All responsibilities and roles the individual performs during the project are evaluated.

A

Feedback is provided by peers and subordinates as well as from supervisors.

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6
Q

An important tool project managers use to effectively undertake and manage a variety of tasks and responsibilities is

Multi-tasking.
Mediating.
Coping.
Mainstreaming.

A

Multi-tasking.

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7
Q

What type of manager would most likely use the “management by objective” technique with employees?

A manager that follows Maslow’s acquired needs ladder.
A manager that employs Herzberg’s motivational theory.
A Theory Y manager.
A Theory X manager.

A

A Theory Y manager.

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8
Q

Motivating employees is difficult to do during a project that has a finite lifetime. A manager produces security in a project environment by:

showing interest through interpersonal communications and general conversation.
holding weekly team meetings.
placing individuals in positions to which they have been properly trained.
periodically rotating individuals so boredom does not become a factor.

A

placing individuals in positions to which they have been properly trained.

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9
Q

Negotiations are more successful when managers from opposing sides both adopt a win-win strategy. A step taken during conflict negotiations to ensure there is a win-win strategy toward resolution is to:

State side of the argument and desired terms.
Suggest concessions for the other side.
Convey willingness to be flexible.
State possible repercussions if a resolution cannot be achieved.

A

Convey willingness to be flexible.

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10
Q

Ted documented a safety hazard in his work area. For two years he complained to management about the increasing entanglement of computer, fax, telephone, and miscellaneous electrical cords that were accumulating in the area near between his cubicle and the water cooler. He suggested either the water cooler be moved or something be done to reduce and maintain the cords. In accordance with OSHA, what else can Ted do to get the company to eliminate the hazard?

Risk being disciplined by refusing to perform work in an unsafe area.
Demand OSHA standards be read by his manager.
Request information on procedures that must be followed if an accident occurs.
Meet with upper management and request a policy change.

A

Request information on procedures that must be followed if an accident occurs.

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11
Q

What is the purpose of coaching?

To indoctrinate subordinates in the corporate culture value system.
To teach subordinates how to problem-solve and critically think through problems.
To increase production.
To expand the firm’s knowledge base.

A

To teach subordinates how to problem-solve and critically think through problems.

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12
Q

Recognition, responsibility, achievement, and job satisfaction are

motivators.
achievement objectives.
coercion techniques.
essential to effective management.

A

motivators.

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13
Q

A benefit to using coercive power is

It maintains the organizational structure and enforces its culture.
The ultimate success of the manager becomes the subordinate’s success reward.
It can increase productivity when discipline is coupled with praise for good work.
It makes the organization stronger and more profitable.

A

It can increase productivity when discipline is coupled with praise for good work.

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14
Q

Excessive paperwork, tying up too much of the manager’s time, and employee distrust are symptoms of:

Macro-managing.
Under-control.
Poor planning.
Over-control.

A

Poor planning.

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15
Q

When issues arise during the course of managing the project team, the project manager may keep ______ to help the project team monitor issues until closure.

a resolution diary
an issue log
an action journal
a conflict report

A

an issue log

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16
Q

Which is NOT an issue entered into the issue log, documented and identified as having been addressed and resolved?

“More staff is added to resolve the short in required skills.”
“Financial viability questions about the project, raised by board members, have been answered, allowing the project to proceed.”
“The project progress schedule was submitted, reviewed, and approved, allowing the project to proceed.”
“Negotiations with functional managers to equity resolve scarce resource availability was mutually satisfied before causing project delays.”

A

“The project progress schedule was submitted, reviewed, and approved, allowing the project to proceed.”

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17
Q

Ernie believes that every worker does not dislike work, and considers it as natural as eating, playing, and sleeping. Ernie believes achieving self-actualization and satisfaction of personal needs is enough motivational reward, and if there was extra incentive, his team would not hesitate to work overtime to meet the deadline. Ernie manages according to ______ philosophy.

Maslow's	 	 
Herzberg' motivation	 	 
THow is a request to potential sellers to submit a proposal or bid handled?
Answer choices	Correct	Your choice
Formally.	 	 
By publishing the request in a newspaper.	 	 
By posting it on the internet.	 	 
any of the above.heory Y		
the acquired needs
A

Theory Y

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18
Q

How is a request to potential sellers to submit a proposal or bid handled?

Formally.
By publishing the request in a newspaper.
By posting it on the internet.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

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19
Q

Recommended corrective actions include changes needed to bring the expected future performance of the project in line with the

staffing management plan.
project management plan.
communications management plan.
project charter requirements.

A

project management plan.

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20
Q

Project managers who practice _______ themselves as well as within the team, are more effective at establishing and maintaining a necessary workplace balance.

conflict management
team building
stress management
organizational skills

A

stress management

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21
Q

During a training session, the manager stops, and calls a 15 minute break. She noticed some information in her coaching materials was incorrect. What should the manager-coach do before the class returns?

Contact her supervisor saying she was canceling the class due to poor material.
Make up an assignment that each participant should review the materials, and see if they can find the erroneous information contained in the training packet.
Notify the material creators of the error, correct it, and present the correct information to the class, so they can make the necessary changes to their materials.
Correct her materials.

A

Notify the material creators of the error, correct it, and present the correct information to the class, so they can make the necessary changes to their materials.

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22
Q

When productivity slips, the ethical leader

terminates or transfers the employee responsible for slowing down the team.
gives criticism and credit and redefines performance expectations.
launches a retraining program for all employees.
emphasizes the need for all employees to adopt a positive attitude.

A

gives criticism and credit and redefines performance expectations.

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23
Q

What are the warning signs a third-party mediator is needed?

When the parties become suspicious and refuse to cooperate with each other.
When insults and threats of physical violence occur.
When stereotypes are exposed.
When the current situation begins to resemble past project experiences.

A

When the parties become suspicious and refuse to cooperate with each other.

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24
Q

What type of leader welcomes input and serious consultation, and is highly-supportive of employees?

Directing.
Supporting.
Delegating.
Coaching.

A

Coaching.

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25
Q

It is not advisable to wait until the numbers nosedive before changing management, methods, operation, or processes. What factor is NOT an effective indicator of a change or leadership problem?

Performance.
Degree of cooperation.
Commitment.
Dedication to accomplishing tasks.

A

Performance.

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26
Q

The project is running behind schedule. At a project progress meeting, Ernie informs his boss that the team has encountered unforeseen problems that have caused certain phases to be delayed or slow to complete, which might mean the scheduled deadline will not be met. The boss states that that the team just isn’t motivated to do the work and Ernie needs to threaten the members with no additional pay for any time the project extends past its scheduled completion date, or coerce or more closely control the team to meet the deadline. What management approach does the boss employ?

Maslow’s theory.
Theory X.
Theory Y.
Theory Z.

A

Theory X.

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27
Q

The difference between conflict resolution and conflict management is

Conflict management is general over the entire organization; conflict resolution is issue-specific.
Conflict management is long term; conflict resolution is short-term.
Conflict management and conflict resolution demand management intervention.
Conflict management assumes all conflict is bad; conflict resolution assumes all conflict has a solution.

A

Conflict management is long term; conflict resolution is short-term.

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28
Q

When moral issues arise in interviewing, they are generally related to:

an inconvenient or hard to find interview location.
IQ tests given as part of the interview process.
specific background and credit check information discussed openly at the interview.
how the interview was conducted.

A

how the interview was conducted.

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29
Q

Effective managers may not be equally effective leaders. Under what conditions can leadership be “overplayed”?

When it is evaluated according to performance.
When the individual is assigned to lead a group or team.
When the role has not been fully defined.
When the role is not appropriately suited to the individual.

A

When it is evaluated according to performance.

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30
Q

_______ skills create empathetic relationships with project team members. Being more sensitive to others helps motivate and establish cohesiveness.

Leadership
Team building
Organizational
Conflict management

A

Team building

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31
Q

Organizations manage their ______ to maximize value, based on specific goals.

projects
portfolio
programs
schedules

A

portfolio

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32
Q

______ involve a group of related projects coordinated and managed to obtain greater control.

Operations
Portfolios
Programs
Schedules

A

Programs

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33
Q

What type of organization highly uses project managers?

Functional.
Hierarchical.
Balanced matrix.
Projectized.

A

Projectized.

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34
Q

______ organizations decentralize specified products or functions, while maintaining divisions that report to a central executive.

Functional
Entrepreneurial
Matrix
Projectized

A

Matrix

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35
Q

_______ organizations are the most likely to have a PMO (project management office).

Functional
Balanced matrix
Weak matrix
Project oriented

A

Project oriented

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36
Q

Staff members are grouped by specialty within a ________ organization.

functional
entrepreneurial
balanced matrix
projectized

A

functional

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37
Q

The PMO provides

administrative support
training
resource alignment
all of the above

A

all of the above

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38
Q

An expected Control Scope process output that will aid the management team is/are:

Various process updates.
change requests.
Process updates and recommended preventive and corrective change actions.
Process updates and revised schedule milestones.

A

change requests.

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39
Q

______ are performance reports that describe where the project stands at a specific point in time.

Forecasts
Status reports
Work status reports
Progress reports

A

Status reports

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40
Q

_______ is most often used when past performance shows that the original estimating assumptions were flawed or irrelevant due to a change of conditions.

ETC using CPI
EAC using remaining budget
EAC using a new estimate
EAC using CPI

A

EAC using a new estimate

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41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a means of measuring project success?

Risk
Customer satisfaction
Cost
Time

A

Risk

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42
Q

How does the project manager handle completed deliverables that have NOT been accepted?

The project manager mandates corrective action on a separate contract.
The unacceptable deliverables are not documented until defects have been corrected.
The unacceptable deliverables are documented with reasons they were not accepted.
The project manager assigns a group to investigate and document the failure.

A

The unacceptable deliverables are documented with reasons they were not accepted.

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43
Q

A display of the logical relationships among project schedule activities is/are:

A bar chart.
S-curves.
A histogram.
A project schedule network diagram.

A

A project schedule network diagram.

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44
Q

The dimensions of control depend on the type of project or project phase or operation, allocated resources, and the purpose or need for the control. Control dimensions include:

quality and time.
cost and expertise.
quality and overhead.
skill and knowledge.

A

quality and time.

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45
Q

PV versus AC and effects of changes and variances may be electronically managed using

cost baseline management.
project management software.
project management methodology.
variance management techniques.

A

project management software.

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46
Q

Measures of project success that the expectations management matrix include are:

Expectations.
Guidelines.
Priorities.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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47
Q

Work performance data is

data on the status of the project schedule
status of deliverables
status for change requests
all of the above

A

all of the above

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48
Q

_______ aid project sponsors in ranking the importance of project scope, times and cost goals in an effort to clarify expectations and balance the constraints.

Corrective actions reports
Issue logs
Expectations management matrices
Priority guidelines

A

Expectations management matrices

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49
Q

A sample test result is acceptable if it

falls within the range specified by the tolerance.
falls within the control limits.
conforms with plan requirements.
has been kept error-free and its scale rating indicates conformity.

A

falls within the range specified by the tolerance.

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50
Q

What impact does a proposed change have on project activities?

Schedules may need to be updated.
The project team will be reassigned, restructured, or reorganized.
The project manager will need to be replaced.
Changes are exclusive and do not impact other established project areas or activities.

A

Schedules may need to be updated.

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51
Q

Integrated change control involves

forecasting information
updating previously planned processes
reviewing all change requests
creating new processes

A

reviewing all change requests

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52
Q

Performance reports include

forecasts
lessons learned
speculations
assumptions

A

forecasts

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53
Q

Monitor and Control Project Work includes:

reserve analysis
assessing performance
Pareto analysis
stakeholder communication

A

assessing performance

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54
Q

The configuration management activity that verifies that the functional requirements defined in configuration documentation have been met is:

Configuration verification.
Configuration status accounting.
Configuration verification and auditing.
Configuration identification.

A

Configuration verification and auditing.

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55
Q

Depending on the level of detail and degree of project completion, how does the project manager implement integrated change control into his/her activities?

By avoiding risks.
By identifying areas that require special attention.
By identifying areas that require or need change.
By continually revising the scope of work.

A

By identifying areas that require or need change.

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56
Q

Performing change control includes

Gannt Charts.
Tracking changes.
Configuration auditing.
Configuration identification.

A

Tracking changes.

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57
Q

The project management plan, project scope statement, and deliverables are maintained

By continuously monitoring the project.
By continuously managing changes.
By continually adjusting the schedule.
By continually revising the scope of work.

A

By continuously managing changes.

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58
Q

Outputs of Monitor and Control Project Work include:

Pareto charts
Risk register
Change requests
none of the above

A

Change requests

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59
Q

A project-wide configuration management system with change control includes:

A performance schedule.
Documentation and control of changes to the baseline.
A revised cost control schedule.
Methods for handling risks that may arise from changes made.

A

Documentation and control of changes to the baseline.

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60
Q

What impact does a proposed change have on project processes?

The project scope statement may need to be redefined.
The project management plan may need to be revised.
Project deliverables may be modified, added, or deleted as a result of a proposed change.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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61
Q

Monitor and Control Project Work Enterprise Environmental factors include

industry standards
scheduled activities
stakeholder risks
none of the above

A

industry standards

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62
Q

A________ provides a standardized, effective, process for centrally managing project changes.

configuration management system with change control
change control system
plan management system
organizational output system

A

configuration management system with change control

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63
Q

The project manager implements the integrated change control process:

During the initial project phase.
During the intermediate phases of the project.
From project planning through execution.
From initiation through project closure.

A

From initiation through project closure.

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64
Q

Monitor and Control Project Work includes:

identifying new risks
analyzing risks
tracking risks
all of the above

A

all of the above

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65
Q

A configuration management system:

is seldom used in project management today
requires a large investment
establishes an evolutionary method to request changes
establishes a revolutionary method to request changes

A

establishes an evolutionary method to request changes

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66
Q

Change control boards can include:

stakeholders
consultants
industry groups
any of the above

A

any of the above

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67
Q

Integrated Change Control outputs include:

change requests status updates
project management plan updates
project document updates
all of the above

A

all of the above

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68
Q

The Talent Triangle focuses on

teamwork
analysis
parametric estimating
technical project management

A

technical project management

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69
Q

The equation for TCPI based on the EAC is:

BAC - SV) / (EAC - AC
(BAC - EV) / (EAC - AC)
(BAC - PV) / (EAC - AC)
(BAC - AC) / (BAC - SV)

A

(BAC - EV) / (EAC - AC)

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70
Q

EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the budgeted rate is:

EAC = BAC - AC + EV	 	 
EAC = AC + BAC - EV.		
EAC = SV - AC + EV	 	 
EAC = SV + PV + EV
A

EAC = AC + BAC - EV.

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71
Q

The technique that compares actual project performance with the planned performance is

variance management.
Progressive cost analysis.
Variance analysis.
Variance review.

A

Variance analysis.

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72
Q

_______ monitors the status of the project to update the project budget.

Control Quality
Control Costs
Control Scope
Control Budget

A

Control Costs

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73
Q

The _____ is a forecast total value based on project performance.

CPI
EV
ETC
EAC

A

EAC

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74
Q

In Cost Management, the variances that are most frequently analyzed are:

Cost and schedule.
Quality and cost.
Project scope and resources.
Risk and quality.

A

Cost and schedule.

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75
Q

What type of performance reporting compares actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Trend analysis.
Progressive cost analysis.
Earned valued technique.
Variance analysis.

A

Variance analysis.

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76
Q

If EVM is used, the following is determined:

variance analysis
trend analysis
Earned value performance
all of the above

A

all of the above

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77
Q

Expert judgement in Control Costs includes

stakeholder reviews
issues logs
trend analysis
variance analysis

A

variance analysis

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78
Q

TCPI is:

Total Cost Performance Index
EAC using CPI.
EAC using a new estimate.
EAC using remaining budget.

A

EAC using remaining budget.

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79
Q

EAC forecast for ETC work performed at the present CPI is:

EAC = BAC / cumulative CPI		 
EAC = SV / cumulative CPI	 	
EAC = AC / cumulative CPI	 	 
EAC = BAC / TCPI
A

EAC = BAC / cumulative CPI

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80
Q

Trend analysis involves

comparing planned performance with actual performance.
examining project performance over time.
monitoring planned cost versus actual cost.
managing problem responses toward project completion.

A

examining project performance over time.

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81
Q

Qualities that are essential for the project management team to have when performing Control Quality include:

Sampling knowledge.
Statistical quality control.
Knowledge of tolerances, prevention, attribute sampling and special cases.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

82
Q

The process analysis technique the project manager uses to analyze the problem and/or situation, its cause(s), and preventive actions for future similar problems or situations is

Control chart creation.
Inspection.
Root cause analysis.
Quality control.

A

Root cause analysis.

83
Q

Histograms are

representative, vertical bar charts showing a distribution of variables.
a specific type of flowchart ordered by occurrence frequency.
modified Pareto charts that show the percentage of defects as part of the overall problem.
horizontal performance schedule tracking diagrams of repetitive tasks.

A

representative, vertical bar charts showing a distribution of variables.

84
Q

Rank ordering of occurrence frequencies is a useful corrective action guide provided by a:

histogram.
flowchart.
Pareto chart.
variable diagram.

A

Pareto chart.

85
Q

What control process monitors results of executing quality activities to assess performance?

Control Quality
Plan Quality
Manage Quality
Monitor and Control Risks

A

Control Quality

86
Q

A Pareto Chart

is only used in PM software.
is a specific type of histogram.
is not a histogram.
none of the above

A

is a specific type of histogram.

87
Q

In Quality Management, The PM uses Process Analysis

to determine the best quality management method to implement.
to examine problems and constraints identified during process operations.
to examine strategies for complying with requirements and policies.
to develop process management implementation routines.

A

to examine problems and constraints identified during process operations.

88
Q

Tools used in Control Quality include:

Histograms
Pareto chart
Run charts
all of the above

A

all of the above

89
Q

_______ determine if a process is stable or unstable or has predictable performance.

Flowcharts
Control charts
Histograms
Pareto charts

A

Control charts

90
Q

A ______ is a fishbone diagram that indicates how various factors might be linked to potential problems or effects.

flowchart
control chart
Ishikawa chart
Pareto chart

A

Ishikawa chart

91
Q

What types of specific issues and obstacles that prevent the project team from achieving its goals, are documented in the issue log?

Differences in opinion.
Situations that need to be investigated.
Responsibilities that arise that need to be assigned or reassigned.
Any of the above.

A

Any of the above.

92
Q

What are some contributing sources of conflict?

Scarce resources.
Management policies.
Role definitions.
Unbalanced team assignments.

A

Scarce resources.

93
Q

_______ is a general term used to describe a variety of ways people handle grievances.

Conflict development
Conflict resolution
Conflict strategy
Conflict management

A

Conflict management

94
Q

Effective decision making includes

focusing on goals to be served.
managing opportunity and risk.
studying environmental factors.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

95
Q

Conflict is:

natural.
artificial.
a personal issue.
all of the above.

A

natural.

96
Q

Information documented in the issue log includes:

Changes to the project.
Added, substituted, or released team members during the project.
Recognitions and rewards.
Those responsible for resolving specific issues by a target date.

A

Those responsible for resolving specific issues by a target date.

97
Q

Why is successfully managing conflict important?

Conflict wastes resources.
Constructive conflict enforces needed change.
Conflict resolution takes time away from the business focus.
Less conflict = greater productivity.

A

Less conflict = greater productivity.

98
Q

In the Norming phase:

lack of trust ensues
team members work together
the environment is destructive
none of the above

A

team members work together

99
Q

Tailoring considerations in resource management include

diversity
program management
synergy
ecological impact

A

diversity

100
Q

Selection criteria for resources used in decision making includes

analytical templates.
combating.
availability.
parametric estimating.

A

availability.

101
Q

What process oversees the staff management plan and tracks team and work performances?

Develop Project Team
Develop Human Resource Plan
Manage Team
all of the above

A

Manage Team

102
Q

Techniques for resolving conflict include:

saving
combating
attacking
none of the above

A

none of the above

103
Q

The project management team monitors progress toward project deliverables through

project organization charts and schedules.
periodic team performance reviews.
observations and conversations with team members.
performance reports.

A

observations and conversations with team members.

104
Q

_______ can help reduce conflict

Team ground rules
Clearly defined roles and responsibilities
Communication planning
All of the above

A

All of the above

105
Q

Stages of team development include

storming
touring
melding
none of the above

A

storming

106
Q

Factors that influence conflict resolution methods include:

risks.
relative importance of conflict.
cost pressure.
none of the above.

A

relative importance of conflict.

107
Q

Considerations for agile environments related to resource management include

legacy cultures.
non-collaborative approaches.
strict organizational structures.
self-organizing teams.

A

self-organizing teams.

108
Q

The most effective means of communicating and resolving issues with stakeholders is:

Email, telephone, fax, or written correspondence.
Face-to-face meetings.
Electronic communication and conferencing tools.
Email, video, and Web conferencing.

A

Face-to-face meetings.

109
Q

Evaluation criteria in procurement management is used to

rate proposals.
manage proposal submittals.
manage risk.
organize submittal review.

A

rate proposals.

110
Q

______ is a check on proposed pricing, which is then compared to the contract SOW. Significant variances between the two indicates the seller did not understand or failed to respond to the contract SOW, or the marketplace has changed.

A cost screening
A price rating
A cost comparison system technique
An independent estimate of costs

A

An independent estimate of costs

111
Q

In Project Procurement Management, how do weighting systems work?

Each criterion is assigned a rating and an overall score is computed for each seller.
Minimum seller performance requirements are established and each seller is ranked based on past projects.
An independent estimate of cost is used to check the seller’s proposed pricing, and then compared to the contract SOW.
Performance quality ratings, delivery performance, and contract compliance are averaged and the seller ranked.

A

Each criterion is assigned a rating and an overall score is computed for each seller.

112
Q

Source selection criteria includes:

Danger
Risk
Problems
none of the above

A

Risk

113
Q

Sellers can be used to extend the team

under no circumstances
in agile environments
for tailoring considerations
in program management only

A

in agile environments

114
Q

Outputs from Conduct Procurements include:

project documents updates
selected sellers
change requests
all of the above

A

all of the above

115
Q

Bidder conferences serve

to review the SOW with the selected seller.
To ensure all prospective sellers understand the procurement.
To develop the qualified sellers list.
To interview prospective sellers.

A

To ensure all prospective sellers understand the procurement.

116
Q

Inputs to Conduct Procurements include:

Project Management Plan
Seller proposals
Project documents
all of the above

A

all of the above

117
Q

An activity associated with Control Procurements is

identifying risks
making changes and corrections
evaluating project progress
communicating with stakeholders

A

making changes and corrections

118
Q

______ are those sellers asked to submit a bid, proposal, or quotation

Selected sellers
Procurement participants
Proposed sellers
Targeted sellers

A

Selected sellers

119
Q

A ______ is the formal bid request, prepared and sent to each seller by the buyer, defining and describing the requested procurement.

bid document
seller’s proposal
procurement document package
buyer’s proposal

A

procurement document package

120
Q

A ______ is a formal seller-prepared document describing the seller’s ability and willingness to provide the requested products, services, or results described in the procurement documentation.

bid document
proposal
procurement document
call for bids

A

proposal

121
Q

Replanning involves

modifying the WBS and WBS dictionary.
updating components of the project management plan.
revising the project scope statement.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

122
Q

Decomposition includes

validating the RBS
structuring the WBS
Recomposing the WBS
all of the above

A

structuring the WBS

123
Q

________ is a controlled application aimed at finding and eliminating unnecessary costs within a project.

Quality control
Auditing
Value engineering
Budget identification

A

Value engineering

124
Q

Inputs to Close Project or Phase include:

Archives
Project management plan
contracts
all of the above

A

Project management plan

125
Q

The _______ formally closes the completed project or project phase.

close project process
contract completion process
final project completion process
substantial completion process

A

close project process

126
Q

Organizational Process Assets updates for Close Project or Phase include:

programs
project files
stakeholder communication
none of the above

A

project files

127
Q

Inputs to Close Project or Phase include

Risks
Accepted deliverables
Quality
all of the above

A

Accepted deliverables

128
Q

The ________ includes procedures to investigate and document reasons for actions taken regarding early termination.

change work process
final closeout procedure
close project process
none of the above

A

close project process

129
Q

What do the final project closure documentation files contain?

formal indication of completion of the project
stakeholder listing
final Pareto analysis
all of the above

A

formal indication of completion of the project

130
Q

____ Project Scope manages changes to the scope baseline.

Control
Plan
Manage
Verify

A

Control

131
Q

What control tool will provide the project manager information about the magnitude of variation from the scope baseline?

Work performance information.
Variance analysis.
WBS.
WBS dictionary.

A

Variance analysis.

132
Q

Control Scope:

assures all requested changes are processed.
manages uncontrolled work
only manages controlled changes, but not uncontrolled changes.
recommends preventive action for uncontrolled changes.

A

assures all requested changes are processed.

133
Q

Variance analysis is a scope control technique that uses ______ to assess the magnitude of variation.

comparative project resource charts
tracking systems
project performance measurements
replanning formulas

A

project performance measurements

134
Q

Approved change requests that impact project scope are

changes to the approved project scope statement.
changes evident in the performance report.
modifications to the approved scope baseline.
modifications to the SBS.

A

modifications to the approved scope baseline.

135
Q

Inputs to Control Scope include:

Work performance data
The Risk Register
Resource histograms
all of the above

A

Work performance data

136
Q

What Validate Scope tool is used to verify if work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Alternative identification.
Inspection.
Expert judgment.
Product analysis.

A

Inspection.

137
Q

Organizational process asset updates to the Control Scope process include

the causes of variances and corrective actions chosen.
the results of requested changes.
changes to the project scope statement.
changes made to schedule and cost control.

A

the causes of variances and corrective actions chosen.

138
Q

Control Scope outputs include:

pareto charts
change requests
approved deviations
none of the above

A

change requests

139
Q

Scope creep is:

When features are added without prior customer approval.
The adding of project (scope) functionality features without considering time involved.
Adding features and functionality without considering cost and resources.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

140
Q

A Gantt chart is:

seldom used.
only used when the project is behind schedule.
a graphic display of schedule-related information.
a textual display of schedule-related information.

A

a graphic display of schedule-related information.

141
Q

From a Gantt (bar) Chart, if project TASK A begins on Tue, March 6 and takes 14 working days to complete, TASK B begins on Thur, March 8 and takes 12 working days to complete and TASK C begins on Fri, March 9 and takes 15 days to complete but only 11 total working days to complete, which project task is the last to complete on the project schedule? (HINT: Working days run Monday - Friday).

Task A.
Task C.
Task A & B complete at the same time.
All tasks complete at the same time.

A

All tasks complete at the same time.

142
Q

Estimating the basis for activity durations quantitatively is

optimistic analysis.
three-point estimating.
parametric estimating.
analogous estimating.

A

parametric estimating.

143
Q

The type of estimate that three-point estimates are based on is:

most likely
optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely
least likely
definitive

A

optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely

144
Q

_______ is a scheduling technique that employs a scheduling model and generates the project schedule

Schedule network analysis
Schedule compression
Resource leveling
Milestone scheduling

A

Schedule network analysis

145
Q

The parametric estimating formula the project management team uses to calculate activity durations is:

The quantity of work to be performed multiplied by the productivity rate.
The total resource quantities multiplied by the labor hours per work period.
The production capability per work period, divided by the quantity of those resources applied.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

146
Q

______ estimating is used to determine activity durations when there is limited detailed project information.

Reserve analysis
Attribute
Analogous
Activity resource

A

Analogous

147
Q

Analogous estimating is based on

Similar past schedule activity.
The resource calendar.
The particular project baseline.
Activity lists.

A

Similar past schedule activity.

148
Q

______ exclusively identifies the scheduled start or completions of major deliverables and key external interfaces.

A milestone chart
CPM
A bar chart
A network diagram

A

A milestone chart

149
Q

The contingency reserve is:

Budget, labor, or funds added to the project estimate.
Time added to the estimate in place of funds.
Time and labor added to offset project risk.
A percentage of estimated activity duration.

A

A percentage of estimated activity duration.

150
Q

Project teams can choose to incorporate additional time into the project schedule. These additions are referred to as

buffers.
contingencies.
reserves.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

151
Q

Tools used in schedule development include:

critical path method
gannt method
resource insertion
none of the above

A

critical path method

152
Q

_______ is an iterative process that helps determine planned project start- and end-dates.

Project development
Schedule development
Schedule management
Scope management

A

Schedule development

153
Q

The project team uses the _______ analysis to compare different scenarios, such as, delaying a major component delivery or introducing external forces.

what-if scenario
critical path method
critical chain
resource leveling

A

what-if scenario

154
Q

A ______ is a graphical representation of the project schedule that shows the planned start- and end-dates, and actual progress for a variety of project tasks using horizontal lines, or bars.

milestone chart
CPM
bar chart
network diagram

A

bar chart

155
Q

Tailoring considerations in schedule management include

life cycle approach
resource availability
technology support
all of the above

A

all of the above

156
Q

The _______ scheduling technique is designed to control project time and cost using estimated activity time.

schedule compression
critical path method
critical chain method
resource leveling

A

critical path method

157
Q

Activity duration estimates that consider the amount of relative risk involved in the original estimate are:

milestone estimates.
panoramic estimates.
three-point estimates.
dynamic estimates.

A

three-point estimates.

158
Q

What Estimate Activity Duration tool is used to estimate activity durations as accurately as possible?

Expert judgment and prior project activity durations.
Historical information and recommended maximum activity durations from similar past projects.
Past duration estimate information.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

159
Q

If the project manager decides to “fast track” the project schedule, he or she is

adjusting logical relationships to produce network paths.
scheduling sequential activity phases so they will be performed in parallel.
making tradeoffs between the cost and schedule, to escalate activity completion.
adjusting leads and lags to produce a zero or positive total float.

A

scheduling sequential activity phases so they will be performed in parallel.

160
Q

The schedule compression technique meets schedule constraints and imposed dates by

recognizing and evaluating project risks.
adjusting logical relationships to produce network paths.
shortening the project schedule without changing the project scope.
adding duration buffers.

A

shortening the project schedule without changing the project scope.

161
Q

The critical path is

the longest path through the network diagram
the shortest path through the network diagram
seldom used in modern project management
ignored by stakeholders

A

the longest path through the network diagram

162
Q

Which of the following is an example of work performance information?

Percentage of work completed
Employee satisfaction
Number of defects in deliverables
Project earned value report

A

Project earned value report

163
Q

Managing communications necessary to satisfy the needs of and resolve issues with project stakeholders is part of

Plan Communications
Identify Stakeholders
Report Performance
Manage Stakeholder Engagement

A

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

164
Q

The benefit of actively managing stakeholders is

It reduces the chances of having unresolved stakeholder issues.
It enhances operation synergy.
It limits disruptions during the project.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

165
Q

Stakeholder requirements and expectations provide an understanding of stakeholder

resource requirements.
level of communication during the project
issues that might require corrective actions.
requested changes.

A

level of communication during the project

166
Q

Stakeholder requirements and expectations are documented:

In the performance report.
In the project scope management plan.
In the communications management plan.
In the project management plan.

A

In the communications management plan.

167
Q

Who is responsible for stakeholder management?

Usually the project manager.
The project management team.
The project team.
The owner.

A

Usually the project manager.

168
Q

What is the prime objective of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

It produces work performance information
It produces the change management plan
It adjusts the stakeholder management plan
It updates the organizational process assets

A

It adjusts the stakeholder management plan

169
Q

Bruce is managing a highway construction project. The project customer is the highway authority of the state. Midway through the project execution, Bruce receives a notification that a new director in the human resource division has been hired in the authority. What should Bruce do first?

Determine if the new director is a project stakeholder
Add the new director to the stakeholder register
Update the stakeholder management plan
Issue a change request to update the stakeholder management plan

A

Determine if the new director is a project stakeholder

170
Q

Common formats for work performance reports include:

risk summaries
histograms
charts
all of the above

A

all of the above

171
Q

Monitor Communications outputs include

work performance data
project constraints
work performance information
resource constraints

A

work performance information

172
Q

Information inputs contained in Monitor Communications include:

If the project is meeting requirements of the project scope.
Issue Log
What the project status is with regard to cost.
Variances encountered and resolved.

A

Issue Log

173
Q

Primary objectives of a quality audit include identifying

gaps
shortcomings
good/best practices being implemented
all of the above

A

all of the above

174
Q

Quality audits are performed

randomly.
by trained in-house auditors.
by third parties outside the performing organization.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

175
Q

Structured, independent reviews to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies and procedures, are

quality audits.
quality reviews.
process analyses.
implemented preventive actions.

A

quality audits.

176
Q

Approved change requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions are confirmed by

quality audits.
quality reviews.
process analyses.
implemented preventive actions.

A

quality audits.

177
Q

What determines the need for project performance appraisals?

The complexity of the project and quality of regular communications.
The complexity of the project team and interpersonal issues.
Project cost and budget constraints.
The potential for conflict or virtual team projects.

A

The complexity of the project and quality of regular communications.

178
Q

Lessons learned documentation updates include

Least possible solutions to performance variables.
Effective communication methods.
Forecasted assumptions.
Causes of issues.

A

Causes of issues.

179
Q

What is, or what constitutes, an “issue”?

A point that is not settled.
A matter under discussion where there are opposing views.
A question in a dispute.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

180
Q

How are issues handled?

They are clarified and a target resolution date is set.
They are logged and scheduled for unbiased discussion.
They are processed, presented at a stakeholder meeting and gain constructive feedback toward resolution.
They are logged and filed as historical data with performance reports.

A

They are clarified and a target resolution date is set.

181
Q

______ are tools that can be used to document and monitor the resolution of issues.

Resolution diaries
Corrective actions reports
Issue logs
Action journals

A

Issue logs

182
Q

_______ uses Monte Carlo simulation and decision tree analysis to analyze the effects of prioritized risk events.

Qualitative risk analysis
Quantitative risk analysis
Risk response planning
Risk monitoring and control

A

Quantitative risk analysis

183
Q

Criteria used in Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis includes:

Occurrence probability.
The impact of risks on project objectives.
Risk tolerance of the project constraints.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

184
Q

The benefit of performing Qualitative Risk Analysis is:

once performed, there is no need to repeat the process.
It provides a good foundation for updating the impact matrix.
It is a quick and cost-effective means of prioritizing.
It provides a risk urgency assessment.

A

It is a quick and cost-effective means of prioritizing.

185
Q

Each risk is evaluated for its importance and priority for attention by looking it up on the

probability distribution.
risk data quality assessment.
probability and impact matrix.
risk impact assessment

A

probability and impact matrix.

186
Q

Non-event risks are an example of

tailoring considerations for risk management
agile adaptations for risk
trends in project risk management
histograms

A

trends in project risk management

187
Q

Perform Qualitative Risk analysis involves:

Defining relative contributions as well as impacts to the overall project
Defining levels of probability and impact.
Determining that costs, schedules, and scope are realistic.
Review of the importance of a risk to be certain it isn’t over-magnified.

A

Defining levels of probability and impact.

188
Q

The Risk Register contains:

Root causes of risk.
List of potential responses.
Updated risk categories.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

189
Q

The _______ investigates the likelihood each specific risk will occur.

risk probability assessment
risk register
probability and impact matrix
risk quality assessment

A

risk probability assessment

190
Q

The _______ investigates the potential positive as well as negative effects on a project objective such as time, cost, scope or quality.

probability distribution
risk impact assessment
probability and impact matrix
risk data quality assessment

A

risk impact assessment

191
Q

Qualitative risk analysis includes methods that

define responses for identified risks.
process the potential risk impact to the project objectives.
define root causes for risks.
prioritize identified risks.

A

prioritize identified risks.

192
Q

The data gathering and representation interviewing technique used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives uses information that depends on

optimistic scenarios.
pessimistic scenarios.
the type of probability distributions that will be used.
means and standard deviations.

A

the type of probability distributions that will be used.

193
Q

______ of risk are those fundamental conditions that give rise to an identified risk.

Root causes
Potential effects
Known developments
Categories

A

Root causes

194
Q

An example of an “identified” risk is:

An employee central to the project having an accident.
Industrial relations disputes at the ports that delay delivery.
The boom of a crane collapses, shutting down the project.
Unseasonal weather causes damaging winds and flooding that impacts the project site.

A

Industrial relations disputes at the ports that delay delivery.

195
Q

Inputs that are included in the risk management plan for qualitative risk analysis include:

Stakeholders’ risk tolerances
Root causes of risk.
List of potential responses and who performs them.
Updated risk categories.

A

Stakeholders’ risk tolerances

196
Q

The _______ requires unbiased and accurate data. The analysis of data involves examining the accuracy, quality, reliability, and integrity of the risk data.

risk categorization analysis
risk impact assessment
risk urgency assessment
risk data quality assessment

A

risk data quality assessment

197
Q

The project manager can determine the degree of uncertainty by examining the project scope statement. Projects _____ have more uncertainty.

of a common type
using state-of-the-art technology
of a recurrent type
with a similar history as past projects

A

using state-of-the-art technology

198
Q

Tailoring considerations for procurement management include

Simplicity of the transaction
Schedule baseline
pareto charts
Physical location

A

Physical location

199
Q

What information is included in a procurement document?

Competitors.
Proprietary rights.
Contract SOW.
none of the above

A

Contract SOW.

200
Q

Tools used in Plan Procurements include:

make-or-buy
expert judgment
source selection analysis
all of the above

A

all of the above