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PMP - Study Guide > Practice Exam 4 > Flashcards

Practice Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Project Quality Management ensures

contracts are effectively resourced and administered.
effective project monitoring and control.
efficient preliminary planning and development of strategic operations.
the project satisfies its objectives.

A

the project satisfies its objectives.

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2
Q

What area of project management is concerned with timely completion of the project?

Project Schedule management.
Project Cost management.
Project Scope management.
Project Integration management.

A

Project Schedule management.

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3
Q

The project manager is assigned to

support core business
achieve project objectives
develop matrices
all of the above

A

achieve project objectives

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4
Q

What area of project management is concerned with organizing and managing the project team?

Project Integration management.
Project Communications management.
Project Resource management.
Project Scope management.

A

Project Resource management.

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5
Q

A “stakeholder” is

The customer.
The performing organization.
A sponsor.
All of the above

A

All of the above

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6
Q

Cultural ‘liabilities’ the functional and project managers should be aware of include

barriers to change.
diversity.
cross-departmental interactions.
aggressive risk.

A

barriers to change.

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7
Q

In top-down management

Information is freely exchanged laterally.
Information is informally reported to managers.
Information and ideas are dispensed from top management.
Information flows up, and instructions flow down from top management.

A

Information flows up, and instructions flow down from top management.

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8
Q

According to the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), the difference between standards and regulations is

a regulation is an approach guideline.
a regulation is a government-imposed requirement.
a regulation is established and approved by a recognized body.
a standard regulates procedure toward achieving an optimum degree of order.

A

a regulation is a government-imposed requirement.

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9
Q

What general interactive relationship elements determine individual and organizational effectiveness regardless of the type of the organization’s culture?

General knowledge and expertise levels of mid-managers.
Job descriptions and defined interrelationship interactions.
Experimentation and risk taking.
Capital investments, liquidity, and investors.

A

Job descriptions and defined interrelationship interactions.

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10
Q

Project Risk Management ensures

effective performance reporting.
safe activity sequencing.
cost-effective scope verification.
public safety and response planning.

A

public safety and response planning.

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11
Q

A project manager characteristically

is persuasive.
is flexible.
is a good communicator.
all of the above

A

all of the above

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12
Q

An entrepreneurial culture is conducive to

high risk proposals.
organizational charting.
protocol.
risk-averse behavior.

A

high risk proposals.

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13
Q

Types of organizational structures include

Weak matrix
Balanced matrix
Strong Matrix
all of the above

A

all of the above

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14
Q

Who controls the budget in a strong matrix type of organization?

The functional manager.
The project manager.
The administrative staff.
Upper management.

A

The project manager.

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15
Q

Control is a step-process involving

measuring, recording, and troubleshooting.
measuring, evaluating, and correcting.
evaluating, reporting, and correcting.
monitoring, evaluating, and restructuring.

A

measuring, evaluating, and correcting.

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16
Q

The project ________ serves as a fundamental basis for monitoring and controlling project activity

program
budget
scope
schedule

A

schedule

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17
Q

_________ is the project manager’s response to the need to measure accurate performance of the team and resources

A performance evaluation
Input
Monitoring
Output

A

Output

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18
Q

Control mechanisms are applied according to

the type of available resources.
time availability, allocations, and limitations.
the nature of the activity.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

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19
Q

The _______ used to measure the performance of work and to establish the performance measurement baseline.

earned value technique is
earning rules are
crediting method is
any of the above.

A

earned value technique is

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20
Q

Who is responsible for achieving project objectives?

The project manager
The operations manager
The functional manager
All of the above

A

The project manager

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21
Q

______ control is based on written records that measure team productivity

Supervisory
Output
Behavior
Management

A

Output

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22
Q

What factors are used during the SWOT analysis to determine the breadth of considered risks?

Strengths.
Weaknesses.
Opportunities and threats.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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23
Q

______ is the time in calendar units between the start and finish of a schedule activity.

Activity
Time
Activity duration
Activity resource estimating

A

Activity duration

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24
Q

What other process, besides Monitoring, does the Controlling Process work in conjunction with

Initiating.
Planning.
Executing.
Completion.

A

Planning.

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25
Q

Changes that affect product scope include

Corrective actions.
Administrative repair.
Schedule revisions.
Cost analyses.

A

Corrective actions.

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26
Q

During the project, progress payments are made at periodic intervals. Information collected for progress payments includes

The total project cost of the work in-progress.
An incremental percentage of the total project cost.
Percentage of the work that is considered complete.
Completed and accepted work plus markups.

A

Completed and accepted work plus markups.

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27
Q

Configuration management includes

validation and testing.
cost accounting.
identification.
none of the above.

A

identification.

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28
Q

A deliverable is

A newly constructed four-lane highway.
Computer training for employees.
Retooled widgets.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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29
Q

Part of the project execution process involves ______ the completion status of the deliverables.

evaluating cost overrun information about
collecting work performance information about
generating forecasts for
administrative oversight for

A

collecting work performance information about

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30
Q

Project documents updated during project execution include:

Requirements documents
Project logs
Risk register
all of the above

A

all of the above

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31
Q

The project management information system

is a secondary project team comprised of outside stakeholders whose only function is to provide information and feedback.
is an automated system used by the project management team to aid in project execution.
verifies project management planning schedule the team uses to meet project and project phase deadlines.
is a process that aids the team in executing the PMP.

A

is an automated system used by the project management team to aid in project execution.

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32
Q

Other implemented output produced as a result of performing project planned work includes

defect repair.
forecasts.
recommended preventive actions.
contract completion.

A

defect repair.

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33
Q

Products, services, and results of the project are in the form of _____ deliverables.

tangible
intangible
physical
geographical

A

tangible

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34
Q

________ modify documented policies, procedures, and schedules.

Approved preventive actions
Approved defect repairs
Approved change requests
Validated defect repairs

A

Approved change requests

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35
Q

Approve changes cover

conducive actions.
breaks and fixes.
corrective actions.
all of the above

A

corrective actions.

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36
Q

Approved defect repair is a

procedure that documents all activities, communications and responsibilities needed at project closure.
documented request for product defect correction during quality control and audit processes.
notification that all repaired defects have been accepted.
notification that all repaired defects have been rejected.

A

documented request for product defect correction during quality control and audit processes.

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37
Q

What reduces the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?

Approved preventive actions
Approved defect repairs
Approved change requests
Validated defect repairs

A

Approved preventive actions

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38
Q

Processes the project manager monitors during the Monitor and Control Project Work process include

Changes.
Initiating and planning.
Cost scheduling.
Quality control.

A

Initiating and planning.

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39
Q

_______are intentional activities that ensure the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan.

Approved preventive actions
Approved defect repairs
Approved corrective actions
Validated defect repairs

A

Approved preventive actions

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40
Q

Sources for expert judgment used in Change Control include

consultants
Industry groups
The PMO
all of the above

A

all of the above

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41
Q

Monitoring is a facet of project management that is performed

when necessary.
only during long-term, formal projects.
throughout the project.
during the forecasting phase.

A

throughout the project.

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42
Q

Performance activities within the monitoring and controlling process that the project manager is concerned with include

Progress reports, measurements, and forecasting.
Identifying and tracking project risks.
Tracking changes and processing documented updates.
all of the above

A

all of the above

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43
Q

_______ involves collecting information and assessing measurements.

Control
Planning
Monitoring
Compiling the progress payment

A

Monitoring

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44
Q

What procedure documents all project activities, roles, and responsibilities needed in executing the administrative closeout of the project?

Project validation procedure.
Approved PMP acceptance.
Approved closure request.
Administrative closure procedure.

A

Administrative closure procedure.

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45
Q

Activities involved in decomposition include

Analysis and control.
Identification of related work and deliverables.
Replanning.
Expert judgment.

A

Identification of related work and deliverables.

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46
Q

The project manager creates a WBS to output

WBS
WBS Dictionary
Project Document updates
all of the above

A

all of the above

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47
Q

Inputs to Control Scope include

Time baseline
Scope team plan
Risk Register
none of the above

A

none of the above

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48
Q

A scope baseline is

the schedule of resources needed and allocated for each subproject of the WBS.
the approved, detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS.
a distribution plan for scope components.
the WBS tool for controlling time and resource allocation.

A

the approved, detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS.

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49
Q

“Decomposition” refers to

replacing defective project components.
centralizing project program management to accomplish strategic objectives.
identifying and managing satisfaction of quality standards for individual project components.
subdividing project scope and deliverables into manageable components.

A

subdividing project scope and deliverables into manageable components.

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50
Q

Project managers tend to get bogged down with too much planning detail. Excessive decomposition can lead to

a decrease in efficient work performance.
poor resource allocation.
non-productive management.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

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51
Q

The WBS dictionary includes

codes of cost
description of consultation
release criteria
none of the above

A

none of the above

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52
Q

The project management team typically waits until the deliverable or subproject is clarified before developing the WBS. This progressive detailing of the project management plan is

rolling wave planning.
replanning
scheduling milestones.
bottom-up planning.

A

rolling wave planning.

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53
Q

Organizational Process Assets used in Create WBS include

future project files.
WBS templates.
consultants.
All of the above.

A

WBS templates.

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54
Q

The purpose of having a WBS dictionary is

To provide a hierarchically organized depiction of the project organization.
To provide information that identifies and defines project risks according to an established risk registry.
To provide detailed information on resources needed and allocated for each subproject.
To provide detailed information including work packages and control accounts.

A

To provide detailed information including work packages and control accounts.

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55
Q

Lower level WBS components must be _____ to ensure completion of the corresponding higher-level deliverables.

monitored and controlled
planned and controlled
necessary and sufficient
controlled and sufficient

A

necessary and sufficient

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56
Q

Outputs from Validate Scope include

Accepted documents
Change requirements
Product alternatives
none of the above

A

none of the above

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57
Q

Validate Scope is concerned with acceptance of deliverables. Control Quality is concerned with meeting quality requirements for deliverables. In relation to Validate Scope, Control Quality is executed

Generally before scope validation.
During scope validation.
Parallel to scope validation.
Any of the above.

A

Any of the above.

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58
Q

________ is the process of obtaining the stakeholders’ formal acceptance to the completed project scope and deliverables.

Control scope
Define scope
Create WBS
Validate scope

A

Validate scope

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59
Q

Tools used in Validate Scope include

Inspection
Validation
Recalibration
Execution

A

Inspection

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60
Q

Each WBS component is defined in terms of how the work is executed and controlled. For example, control components of a construction project could include ______ activities.

analysis and scheduling
closeout processing
inspection and testing
progress payment

A

inspection and testing

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61
Q

______ can result in make-or-buy decisions, using hand tools instead of automated machines, or hiring consultants

Bottom-up estimating
Expert judgment
Alternative analyses
Resource planning

A

Alternative analyses

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62
Q

Constraints and assumptions affecting Estimate Activity Durations include:

existing conditions
availability of information
length of reporting periods
all of the above

A

all of the above

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63
Q

A milestone is

a significant point in the project
a significant event in the project
included on the milestone list
all of the above

A

all of the above

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64
Q

Another word for Student Syndrome is

motivation
initiation
procrastination
self-study

A

procrastination

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65
Q

Tools used in Estimate Activity Durations include:

Parallel estimating
Trimetric estimating
Four-point estimates
bottom-up estimating

A

bottom-up estimating

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66
Q

Who originates the inputs for the estimates of schedule activity durations?

Anyone on the project team.
The project manager.
The project team person or group most familiar with the nature of the work in the schedule activity.
The joint shareholders.

A

The project team person or group most familiar with the nature of the work in the schedule activity.

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67
Q

An example of a constraint on schedule activity durations is

the review and approval of materials submittals.
the approved critical path of work.
the project work considered to be substantially complete.
requested changes.

A

the review and approval of materials submittals.

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68
Q

Information from ______ is used to estimate schedule activity durations.

estimated resource quantities
three-point reserves
activity attributes
expert judgment

A

estimated resource quantities

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69
Q

All work effort required to complete the schedule activity, the assumed amount of resources to be applied to complete the schedule activity, and the number of work periods needed to complete the schedule activity, are

in accordance with the project calendar.
subject to continued revisions.
estimated.
unchangeable.

A

estimated.

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70
Q

Which of the following is not true of iterative scheduling with a backlog?

it is a form of rolling wave planning
it is based on adaptive life cycles
it is based on reactive life cycles
requirements are documented in user stories

A

it is based on reactive life cycles

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71
Q

Activities can be sequenced and logical relationships inserted by

vendor offers and programs.
consultants
internet resources.
project management software.

A

project management software.

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72
Q

Assumptions and constraints are considered when estimating activity duration schedules. The length of the project reporting periods that could dictate maximum scheduled activity duration would be an example of

a positive lag.
a constraint.
a negative lag.
an assumption.

A

an assumption.

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73
Q

Project documents used in estimate activity durations include

activity attributes
activity list
assumption log
all of the above

A

all of the above

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74
Q

An emerging practice for Project Schedule Management is On-demand scheduling. Which of the below is true of On-demand scheduling?

It uses the Kanban system
It is based on a theory of constraints
it uses pull-based scheduling concepts
all of the above

A

all of the above

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75
Q

When the project manager cannot confidently estimate a schedule activity, he or she uses _______ to decompose the schedule activity into more detail, so resource needs of each lower portion of work can be estimated and then all estimates are aggregated.

analogous estimating
expert judgment
the WBS
bottom-up estimating

A

bottom-up estimating

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76
Q

A project schedule can be presented in

tabular form
as a milestone chart
as a bar chart
all of the above

A

all of the above

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77
Q

What information does the resource calendar show that might significantly influence durations of schedule activities?

Equipment availability.
Quantities of materials.
Capabilities of the labor force or team members.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

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78
Q

Enterprise Environmental factors for Estimate Activity Durations include:

Organizational process assets.
PMP activity cost estimates.
PMP risk registers and resource calendars.
Duration estimating databases.

A

Duration estimating databases.

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79
Q

The duration estimate is considered to be

static.
progressive.
highly inaccurate.
complex.

A

progressive.

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80
Q

What is Parkinson’s law?

Work contracts to fit minimal schedule
Work is variable
Work expands to fill time available for completion
Work is static

A

Work expands to fill time available for completion

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81
Q

Forecasting techniques help assess the cost or amount of work to complete schedule activities, called the

Estimate to Complete
Estimate at Completion
Budget at Completion
Cost to Complete

A

Estimate at Completion

82
Q

The ______ is the total cost incurred in accomplishing the work on the schedule activity or WBS component, and must correspond in definition and coverage to whatever was budgeted for other values.

Actual Cost
Cost Variance
Planned Value
Earned Value

A

Actual Cost

83
Q

When graphed, the combined AC, EV, PV, and BAC “S-curves” integrate ______ to give the project management team a visual of measured performance.

project management, project scope, and contract completion
project scope, cost, and schedule measures
project funding requirements, project scope, and project performance
project management, cost, and schedule

A

project scope, cost, and schedule measures

84
Q

PV, EV, and AC are used in combination to provide performance measures regardless of variances. ______ tend to decrease as the project reaches completion due to the compensating effect of more work being accomplished.

The planned value and actual cost
The cost variance and schedule variance
The planned value and earned value
The earned value and schedule variance

A

The cost variance and schedule variance

85
Q

The expected cost needed to complete all the remaining work for a schedule activity, work package, or control account is the

Estimate to Complete
Estimate at Completion
Budget at Completion
Cost to Complete

A

Estimate to Complete

86
Q

The schedule variance (SV) will ultimately equal zero when the project is completed, since all the planned values will have been earned. The formula for the schedule variance is

SV = EV - PV		 
SV = EV - AC	 	 
SV = AC - EV	 	 
SV = PC -EV
A

SV = EV - PV

87
Q

The budgeted cost to hire an IT consultant to install software upgrades is 15,000. The job is scheduled to take a half-day to install, and a day and a half to troubleshoot. He encounters glitches in the code, so at the end of two days he says he needs one more day. The earned value (EV) after the expected 2 days is:

15000
10050
7500
5000

A

10050

88
Q

A project summary of activities includes an item for installing 100 LF of pipe. The plan allows two days and 1,800 for labor, materials, and equipment. What is the planned value (PV) of this activity?

1800
900
600
590

A

1800

89
Q

The forecast is updated and reissued based on _______ that is provided as the project is executed and progresses.

cost performance
cost constraints
assumptions
work performance information

A

work performance information

90
Q

What earned value index indicates a cost overrun or underrun?

Cost Forecasting Index
Earned Average Index
Cost Performance Index
Schedule Performance Index

A

Cost Performance Index

91
Q

The formula for TCPI (to complete performance index) based on BAC (budget at completion) is:

(BAC - EV) / (AC - BAC)
(EV - BAC) / (BAC - AC)
(BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)
none of the above

A

(BAC - EV) / (BAC - AC)

92
Q

What Earned Value Index helps the project manager predict the completion date, and, when used in combination with the CPI, to forecast project completion estimates?

Cost Forecasting Index
Earned Average Index
Activity Cost Index
Schedule Performance Index

A

Schedule Performance Index

93
Q

The cost variance at the end of the project will be the difference between the budget at completion (BAC) and the actual amount spent. So, cost variance (CV) can be expressed as

CV = EV - PC	 	 
CV = EV - AC		 
CV = SV - EV	 	
CV = PC - EV
A

CV = EV - AC

94
Q

_______ is the process of making predictions of conditions in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the present time.

Scheduling
Exacting
Forecasting
Projecting

A

Forecasting

95
Q

It takes two weeks and 25,000 for a carpenter to complete a kitchen remodel. Actual costs incurred the first week were approximately 18,000, and 7,000 in week two. What was the AC the first week?

25000
20000
18000
7000

A

18000

96
Q

What is the budgeted cost for the work actually completed on a schedule activity or WBS component?

Actual cost
Cost variance
Planned value
Earned Value

A

Earned Value

97
Q

_______ are verifications that a set of required component-specific steps have been performed

Process improvement plans
Process configurations
Process metrics
Quality checklists

A

Quality checklists

98
Q

Data representation in Plan Quality Management includes

guidelines to improve activities.
start- and end-dates for project activities.
a flowchart to aid analyses.
baseline for measuring performance and project progress.

A

a flowchart to aid analyses.

99
Q

Tailoring considerations for Project Quality Management include

Policy compliance
Policy auditing
Stakeholder engagement
all of the above

A

all of the above

100
Q

The basis for measuring and reporting quality performance is

quality management.
process improvement.
the performance measurement baseline.
the quality baseline

A

the performance measurement baseline.

101
Q

Inspection is

stopping an error before it evolves.
keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.
used to achieve stakeholder satisfaction.
none of the above.

A

keeping errors out of the hands of the customer.

102
Q

Continuous process improvement provides the project management team with

an iterative means for improving the quality of all processes.
project oversight.
structured reviews to determine if project activities comply with requirements.
a means for identifying where activity improvements are needed.

A

an iterative means for improving the quality of all processes.

103
Q

Current trends in Project Quality Management include

Customer satisfaction
management delegation
segregation from suppliers
limited improvement

A

Customer satisfaction

104
Q

Manage Quality is

the process of identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determine how to satisfy them.
the process of numerically analyzing the effect on overall project objectives of identified risks.
analysis of the set of inherent characteristics necessary to fulfill project requirements.
auditing quality requirements to ensure appropriate quality standards are used.

A

auditing quality requirements to ensure appropriate quality standards are used.

105
Q

Project documents used in Manage Quality include:

Quality metrics
Quality control measurements
Risk report
all of the above

A

all of the above

106
Q

Modifications to work methods, product and quality requirements, and performance reports are elements of QA (quality assurance).

audits.
quality reviews.
change requests.
implemented preventive actions.

A

change requests.

107
Q

Tools and techniques used in Manage Quality include

data gathering
data analysis
decision making
all of the above

A

all of the above

108
Q

Which of the following is an output of Plan Quality Management?

Quality metrics.
Process configuration.
Process boundaries.
Performance targeting.

A

Quality metrics.

109
Q

Quality reports are

graphical
numerical
qualitative
all of the above

A

all of the above

110
Q

The Manage Team process involves

Effecting communication.
Tracking team member performance.
Reviewing pertinent input.
Assigning tasks.

A

Tracking team member performance.

111
Q

Rewards used in Develop Team

are formal
are informal
must be valued by the individual
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

112
Q

It is often preferable to have all or most of the active team members operating in the same physical location. This, sometimes temporary, _______ is intended to enhance the team members’ ability to perform as a team.

relocation
co-location
central location
operations location

A

co-location

113
Q

What are “soft skills?

Expertise.
Training.
Interpersonal skills.
Negotiation and conflict resolution.

A

Interpersonal skills.

114
Q

What updates are made as a result of managing the project team?

The management plan is updated and performance reports are written.
Incorporation of processes and improvements are suggested.
Change requests are submitted and issues are resolved.
Corrective actions are suggested and preventive actions are put in place.

A

Change requests are submitted and issues are resolved.

115
Q

What purpose does the roles and responsibilities list provide to the Manage Team process?

It is used to assess and prescribe actions that can be taken to resolve issues with and among team members.
It is used to compare performance against the project management plan.
It is used to monitor and evaluate performance.
It is used to designate assignments according to performance competency.

A

It is used to monitor and evaluate performance.

116
Q

Interpersonal and team skills used in Manage Team include:

conflict management
decision making
emotional intelligence
all of the above

A

all of the above

117
Q

Important interpersonal skills an effective project manager uses when managing the project team include:

Authority and action.
Empathy and creativity.
Communication and directives.
Coaching and training.

A

Empathy and creativity.

118
Q

Factors that influence conflict resolution include:

intensity of conflict
histogram results
stakeholder input
none of the above

A

intensity of conflict

119
Q

What Manage Team input provides a list of the project team members that will be evaluated during the monitoring and controlling process?

The project team assignments.
The team performance assessment report.
The staff performance report.
The resource availability list.

A

The project team assignments.

120
Q

The project management team _______ during the Manage Team process.

observes team behavior
manages conflict
resolves issues
all of the above

A

all of the above

121
Q

An example of informal training is:

Classroom instruction.
Apprenticeship programs.
On-the-job training.
Observation.

A

Observation.

122
Q

_______ are necessary to establish clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members.

Rewards
Ground rules
Diversity training programs
Performance reviews

A

Ground rules

123
Q

The _______ is a Manage Team process input used to resolve issues, modify communication, and address conflict as a result of continued assessments of the project team’s performance

organizational assets process
work performance schedule and report
team performance assessment
work performance information report

A

team performance assessment

124
Q

Organizational Process Assets used in Manage Team include

corporate apparel
checklists
pareto charts
gannt charts

A

corporate apparel

125
Q

Who is generally responsible for the critical success of the project when the team members are accountable to both the functional manager and the project manager?

The functional manager.
The project manager.
Both the functional manager and the project manager.
The team members are responsible for their performance and the project’s success.

A

The project manager.

126
Q

Team-building and team-building activities are used to

Educate team members.
Advance team members’ individual skills and expertise.
foster collaboration.
more effectively advance the organizations’ or projects’ agenda.

A

foster collaboration.

127
Q

An example of formal training is:

Online courses.
Playing on the department softball team.
Inspections.
Test results.

A

Online courses.

128
Q

_______ includes all activities designed to enhance the competencies of the project team members.

Training.
Promotional opportunities
Job rotation
Cross-training

A

Training.

129
Q

Good indicators of a team’s effectiveness include

Reduced staff turnover.
Uneven task distribution.
Uniformly adhering to group-developed policies, rules, and guidelines.
An appointed spokesperson.

A

Reduced staff turnover.

130
Q

Tools used to distribute information include:

hard copy document distribution
email
fax
all of the above

A

all of the above

131
Q

_______ is information received from the stakeholders regarding project operations that is used to modify or improve future project performance.

Feedback
Input
Deliverables
The requested change report

A

Feedback

132
Q

The project team provides information to stakeholders, either formally or informally, in a presentation and format that is

relevant to the audience.
approved by the stakeholders.
managed and reviewed by the PM prior to distribution.
requested by those receiving the information.

A

relevant to the audience.

133
Q

Outputs from Monitor Communications include:

the risk register
updates to lessons learned
Pareto analysis
all of the above

A

updates to lessons learned

134
Q

What features are included and integrated into the performance measurement baseline?

Project cost and quality parameters.
Scope and schedule.
Technical parameters.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

135
Q

Information on _______ should be included in the performance report.

planning and resources
communication channels and quality assurance
budget and requested changes
scope and quality

A

scope and quality

136
Q

Performance information included in Monitor Communications includes:

The quality control involved in ensuring project integrity.
Project team members’ roles, responsibilities, and competencies during the project life cycle.
How resources are used to achieve project objectives.
How resources are distributed according to expertise throughout the project life cycle.

A

How resources are used to achieve project objectives.

137
Q

______ that include table reporting and graphic representations can be used to create presentation quality images of project performance data.

Software programs
Information channels
Communication and conferencing tools
Shared-access electronic databases

A

Software programs

138
Q

The project management plan provides baseline information. The performance measurement baseline provides

Project services or results that must be produced or completed to complete a project phase or process.
Estimated performance constraints compared against the project schedule.
Project execution compared and measured against the project work plan.
Time and cost deviations that could impact project scope.

A

Project execution compared and measured against the project work plan.

139
Q

The Monitor Communications process of Communications Management involves:

Forecasting.
Collecting baseline data and distributing performance information.
Reporting and distributing performance data to upper management.
Collecting quantitative performance and risk data.

A

Collecting baseline data and distributing performance information.

140
Q

Work performance data collected to input into the monitor communications process includes:

budget data.
deliverables status.
a list of deliverables that have been approved by the customer.
channels used to enhance work performance.

A

deliverables status.

141
Q

Which of the following is a Monitor Communications output?

Risk register
change requests
WBS
Product scope

A

change requests

142
Q

Performance reports should provide ______ as documented in the communications management plan.

project status information
project progress information
detailed information as required by the stakeholders
all of the above

A

all of the above

143
Q

______ are regularly scheduled events to exchange information about the project.

Progress updates
Feasibility conferences
Status review meetings
Stakeholder meetings

A

Status review meetings

144
Q

_____ is an input to Monitor Communications.

WBS
Issue log
Cost forecasts
all of the above

A

Issue log

145
Q

Performance reports can include

work to be completed next
analysis of past performance
summary of changes
all of the above

A

all of the above

146
Q

Information that needs to be collected and fed into the monitor communications process includes

Work performance data.
Performance information.
Status forecasts.
All of the above.

A

Work performance data.

147
Q

What are key inputs from the risk management plan to the risk identification process?

Roles and responsibilities.
Assumptions and constraints.
Quality and quantity analyses from past projects.
Benchmarks.

A

Roles and responsibilities.

148
Q

The information gathering technique that involves a multidisciplinary set of experts to obtain a comprehensive list of project risks is:

the Delphi technique.
brainstorming.
checklist analysis.
root cause identification.

A

brainstorming.

149
Q

_____ are found in the project scope statement, which should be evaluated as potential causes of risk.

Time and schedule conflicts
Quality management plans
Project assumptions
Consistencies and inconsistencies

A

Project assumptions

150
Q

A tool that identifies project risks based on inaccuracies, inconsistencies, or incompleteness, is

cause and effect analysis.
root causes of risk.
assumptions analysis.
qualitative risk analysis.

A

assumptions analysis.

151
Q

A main source of risk identification data gathering that collects input from stakeholders, participants, and project subject experts is

SWOT analysis.
root cause identification.
checklist analysis.
interviewing.

A

interviewing.

152
Q

The risk identification outputs are contained in:

The risk management plan.
risk categories.
The risk register.
the RBS.

A

The risk register.

153
Q

The RBS (resource breakdown structure) lists

deliverables
status
categories and sub-categories
all of the above

A

categories and sub-categories

154
Q

_______ is an inquiry into the essential causes of a project’s risk in an effort to develop preventative action.

Cause and effect analysis
Root cause analysis
Assumptions analysis
Checklist analysis

A

Root cause analysis

155
Q

A brainstorming group uses the following as a framework for identifying risks:

the RBS (resource breakdown structure).		 
Tracking documents.	 	 
Organizational process documents.	 	
The project management plan.
A

the RBS (resource breakdown structure).

156
Q

Checklist analysis consists of developed risk identification checklists based on

qualitative information.
quantitative information.
historical information.
high level RBS data.

A

historical information.

157
Q

Data analysis techniques used in risk identification include

SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis
Delphi technique
Checklist analysis
Root cause identification theory

A

SWOT (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis

158
Q

A diagramming technique that shows how the system elements interrelate and the “mechanism of causation” is/are:

The cause and effect diagram.
Influence diagrams.
System flow charts.
Process bar charts.

A

System flow charts.

159
Q

A ______ examines the project from various perspectives to increase the number of identified risks.

SWOT analysis
root cause identification
assumptions analysis
checklist analysis

A

SWOT (Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats) analysis

160
Q

_____ diagrams are graphical representations of situations showing causal influences, ordering of events, and relationships among variables and outcomes

Risk response
Influence diagrams
System flow charts
Process bar charts

A

Influence diagrams

161
Q

What is a basic diagram that identifies causes of risks?

Ishikawa diagrams.
Influence diagrams.
System flow charts.
Process bar charts.

A

Ishikawa diagrams.

162
Q

What information is included in the procurement management plan?

The “do-not-use” seller’s list.
Seller evaluation criteria.
Types of contracts to be used.
All of the above

A

Types of contracts to be used.

163
Q

The procurement management plan includes:

Pareto analysis
Histograms
risk management issues
none of the above

A

risk management issues

164
Q

The Procurement SOW defines:

Contract deliverables.
Detailed descriptions of procurement items for perspective sellers’ information.
Project specifications and requirements.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

165
Q

________ are risk-related contractual agreements.

Cost estimate agreements
Risk resource requirements
Baseline services
Insurance agreements

A

Insurance agreements

166
Q

The _______ is a Plan Procurements output that describes how the procurement processes will be managed, from developing procurement documentation through contract closure.

plan contracting plan
seller response plan
procurement management plan
contract documentation

A

procurement management plan

167
Q

Standard procurement forms include

non-disclosure agreements.
evaluation criteria checklists.
standard contracts.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

168
Q

Make-or-buy decisions included in the procurement management plan include:

a list of items that will be produced by the project team.
decisions to buy performance bonds.
rental agreements.
sales decisions and receipts.

A

decisions to buy performance bonds.

169
Q

Factors that determine the type of contract agreement that will be used include:

Requirements that a buyer imposes on a seller.
The degree of market competition and risk.
Consideration of future project acquisition.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

170
Q

The project manager reviews project or item ______ when the seller selection decision is based on price.

bids
tender
quotes
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

171
Q

_____ are received and reviewed by the buyer prior to seller selection when technical skills or approaches are required.

Evaluations
Proposals
Submissions
Contracts

A

Proposals

172
Q

Source selection criteria includes:

technical expertise
capability
management approach
all of the above

A

all of the above

173
Q

Common types of procurement documents are

invitations to bid and requests for quotation.
proposal evaluation checklists and tender notices.
contractor initial responses and bid transactions.
non-disclosure agreements and bid proposals.

A

invitations to bid and requests for quotation.

174
Q

Procurement documents are primarily used:

For eliciting proposals from prospective sellers.
To keep an accurate record of make-or-buy project items.
For procuring necessary resources.
To manage commercial and standard items used on the project.

A

For eliciting proposals from prospective sellers.

175
Q

Tools used in Conduct Procurements include:

Proposal evaluation techniques.
Seller conferences.
Pareto analysis.
All of the above.

A

Proposal evaluation techniques.

176
Q

Different cultures affect organizational performance differently. Cultures are comprised of organizational elements according to the type of business, such as size, external environment, and the organization’s technology influence. These all influence the type of culture. The self-serving goals of an organization are known as its

mission.
culture.
value system.
politics.

A

politics.

177
Q

As a condition of employment, the company code of ethics requires its managers to be involved with community activities a designated number of hours per month. The company contends that it is difficult to envision an employee who reads to the blind at night, would cheat. What does this say about the company?

It is engaging in illegal HR practices regarding employment.
It is enforcing its code regarding the company’s social responsibility.
It is disguising poor quality and company practices.
It is an effective part of a bigger marketing plan.

A

It is enforcing its code regarding the company’s social responsibility.

178
Q

It has been brought to the school’s director of athletics attention that his baseball players, particularly the seniors desiring professional athletic contracts, have been injecting each other with enhancing drugs. Upon review of the players in question, the director finds the players will graduate high in their academics and have not brought any embarrassment to the school or team. A winning season will also mean increased revenue for the school and a bonus for him, his assistants, and coaches. What should the director do?

Ignore it since no harm has been done, and the school will ultimately benefit from a championship.
Handle the situation directly with the coaches.
Put the coaches and players on temporary suspension and rescind scholarships for the team.
Report it to the board, discuss it with the team and coaches and enforce current policies.

A

Report it to the board, discuss it with the team and coaches and enforce current policies.

179
Q

Workplace demographics, ethnicity, culture and gender have dramatically changed. Communicating and managing diversity requires an understanding of group and individual differences. It is essential that everyone adapt, not just the ones that are different. What social strains influence viewpoints impacting effective communication within the diverse workplace?

Politics.
Religious beliefs.
Ethnicity.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

180
Q

Before disclosing any project specific intellectual property information, both parties ensure ______ are approved and accepted.

procurement documents
a formal bid proposal
non-disclosure agreements.
invoices

A

non-disclosure agreements.

181
Q

What is one primary concept everyone in the organization must remember regarding emails?

What goes on or through a company email system is filed nearly forever.
It is an informal one-to-one communication.
It is the heard of the company’s business activity.
Clarity rather than length is the primary objective of emails.

A

What goes on or through a company email system is filed nearly forever.

182
Q

Managers and leaders obtain their power:

the same way they obtain their authority.
by virtue of professional knowledge and experience.
according to seniority within the organization.
according to their innate personality, behavior, and age.

A

the same way they obtain their authority.

183
Q

The corporate culture as it refers to professional and social responsibility is:

An environment that encourages partnering with outside organizations to achieve a common objective.
Communicated values that have come from the community which impact the organizations goals and objectives.
Beliefs, norms, value systems, and activities that characterize the organization.
Acceptable operating procedures.

A

Beliefs, norms, value systems, and activities that characterize the organization.

184
Q

What health and safety policy provides “reasonable accommodations” for those with HIV/AIDS as well as those requiring ramps for building and curb access?

The ADA act of 1990.
The occupational safety and health act of 1970.
The hazcom program.
The EPA.

A

The ADA act of 1990.

185
Q

Diversity and intercultural interaction and minority experiences impact the entire organization. The impact is seen in work groups, human resource development, and management. One of the systemic barriers regarding diverse interactions that is common to all organizations is

Negative attitudes within work groups.
Delayed promotions.
Minimal peer and superior support.
Limited mentoring relations.

A

Limited mentoring relations.

186
Q

The project is nearly complete when one of the customers informs the project manager that a lost portion of the specifications has surfaced. The customer admits that although the project can function in the short-term without the newly found feature, the feature really should be included. (The specification for the feature was misplaced and never made it into the contract and to add it would involve major alterations). The customer insists it must be included, as his reputation is on the line. The project manager

may approve the inclusion since the intent was for the feature to be in the initial contract.
should deny the request since the project is nearing completion.
should alert the customer to the progress and near completion state of the project, and the impact adding-in the feature would have, but inform the customer that they may submit a change request.
add the feature because the customer will not accept the project otherwise.

A

should alert the customer to the progress and near completion state of the project, and the impact adding-in the feature would have, but inform the customer that they may submit a change request.

187
Q

Situation control is the amount of control and influence the manager has in their immediate work environment. Power is part of leadership, and is neither good nor evil. Power is simply the capacity one has to influence others’ behaviors. What type of power enables the manager to arbitrarily issue rewards and punishment to subordinates?

Coercive.
Task structure.
Leader-member relations.
Position.

A

Position.

188
Q

A type of power that is typically utilized by autocratic managers, by virtue of fear, to keep command and control of subordinates is:

Coercive.
Legitimate.
Reward and punishment.
Socialized.

A

Coercive.

189
Q

Two older female employees were astounded at their young twenty-something coworker’s nonchalant attitude about taking time off in the middle of a crunch deadline project to go to Hawaii for her sister’s birthday party. The changing beliefs, values, and attitudes have altered the face of the workplace and have brought with it a psychology of

necessity.
entitlement.
perks.
bonuses.

A

entitlement.

190
Q

Careful management is necessary to afford equal treatment and opportunities in a neutral environment. What activity favors diverse individuals or groups, and causes stressful workplace conditions, which often result in labor, union, and management conflicts?

Tokenism.
Favoritism.
Semitism.
Racism.

A

Tokenism.

191
Q

Network etiquette is different from individual email etiquette in that:

postings are not intended for mass mailings.
Large audiences will read each posting.
Always include a company signature line.
the information is current and up-to-date.

A

Large audiences will read each posting.

192
Q

For a corporate moral, or ethical, code to be effective, it must be

realistic.
practiced.
judicious.
universal.

A

realistic.

193
Q

Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Communication skills
Change requests
Interpersonal skills
Ground Rules

A

Change requests

194
Q

Why is the change log an input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

The change log records all the change requests
The change log documents stakeholder communication requirements
The change log can be used to communicate recent changes to the appropriate stakeholders
The change log records current stakeholder engagement level information

A

The change log can be used to communicate recent changes to the appropriate stakeholders

195
Q

Stacey is managing a website development project. The project is approximately halfway through the execution phase. During a project status update meeting for the key stakeholders, the project sponsor requested a few minor changes to the project scope. What must Stacey do?

Adjust the scope management plan accordingly
Adjust the scope statement and the project WBS
Refer the project sponsor to the change control board
Write a change request on behalf of the sponsor and send to the change control board

A

Write a change request on behalf of the sponsor and send to the change control board

196
Q

Which of the following is not a desirable behavior?

Paying attention to the speaker
Nonverbal communication during communication
Interrupting the speaker in the middle of a speech if the topic being discussed is not interesting
Asking questions and giving feedback

A

Interrupting the speaker in the middle of a speech if the topic being discussed is not interesting

197
Q

Which of the following documents is an input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process that documents stakeholder specific communication requirements, information to be communicated, formats and methods of distribution and the reasons for the information distribution?

Communication management plan
Stakeholder management plan
Change log
Organizational process assets

A

Communication management plan

198
Q

Which of the following does not happen during the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Components of the project management plan might get updated
Project objectives in the project charter might get updated
Stakeholder list in the stakeholder register might get updated
Lessons learned in the organizational process assets might get updated

A

Project objectives in the project charter might get updated

199
Q

Which of the following organizational process assets is not an input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Project advisory boards
Organizational communication requirements
Issue management procedures
Historical information about previous projects

A

Project advisory boards

200
Q

Which of the following is not an interpersonal skill?

Planning
Trust building
Active listening
Resolving conflicts

A

Planning

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