Practice Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

_______ are organized activities that help achieve the organization’s strategic plan

Plans
Projects
Programs
Operations

A

Projects

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2
Q

All of the following are examples of a project EXCEPT

r&d.
a public works contract.
operation of an automated accounting system.
a 2020 hybrid car model.

A

operation of an automated accounting system.

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3
Q

A characteristic of an operation that is NOT a characteristic of a project is

who performs the task.
resource constraints.
it is planned and controlled.
it is ongoing and repetitive.

A

it is ongoing and repetitive.

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4
Q

What is the primary objective of an operation?

To sustain the business.
To reach and terminate at its end goal.
To construct a facility.
To develop a product.

A

To sustain the business

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5
Q

A project manager’s assignment is a _______ if it involves several projects all being performed at the same time, that each have ongoing operational elements

plan
project
program
operation

A

program

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6
Q

The longest project activity phase, that covers actual activities, measurement, and evaluation, is the _______ phase

concept
organization
application
operational

A

operational

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7
Q

Plans are characterized and classified according to their

function
duration
objectives
all of the above

A

all of the above

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8
Q

A PMO that has formal responsibility to manage projects is

Supportive
Controlling
Subordinate
Directive

A

Directive

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9
Q

What type of organization has a project manager managing the project budget?

Organic
Functional
Weak Matrix
PMO

A

PMO

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10
Q

An organizational governance framework includes

Rules
Norms
Processes
All of the above

A

All of the above

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11
Q

What type of organization has a full time project management administrative staff?

Functional
Project-oriented
Matrix - weak
Matrix- balanced

A

Project-oriented

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12
Q

What type of organizational structure has work groups arranged by project?

Matrix - strong
Matrix - weak
Project-oriented
Matrix - balanced

A

Matrix - balanced

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13
Q

The project manager sphere of influence includes

Stakeholders
Sponsors
Project Team
All of the above

A

All of the above

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14
Q

Having the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of a project exemplifies

Technical project management
Functional project management
Leadership
Strategic and Business Management

A

Technical project management

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15
Q

Being a project manager is analogous to being _____ in an orchestra

The string section
Percussion
The conductor
The audience

A

The conductor

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16
Q

Having knowledge and expertise in the industry and organization exemplifies

Technical project management
Strategic and Business Management
Leadership
Functional project management

A

Strategic and Business Management

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17
Q

Having the ability to guide, motivate, and direct a team requires what type of skill

Technical
Functional
Hybrid
Leadership

A

Leadership

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18
Q

The scope baseline includes

WBS
WBS dictionary
project scope statement
all of the above

A

all of the above

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19
Q

The ________ addresses and documents project deliverables, boundaries, control, and acceptance

project charter
project plan
contract
project scope

A

project scope

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20
Q

The project team uses scope definition techniques such as product breakdown, value engineering, and systems analyses

for stakeholder analyses.
to determine product scope.
for product analyses.
to determine project requirements.

A

for product analyses.

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21
Q

The _________ is built upon the major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints

project scope statement
project charter
project scope control
product scope

A

project scope statement

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22
Q

A tool used in creating the WBS is:

work histogram
composition
decomposition
decentralization

A

decomposition

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23
Q

The account where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated at a management control point and compared to earned value to measure performance, is a

planning account.
control account.
performance account.
planning package.

A

control account.

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24
Q

Tailoring considerations in project scope management include

Validation and control
Limits and balances
Source management
The WBS

A

Validation and control

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25
Q

“Rolling wave planning” is

the interaction among the processes within the Planning Process.
progressive detailing of the project management plan.
the facilitation of activities across multiple processes.
the continual process of evaluation and refining the project scope.

A

progressive detailing of the project management plan.

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26
Q

Based on project needs, the project scope management plan may be

formal or informal.
formal.
informal and concise.
formal and highly detailed.

A

formal or informal.

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27
Q

The project scope management plan is intended to:

Help the management team define and document project scope.
provide guidance on how project scope should be managed and controlled.
enable the creation of the WBS.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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28
Q

A ______ is a WBS planning component below the control account but above the work package, used for planning known work that does not have detailed activities

planning account.
control package.
performance account.
planning package.

A

planning package.

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29
Q

Brainstorming is a technique the management team uses to

identify stakeholder expectations and how to most effectively accomplish them.
determine the least risky methods and procedures in project execution.
develop feasibility, overcome constraints, and achieve assumptions.
generate alternative approaches to performing work and executing the project.

A

generate alternative approaches to performing work and executing the project.

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30
Q

The project charter and the stakeholder register are _____ for collect requirements.

risks
assets
outputs
inputs

A

inputs

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31
Q

________ are tools and techniques used to define project scope.

Expert judgment and meetings
Templates, forms, and the scope baseline
The PMIS and baseline
Established monitoring and controls

A

Expert judgment and meetings

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32
Q

What information is used to develop the project management plan and detailed project scope?

Historical information
Project charter information
The preliminary project scope statement
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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33
Q

Putting other people first is an example of what type of leadership style?

Transactional
Servant leader
Transformational
Interactional

A

Servant leader

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34
Q

Giving praise is an example of what type of power?

Reward-oriented
Relational
Referent
Personal

A

Reward-oriented

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35
Q

Which of the following is not a typical component of a Stakeholder Engagement Plan?

Stakeholder engagement levels
Methods of updating the stakeholder management plan
Stakeholder issues and conflicts
Stakeholder communication requirements

A

Stakeholder issues and conflicts

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36
Q

What is the primary output of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?

Stakeholder Engagement Plan
Communications Management Plan
Stakeholder Register
Project Management Plan

A

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

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37
Q

Which of the following is not a tool and technique of the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?

Expert judgment
Stakeholder analysis
Meetings
Data Analysis

A

Stakeholder analysis

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38
Q

Managing project stakeholders is crucial to the success of any project. Which of the following types of stakeholders should be given due consideration during the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process in order to minimize risks to the project?

Resistant stakeholders
Neutral stakeholders
Supportive stakeholders
Leading stakeholders

A

Resistant stakeholders

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39
Q

Jim is currently carrying out the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. During the exercise, he feels the need to update the project schedule. The draft version of the project management plan is ready but has not been approved as yet. How should Jim update the project schedule?

Jim can directly update the project schedule as the project management plan has not been approved as yet.
Jim can update the project schedule through a change request.
Jim should complete the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process and start the Control Schedule process to incorporate desired changes at this stage.
Jim cannot update the project schedule at this stage.

A

Jim can directly update the project schedule as the project management plan has not been approved as yet.

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40
Q

Which of the following stakeholder management processes focuses on the development of stakeholder management and engagement strategies?

Identify Stakeholders
Plan Stakeholder Engagement
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

A

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

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41
Q

Inputs to Plan Stakeholder Management include:

Issue log
Pareto charts
change requests
Schedules, variances, and evaluation procedures.

A

Issue log

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42
Q

Pressure-based power

uses flattery
uses monetary rewards
uses charm
limits freedom of choice

A

limits freedom of choice

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43
Q

The ability to apply appropriate behavior and etiquette is an example of what personality trait?

Courteous
Creative
Service-oriented
Social

A

Courteous

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44
Q

Integration is performed

at the process level
at the cognitive level
at the context level
all of the above

A

all of the above

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45
Q

Changes would be requested during the ______ process of Integration Management

management plan
integrated plan control
direct and manage project work
scope development

A

direct and manage project work

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46
Q

________ any and all process-related assets, from all organizations involved in a project, that may be used to influence the project’s outcome

The project scope is
Stakeholder risks are
Organizational process assets are
The organizational breakdown includes

A

Organizational process assets are

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47
Q

What type of enterprise environmental factors influence project charter development?

government standards
industry standards
marketplace conditions
all of the above

A

all of the above

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48
Q

What is the “SOW”?

Strategic Operations of Work.
Stakeholders and Organization Objectives.
Statement of Work.
Strategic Organizational Work-items.

A

Statement of Work.

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49
Q

A business case can be created as a result of:

market demand
technological advance
legal requirement
all of the above

A

all of the above

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50
Q

Project charter development involves documenting

tools and techniques needed to execute and complete project tasks.
the business needs.
projects cost analyses.
quality and risk control processes.

A

the business needs.

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51
Q

When should the project manager be assigned to the project?

After planning.
During concept development.
After the project charter is developed.
Before planning is begun.

A

Before planning is begun.

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52
Q

The project charter should either directly or indirectly address

the contract.
the summary milestone schedule.
internal risks.
all of the above

A

the summary milestone schedule.

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53
Q

A contract is an input to developing the Project Charter if:

the work is being done for an external customer.
the organization mandates one.
stakeholders require one.
All of the above

A

the work is being done for an external customer.

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54
Q

Conflict management and facilitation are examples of

data gathering
rigid management
assumptions
interpersonal and team skills

A

interpersonal and team skills

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55
Q

Who usually charters and authorizes a project?

The board of directors.
The project manager.
An external sponsor.
The project owner.

A

An external sponsor.

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56
Q

An emerging trend in project integration management is

the use of portfolio review boards
the use of visual management tools
hierarchical alignment
segregated alignment

A

the use of visual management tools

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57
Q

_______ a project links the project to the ongoing work of the organization

Assigning
Planning
Sponsoring
Chartering

A

Chartering

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58
Q

A project may be authorized by:

sponsor
PMO
portfolio steering committee
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

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59
Q

A data gathering technique used in project charter development is

brainstorming
focus groups
interviews
all of the above

A

all of the above

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60
Q

What document formally authorizes the project?

Project charter.
SOW.
Project Scope Statement.
WBS.

A

Project charter.

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61
Q

The SOW is a part of the ______________ when it is received for external projects.

Business need
Product scope
Strategic plan
request for proposal or other bid documents

A

request for proposal or other bid documents

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62
Q

The Project Charter gives the project manager authority

to direct the stakeholders.
To plan project activities.
To apply organizational resources.
All of the above

A

To apply organizational resources.

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63
Q

The SOW references

business need
project stakeholders
tactical approach
merger expansion

A

business need

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64
Q

An automaker building more fuel-efficient cars due to gas shortages is an example of what type of business case?

organizational need
customer request
market demand
ecological impacts

A

market demand

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65
Q

The project manager uses _____ to control scope.

activity attributes
organizational process history
variance analysis
procurement documents

A

variance analysis

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66
Q

Which organizational process assets effect how project scope is controlled?

Formal and informal policies and procedures.
Risk management deficiencies.
Conditions and standard specifications.
The project charter and the WBS.

A

Formal and informal policies and procedures.

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67
Q

_____________ describes how the project scope will be managed and controlled.

The product management plan
The WBS dictionary
The project scope statement
The project scope management plan

A

The project scope management plan

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68
Q

Tools and techniques used Manage Stakeholder Engagement include

Issue log
Negotiation
Change log
Lessons learned register

A

Negotiation

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69
Q

Analysis of project performance can result in

change requests
re-definition
bid requests
requests for proposal

A

change requests

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70
Q

Who is responsible for performing and preparing the analyses necessary to define the scope and generate project scope output?

The project manager.
The management team.
Stakeholders.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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71
Q

Decomposition applied to activity definition involves subdividing project work packages into

subsets.
units.
modules.
activities.

A

activities.

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72
Q

Sequence activity outputs include updating the following project documents

activity list
activity attributes
assumption log
all of the above

A

all of the above

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73
Q

The schedule model is also referred to as the

durations
dependencies
other planning information
all of the above

A

all of the above

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74
Q

Schedule activities are logically sequenced using

PDM
PMD
RDM
ADT

A

PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method)

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75
Q

The activity list provides the project team members

a detailed description of the work to be completed
overlapping application areas
dependencies among schedule activities
activity risks

A

a detailed description of the work to be completed

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76
Q

What distinguishes schedule activities from other milestones or deliverables?

They are ongoing.
They have an estimated duration and cost.
They measure schedule performance.
They involve software, which is used in conjunction with manual methods to perform schedule networks.

A

They have an estimated duration and cost.

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77
Q

A mandatory milestone is one that

is based on project requirements.
is based on historical information.
is required by the contract.
is used in the cost schedule.

A

is required by the contract.

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78
Q

Project schedule management processes include:

define activities
sequence activities
estimate activity durations
all of the above

A

all of the above

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79
Q

Which diagramming method uses four types of dependencies?

schedule network diagram template (SNT)
arrow diagramming method (ADM)
precedence diagramming method (PDM)
dependency diagramming network (DDN)

A

precedence diagramming method (PDM)

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80
Q

What impact does the project scope statement have on activity sequencing?

Product cost can add constraints.
Product characteristics can affect activity sequencing.
Imposed time can affect sequencing sub-activities.
Project risks can require more logical relationships.

A

Product characteristics can affect activity sequencing.

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81
Q

Activity attributes for each schedule activity can include the

time lag.
resource requirements.
person responsible for executing the work.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

82
Q

What is a “precedence relationship?

A dependency.
The interaction that determines the logical successor activity.
The end result of the schedule network.
The result of a logical relationship.

A

A dependency.

83
Q

The activity list includes the activity identifier and scope of work for each schedule activity. _______ is/are an example of the schedule activity’s scope of work.

In accordance with r905.82 of Residential Code, 2006.
Sheets 7 and 8 of 14
274 cy 2000psi concrete
All of the above

A

All of the above

84
Q

What input is required to develop activity sequencing?

Activity attributes.
Work performance information.
Deliverables.
Schedule network templates.

A

Activity attributes.

85
Q

What process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationship among schedule activities?

Precedence.
Dependency scheduling.
Activity sequencing.
Activity resource estimating.

A

Activity sequencing.

86
Q

Inputs to estimate activity durations include

activity charter
resource histogram
activity attributes
project document updates

A

activity attributes

87
Q

Progressive elaboration planning, where short-term work is planned in detail and future work is planned as the project progresses, is

schedule control.
rolling wave planning.
scope planning.
progressive term planning.

A

rolling wave planning.

88
Q

Activity attributes are used

To ensure project accuracy.
To establish risk milestones.
To develop the project schedule.
To decide begin and end project dates.

A

To develop the project schedule.

89
Q

The most common constraint for many projects is

Technical issues.
Reliable, historical, documented performance.
A limited project budget.
Legal implications.

A

A limited project budget.

90
Q

The supporting documentation necessary to support the schedule cost estimate includes

Documented constraints.
Documented allowances, reserves, and contingencies.
Documented risks.
Documented retainage.

A

Documented constraints.

91
Q

Budgeting inputs include formal periodic limitations of project funds expenditures that are contained in project charters or contracts. These constraints are part of the budget which is provided by the

Project schedule
Activity cost estimate
Project Scope Baseline
Risk Register

A

Project Scope Baseline

92
Q

Contingency reserves are

Funds used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with unknowns related to the project scope.
Estimated costs allocated by contractors in the event they overrun the project budget.
Estimated costs the contractor holds in reserve to pay for project delays.
A project buffer dedicated for litigations.

A

Funds used at the discretion of the project manager to deal with unknowns related to the project scope.

93
Q

Cost budgeting involves

Identification of various costing alternatives.
Aggregating estimated costs of work packages for a cost baseline.
Monitoring impacts to cost and managing changes.
Estimating how to obtain the most productivity for the least capital outlay.

A

Aggregating estimated costs of work packages for a cost baseline.

94
Q

______ involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or schedule activities with the lowest level of detail.

Vendor bid analysis.
Reserve analysis.
Bottom-up estimating.
Monte Carlo analysis.

A

Bottom-up estimating.

95
Q

________ cost estimating uses expert judgment, is less costly than other cost estimating techniques, and is frequently used to estimate costs when there is a limited amount of detailed information about a project.

Attribute
Analogous
Bottom-up
Parametric

A

Analogous

96
Q

A quantitative assessment of likely costs of all resources required to complete schedule activities is

Cost budgeting
Cost management
The cost estimate
The cost aggregate

A

The cost estimate

97
Q

Inputs to estimate costs include all of the following EXCEPT

code of conduct
project management plan
risk register
project schedule

A

code of conduct

98
Q

The cost estimating technique that produces a higher degree of accuracy using a statistical relationship between historical data and the targeted variable, is

performing a vendor bid analysis.
reserve analysis.
parametric cost estimating.
resource costing.

A

parametric cost estimating.

99
Q

Tools for estimating costs include

bottom-down estimating
top-up estimating
bottom-up estimating
risk factors

A

bottom-up estimating

100
Q

The project estimator determines resource cost rates, such as the unit cost price for topsoil purchased by the cubic yard by

requesting and comparing price quotes.
obtaining data from commercial databases.
obtaining data from published seller price lists.
Any of the above.

A

Any of the above.

101
Q

______ are budgets that are not included in the project cost baseline, but are included in the budget for unplanned changes to the project scope and cost

Management reserves
Parametric reserves
Cost aggregation allowances
Funding reconciliation accounts

A

Management reserves

102
Q

A general cost estimating rule is: When the project experiences a negative risk event, the cost of the project will almost always

require the schedule be expedited.
decrease and delay the schedule.
increase and delay the schedule.
increase which will require project or phase replanning.

A

increase and delay the schedule.

103
Q

Parametric models are mathematical models used to predict total project costs. They are simple, and most reliable when

only current information is used to develop the model.
funds expenditures can be reconciled.
the model is scalable.
the model is specific and used for small projects.

A

the model is scalable.

104
Q

Schedule activity duration estimates affect cost estimates that use resources such as

materials not prone to seasonal price variations.
fixed overhead allowances.
union labor.
staff and regular employees.

A

union labor.

105
Q

Reworking products, components, or processes that are non-conforming, incur

performance costs.
failure costs.
conformance costs.
costs-plus.

A

failure costs.

106
Q

Important project aspects that both quality management and project management recognize and address in their processes include

Customer inclusion.
Defect prevention.
The plan-do-act-cycle.
All of the above.

A

Defect prevention.

107
Q

______ is correctness that the measured value is very close to the true value

Specification
Accuracy
Compliance
Conformity

A

Accuracy

108
Q

Level of precision is

An accurate measurement.
The degree to which values will be rounded up or down.
Consistency in measured values.
A defect-free appraisal.

A

The degree to which values will be rounded up or down.

109
Q

To meet both quality management and project management and customer satisfaction requirements

The product must produce what is expected.
The product or service must satisfy the customers’ real needs.
Expectations must be defined and managed.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

110
Q

Which of the following creates the most problems during project progress?

High grade and low quality.
Low grade.
Low expectation.
Low project quality.

A

Low project quality.

111
Q

Tools for Plan Quality Management include:

Cost-benefit analysis
Cost of quality
Control charts
All of the above

A

All of the above

112
Q

A fundamental principle of modern quality management is

quality is designed-in, not planned-in.
quality is built-in, not inspected-in.
quality is inspected-in, not designed-in.
quality is planned-, designed-, and inspected-in.

A

quality is built-in, not inspected-in.

113
Q

The basis for quality improvement is

Plan-do-check-act cycle.
TQM
Six Sigma
COQ

A

Plan-do-check-act cycle.

114
Q

Plan Quality Management is performed

during activity resource estimating.
as part of the project development process.
in parallel with other planning processes.
after quality controls are in place.

A

in parallel with other planning processes.

115
Q

An example of a prevention cost is:

Safety.
Warranty work.
Training.
Unauthorized changes.

A

Training.

116
Q

The “cost of quality” is

The cost to fix defects.
The total cost of all quality-related efforts.
The total cost of requested project changes and corrections.
The cost of inspection resources.

A

The total cost of requested project changes and corrections.

117
Q

______ involves identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and deciding how to satisfy them.

Plan Quality Management
Quality control
Quality planning
Quality management

A

Plan Quality Management

118
Q

Enterprise environmental factors that are inputs into quality management include

Organizational policies, procedures, and guidelines.
Lessons learned and knowledge base.
Quality metrics and organizational assets.
government agency regulations.

A

government agency regulations.

119
Q

______ reveal mistakes that cost less to prevent than to fix

Project reviews
Inspections
Progress reports
Performance reports

A

Inspections

120
Q

______ should be implemented when a team member does not possess necessary skill and capacity required to complete project activities.

Training
Scope changes
Schedule changes
Any of the above.

A

Any of the above.

121
Q

Tools and techniques used in acquiring resources include:

post assignment.
confrontation.
negotiation.
risk management.

A

negotiation.

122
Q

Interpersonal and team skills used in team management include all except

synergy management
conflict management
decision making
emotional intelligence

A

synergy management

123
Q

Team ground rules, emotional intelligence, and influence are

seldom used
risky
tools
part of future planning

A

tools

124
Q

________ is providing a reason for someone to act.

Feedback
Motivation
Team building
Communication

A

Motivation

125
Q

When addressing authority roles and responsibilities and selecting individuals, it is advisable to remember that team members operate best when

they are familiar with, and implement MBO techniques.
their individual responsibilities match individual levels of authority.
they operate in a proactive environment.
they can create proactive and positive environments for subordinates.

A

their individual responsibilities match individual levels of authority.

126
Q

When listing human resources roles and responsibilities needed to complete the project the following should be addressed:

Alliances.
Working relationships.
Minority status or special considerations.
Role clarity and boundaries.

A

Role clarity and boundaries.

127
Q

_______ provides information about the way teams and organizational units react and behave

Project organization
Organizational behavior
Organizational theory
Organizational process

A

Organizational theory

128
Q

Tools used in estimate activity resources include

top-down estimating
synergistic estimating
analogous estimating
release criteria

A

analogous estimating

129
Q

The traditional ______ -type organizational chart shows positions and relationships in a top-down format

matrix
hierarchical.
text-oriented
flowchart

A

hierarchical.

130
Q

A project organization chart graphically displays

Risk and quality assurance activities.
Project networks and activities.
Required work and team members.
Project team members and their reporting relationships.

A

Project team members and their reporting relationships.

131
Q

Resource breakdown structure hierarchical charts are used to break down the project by

responsibilities.
routines.
resources.
risks.

A

resources.

132
Q

Resource requirements are used

To determine human resource needs.
To schedule human resources.
To monitor human resource activities.
To determine training needs.

A

To determine human resource needs.

133
Q

Hierarchical type charts that show how project deliverables are divided into work packages, and which show high-levels of responsibility, are

WBS
OBS
RBS
BBS

A

WBS (Work Breakdown Structure)

134
Q

Matrix-based, RAM charts show relationships between

roles, responsibility, and authority for projects.
risk and quality planning activities.
project networks and activities.
required work and team members.

A

required work and team members.

135
Q

Team member responsibilities that require detailed descriptions are specified in _______ formats

matrix
hierarchical
text-oriented
flowchart

A

text-oriented

136
Q

What organizational breakdown chart would best display an organization’s existing departments, units, or teams?

WBS
OBS
RBS
BBS

A

OBS (Organizational

Breakdown Structure)

137
Q

A “role” designates what portion on the project a person is accountable for. Project roles should be ______ to help ensure project success

clear concerning authority, responsibilities and boundaries
assigned and closely monitored
commensurate with education and experience
broad-based

A

clear concerning authority, responsibilities and boundaries

138
Q

understand their roles and responsibilities

Matrix templates
Networks
Organizational charts
Schedules of work

A

Organizational charts

139
Q

The ______ is an indication of the complexity of the project’s communications, and should be considered by the project manager during the communications requirements analysis.

critical path
number of potential channels
number of communications conduits
communication capabilities and path direction

A

number of potential channels

140
Q

_____interferes or impairs understanding

Channels
Feedback
Encoding
Noise

A

Noise

141
Q

Decoding is

inputting information.
muting noise and interference.
conveying the information.
translating the message back into thoughts and ideas.

A

translating the message back into thoughts and ideas.

142
Q

What is the action taken by the receiver that indicates the message has been decoded, understood, and is being replied to by the receiver?

Reply.
Acknowledgement.
Response.
Receipt.

A

Response.

143
Q

What is the method used to convey the message?

Feedback.
Channel.
Medium.
Messenger.

A

Medium.

144
Q

_______ means the receiver signals receipt of the message but is not necessarily in agreement with the message

Acknowledgement
Reply
Acceptance
Receipt

A

Acknowledgement

145
Q

Interactive communication, push communication, and pull communication are examples of

communication duration
communication environment
communication methods
virtual teams

A

communication methods

146
Q

As the project manager, you are expected to ensure no security breaches occur during or after the system upgrade. This imposes _____ on the project.

best practice policy
a constraint
a contingency
an assumption

A

a constraint

147
Q

Jane was managing an IS project in a foreign country. In conversation, she was informed by an expatriate from a different firm that the only way to get things done in one’s project is to pay tips to the government officials when they came around. Jane should

refuse to pay the tips because they are a bribe.
pay the tips so the officials do not potentially delay her project.
convince her company why she needed an allowance to pay the tips to the officials.
negotiate providing tokens and small gifts for the officials and their families rather than paying them cash.

A

refuse to pay the tips because they are a bribe.

148
Q

Joe, a purchasing agent for XYZ Corporation, owns substantial stock in Papyrus Paper Company. Although there are several other suppliers who offer supplies at a lower cost, Joe orders through one of Papyrus’ local affiliates. Can Joe be accused of any ethical infraction?

No.
No, because Joe is not in an executive position with XYZ Corporation.
Yes, it is a conflict of interest.
Yes, he should always seek out the best prices for his company.

A

Yes, it is a conflict of interest.

149
Q

Bruce worked for seven years with the Cutting-Edge Technology firm. When he left for a better opportunity with the firm’s competitor, Bruce was a senior designer. Bruce took his innovative practices and expertise with him when he left to become a project manager. Within weeks, Bruce’s senior manager took Bruce to lunch, to welcome him to the team and ask him about his last employer’s R&D, designs-on-the-board, and what makes Cutting-Edge, cutting edge. How should Bruce respond to his new boss’ questions?

He should avoid discussing his past employer’s proprietary secrets.
To ensure Bruce keeps his current job, he should tell his boss whatever the boss wants to know.
He should not tell the boss the truth about his former employer and its workings and practices.
Bruce should inform his boss about the privacy agreement he signed with his former employer promising not to share their trade secrets.

A

Bruce should inform his boss about the privacy agreement he signed with his former employer promising not to share their trade secrets.

150
Q

What creates or causes barriers to effective communication?

Hidden agendas.
One-way communication channels.
Words and noise.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

151
Q

Jack recently assumed the project manager responsibilities from another person. When he reviewed the project costs, he found there was a 100,000 payment made that was disputable, and perhaps should not have been made. He also sees that the CPI is 1.25, so he

ignores the issue, since the amount is small enough compared to the total project value.
rationalizes that the cost is small enough to be hidden in contingency.
informs his superior, and begins to investigate the issue further.
begins documentation to rescind the payment.

A

informs his superior, and begins to investigate the issue further.

152
Q

Sue knows her supervisor occasionally takes cocaine during his break at work. She confronted him and he told her he sometimes he needed to “get his engine going” in the mornings or a “pick me up” in late afternoon so he could finish the day on a high note. Should Sue tell her supervisor’s boss, since it is obvious he has no intention of refraining from such activity?

No, it is none of Sue’s business.
No, Sue is a subordinate and has no authority to question his actions.
Sue should not, since the supervisor can have her fired or transferred.
Yes, cocaine is illegal and the firm has additional policies regarding substance abuse.

A

Yes, cocaine is illegal and the firm has additional policies regarding substance abuse.

153
Q

The government contract insists all equipment be made in the U.S.A. Tim observes a senior member of his team replacing a foreign logo on one of the pieces of equipment with a company insignia. Tim should

Immediately report his senior team member to government authorities.
Ignore the issue since the perpetrator is part of his team and has seniority over him.
Discuss what he observed with the project manager.
Confront his senior team member who could get Tim removed from the project.

A

Discuss what he observed with the project manager.

154
Q

Project team members may become stagnant as a result of ________, which stems from preconceived conformity, contributing to low confidence, and trust levels.

withdrawal mode
groupthink
social loafing
a self-serving bias

A

groupthink

155
Q

Jim’s construction company has gotten legal approval for constructing a portion of a new arterial across a portion of a wetlands area. However, an environmental group and local community are, loudly, raising concerns regarding the potential environmental impact to the area and plant and wildlife species. As the project manager, Jim must

try to find an equitable resolution between the various stakeholders.
communicate what is happening on-site to upper management and let them take legal action to restrain the protestors.
direct the crew to proceed since the contract is signed and all legal approval has been given.
reassure the environmental group and community that the project is in their best interest.

A

try to find an equitable resolution between the various stakeholders.

156
Q

_______ noise is sound and dialogue that hampers hearing what is said, and _______ noise may be the receiver’s thoughts, feelings, emotions, the situation, or self-concept

Channel; medium
External; internal
Sender; receiver
Internal; external

A

External; internal

157
Q

Which of the following is NOT a communication channel?

FED EX and UPS.
Inter-office runner.
on-location and remote printers.
Requested changes.

A

Requested changes.

158
Q

Project managers can control groupthink by maintaining a _______ environment

positive
productive
proactive
all of the above

A

all of the above

159
Q

______ is the employee’s act of informing the public about an employee’s or organization’s illegal or immoral behavior

A third-party responsibility
Informing
Whistleblowing
Social responsibility

A

Whistleblowing

160
Q

What is the project manager’s role regarding conflict resolution?

To mediate or referee the conflict.
To resolve the conflict.
To find alternatives and present ultimatums.
None of these.

A

To mediate or referee the conflict.

161
Q

A manager receives a call from another department head asking for a recommendation for one of his top-producing employees. The manger was unaware the employee put in a transfer request, which would mean a slight promotion in responsibilities and pay, if the transfer is confirmed. If the employee gets transferred it will significantly impact the manager’s current project. What should the manager do?

Refuse to give the recommendation.
Give a bad recommendation to negate or delay the employee’s transfer.
Give the recommendation and if the employee if offered the transfer position, request the employee prepare a transfer plan.
Give the recommendation and begin interviewing candidates to replace the employee after he leaves.

A

Give the recommendation and if the employee if offered the transfer position, request the employee prepare a transfer plan.

162
Q

In exchange for providing a prime location and visibility to display a new line of sporting equipment, the company gives the retailer’s children a week of summer sports camp. What is wrong with this?

It is a bribe.
It is a gratuity.
It is a kickback.
It is good business.

A

It is a bribe.

163
Q

What benefit are the lessons learned and historical information inputs to the plan communications process?

They provide ongoing data.
They provide decisions and results based on previous similar projects.
They provide standards concerning communications.
They provide information that identifies the informational needs of the stakeholders.

A

They provide decisions and results based on previous similar projects.

164
Q

Aside from stakeholder number and information, what other information is necessary to effectively determine project communications requirements

Organizational charts.
Logistics.
Department specialties.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

165
Q

A key component of planning the project communications is to

Limit who will communicate with whom.
Limit the number of project team members.
Always centrally locate team members and use virtual teams as a last resort.
Limit the amount of information disseminated to stakeholders.

A

Limit who will communicate with whom.

166
Q

Determine the total number of potential communication channels on a project that has 18 stakeholders. (Hint: n(n-1) / 2, where n = the number of stakeholders)

18
53
153
306

A

153

167
Q

Plan communications tools include:

project schedule
communications agreement plan
communications technology
project management plan

A

communications technology

168
Q

Inputs to identify stakeholders include

benefits management plan
program charter
enterprise process assets
all of the above

A

benefits management plan

169
Q

What overshadows project development and the organization’s and management’s accuracy, perception, and response to risk?

Time.
Attitude.
Budget.
Available resources.

A

Attitude.

170
Q

Communication about risk and its handling should be

formal and informal.
controlled by the project manager.
honest and open.
far-reaching and always include all stakeholders and participants.

A

honest and open.

171
Q

It is important for the organization to develop a _______ to meet requirements for each project.

project need
systematic risk schedule
consistent approach to risk
risk management commitment

A

consistent approach to risk

172
Q

Risk management ______ the process of deciding how to approach and conduct risk management activities for the project.

preparation is
planning is
preparedness is
definition techniques are

A

planning is

173
Q

The risk management plan includes all except

Risk strategy
Logging
Funding
Timing

A

Logging

174
Q

Risk attitudes and tolerances are

included in the project charter
enterprise environmental factors
reliant on fishbone diagrams
none of the above

A

enterprise environmental factors

175
Q

The Plan Risk Management process should be completed _____ since other processes depend on it.

early in the project
before risk analysis begins
before the project charter is developed.
during the monitor and control phase.

A

early in the project

176
Q

The summary of _____ are outputs in the risk management plan.

risk type, probability, and impact
budget and schedule risks
HR impacts
resource risks

A

risk type, probability, and impact

177
Q

The part in the risk management plan that defines when and how often the risk management process will be performed through the project is/are:

Risk categories.
Timing.
Methodology.
Roles and responsibilities.

A

Timing.

178
Q

Typical attendees for project team planning meetings to develop the risk management plan include

The project manager
Selected team members
Stakeholders
all of the above

A

all of the above

179
Q

_______ are included in the risk management plan

Risk identification and categories
Methodology, timing, and risk categories
Risk budgeting and mitigation plans
Roles, responsibilities, and the risk register

A

Methodology, timing, and risk categories

180
Q

Risk responses should characteristically

balance avoidance and risk-taking.
be managed top-down.
address the immediate needs of the stakeholders.
be suited to the nature of the project.

A

balance avoidance and risk-taking.

181
Q

Predefined approaches to risk management that organizations generally have are

Specific and unique to the project, definitions of terms.
Project scope risk activities.
Decision-making authority levels.
Planned mediation and evaluation meetings.

A

Decision-making authority levels.

182
Q

Items that are defined in the risk management plan include

Risk responsibilities.
Basic plans for conducting risk management activities.
risk management team members
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

183
Q

The Plan Risk Management process helps ensure

Sufficient resources for risk management activities.
Sufficient time for risk management activities during the project.
Risk management levels correspond with the type of project risk.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

184
Q

Approaches, tools, and data sources used to perform project risk management are included in the risk management plan

risk categories.
documentation.
methodology.
roles and responsibilities.

A

methodology.

185
Q

Enterprise Environmental Factors that are inputs into the Plan Procurement Management process include

marketplace conditions.
crime rate.
make-or-buy risks.
procurement policies and guidelines.

A

marketplace conditions.

186
Q

The project schedule, stakeholder register, and risk register are

plan procurement management outputs.
risks to procurement.
plan procurement management inputs.
procurement activities, resource requirements, and cost estimates.

A

plan procurement management inputs.

187
Q

Requirements, and contractual and legal boundaries constricting buyers’ and sellers’ options include

health and safety requirements.
performance and intellectual property rights.
licenses and permits.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

188
Q

Inputs contributing to the Plan Procurement Management process include

stakeholder needs
scope management plan
communication channels
decoding

A

scope management plan

189
Q

_______ are insurance and services documents prepared to specify each party’s responsibility for specific risks

Risk baselines
Risk responses
Risk-related contractual agreements
Risk activity resource agreements

A

Risk-related contractual agreements

190
Q

The ______ technique is used to determine if a particular product or service can be produced by the project team or can be purchased

fixed price
make-or-buy management
leveraged buy analysis
make-or-break

A

make-or-buy management

191
Q

Regarding project risk, the plan procurement management process includes

prioritizing potential risks and using expert judgment to monitor and control them.
reviewing make-or-buy decision risks.
transferring risks to the buyer.
integrating quality control and risk management into the process.

A

reviewing make-or-buy decision risks.

192
Q

What Plan Procurement Management information is contained in the project scope statement?

make-or-buy criteria.
list of deliverables
marketplace constraints and decisions.
resources and supply chains.

A

list of deliverables

193
Q

Scope statement constraints with regard to procurement include all of the following except:

risk register.
available and skilled resources.
delivery dates.
organizational policies.

A

risk register.

194
Q

The Plan Procurement Management project management plan component that identifies risks, risk owners, and risk responses is/are the:

risk register.
Risk-related responses.
Risk-related contractual agreements.
Risk activity resource requirements.

A

risk register.

195
Q

Plan Procurement Management includes

developing resale documents.
using information technology.
modifying the project charter and cost baseline.
examining potential sellers.

A

examining potential sellers.

196
Q

Limitations the project team may encounter due to existing procurement-related policies, procedures, guidelines, and management systems of the performing organization are

Availability of funds.
restrictions on deliveries, such as types and times.
Requirements that purchases above certain value use a longer form of contract rather than simple purchase orders.
Safety and/or insurance requirements for purchases.

A

Requirements that purchases above certain value use a longer form of contract rather than simple purchase orders.

197
Q

If the performing organization does not have a formal purchasing group the project team can

modify contract requirements.
supply resources and expertise to perform procuring activities.
develop a multi-tier pre-approved supplier list and system.
allocate extra funding to develop a contracting group.

A

supply resources and expertise to perform procuring activities.

198
Q

An organization uses_______________ to reduce the number of direct sellers to the organization and establish an extended supply chain

Lists of deliveries and acceptance criteria.
Activity, cost, and contract baselines.
A buyer’s right of refusal.
A multi-tier supplier system of pre-qualified sellers.

A

A multi-tier supplier system of pre-qualified sellers.

199
Q

If the buyer wants to exercise some degree of influence or control over contracting decisions, they should consider

the risks involved in make-or-break project decisions.
introducing change requests and implementing changes.
who is responsible for relevant and required permits and professional licenses.
suggesting cost baseline modifications.

A

who is responsible for relevant and required permits and professional licenses.

200
Q

On a different project, Jack finds he has a limited budget, and a project CPI of 0.8. He should

remove non-critical items from the project schedule.
determine ways to reduce project costs.
crash the project if possible, with the intent of reducing costs by decreasing the project schedule.
negotiate a tradeoff with the supplier, requesting a lower price per unit for slightly lower quality items.

A

determine ways to reduce project costs.