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PMP - Study Guide > Planning Test 3 > Flashcards

Planning Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Decomposition includes

validating the RBS
structuring the WBS
Recomposing the WBS
all of the above

A

structuring the WBS

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2
Q

________ is a controlled application aimed at finding and eliminating unnecessary costs within a project.

Quality control
Auditing
Value engineering
Budget identification

A

Value engineering

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3
Q

Replanning involves

modifying the WBS and WBS dictionary.
updating components of the project management plan.
revising the project scope statement.
all of the above.

A

modifying the WBS and WBS dictionary.
updating components of the project management plan.
revising the project scope statement.
all of the above.

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4
Q

A Gantt chart is:

seldom used.
only used when the project is behind schedule.
a graphic display of schedule-related information.
a textual display of schedule-related information.

A

a graphic display of schedule-related information.

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5
Q

The project team uses the _______ analysis to compare different scenarios, such as, delaying a major component delivery or introducing external forces.

what-if scenario
critical path method
critical chain
resource leveling

A

what-if scenario

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6
Q

The parametric estimating formula the project management team uses to calculate activity durations is:

The quantity of work to be performed multiplied by the productivity rate.
The total resource quantities multiplied by the labor hours per work period.
The production capability per work period, divided by the quantity of those resources applied.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

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7
Q

Project teams can choose to incorporate additional time into the project schedule. These additions are referred to as

buffers.
contingencies.
reserves.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

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8
Q

What Estimate Activity Duration tool is used to estimate activity durations as accurately as possible?

Expert judgment and prior project activity durations.
Historical information and recommended maximum activity durations from similar past projects.
Past duration estimate information.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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9
Q

The type of estimate that three-point estimates are based on is:

most likely
optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely
least likely
definitive

A

optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely

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10
Q

Tailoring considerations in schedule management include

life cycle approach
resource availability
technology support
all of the above

A

all of the above

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11
Q

The contingency reserve is:

Budget, labor, or funds added to the project estimate.
Time added to the estimate in place of funds.
Time and labor added to offset project risk.
A percentage of estimated activity duration.

A

A percentage of estimated activity duration.

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12
Q

Activity duration estimates that consider the amount of relative risk involved in the original estimate are:

milestone estimates.
panoramic estimates.
three-point estimates.
dynamic estimates.

A

three-point estimates.

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13
Q

A ______ is a graphical representation of the project schedule that shows the planned start- and end-dates, and actual progress for a variety of project tasks using horizontal lines, or bars.

milestone chart
CPM
bar chart
network diagram

A

bar chart

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14
Q

_______ is an iterative process that helps determine planned project start- and end-dates.

Project development
Schedule development
Schedule management
Scope management

A

Schedule development

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15
Q

The _______ scheduling technique is designed to control project time and cost using estimated activity time.

schedule compression
critical path method
critical chain method
resource leveling

A

critical path method

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16
Q

Estimating the basis for activity durations quantitatively is

optimistic analysis.
three-point estimating.
parametric estimating.
analogous estimating.

A

parametric estimating.

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17
Q

Analogous estimating is based on

Similar past schedule activity.
The resource calendar.
The particular project baseline.
Activity lists.

A

Similar past schedule activity.

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18
Q

From a Gantt (bar) Chart, if project TASK A begins on Tue, March 6 and takes 14 working days to complete, TASK B begins on Thur, March 8 and takes 12 working days to complete and TASK C begins on Fri, March 9 and takes 15 days to complete but only 11 total working days to complete, which project task is the last to complete on the project schedule? (HINT: Working days run Monday - Friday).

Task A.
Task C.
Task A & B complete at the same time.
All tasks complete at the same time.

A

All tasks complete at the same time.

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19
Q

Tools used in schedule development include:

critical path method
gannt method
resource insertion
none of the above

A

critical path method

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20
Q

______ exclusively identifies the scheduled start or completions of major deliverables and key external interfaces.

A milestone chart
CPM
A bar chart
A network diagram

A

A milestone chart

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21
Q

______ estimating is used to determine activity durations when there is limited detailed project information.

Reserve analysis
Attribute
Analogous
Activity resource

A

Analogous

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22
Q

_______ is a scheduling technique that employs a scheduling model and generates the project schedule

Schedule network analysis
Schedule compression
Resource leveling
Milestone scheduling

A

Schedule network analysis

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23
Q

The benefit of performing Qualitative Risk Analysis is:

once performed, there is no need to repeat the process.
It provides a good foundation for updating the impact matrix.
It is a quick and cost-effective means of prioritizing.
It provides a risk urgency assessment.

A

It is a quick and cost-effective means of prioritizing.

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24
Q

_______ uses Monte Carlo simulation and decision tree analysis to analyze the effects of prioritized risk events.

Qualitative risk analysis
Quantitative risk analysis
Risk response planning
Risk monitoring and control

A

Quantitative risk analysis

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25
Q

Non-event risks are an example of

tailoring considerations for risk management
agile adaptations for risk
trends in project risk management
histograms

A

trends in project risk management

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26
Q

The data gathering and representation interviewing technique used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives uses information that depends on

optimistic scenarios.
pessimistic scenarios.
the type of probability distributions that will be used.
means and standard deviations.

A

the type of probability distributions that will be used.

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27
Q

The _______ investigates the potential positive as well as negative effects on a project objective such as time, cost, scope or quality.

probability distribution
risk impact assessment
probability and impact matrix
risk data quality assessment

A

risk impact assessment

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28
Q

Each risk is evaluated for its importance and priority for attention by looking it up on the

probability distribution.
risk data quality assessment.
probability and impact matrix.
risk impact assessment

A

probability and impact matrix.

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29
Q

The _______ requires unbiased and accurate data. The analysis of data involves examining the accuracy, quality, reliability, and integrity of the risk data.

risk categorization analysis
risk impact assessment
risk urgency assessment
risk data quality assessment

A

risk data quality assessment

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30
Q

Inputs that are included in the risk management plan for qualitative risk analysis include:

Stakeholders’ risk tolerances
Root causes of risk.
List of potential responses and who performs them.
Updated risk categories.

A

Stakeholders’ risk tolerances

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31
Q

An example of an “identified” risk is:

An employee central to the project having an accident.
Industrial relations disputes at the ports that delay delivery.
The boom of a crane collapses, shutting down the project.
Unseasonal weather causes damaging winds and flooding that impacts the project site.

A

Industrial relations disputes at the ports that delay delivery.

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32
Q

Criteria used in Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis includes:

Occurrence probability.
The impact of risks on project objectives.
Risk tolerance of the project constraints.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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33
Q

The project manager can determine the degree of uncertainty by examining the project scope statement. Projects _____ have more uncertainty.

of a common type
using state-of-the-art technology
of a recurrent type
with a similar history as past projects

A

using state-of-the-art technology

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34
Q

_____ of risk are those fundamental conditions that give rise to an identified risk.

Root causes
Potential effects
Known developments
Categories

A

Root causes

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35
Q

Qualitative risk analysis includes methods that

define responses for identified risks.
process the potential risk impact to the project objectives.
define root causes for risks.
prioritize identified risks.

A

prioritize identified risks.

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36
Q

Perform Qualitative Risk analysis involves:

Defining relative contributions as well as impacts to the overall project
Defining levels of probability and impact.
Determining that costs, schedules, and scope are realistic.
Review of the importance of a risk to be certain it isn’t over-magnified.

A

Defining levels of probability and impact.

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37
Q

The _______ investigates the likelihood each specific risk will occur.

risk probability assessment
risk register
probability and impact matrix
risk quality assessment

A

risk probability assessment

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38
Q

The Risk Register contains:

Root causes of risk.
List of potential responses.
Updated risk categories.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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39
Q

Tailoring considerations for procurement management include

Simplicity of the transaction
Schedule baseline
pareto charts
Physical location

A

Physical location

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40
Q

Tools used in Plan Procurements include:

make-or-buy
expert judgment
source selection analysis
all of the above

A

all of the above

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41
Q

What information is included in a procurement document?

Competitors.
Proprietary rights.
Contract SOW.
none of the above

A

Contract SOW.

42
Q

The project manager’s responsibility to the project team includes

Project integrity, meeting project objectives, and on-time progress payments.
Effective communication, providing adequate resources, and timely decision-making.
accurate communication, competency, and proper resource allocation.
accuracy, cost-consciousness, safety and focus on goals.

A

Effective communication, providing adequate resources, and timely decision-making.

43
Q

Jane went to a job interview but no one told her part of the hiring process included an aptitude test. Jane had never heard of taking an aptitude test for a job interview. Part of the test required general keypunch and secretarial skills that had little to do with the accounting job she was applying and interviewing for. Was the aptitude test a legitimate part of Jane’s interview process?

Yes, testing is an integral part of the hiring process, especially with large firms.
No, the test was not valid.
Yes, although it is not directly applicable, it will help determine what performance level Jane is at in her career.
No, the test is not reliable or credible for the position Jane is interviewing for.

A

Yes, testing is an integral part of the hiring process, especially with large firms.

44
Q

What communication element involves judging the relevance, worth, goodness, or appropriateness of the received message?

Positive paralanguage.
Evaluative feedback.
Probing.
Perceptive interpretation.

A

Evaluative feedback.

45
Q

______ is the time in calendar units between the start and finish of a schedule activity.

Activity
Time
Activity duration
Activity resource estimating

A

Activity duration

46
Q

What factors are used during the SWOT analysis to determine the breadth of considered risks?

Strengths.
Weaknesses.
Opportunities and threats.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

47
Q

What other process, besides Monitoring, does the Controlling Process work in conjunction with

Initiating.
Planning.
Executing.
Completion.

A

Planning.

48
Q

Lower level WBS components must be _____ to ensure completion of the corresponding higher-level deliverables.

monitored and controlled
planned and controlled
necessary and sufficient
controlled and sufficient

A

necessary and sufficient

49
Q

The purpose of having a WBS dictionary is

To provide a hierarchically organized depiction of the project organization.
To provide information that identifies and defines project risks according to an established risk registry.
To provide detailed information on resources needed and allocated for each subproject.
To provide detailed information including work packages and control accounts.

A

To provide detailed information including work packages and control accounts.

50
Q

The WBS dictionary includes

codes of cost
description of consultation
release criteria
none of the above

A

none of the above

51
Q

Activities involved in decomposition include

Analysis and control.
Identification of related work and deliverables.
Replanning.
Expert judgment.

A

Identification of related work and deliverables.

52
Q

The project manager creates a WBS to output

WBS
WBS Dictionary
Project Document updates
all of the above

A

all of the above

53
Q

Inputs to Control Scope include

Time baseline
Scope team plan
Risk Register
none of the above

A

none of the above

54
Q

“Decomposition” refers to

replacing defective project components.
centralizing project program management to accomplish strategic objectives.
identifying and managing satisfaction of quality standards for individual project components.
subdividing project scope and deliverables into manageable components.

A

subdividing project scope and deliverables into manageable components.

55
Q

Project managers tend to get bogged down with too much planning detail. Excessive decomposition can lead to

a decrease in efficient work performance.
poor resource allocation.
non-productive management.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

56
Q

Organizational Process Assets used in Create WBS include

future project files.
WBS templates.
consultants.
All of the above.

A

WBS templates.

57
Q

The project management team typically waits until the deliverable or subproject is clarified before developing the WBS. This progressive detailing of the project management plan is

rolling wave planning.
replanning
scheduling milestones.
bottom-up planning.

A

rolling wave planning.

58
Q

A scope baseline is

the schedule of resources needed and allocated for each subproject of the WBS.
the approved, detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS.
a distribution plan for scope components.
the WBS tool for controlling time and resource allocation.

A

the approved, detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS.

59
Q

Which of the following is not true of iterative scheduling with a backlog?

it is a form of rolling wave planning
it is based on adaptive life cycles
it is based on reactive life cycles
requirements are documented in user stories

A

it is based on reactive life cycles

60
Q

Information from ______ is used to estimate schedule activity durations.

estimated resource quantities
three-point reserves
activity attributes
expert judgment

A

estimated resource quantities

61
Q

The duration estimate is considered to be

static.
progressive.
highly inaccurate.
complex.

A

progressive.

62
Q

Another word for Student Syndrome is

motivation
initiation
procrastination
self-study

A

procrastination

63
Q

What information does the resource calendar show that might significantly influence durations of schedule activities?

Equipment availability.
Quantities of materials.
Capabilities of the labor force or team members.
all of the above.

A

Equipment availability.
Quantities of materials.
Capabilities of the labor force or team members.
all of the above.

64
Q

All work effort required to complete the schedule activity, the assumed amount of resources to be applied to complete the schedule activity, and the number of work periods needed to complete the schedule activity, are

in accordance with the project calendar.
subject to continued revisions.
estimated.
unchangeable.

A

estimated.

65
Q

Tools used in Estimate Activity Durations include:

Parallel estimating
Trimetric estimating
Four-point estimates
bottom-up estimating

A

bottom-up estimating

66
Q

Enterprise Environmental factors for Estimate Activity Durations include:

Organizational process assets.
PMP activity cost estimates.
PMP risk registers and resource calendars.
Duration estimating databases.

A

Duration estimating databases.

67
Q

An emerging practice for Project Schedule Management is On-demand scheduling. Which of the below is true of On-demand scheduling?

It uses the Kanban system
It is based on a theory of constraints
it uses pull-based scheduling concepts
all of the above

A

all of the above

68
Q

Activities can be sequenced and logical relationships inserted by

vendor offers and programs.
consultants
internet resources.
project management software.

A

project management software.

69
Q

A project schedule can be presented in

tabular form
as a milestone chart
as a bar chart
all of the above

A

all of the above

70
Q

Project documents used in estimate activity durations include

activity attributes
activity list
assumption log
all of the above

A

All of the above

71
Q

When the project manager cannot confidently estimate a schedule activity, he or she uses _______ to decompose the schedule activity into more detail, so resource needs of each lower portion of work can be estimated and then all estimates are aggregated.

analogous estimating
expert judgment
the WBS
bottom-up estimating

A

bottom-up estimating

72
Q

Constraints and assumptions affecting Estimate Activity Durations include:

existing conditions
availability of information
length of reporting periods
all of the above

A

all of the above

73
Q

Assumptions and constraints are considered when estimating activity duration schedules. The length of the project reporting periods that could dictate maximum scheduled activity duration would be an example of

a positive lag.
a constraint.
a negative lag.
an assumption.

A

an assumption.

74
Q

A milestone is

a significant point in the project
a significant event in the project
included on the milestone list
all of the above

A

all of the above

75
Q

Who originates the inputs for the estimates of schedule activity durations?

Anyone on the project team.
The project manager.
The project team person or group most familiar with the nature of the work in the schedule activity.
The joint shareholders.

A

The project team person or group most familiar with the nature of the work in the schedule activity.

76
Q

An example of a constraint on schedule activity durations is

the review and approval of materials submittals.
the approved critical path of work.
the project work considered to be substantially complete.
requested changes.

A

the review and approval of materials submittals.

77
Q

What is the budgeted cost for the work actually completed on a schedule activity or WBS component?

Actual cost
Cost variance
Planned value
Earned Value

A

Earned Value

78
Q

Quality reports are

graphical
numerical
qualitative
all of the above

A

all of the above

79
Q

Which of the following is an output of Plan Quality Management?

Quality metrics.
Process configuration.
Process boundaries.
Performance targeting.

A

Quality metrics.

80
Q

The information gathering technique that involves a multidisciplinary set of experts to obtain a comprehensive list of project risks is:

the Delphi technique.
brainstorming.
checklist analysis.
root cause identification.

A

brainstorming.

81
Q

The risk identification outputs are contained in:

The risk management plan.
risk categories.
The risk register.
the RBS.

A

The risk register.

82
Q

A diagramming technique that shows how the system elements interrelate and the “mechanism of causation” is/are:

The cause and effect diagram.
Influence diagrams.
System flow charts.
Process bar charts.

A

System flow charts.

83
Q

The RBS lists

deliverables
status
categories and sub-categories
all of the above

A

categories and sub-categories

84
Q

Data analysis techniques used in risk identification include

SWOT analysis
Delphi technique
Checklist analysis
Root cause identification theory

A

SWOT analysis

85
Q

_____ are found in the project scope statement, which should be evaluated as potential causes of risk.

Time and schedule conflicts
Quality management plans
Project assumptions
Consistencies and inconsistencies

A

Project assumptions

86
Q

What are key inputs from the risk management plan to the risk identification process?

Roles and responsibilities.
Assumptions and constraints.
Quality and quantity analyses from past projects.
Benchmarks.

A

Roles and responsibilities.

87
Q

A main source of risk identification data gathering that collects input from stakeholders, participants, and project subject experts is

SWOT analysis.
root cause identification.
checklist analysis.
interviewing.

A

interviewing.

88
Q

A tool that identifies project risks based on inaccuracies, inconsistencies, or incompleteness, is

cause and effect analysis.
root causes of risk.
assumptions analysis.
qualitative risk analysis.

A

assumptions analysis.

89
Q

_______ is an inquiry into the essential causes of a project’s risk in an effort to develop preventative action.

Cause and effect analysis
Root cause analysis
Assumptions analysis
Checklist analysis

A

Root cause analysis

90
Q

Checklist analysis consists of developed risk identification checklists based on

qualitative information.
quantitative information.
historical information.
high level RBS data.

A

historical information.

91
Q

A ______ examines the project from various perspectives to increase the number of identified risks.

SWOT analysis
root cause identification
assumptions analysis
checklist analysis

A

SWOT analysis

92
Q

A brainstorming group uses the following as a framework for identifying risks:

the RBS.
Tracking documents.
Organizational process documents.
The project management plan.

A

the RBS.

93
Q

Make-or-buy decisions included in the procurement management plan include:

a list of items that will be produced by the project team.
decisions to buy performance bonds.
rental agreements.
sales decisions and receipts.

A

decisions to buy performance bonds.

94
Q

Standard procurement forms include

non-disclosure agreements.
evaluation criteria checklists.
standard contracts.
all of the above.

A

all of the above.

95
Q

What information is included in the procurement management plan?

The “do-not-use” seller’s list.
Seller evaluation criteria.
Types of contracts to be used.
All of the above

A

Types of contracts to be used.

96
Q

The procurement management plan includes:

Pareto analysis
Histograms
risk management issues
none of the above

A

risk management issues

97
Q

The Procurement SOW defines:

Contract deliverables.
Detailed descriptions of procurement items for perspective sellers’ information.
Project specifications and requirements.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

98
Q

Factors that determine the type of contract agreement that will be used include:

Requirements that a buyer imposes on a seller.
The degree of market competition and risk.
Consideration of future project acquisition.
any of the above.

A

any of the above.

99
Q

________ are risk-related contractual agreements.

Cost estimate agreements
Risk resource requirements
Baseline services
Insurance agreements

A

Insurance agreements

100
Q

The _______ is a Plan Procurements output that describes how the procurement processes will be managed, from developing procurement documentation through contract closure.

plan contracting plan
seller response plan
procurement management plan
contract documentation

A

procurement management plan

PMP - Study Guide (40 decks)

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