Practice exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is the definition that best describes dendrites?
    a. Insulating substance that allows axons to conduct impulses faster
    b. Cytoplasmic extensions that receive information and transmit it toward the cell body
    c. Swellings at the end of the axon involved in neurotransmitter release
    d. Contains the nucleus and controls the metabolic activity of the neuron
A

b. Cytoplasmic extensions that receive information and transmit it toward the cell body

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding sensory receptors?
    a. Meissner’s corpuscles sense light or fine touch
    b. Merkel’s endings sense pressure and low frequency vibration
    c. Golgi tendon organ senses rate and length of muscle stretch
    d. Joint receptors sense the movement of the joint
A

c. Golgi tendon organ senses rate and length of muscle stretch

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding neuroglia?
    a. Neurolemmocytes are found in the PNS
    b. Oligodendrocytes form fatty myelin sheaths around axons in the CNS only
    c. Ependymal cells line the ventricles and help form the choroid plexus
    d. Microglia helps form the blood brain barrier
A

d. Microglia helps form the blood brain barrier

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding neuroembryology?
    a. The prosencephalon develops into the telencephalon and diencephalon
    b. The Metencephalon contains the fourth ventricle
    c. The later developmental stage of the rhombencephalon is the myelencephalon which
    contains the medulla oblongata
    d. The thalamus is found in the telencephalon
A

d. The thalamus is found in the telencephalon

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the skull?
    a. The skull has 22 bones
    b. Functions of the skull include mastication
    c. The ethmoid bone is a facial bone
    d. Sutures are immovable joints
A

c. The ethmoid bone is a facial bone

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding the skull?
    a. The mandibular fossa is located on the mandible
    b. The styloid process is located on the occipital bone
    c. The petrous portion of the temporal bone houses the inner ear
    d. The inferior nasal concha is part of the ethmoid bone
A

c. The petrous portion of the temporal bone houses the inner ear

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the skull?
    a. The external auditory meatus is anterior to the mandibular fossa
    b. The sella turcica is located on a cranial bone
    c. The cribriform plate surrounds the crista galli
    d. The supraorbital foramen is located on the frontal bone
A

a. The external auditory meatus is anterior to the mandibular fossa

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding the skull?
    a. The weakest bone of the skull is the bone that takes part in forming the temporomandibular
    joint
    b. The dorsum sellae helps form the anterior border of the sella turcica
    c. The inferior nasal conchae belongs to a cranial bone
    d. The coronoid process of the mandible articulates with mandibular fossa
A

a. The weakest bone of the skull is the bone that takes part in forming the temporomandibular
joint

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the skull?
    a. The sieve-like bone located between two orbits contains the inferior and middle nasal concha
    b. The infraorbital foramen is found on a bone that contains the horizontal palatine process
    c. The vomer bone extends between the hard palate inferiorly to the sphenoid and the ethmoid
    superiorly
    d. The cribriform plate is a horizontal plate
A

a. The sieve-like bone located between two orbits contains the inferior and middle nasal concha

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following does not belong to a cranial bone?
    a. Middle nasal concha
    b. Hypophyseal fossa
    c. Styloid process
    d. Infraorbital foramen
A

d. Infraorbital foramen

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following does not belong to a facial bone?
    a. Coronoid process
    b. Clivus
    c. Condyloid process
    d. Maxillary sinus
A

b. Clivus

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the articulation of the parietal and temporal bones?
    a. Sagittal suture
    b. Lambdoid suture
    c. Squamous suture
    d. Coronal suture
A

c. Squamous suture

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13
Q
  1. The largest fontanelle of the fetal skull is
    a. One that is found at the junction of the occipital, parietal, and temporal bones
    b. One that is found at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures
    c. One that is located at the junction of the frontal, parietal, sphenoid, and temporal bones
    d. One that is called the sphenoid fontanelle
A

b. One that is found at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the fetal skull?
    a. The sphenoid fontanelle is located between 4 bones
    b. The posterolateral fontanelle is used to determine the extent of intracranial pressure
    c. The posterolateral fontanelle is located between 3 bones
    d. In babies, the anterior fontanelle is called a soft spot and ossifies at age 2
A

b. The posterolateral fontanelle is used to determine the extent of intracranial pressure

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding the scalp?
    a. Skin, close subcutaneous tissue, and loose subaponeurotic tissue are collectively called
    scalp proper
    b. The layer of the scalp that is well supplied with nerves is a layer that is also referred to as
    epicranium
    c. Periosteum is the deepest layer of the scalp (layer 5)
    d. The danger layer of the scalp is layer 3
A

c. Periosteum is the deepest layer of the scalp (layer 5)

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the scalp and cranial cavity?
    a. The temporal and occipital regions of the scalp is supplied by the external carotid artery
    b. The inner layer of the dura is endosteal dura
    c. The outer layer of the dura makes up the inner table of the cranium bone
    d. Dural sinus contain blood and CSF
A

b. The inner layer of the dura is endosteal dura

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct regarding dural folds?
    a. The structure that is pierced by the infundibulum is the called the tentorium cerebelli
    b. The falx cerebri separates the superior portion of the right and left side of the cerebrum and
    attaches posteriorly to the tentorium cerebelli
    c. The structure that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is inferior to the
    tentorium cerebelli
    d. The falx cerebri attaches anteriorly to the cribriform plate
A

b. The falx cerebri separates the superior portion of the right and left side of the cerebrum and
attaches posteriorly to the tentorium cerebelli

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is false?
    a. The maxillary artery is a branch off of the external carotid artery
    b. The basilar artery branches into two anterior cerebral arteries
    c. The middle meningeal artery is a branch off of the maxillary artery
    d. The vertebral arteries form the basilar artery
A

b. The basilar artery branches into two anterior cerebral arteries

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding dural sinuses?
    a. The inferior sagittal sinus drains into the straight sinus
    b. The straight sinus is located between falx cerebelli and tentorium cerebelli
    c. The superior sagittal sinus drains into the confluence of sinuses
    d. The structure that passes anteriorly toward the petrous portion of the temporal bone is the
    transverse sinus
A

b. The straight sinus is located between falx cerebelli and tentorium cerebelli

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the cerebrum?
    a. Longitudinal fissure is occupied by the falx cerebelli
    b. The transverse fissure separates the cerebrum and the cerebellum
    c. Lateral fissure separates temporal lobe from the rest of the cerebrum
    d. The Central sulcus separates the precentral and postcentral gyrus
A

a. Longitudinal fissure is occupied by the falx cerebelli

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding gross brain structures?
    a. The brainstem is made up of three parts
    b. The primary motor cortex lies posterior to the central sulcus
    c. The basal ganglia makes up the gray matter of the cerebrum
    d. The thalamus sends impulses from the receptors of the body to the cerebral cortex
A

b. The primary motor cortex lies posterior to the central sulcus

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding gross brain structures?
    a. The cerebral peduncles of the midbrain are located anteriorly
    b. The inferior colliculi is involved with vision
    c. The pons connect the right and left cerebral hemispheres
    d. The structure that is directly continuous with the spinal cord is the cerebellum
A

a. The cerebral peduncles of the midbrain are located anteriorly

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of the cerebellum?
    a. Initiation movement
    b. Coordination of muscle activity
    c. Regulation of muscle tone
    d. Maintenance of equilibrium
A

a. Initiation movement

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24
Q
  1. Choose the correct order of CSF flow?
    a. Third ventricle  interventricular foramen of Monro  Fourth ventricle
    b. Fourth ventricle  Foramen of Luschka  subarachnoid space
    c. Third ventricle  lateral ventricle  cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius
    d. Fourth ventricle  cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius  third ventricle
A

b. Fourth ventricle  Foramen of Luschka  subarachnoid space

25
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding gross brain function?
    a. The frontal eye fields control voluntary vertical movements of the eye
    b. The superior parietal lobule receives sensory input from the hands
    c. The supplementary motor area is responsible for coordinating bilateral activity of the body
    d. The inferior temporal gyrus is involved in the recognition of faces and scenes
A

a. The frontal eye fields control voluntary vertical movements of the eye

26
Q
  1. Which of the following two are paired correctly?
    a. Insular cortex – dysexecutive functioning
    b. Inferior temporal gyrus – prosopagnosia
    c. Wernicke’s area – expressive aphasia
    d. Supramarginal gyrus – contralateral sensory neglect
A

b. Inferior temporal gyrus – prosopagnosia

27
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding gross brain function?
    a. Damage to the lingual gyrus results in dysfunction of vision in the lower quadrant
    b. The middle temporal gyrus is responsible for episodic memory
    c. The cuneus is associated with bipolar depression and reward expectation
    d. Damage to the angular gyrus results in difficulty with linking words to their meanings
A

a. Damage to the lingual gyrus results in dysfunction of vision in the lower quadrant

28
Q
  1. Which of the following two are paired incorrectly?
    a. Calcarine sulcus – Brodmann’s area 17
    b. Insular cortex – facial expressions of disgust
    c. Broca’s area – right motor control of speech
    d. Superior parietal lobule – integration of sensory and motor function
A

c. Broca’s area – right motor control of speech

29
Q
  1. Bob comes into the clinic for his annual visit. His wife explains that his personality has changed
    recently and that he is having behavioral and emotional issues. She further explains that he is
    struggling with solving problems and decision making. What area of the brain has damage most
    likely occurred?
    a. Wernicke’s area
    b. Superior parietal lobule
    c. Pre-frontal cortex
    d. Cuneus
A

c. Pre-frontal cortex

30
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding gross brain function?
    a. The inferior parietal lobule performs complex discrimination and integration
    b. The supplementary motor area coordinates ipsilateral activity of the body
    c. The post-central gyrus contains the cell bodies of upper motor neurons
    d. The superior parietal lobule is associated with Gertsmann syndrome
A

a. The inferior parietal lobule performs complex discrimination and integration

31
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding damage to structures of the brain?
    a. Left side paralysis – left pre-central gyrus
    b. Right side paralysis – left pre-central gyrus
    c. Inferior parietal lobule – contralateral sensory neglect
    d. Supramarginal gyrus – expression of empathy
A

a. Left side paralysis – left pre-central gyrus

32
Q
  1. Which area of the brain is involved with Gertsmann syndrome?
    a. Inferior temporal gyrus
    b. Supramarginal gyrus
    c. Angular gyrus
    d. Superior parietal lobule
A

c. Angular gyrus

33
Q
  1. Susan is having difficulty with expressing empathy to her family and friends. Damage has most
    likely occurred to which area of the brain?
    a. Calcarine sulcus
    b. Angular gyrus
    c. Supramarginal gyrus
    d. Cuneus
A

c. Supramarginal gyrus

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding internal brain structures?
    a. The structure that contains the internal medullary lamina is the structure that makes up the
    lateral wall of the third ventricle
    b. The pituitary gland projects inferiorly from the structure that is considered the main visceral
    control center of the body
    c. Melatonin is produced by the pituitary gland
    d. The upper fibers of the internal capsule is known as the corona radiata
A

c. Melatonin is produced by the pituitary gland

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding internal brain structures?
    a. The lateral division of the thalamus contains 4 nuclei
    b. The dorsomedial nuclei is located in the medial division
    c. The LGN and MGN are located posteriorly and inferiorly on the thalamus
    d. The hypothalamus is the sensory relay center
A

d. The hypothalamus is the sensory relay center

36
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the reticular formation?
    a. It is situated in the gray matter of the brain stem
    b. The reticular formation courses through the midbrain
    c. The reticular activation system helps maintain consciousness and alertness
    d. The midline raphe nuclei is a column of the reticular formation
A

a. It is situated in the gray matter of the brain stem

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the reticular formation?
    a. The efferent aspect of the reticular formation is responsible for pain modulation
    b. CN V, VII, IX, and X is part of the afferent reticulation formation
    c. CN IX is part of the efferent reticular formation
    d. The reticular formation runs through the medulla
A

b. CN V, VII, IX, and X is part of the afferent reticulation formation

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding structures of the limbic system?
    a. The structure that provides a pathway from the thalamus to hippocampus is the cingulate
    gyrus
    b. Septal nuclei is associated with pleasure and rewards
    c. The hippocampus is responsible for learning and memory
    d. The fornix is a tract of gray matter connecting the hippocampus to the hypothalamus
A

d. The fornix is a tract of gray matter connecting the hippocampus to the hypothalamus

39
Q
  1. The cingulate gyrus is responsible for
    a. Recognizing locations and scenes
    b. Short term memory
    c. Associating memories to scents and pain
    d. Pleasure and reward
A

c. Associating memories to scents and pain

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the amygdala?
    a. It is located at the tail end of the caudate nucleus
    b. It contributes to respiratory control
    c. It is located in the septum pellucidum
    d. It processes sensory information including olfactory sensation
A

a. It is located at the tail end of the caudate nucleus

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the brainstem?
    a. Consists of an outer gray matter surrounding an inner region of white matter
    b. Lies in the anterior cranial fossa and makes up 4% of the total weight of the brain
    c. Acts as a passageway for tracts running between the cerebellum and spinal cord
    d. The cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius divides the midbrain into three parts
A

d. The cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius divides the midbrain into three parts

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the brainstem?
    a. The largest nuclei of the midbrain are found within the corpora quadrigemina
    b. The tectum lies on the dorsal surface of the midbrain
    c. The ventral surface of the midbrain presents paired cerebellar peduncles
    d. The tectospinal tract is involved in tracking movements of the eye
A

c. The ventral surface of the midbrain presents paired cerebellar peduncles

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the brainstem?
    a. The oval red nucleus lies anterior to the substantia nigra
    b. The majority of the reticular formation is located in the core of the medulla
    c. The medulla is responsible for smooth transitions from inhalation to exhalation
    d. The four most inferior pairs of cranial nerves attach to the ventral surface of the medulla
A

b. The majority of the reticular formation is located in the core of the medulla

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the brainstem?
    a. When stimulated, the central portion of the midbrain is associated with analgesia
    b. The cerebellar peduncles contain large pyramidal corticospinal motor tracts
    c. The auditory relay nucleus sends signals to the MGN of the thalamus
    d. Lesions in the area of the substantia nigra result in Parkinson’s disease
A

b. The cerebellar peduncles contain large pyramidal corticospinal motor tracts

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the brainstem?
    a. The substantia nigra lies posterior to the corticospinal tract
    b. The pons is separated from the cerebellum by the third ventricle
    c. The five most inferior pairs of cranial nerves lie deep in the medulla, near the fourth ventricle
    d. The medullary respiratory centers control for the rate and basic pattern of breathing
A

b. The pons is separated from the cerebellum by the third ventricle

46
Q
  1. Which of the following two are paired correctly?
    a. Posterior lobe syndrome – Friedreich Ataxia
    b. Anterior lobe syndrome – Truncal Ataxia
    c. Flocculonodular lobe syndrome – Nystagmus
A

c. Flocculonodular lobe syndrome – Nystagmus

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the cerebellum?
    a. The outer cerebellar cortex consists of gray matter
    b. The posterior lobe receives its main input from the spinal cord
    c. The flocculonodular lobe adjusts posture to maintain equilibrium
    d. Friedreich ataxia results in ipsilateral lower limb ataxia
A

b. The posterior lobe receives its main input from the spinal cord

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the cerebellum?
    a. Truncal ataxia is the inability to stabilize or balance the appendicular musculature
    b. The anterior cerebellar lobe receives input via the superior cerebellar peduncle
    c. The cerebellum initiates movement and regulates muscle tone
    d. Pathways for limb movement involve ipsilateral projections
A

d. Pathways for limb movement involve ipsilateral projections

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the cerebellum?
    a. Posterior lobe syndrome is common in patients with midbrain infarctions
    b. The anterior inferior cerebellar artery supplies cranial nerves VII and VIII
    c. The superior cerebellar artery wraps around the pons and supplies the superior cerebral
    peduncles
    d. The posterior inferior cerebellar artery arises from the lateral surface of the vertebral artery
A

c. The superior cerebellar artery wraps around the pons and supplies the superior cerebral
peduncles

50
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is not a part of the corpus striatum?
    a. Putamen
    b. Substantia nigra
    c. Pars externa
    d. Caudate nucleus
A

b. Substantia nigra

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the basal nuclei?
    a. The basal nuclei work in conjunction with the cerebellum to influence upper motor neurons
    b. Direct pathways result in more movement
    c. Both the thalamus and motor cortical areas are involved in the principle circuit of the basal
    nuclei
    d. The basal nuclei function by influencing motor neurons directly
A

d. The basal nuclei function by influencing motor neurons directly

52
Q
  1. If damage occurs to the basal nuclei, which of the following would not be considered a negative
    effect?
    a. Akinesia
    b. Dyskinesia
    c. Bradykinesia
    d. Abnormal postural adjustments
A

b. Dyskinesia

53
Q
  1. The basal nuclei encode for all of the following functions except?
    a. Direction of movement
    b. Initiation of movement
    c. Motor expression of emotions
    d. Behavioral output
A

b. Initiation of movement

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the basal nuclei?
    a. The putamen and Globus pallidus together are referred to as the lenticular nucleus
    b. The combination of the caudate and lenticular nuclei is sometimes referred to as the corpus
    callosum
    c. Negative effects include actions that a patient does not want to perform, but cannot prevent
    the action from occurring
    d. An overall increase in muscle tone is known as dyskinesia
A

a. The putamen and Globus pallidus together are referred to as the lenticular nucleus

55
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the cranial nerves?
    a. The cranial nerve that courses through the optic canal is sensory in type
    b. The trochlear nerve is responsible for extrinsic eye movement
    c. The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve courses through the foramen ovale
    d. Cranial nerves IX and X both exit through the jugular foramen
A

c. The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve courses through the foramen ovale

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the cranial nerves?
    a. Cranial nerves II, III, IV, and VI exit through the superior orbital fissure
    b. The cranial nerve that is responsible for smell exits through the cribriform plate
    c. The hypoglossal nerve exits through the jugular foramen to travel to the tongue
    d. Cranial nerve XI supplies deltoid and teres minor
A

b. The cranial nerve that is responsible for smell exits through the cribriform plate

57
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding the cranial nerves?
    a. Facial and vestibulocochlear nerves course together through the internal acoustic meatus
    b. The ophthalmic nerve courses through the superior orbital fissure
    c. Cranial nerve VI is responsible for adduction of the eyeball
    d. Cranial nerve I exits through the cribriform plate to synapse in the olfactory bulb
A

c. Cranial nerve VI is responsible for adduction of the eyeball

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the cranial nerves?
    a. The vagus nerve is formed by the union of a cranial and spinal root
    b. The ophthalmic nerve exits through the foramen rotundum
    c. CN IV supplies the superior oblique
    d. The hypoglossal nerve is both sensory and motor in type
A

c. CN IV supplies the superior oblique