Pharm: Cardiac Drugs Flashcards

0
Q

MOA of Methyldopa. Side effect?

A

Methyldopa is a centrally acting a2-agonist which reduces cardiac output or vascular resistance.

May cause hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

MAO inhibitors were once used for HPB because they caused formation of this false neurotransmitter in postganglionic neuron terminals which had very low efficacy.

A

Octopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A cheese lover on MAO inhibitor experienced a hypertensive crisis. How did this happen?

A

Large amounts of tyramine in cheese may cause release of large amounts of neurotransmitters. Tyramine normally had low bioavailability because of its metabolism by MAO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Beta blocker with direct vasodilator action

A

Nebivolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MOA of the ff vasodilators:

  1. Hydralazine
  2. Verapamil
  3. Fenoldopam
  4. Minoxidil
A
  1. Release of NO from drug or endothelium
  2. Reduction of Ca influx via L-type channels
  3. Activation of dopamine D1 receptors
  4. Hyperpolarization due to opening of K channels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anti hypertensive used topically in the treatment of baldness

A

Minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Thiazides derivative that lacks diuretic effects; given as an anti hypertensive because it causes hyper polarization and relaxation of smooth muscles

A

Diazoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Inhibits renin’s action on its substrate, angiotensinogen. What are its major toxicities?

A

Aliskiren.

Headache and diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recent evidence suggest that the MOA of ranolazine as an anti-anginal drug is related to:

A

Inhibition of late Na current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

5 mechanisms/drug classes for sympathiplegic control of blood pressure.

A

1) baroreceptor sensitizing agents
2) CNS sympathetic outflow blockers
3) ganglion blockers
4) nerve terminal blockers
5) adrenergic blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What loop diuretic has no sulfa group?

A

Ethacrynic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most potent loop diuretic?

A

Bumetanide. Also does not need to be bound to albumin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gravest side effect of reserpine

A

Severe psychiatric depression with suicidal ideations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Feared side effects of alpha 1 selective blockers

A

1st dose orthostatic hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Feared side effect of methyldopa

A

Immunologic mediated hemolytic anemia (+) Coombs test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What beta blocker is used to treat pheochromocytoma?

A

Labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aside from blocking sympathetic effects on the heart, what is the other mechanism of action of beta blockers?

A

Decreases renin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the common causes of drug induced lupus?

A

Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Procainamide
Penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What vasodilators are specific for arterioles?

A

Hydralazine
Minodixil
Nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Marker for drug induced lupus

A

Antihistone 95% sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What CCB causes gingival hyperplasia?

A

Nifedipine
Cyclosporine
Phenytoin
Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which CCB is preferential for cardiac L-type calcium channels?

A

Non-dihydropyridines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the dopamine agonist that increases renal blood flow by dilating afferent and efferent arterioles?

A

Fenoldepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are 2 mechanisms by which ACEI protect diabetic kidneys?

A

ACEIs inhibit albumin excretion and slowdown progression to macroalbuminuria.

Secondary effect: decrease compensatory hypertrophy of nephrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vasodilator used in the treatment of insulinomas

A

Diazoxide

Decreases insulin release from islet of Langerhans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What vasodilator is known to cause coronary steal syndrome?

A

Nitroprusside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

According to ALLHAT and NKF-ADA, what drugs should be given to patients with DM? Provided they still have good kidney function, CKD 2.

A

Diuretic, BB, ACEI or ARB, CCB, aldosterone antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Vasospastic angina is responsible for how many % of anginal cases?

A

10%

28
Q

Mechanism of action of pFOX inhibitors?

A

Shifts fatty acid metabolism to more efficient glucose use in cardiac muscle.

29
Q

Give an example of a 3-KAT inhibitor.

A

Trimetazidine. Shifts fatty acid to glucose metabolism in cardiac cells

30
Q

Cause of nitrate induced headaches?

A

Meningeal artery vasodilation

31
Q

Rapid infusion of nifedipine cause cardiotoxicity by what mechanism?

A

Rapid vasodilation > significant lowered BP > increased sympa outflow > increased HR > increased myocardial O2 demand

32
Q

What drug in the treatment of cyanide toxicity forms a less toxic and easily excretable metabolite?
What is the metabolite?

A

IV sodium thiosulfate

Thiocyanate

33
Q

Inhaled amyl nitrite and sodium nitrates cause?

A

Methemoglobinemia, which has increase affinity for cyanide

34
Q

After how long does or develop a tolerance to nitroglycerin transdermal patches?

A

8-10 hours

35
Q

Rare toxic effect of diltiazem that primarily affects the extremities.

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon

36
Q

What drugs causes Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A

Diltiazem, some beta blockers, chemotherapeutic drugs, smoking

37
Q

What drug class when combined with beta blockers has decreased side effects?

A

Nitrates

38
Q

ECG findings in digitalis toxicity

A

1) most common: bradycardia
2) scooped out ST segment
3) prolonged PR interval

More specific:

4) bidirectional vent. Tachycardia
5) atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular rate
6) atrial tachycardia with a block

39
Q

What drug used in acute treatment of heart failure increase mortality when used for chronic HF?

A

Phophodiesterase inhibitors

40
Q

What drug significantly improves functional status in CHF but not prolong life?

A

Digoxin

41
Q

Drug of choice in the treatment of digitalis toxicity?

A

Lidocaine

42
Q

What diuretics has significant long term benefits in HF?

A

Spironolactone and epleronone

43
Q

What drugs have been shown to have survival benefits for HF?

A

ACEIs
beta blockers
Aldosterone antagonists

44
Q

Give the Singh-Vaughan Classification of antiarrhythmics:

A

1) Na channel blockers
2) Beta blockers
3) potassium channel blockers
4) CCBs

45
Q

Most selective class 1 antiarrhythmic for ischemic tissue.

A

1B

Lidocaine, tocainide, mexiletine

46
Q

What antiarrhyhtmic has the deadly side effect of agranulocytosis?

A

Tocainide

47
Q

What class 1 antiarrhythmic is used to treat malaria

A

Quinidine

48
Q

Quinidine’s unique side effect among the antiarrhythmics?

A

ITP

49
Q

Treatment for class 1A overdose with arryhythmia?

A

Sodium lactate

50
Q

Last resort antiarrhytmic known to have a proarrhythmic effect?

A

Flecainide

51
Q

Ideal treatment for Wolf-parkinson-white?

A

Procainamide or Amiodarone.

Don’t forget cardioversion is the best option!

52
Q

What 2 class 3 drugs also have class 2 effects?

A

Amiodarone and sotalol

53
Q

What class of antiarrhythmics is characterized by prolongation of the action potential?

A
Class 3 & (minor class 1A)
Caused by blockade of Ik channels that are responsible for repolarization thereby increasing effective refractory period.
54
Q

Amiodarone like drug with less side effects used for the treatment of atrial flutter?

A

Dronedarone

55
Q

What drug leaves microcrystalline deposits on the skin and cornea?

A

Amiodarone

56
Q

Why are dihydropyridines not used as antiarrhythmics?

A

They evoke a compensatory sympathetic response that facilitates arryhythmia rather than terminating them.

57
Q

Transient chest pain is a notable side effect of adenosine, why?

A

It causes mild to moderate bronchoconstriction

58
Q

What diuretic group does not act on the luminal side?

A

Aldosterone receptor antagonists

59
Q

What drug blocks the excretion of weak acids and bases at the PCT

A

Probenecid

60
Q

What causes hep enceph in patients receiving acetazplamide?

A

Acetazolamide causes alkalinization of urine due to decreased bicarbonate reabsorption. This prevents ammonia from turning to ammonium. Ammonia is more easily reabsorbed.

61
Q

Parathyroid hormone shares several renal effects with what diuretic?

A

Thiazides diuretics

62
Q

What diuretic mimics the effect of gitelman syndrome?

A

Thiazide diuretics

63
Q

What diuretic mimics bartter syndrome?

A

Loop diuretics

Only for type 1 Bartter syndrome

64
Q

What diuretics cause acidosis?

A

Acetazolamide by decreased bicarbonate reabsorption

Spironolactone by decreased H+ secretion

65
Q

What drugs cause hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis?

A

Thiazides and Loop D’s.

66
Q

Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin

67
Q

Drug of choice for nephrogenic DI?

A

Thiazides

68
Q

Drug used for Von Willebrands disease?

A

Desmopressin