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Deck of Secret Knowledge > Anat: Upper And lower limbs and Head > Flashcards

Anat: Upper And lower limbs and Head Flashcards

0
Q

What are the roots of the brachiradialis reflex?

A

C 5 6 7

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1
Q

What innervated the serratus anterior? What root is it from?

A

Long thoracic. C5-C7 roots.

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2
Q

Which brachial plexus syndrome affects the PROXIMAL muscles? Arm is addicted extended and flexed hand at wrist?

A

Erb Duchenne’s Syndrome

Usually seen in difficult shoulder deliveries.

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3
Q

Which brachial plexus syndrome affects the muscles innervated by C8 and T1. Ape hand and claw hand are BOTH seen.

A

Klumpke’s paralysis

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4
Q

In a long thoracic nerve lesion which border of the scapula is winged? What movement of Te scapula is inhibited?

A

Vertebral border.

Protraction.

Winging usually due to radical mastectomy, stab wounds and thorax surgery.

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5
Q

What part of the humerus must be injured to result in difficulty in lateral rotation and abduction of the shoulder?

A

Surgical neck of the humerus. Axillary nerve.

Affecting the deltoid and there’s minor.

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6
Q

What part of the humerus must be injured to result in difficulty extension at the wrist and parenthesia of the skin over the snuff box?

A

Midshaft fx. Radial nerve lesion.

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7
Q

What wrist bone is commonly affected to result in an ape hand?

A

Dislocation of the Lunate. Carpal tunnel syndrome affecting median nerve.

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8
Q

What wrist bone is commonly affected to result in an claw hand?

A

Fx of the hamate. Px will be unable to hold paper in between fingers.

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9
Q

What is the largest branch of the axillary artery? What part is it located in? 1/2/3?

A

Sub scapular artery in the 3rd part

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10
Q

What kind of fracture results in anterior displacement of the distal end of the radius?

A

Smith’s.

Posterior displacement is Colls’e fx

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11
Q

What is the common distal attachment of the distal attachment of the quadriceps femoris muscles?

A

Base of patella and by patellar ligament to tibial tuberosity

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12
Q

What is the common insertion of the iliac us and psoas muscles?

A

Lesser trochanter of femur.

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13
Q

What is the major arterial supply of the femoral head?

A

Medial femoral circumflex artery

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14
Q

A fracture of the neck of the femur will result in rotation in which direction?

A

Lateral.

If dislocation medial rotation.

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15
Q

How many bones do we have?

A

206

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16
Q

What kind of diarrhrotic joint is the 1st metacarpal?

A

Saddle

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17
Q

What is the medial border of the axillary?

A

2nd to the 6th ribs

Serratus anterior muscle

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18
Q

All the rotator cuff muscles insert in the greater tubercle of the humerus EXCEPT:

A

Subacapularis which inserts in the lesser tubercle of the himerus

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19
Q

The quadrangle dorsal scapular space contains?

A

Posterior circumflex funeral vessels AND axillary nerve

Triangular space has circumflex scapular vessels.

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20
Q

Which among the anterior compartment arm muscles flexes the forearm at the elbow?

A

Corachobrachialis

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21
Q

What are the two muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm are NOT innervated by the median nerve?

A

Flexor Carpi ulnaris and the medial part of the flexor digitoxin profundus

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22
Q

Name the 3 anterior compartment forearm muscles that DO NOT originate on the medial epicondyle.

A

The deep group:
flexor digitorum profundus
Pronator quadratus
Flexor policis longus

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23
Q

The brachiradialis muscle located in the psoterior compartment of the forearm is innervated by which nerve?

A

Radialis nerve.

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24
Q

In a patient with a winged scapula, what action will she have trouble performing?

A

Raising the IPSILATERAL arm over 90 degrees (above the head). Serratus anterior is unable to move the scapula to enable this motion.

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25
Q

How many bones do we have?

A

206

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26
Q

What kind of diarrhrotic joint is the 1st metacarpal?

A

Saddle

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27
Q

What is the medial border of the axillary?

A

2nd to the 6th ribs

Serratus anterior muscle

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28
Q

All the rotator cuff muscles insert in the greater tubercle of the humerus EXCEPT:

A

Subacapularis which inserts in the lesser tubercle of the himerus

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29
Q

What do you call a fracture of the 4th and 5th metacarpals?

A

Boxer’s fracture

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30
Q

What is the only anterior compartment thigh muscle that acts to flex the knee joint?

A

Sartorius

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31
Q

Name all the contents of Te femoral triangle.

A 
Nerve femoral
Artery femoral in sheath
Vein femoral in sheath
Empty space
Lymphatics
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32
Q

All adductor muscles originate and attach where?

A

Pubis to lines aspera

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33
Q

You are about to perform a femoral vein catheterization. You have felt the pulsations of the femoral artery. Where is the vein located?

A

Medial to pulsations

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34
Q

What nerve passes through the inguinal canal? What part of the skin does in innervate?

A

Genitofemoral nerve. Scrotum and groin.

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35
Q

What are the nerve roots of the genitofemoral nerve? And which component supplies the cremaster?

A

L1 and 2. Cremaster muscle genital branch.

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36
Q

What is the root if the nerve that supplies the lower abdominal wall?

A

L1. The iliohypogastric nerve.

37
Q

IM injections to the lower medial quadrant of the gluteus medius or posterior dislocations of the femur may result in?

A

Sciatic nerve lesions

38
Q

What is the only 3 gluteal muscles that medially rotate the thigh at the hip joint?

A

Gluteus medius, minimus and tensor fascias latae.

All others laterally rotate!

39
Q

A px developed a psoas abscess. On PE you noticed that he had a 1+ patellar tendon reflex on the same side and he had difficulty walking. What nerve is involved?

A

Femoral nerve.

40
Q

What is the MOST commonly injured nerve of the pelvis?

41
Q

What are the only 3 posterior compartment muscles that are capable flexing the knee because of their origin at the femur?

A

Popliteal, plantaris and the femur

42
Q

After palpating for the popliteal pulsations you wish to puncture the popliteal vein, where will you do it?

A

Lateral to the pulsations.

Remember: lateral to medial NVA

43
Q

What is the ONLY muscle stabilizes both the medial and lateral portions of the knee?

A

Gastrocnemius because is has 2 heads!

44
Q

What are the 3 most commonly injured structures of the knee joint?

A

ACL, MCL/ tibial collateral ligament, medial meniscus

45
Q

What is the keystone bone of the medial longitudinal arch? How about lateral longitudinal arch?

A

Rounded head of the talus. cuboid.

46
Q

Most important plantar ligament

A

Calcaneonavicular joint also called the spring ligament. Supports the arch of the foot.

47
Q 
Brodmann area for 
Vision? 
Auditory? 
Broca's area? 
Wernicke's area?
A

Visual 17
Auditory 41 42
Broca’s 44, 45
Wernicke’s 22

48
Q

What cranial fossa does the accessory meningeal and V3 pass?

A

Foramen ovale with the lesser petrosal nerve.

49
Q

What cranial fossa does the superior ophthalmic v. pass?

A

Superior orbital fissure with CN 3, 4, V1, and 6

50
Q

What cranial fossa does the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the V3 pass?

A

Foramen spinosum

51
Q

What 6 structures pass through the jugular foramen?

A

Inferior petrosal sinus
Sigmoid sinus
Posterior meningeal artery
CN 9, 10, 11

52
Q

What artery travels with CN 8 and 7 in the internal acoustic meatus?

A

Labyrinthine artery

53
Q

If CN 10 was injured what action would the tongue not be able to perform?

A

Elevation by the palatoglossus

54
Q

What 2 veins do the anterior and posterior parts of the retromandibular vein form?

A

IJV with the common facial v

EJV with the posterior oricular

55
Q

What pharyngeal arch is phonation from CN 10?

56
Q

The eye is up and out with CN is damaged?

57
Q

What do you call a circumscribed depression in the skull of a young child?

58
Q

What is the weakest fossa if the base of the skull?

59
Q

2nd most common fx bone of the face?

A

Zygomatic bibe

60
Q

Which fx needs prolonged fixation? Maxillary or mandibular?

A

Mandibular

61
Q

Which nerve is damaged in forceps delivery?

A

The facial nerve

63
Q

Where should a burr hole be placed for the most common kind of extradural hemorrhage?

A

2.5-4cm above the midpoint of the zygomatic arch.

MC affected anterior division of the middle meningeal artery

64
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage occurring in an infant is usually from?

A

Great cerebral veins, straight sinus and inferior sagittal sinus

65
Q

In blowout fractures:

  1. Loss of sensation on the skin cheek and gum is due to violation in what structure?
  2. How about limited upward gaze?
A
  1. Injury to the inraorbital nerve, a mandibular branch of V3
  2. Entrapment of the superior rectus
66
Q

What ganglion is responsible for the postganglionic part of the direct light reflex?

A

Ciliary ganglion

67
Q

In examning the tympanic membrane, the external meatus should be pulled in what direction for:

  1. Adults
  2. Childern
A
  1. Upward and backward

2. Straight backward backward and downward

68
Q

How to reduce a dislocated TMJ?

A

Press downard on lower molar teeth and push backward on the jaw.

69
Q

In the embryology of the face, what are the 3 processes that must fuse to form the face? The 3 sensory branches of the the fifth cranial nerve, V1 V2 V3 innvervate these.

A

Frontonasal process
Manibular process
Maxillary process

70
Q

Facial muscles derive from which arch?

71
Q

Isolated cleft lip should be operated on at no later than?

72
Q

What is an acute infectino of the submandibular fascial space that is usually secondary to dental infection?

A

Ludwig’s agina

73
Q

How does one stop torrential hemorrhage from the upper limb?

A

Exerting downard and backward pressure on the third part of the subclavian artery against the surface of the first rib

74
Q

Where does one puncture when doing an anterior approach IJV?

A

On the apex of the triangle formed by the 2 heads of the SCM and the clavicle. Insert needle in a downward direction.

75
Q

Where does one puncture when doing an an infraclavicular approach subclavian vein catherization?

A

At the junction of the medial third and latera 2/3 of the clavicle.

The needle is pinted toward the middle of the suprasternal notch

76
Q

How does one elicit double vision with fourth nerve paralysis?

A

Ask the patient to look down.

77
Q

Ectoderm or Entoderm?

  1. Enamel of teeth
  2. Lips
  3. Tongue epithelium
A
  1. Ectoderm
  2. Ectoderm
  3. Entoderm
78
Q

At what week should the two parts of the uvula be united?

A

11th week. Soft palate folds united by 8th week.

79
Q

Frey’s syndrome presents as?

A

Persipiration appearing on skin covering the parotid when the patient eats.

Occurs when PS auriculotemporal nerves join the distal end of the great auricular nerve.

80
Q

Referred pain from frontal sinusitis refers to what part? How bout that of the maxillary sinus?

A

Forehead, superior orbital nerve

Upper jaw, teeth, inferior orbital nerve

81
Q

What sinuses do NOT drain into the middle meatus?

A

Sphenoidal sinus and the posterior group of the ethmoidal sinus

82
Q

What kind of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy necessitates tracheostomy?

A

Bilateral partial section leading to adduction of the vocal cords because abductors are more affected in a partial lesion

83
Q

What is the BURP maneuver of intubation?

A

Backward, Upward and rightward pressure on the thyroid to realign the box of the larynx relative to the blade and the glottis.

84
Q

What is the diameter of the trachea in the child?

A

0.5 inches

1 inch in the adult

85
Q

What ligament is cut during a cricothyroidotomy?

A

The cricothyroid membrane

86
Q

What is the preferred site for a tracheostomy?

A

2nd ring of the trachea where you don’t have to cut through the isthmus of the thyroid.

87
Q

What is the distance from the incisor teeth to the carina?

A

20cm

15 cm to vocal cords

88
Q

The pituitary gland originates from what structures?

A

The rathke’s pouch and the Infundibulum

89
Q

Inferior thyroid artery is related to which nerve?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

90
Q

When does the thyroid gland reach it’s final position?

A

The 7th week

91
Q

Where is the most common location of a thyroglossal duct cyst?

A

midline below the hyoid bone

Deck of Secret Knowledge (57 decks)

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