OPERATING PROCEDURES Flashcards

1
Q

What is an APV approach?

A

An approach with vertical guidance
These approaches includes:
- RNP APCH to LNAV/VNAV minima
- RNP AR APCH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does “CDFA” stand for?

A

Continuous Descent Final Approach to approximately 50 ft above the landing threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the “Stabilized speed” criteria before landing?

A

Vref + 10 kts or -5 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the stabilization height for:
- Instrument Approach
- Visual Approach?

A

Instrument Approach = 1000ft
Visual Approach = 500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the stabilization criteria for:
- ILS
- LOC/VOR
- NDB
- RNP

A

ILS = Within 1 dot LOC and GS
LOC/VOR = 1 dot laterally
NDB = 5 degrees
RNP = X track 0,3 nm, VDEV
75ft(3/4 dot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing?

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the minimum runway width

A

45m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do we have to add 50 ft to MDA on a Circling Approach?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the maximum descent rates between:
2001-3000 ft
1001-2000 ft
0-1000 ft?

A

2001-3000 ft = 3000 fpm
1001-2000 ft = 1500 fpm
0-1000 ft = 1000 fpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the absolute max speed below 5000 ft that we can accept, regardless of ATC clearance?

A

250 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Can we accept high speed below MSA?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can we set park brake on runway when lined up?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the maximum altitude difference between the two PFD:s during preflight?

A

20 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the maximum altitude difference between the ISIS and the PFD during preflight?

A

100 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is a complete IRS alignment required?

A
  • Before the 1st flight of the day
  • When there is a crew change
  • When departure AD is located between 2 deg S
    and 2 deg N
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the maximum altitude with flaps extended?

A

20000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the maximum speed allowed by HKE?

A

320 kts / M.79

18
Q

What factors would make you not consider One Engine Taxi on arrival?

A
  • Uphill taxiways
  • Slippery taxiways
  • High gross weight
  • When crossing an active runway
19
Q

What is the maximum speed for the A320 according to the manual?

A

M 0.82 / 350 kts

20
Q

What is the Circling Minima for Aircraft Category C and D?

A

C = 600ft / 3700m
D = 700 ft / 4600m

21
Q

Can we set the Park BRK on the runway once we have lined up?

A

No

22
Q

In what cases can’t we use FLEX takeoff?

A
  • Windshear is reported
  • Severe Turbulence is reported
  • Runway is contaminated
  • Brake Action is Medium or less
  • A LVTO is to be performed
23
Q

Do we have to press the LS pb when lined up on a runway equipped with an ILS?

A

Yes, and check that ILS course and heading agrees within 5 degrees

24
Q

What is the maximum change of track below 400 ft?

A

15 deg

25
Q

What do we have to do with regards the 250kts/10000ft restriction if Airport elevation is above 1000 ft?

A

Change the restriction in the MCDU
Elevation 5400 should be set as 250kts/15400ft

26
Q

What is the stabilization height on an Instrument Approach and a Visual Approach?

A

Instrument Approach = 1000 ft
Visual Approach = 500 ft

27
Q

What is the Horizontal stabilization criteria for an ILS/LOC/VOR approach?

A

ILS = 1 dot
LOC = 1 dot
VOR = 5 degrees

28
Q

When diverting your track around big clouds, over what distance of diversion do we have to get approval from the company?

A

Over 100 nm off track

29
Q

Below what N1 value can we turn off the beacon during engine shutdown

A

Below 5% N1

30
Q

When should the “Securing the Engine Procedure” be used?

A

Last flight of the day and when transit time is more than 90 min

31
Q

On a Circling Approach, do we have to add 50 ft to the published MDA?

A

No

32
Q

What is the RVR required for a visual approach?

A

800 m or the lowest non-precision IAP RVR for the runway of intended landing

33
Q

When do we do the “Securing The Aircraft” procedure?

A

If transit time is more than 90 min or it is the last flight of the day
Shall only be done after all passengers have left the aircraft

34
Q

Why should we not turn off the batteries while the APU is shutting down when securing the aircraft?

A

Fire extinguishing will not be available

35
Q

What are general speeds for Vy?

A

250/275/M,76

36
Q

Above what altitude on departure can we accept high speed?

A

Above MSA

37
Q

Above what altitude on arrival can we accept high speed?

A

Above MSA or 5000 ft

38
Q

What tropopause altitude should be used in the MCDU?

A

The tropopause at TOC

39
Q

If your PDC clears you to FL 240 but there is a 8000 ft or below restriction on the SID, what do we set in the FCU?

A

Set 8000

40
Q

How far can we deviate from our route before we have to contact FOCC?

A

100 nm