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ACLAM study sets > Occ Health Guidelines > Flashcards

Occ Health Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

What does NRC stand for?

A

National Research Council

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2
Q

What organization does the NRC operate?

A

National Academy of Engineering

National Academy of Sciences

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3
Q

List 4 major NRC reports pertaining to guidance in environmental health and safety of lab workers

A

Prudent practices for handling hazardous chemicals in the laboratory

2) Prudent practices for sidposal of chemicals from laboratories
3) Biosafety in the laboratory: Prudent practices for the handling and disposal of infectious materials
4) Prudent practices in the laboratory: handling and disposing of chemicals

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4
Q

What does IRAC stand for?

A

Interagency Research Animal Committee

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5
Q

What does PRIM&R stand for?

A

Public Responsibility in Medicine and REsearch

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6
Q

What does ARENA stand for?

A

Applied Research Ethics National Association

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7
Q

What does OSHA stand for?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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8
Q

What does EPA stand for?

A

Environmental Protection Agency

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9
Q

What are the basic concepts that determine the effectiveness of an Occ HEalth program?

A 
Kowing the hazard
Avoiding and controlling exposures
Training and education
Rules and guidelines
Consistency
Record keeping and monitoring
Commitment and Coordination
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10
Q

What are the 5 institutional functions needed for an OHS program?

A 
Animal care and use
research
environmental health and safety
occupational health
administration and management
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11
Q

What % of people with pre-existing allergies might develop animal allergies?

A

30%

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12
Q

List key elements of OHS program?

A 
Administrative procedures
Facilit design and operation
Exposure control
Education and training
Occupational health
Equipment performance
Information management
Emergency procedures
Program evaluation
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13
Q

List factors to be considered in performing a risk assessment of employees with animal contact?

A

Animal contact
Exposure intensity
Exposure frequency
Physical and biological hazards from animal
Hazardous properties of agents used in protocol
Employee susceptibility
Occupational health history of an employee doing similar work

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14
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for an institutions OHS program?

A

senior official of an institution

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15
Q

What is the objective of an OHS program?

A

To minimize risks of occupational injury or illness by controlling or eliminating hazards in the workplace

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16
Q

NRC does not recommend serum collection/storage as standard components of an OHS program. T/F

A

True

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17
Q

NRC does recommend a physical exam as the principal surveillance tool for periodic health evaluations.

A

False, recommends a careful history based on knowledge of workplace risks. PE should be done when symptoms of work place illness become evident

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18
Q

What is the goal of an OHS program? What should the focus of the program be?

A

Goal- to prevent occupational injury and illness

Focus- control hazards and reduction of risk as opposed to merely satisfying regulations

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19
Q

Who is responsible/accountable for design of OHS program? Who has ultimate responsibility?

A

Institution has ultimate responsibility

also, program managers, program implementors, employees

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20
Q

What are the responsibilities of the institution?

A 
Understand the issues
provide guidance
establish support institutional policies
authority to provide resources
bring together program managers and implementors
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21
Q

Program managers can include whom?

A 
Health professionals
safety professionals
veterinarians
animal-facility managers or supervisors
research directors and scientists
lab supervisuors
human resources and finance personnel
legal advisors
environmental experts 
facility engineers
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22
Q

What is a safety program implementors key responsibility? Other responsibilities?

A

Training is key responsibility. other: providing appropriate PPE, providing appropriate facilities, ensuring compliance of subordinate staff with established procedures and practices

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23
Q

Institutions typically choose to address the exposures that are causing the greatetst costs. T/F

A

True

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24
Q

List three types of control/prevention strategies for controlling OHS risks (occupational illness/injury)

A

primary prevention- control/eliminate hazards
secondary prevention- premorbid case detection
tertiary prevention- case finding and disease management

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25
Q

Who is responsible for identification of hazards in the workplace?

A

Everyone

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26
Q

What does MSDS stand for?

A

Material Safety Data Sheets

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27
Q

What does NIOSH stand for?

A

National Institue for Occupational Safety and Health

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28
Q

Define risk vs hazard

A

risk- measure of the likelihood of a consequence

hazard- inherent danger in a material or system

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29
Q

What is the principal objective of an OHS program?

A

To reduce to an acceptable level the risk associated with using material or systems that might have inherent danger

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30
Q

What are some institutional sources about worker health and safety?

A 
Workers compensation ins
first report of illness/injury
OSHA 200 log
first aid log
occupational health log
adverse reaction reports
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31
Q

Define worker compensation

A

insurance system maintained by an institution to cover the medical costs and replace lost wages of workers with work related illness/injury

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32
Q

What is Supplementary Data System (SDS)?

A

Fed Bureau of Labor Statistics receives data from 35 states categorizing and reporting injuries and illnesses that qualify for worker comp.

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33
Q

What is the OSHA 200 log and who requires this

A

most institutions are required by law to maintain a log of work-related illness/injury, US dept of labor

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34
Q

Define injury vs ilness

A

Injuries- incidents that are instantaneous (bite, kick, needlestikc)
Illness- conditions arising from noninstantaneous events (carpal-tunnel syndrome, animal allergies, dermatitis)

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35
Q

When is an injury recordable?

A

It is results in: death, loss of consciousness, lost work time, placement on restricted duty, treatment other than first aid

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36
Q

What is required to be prepared and kept by employeers for each OSHA 200 log entry?

A

Supplementary record of occupational illness or injury (OSHA form 101)

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37
Q

List some government agencies that could be used as sources of info for developing a safety program and ID potential hazards.

A

NIOSH, OSHA, CDC, NIH, NADC, ARS, APHIS

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38
Q

List 3 most common species involved with bites among general population

A

Dogs, cats, rodents

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39
Q

Give some examples of diseases transmitted through animal bites

A

Rabies, CHV-1, hantavirus, cat-scratch fever, tularemia, rat bite feer, brucellosis, orf

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40
Q

What does NFPA stand for?

A

National Fire Protection Association

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41
Q

List fire classifications for various materials

A 
Class A (Cloth, wood, paper)
Class B (flammable gasses and liquids)
Class C (electric equipment)
Class D (comubstable metals)
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42
Q

How are class B liquids further defined?

A

according to flash point (lowest temperature at which liquid will produce vapor sufficient to propagate flame
flammable liquids have flash point less than 100
combustable liquds have flash point between 100-200

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43
Q

List classification of UV radiation by wavelength

A

UVA 320-400nm (black light)
UVB 280-320nm (erythemal region)
UVC 100-280nm (germicidal region)

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44
Q

Compressed gas cylinders should be secured at all times. T/F

A

True

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45
Q

What is a potential hazard of UV radiation in the presense of chlorinated solvents?

A

UV radiation reacts with vapors of chlorinated solvents to produce phosgene a potential lung irritant

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46
Q

What precautions must employees take if working in the presence of UV radiation?

A

Eye and skin should be protected against UV exposure

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47
Q

What does “LASER” stand for?

A

light amplification by the stimulated emission of radiation

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48
Q

What does ANSI stand for?

A

American national standards institute

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49
Q

list classification of lasers. What is this classification based on?

A

Class 1: does not emit hazardous level of radiation when operating normally
Class 2: Low-power, not enough power to injure accidentally but can cause injury if beam viewed for extended periods of time
Class 3a: High power, can cause injury if beam concentrated with viewing device.
Class 3b: Produce injury if viewed directly, beam also dangerous if reflected off a mirror like surface
Class IV: Class 3 + fire hazard
Classification is based on power level and hazard potential

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50
Q

What is the major hazard associated with lazers?

A

major hazard is related to beam (burns, eye damage, lacerations, fires) also aerosols, fumes, toxic gases, electric shock

51
Q

What does NSC stand for?

A

National Safety Council

52
Q

What is the criteria for classifying radiation as ionizing?

A

Radiation must have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms to create ions.

53
Q

Define and list types of particulate radiation

A

Composed of particles that are of atomic origin. alpha

2 protons and 2 neutrons) and beta particles (electrons or positrons

54
Q

define and list types of nonparticulate radiation

A

electromagnetic radiation with very short wavelength, composed of photons of energy and can penetrate matter (gamma and x-rays)

55
Q

Through what routes can radiation be hazardous? What are the 2 types of hazards?

A 
Routes= inhalation, ingestion, skin contact, proximity
Hazards= internal, external
56
Q

What agency controls the use of radioisotopes?

A

US Nuclear Regulatory Commission

57
Q

Name some common types of hazards presented by machinery.

A

in running nip points, crush points, pinch points, noise

58
Q

How is chronic noise-induced hearing loss characterized?

A

Declining sensitivity to frequencies above 2,000 Hz

59
Q

What are OSHA limits on “noise” exposure for employees?

A

limits noise exposure to 90 decibels measured on the A scale of standard sound level meter at slow response averaged over an 8h workshift

60
Q

list some negative effects of noise

A 
hearing loss
make speech difficult
cause loss of concentration
distract workers
increase fatigue
61
Q

Ultrasonography is not covered by the OSHA noise standards. T/F

A

False, if frequency is less than 20 kHz, it is covered

62
Q

Employee knowledge of chemical hazards and protective measures has been increased due to what 2 OSHA health and safety standards?

A

hazard communication standard, occupational exposure to hazardous chemical in laboratories

63
Q

Name some hazardous properties of chemicals

A

flammability, corrosiveness, reactivity, explosivity, toxicity

64
Q

what are the most common chemical injuries associated with animal care and use?

A

burns and irritation of the skin, allergic response in sensitized people

65
Q

Hazards associated with experimental protocols are influenced by what 2 principal factors?

A

dangerous qualities of the experimental agents

complexity or type of experimental operations

66
Q

What are the recommended sequences of stages that sould be considered in planning a safe experiment

A 
evaluating hazards and assessing risks
management of chemicals
working with chemiclas
working with equipment
disposal of chemicals
lab facilities
government regulations of lab
67
Q

Transmission of zoonotic disease in an animal facility that is not involved with infectious disease is rare. T/F

A

True

68
Q

What does SALS stand for?

A

Subcommittee on Arbovirus Laboratory Safety

69
Q

What factors go into the selection of an appropriate biosafety level? Specifically, what characteristics of the infectious agent?

A

severity of disease, mode of transmission, availability of protective immunization or effective therapy, relative risk of exposure created by manipulation in handling the agent and caring for infected animals

70
Q

List and describe animal biosafety levels

A

ABSL1: basic level of protection for well characterized agents not known to cause disease in healthy humans
ABSL2: handles broad spectrum of moderate risk agents that cause disease in humans by ingestion, percutaneous or mucous membrane exposure
ABSL3: Agents that present risk of respiratory transmission, can cause serious and potentially lethal infection
ABSL4: Exotic agents posing high individual risk of life threatening disease by aerosol route and for which no treatment is available

71
Q

What estimated % of all lab workers eventually develop occupational related asthma?

A

10%

72
Q

Allergy is most often manifested by cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath when exposed to lab animals. T/F

A

False, most often manifested by nasal symptoms, itchy eyes and rashes

73
Q

List risk groups for workers exposed to lab animals based on history of allergic disease and sensitization to animal proteins

A

Normal- no evidence of allergic disease
Atopic- pre existing allergic disease
Asymptomatic- IgE abs to allergenic animal proteins
Symptomatic- Clinical symptoms on exposure to allergenic animal proteins

74
Q

In almost all asthmatic people with lab animal allergy, and shortness of breath when exposed to lab animals. T/F

A

True

75
Q

Which of the following are examples of anaphylactic reactions?

a. diffuse itching, hives, swelling of face, lips, tongue
b. difficulty breathing due to laryngeal edema
c. asthma with wheezing
d. loss of consciousness due to shock
e. a&b
f. all of the above

A

F

76
Q

allergic reactions are mediated by what class of immunoglobulins?

A

IgE

77
Q

What is the most common route of exposure in lab animal allergy?

A

airborne allergens

78
Q

Mast cells are most abundant in what sites?

A

Respiratory tract, GI tract, Skin

79
Q

An autosomal dominant trait with variable expression linked to genetic markerson Ch5 has been linked to people more likely to develop IgE abs to allergins

A

True

80
Q

List types of allergic reactions to lab animal allergens

A

Contact urticarial, allergic conjunctivitis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, anapylaxis

81
Q

What are the major sources of rat allergen exposure?

A

urine and saliva

82
Q

Name a major rat urine allergen.

A

Rat n1A

Rat n1B

83
Q

Name a major mouse allergen

A

Mus m1

84
Q

Urine samples from mice contain 100x more Mus m 1 than males. T/F

A

True

85
Q

Female mice excrete 4x more Mus m than males. T/F

A

False

86
Q

What are the sources of allergens from guinea pigs? What is the major source?

A

Dander, fur, saliva, urine. Urine=major

87
Q

Sources of allergens from rabbits? Which are major and which are minor?

A

Major glycoprotein allergen in fur. Minor allergenic components in saliva and urine.

88
Q

Allergy to cats might predispose workers to the development of allergy to lab animals. T/F

A

True

89
Q

Name the major cat allergen. Where is it produced?

A

Protein Fel d1. produced in sebaceous glands of skin and saliva

90
Q

Which of the following is false?

a. Fel d1 is found in all cats
b. cross reactivity occurs throughout all species of cats
c. All cats shed similar amounts of allergen
d. Male cats might shed more than female cats
e. some people can become sensitized to cat albumin

A

C

91
Q

Which of the following does not decrease concentrations of cat alerrgen in the air?

a. use filtered vacuum cleaner
b. remove carpeting
c. run high efficiency air cleaner
d. wash the cat
e. increase ventilation rate

A

E.

92
Q

Name the dog allergen and source of exposure.

A

Can f1, dog albumin, saliva, hair, skin

93
Q

Sensitization to primates is common. T/F

A

False

94
Q

Name sources of cattle allergens

A

dander and urine

95
Q

Horses constitute a highly potent source of allergens. T/F

A

True

96
Q

What are sources of horse allergens?

A

Daner, skin scrapings, albumin

97
Q

There is no evidence of cross sensitivity between deer and horse allergens. T/F

A

False

98
Q

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis due to exposure to birds is due to what type of Ab?

A

precipitating IgG abs to the protein in question

99
Q

List some ways to detect the presence of specific IgE Abs in humans

A

skin tests,
RAST
ELISA

100
Q

Airborne -allergen load in an animal room depends on what?

A

Rate of production, rate of removal, relative humidity

101
Q

Surgical disposable masks are effective in minimizing sensitization to lab animal allergens. T/F

A

False

102
Q

Recommended PPE for symptomatic allergic workers? Requirements to use these PPE’s

A

At a minimum, use of dust mist respirator certified by NIOSH, filtered airhood device. Employees using respirators will need respiratory fit testing and medical clearance

103
Q

What does AAAAI stand for?

A

American Academy of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology

104
Q

The use of immunotherapy as a means to protect workers from further symptoms has not been fully established. T/F

A

True

105
Q

Transmission of zoonotic diseases in the laboratory animal environment is uncommon. T/F

A

True

106
Q

Vigilance for zoonoses is an important aspect of all ___________ transplantations.

A

xenotransplants

107
Q

B- virus in macaques causes a clinical disease similar to human

a. influenza
b. measles
c. tuberculosis
d. herpes simplex

A

a

108
Q

An ocular complication of B virus infection in macaques is____________.

A

conjunctivitis

109
Q

Latency of the B virus is seen in the ganglia of sensory or motor (choose one) nerves serving the region in which the virus was introduced.

A

sensory

110
Q

NAme three stressors that can induce B virus shedding from peripheral sites.

A

immunocompromised
shipping
change in housing

111
Q

What period in the macaque life cycle shows the highest incidence of B virus infection

a. infancy
b. adolescence
c. old age

A

B

112
Q

Although several species of New world and old world monkeys are known to succumb to fatal B virus infection, only macaques and chimpanzees are known to harbor B virus naturally. T/F

A

True

113
Q

Fomite, as well as human to human, transmission has occurred with B virus infections in humans. T/F

A

True

114
Q

The incubation period between initial exposure and onset of clinical signs ranges from

a. 1-2 months
b. 1-7 days
c. 2-days to 1 month
d. 3-4 weeks

A

D

115
Q

Name one of two antiviral therapeutics used if a person has a history and symptoms consistent with B virus infection.

A

acyclvir

116
Q

Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by a _________ (type of virus).

A

filovirus

117
Q

What was the name of the Ebola like filovirus that cam from macaques imported into the united states from the Philippines during 1989?

A

Ebola Reston

118
Q

Name two important modes of transmission for Ebola that do not involve human to animal contact

A

contact with blood products

vcontact with fomites

119
Q 
Marburg virus diseases have been recognized on only \_\_\_ occasions.
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
A

c

120
Q

Hantavirus is caused by a ____________ (type of virus)

A

arenavirus

121
Q

Reservoirs for hantavirus are

a. rodents
b. lagomorphs
c. primates
d. canines

A

A

122
Q 
There is epidemiological evidence that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ can become infected through rodent contace and potentially serve as a reservoir.
a. dogs
b. birds
c fleas
d. cats
A

C

123
Q

The form of hantavirus known as nephropathia includes a severe, acute kidney failure from which patients rarely survive. T/F

A

True

ACLAM study sets (22 decks)

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