Occ Health Guidelines Flashcards
1
Q
What does NRC stand for?
A
National Research Council
2
Q
What organization does the NRC operate?
A
National Academy of Engineering
National Academy of Sciences
3
Q
List 4 major NRC reports pertaining to guidance in environmental health and safety of lab workers
A
Prudent practices for handling hazardous chemicals in the laboratory
2) Prudent practices for sidposal of chemicals from laboratories
3) Biosafety in the laboratory: Prudent practices for the handling and disposal of infectious materials
4) Prudent practices in the laboratory: handling and disposing of chemicals
4
Q
What does IRAC stand for?
A
Interagency Research Animal Committee
5
Q
What does PRIM&R stand for?
A
Public Responsibility in Medicine and REsearch
6
Q
What does ARENA stand for?
A
Applied Research Ethics National Association
7
Q
What does OSHA stand for?
A
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
8
Q
What does EPA stand for?
A
Environmental Protection Agency
9
Q
What are the basic concepts that determine the effectiveness of an Occ HEalth program?
A
Kowing the hazard Avoiding and controlling exposures Training and education Rules and guidelines Consistency Record keeping and monitoring Commitment and Coordination
10
Q
What are the 5 institutional functions needed for an OHS program?
A
Animal care and use research environmental health and safety occupational health administration and management
11
Q
What % of people with pre-existing allergies might develop animal allergies?
A
30%
12
Q
List key elements of OHS program?
A
Administrative procedures Facilit design and operation Exposure control Education and training Occupational health Equipment performance Information management Emergency procedures Program evaluation
13
Q
List factors to be considered in performing a risk assessment of employees with animal contact?
A
Animal contact
Exposure intensity
Exposure frequency
Physical and biological hazards from animal
Hazardous properties of agents used in protocol
Employee susceptibility
Occupational health history of an employee doing similar work
14
Q
Who is ultimately responsible for an institutions OHS program?
A
senior official of an institution
15
Q
What is the objective of an OHS program?
A
To minimize risks of occupational injury or illness by controlling or eliminating hazards in the workplace
16
Q
NRC does not recommend serum collection/storage as standard components of an OHS program. T/F
A
True
17
Q
NRC does recommend a physical exam as the principal surveillance tool for periodic health evaluations.
A
False, recommends a careful history based on knowledge of workplace risks. PE should be done when symptoms of work place illness become evident
18
Q
What is the goal of an OHS program? What should the focus of the program be?
A
Goal- to prevent occupational injury and illness
Focus- control hazards and reduction of risk as opposed to merely satisfying regulations
19
Q
Who is responsible/accountable for design of OHS program? Who has ultimate responsibility?
A
Institution has ultimate responsibility
also, program managers, program implementors, employees
20
Q
What are the responsibilities of the institution?
A
Understand the issues provide guidance establish support institutional policies authority to provide resources bring together program managers and implementors
21
Q
Program managers can include whom?
A
Health professionals safety professionals veterinarians animal-facility managers or supervisors research directors and scientists lab supervisuors human resources and finance personnel legal advisors environmental experts facility engineers
22
Q
What is a safety program implementors key responsibility? Other responsibilities?
A
Training is key responsibility. other: providing appropriate PPE, providing appropriate facilities, ensuring compliance of subordinate staff with established procedures and practices
23
Q
Institutions typically choose to address the exposures that are causing the greatetst costs. T/F
A
True
24
Q
List three types of control/prevention strategies for controlling OHS risks (occupational illness/injury)
A
primary prevention- control/eliminate hazards
secondary prevention- premorbid case detection
tertiary prevention- case finding and disease management
25
Who is responsible for identification of hazards in the workplace?
Everyone
26
What does MSDS stand for?
Material Safety Data Sheets
27
What does NIOSH stand for?
National Institue for Occupational Safety and Health
28
Define risk vs hazard
risk- measure of the likelihood of a consequence
| hazard- inherent danger in a material or system
29
What is the principal objective of an OHS program?
To reduce to an acceptable level the risk associated with using material or systems that might have inherent danger
30
What are some institutional sources about worker health and safety?
```
Workers compensation ins
first report of illness/injury
OSHA 200 log
first aid log
occupational health log
adverse reaction reports
```
31
Define worker compensation
insurance system maintained by an institution to cover the medical costs and replace lost wages of workers with work related illness/injury
32
What is Supplementary Data System (SDS)?
Fed Bureau of Labor Statistics receives data from 35 states categorizing and reporting injuries and illnesses that qualify for worker comp.
33
What is the OSHA 200 log and who requires this
most institutions are required by law to maintain a log of work-related illness/injury, US dept of labor
34
Define injury vs ilness
Injuries- incidents that are instantaneous (bite, kick, needlestikc)
Illness- conditions arising from noninstantaneous events (carpal-tunnel syndrome, animal allergies, dermatitis)
35
When is an injury recordable?
It is results in: death, loss of consciousness, lost work time, placement on restricted duty, treatment other than first aid
36
What is required to be prepared and kept by employeers for each OSHA 200 log entry?
Supplementary record of occupational illness or injury (OSHA form 101)
37
List some government agencies that could be used as sources of info for developing a safety program and ID potential hazards.
NIOSH, OSHA, CDC, NIH, NADC, ARS, APHIS
38
List 3 most common species involved with bites among general population
Dogs, cats, rodents
39
Give some examples of diseases transmitted through animal bites
Rabies, CHV-1, hantavirus, cat-scratch fever, tularemia, rat bite feer, brucellosis, orf
40
What does NFPA stand for?
National Fire Protection Association
41
List fire classifications for various materials
```
Class A (Cloth, wood, paper)
Class B (flammable gasses and liquids)
Class C (electric equipment)
Class D (comubstable metals)
```
42
How are class B liquids further defined?
according to flash point (lowest temperature at which liquid will produce vapor sufficient to propagate flame
flammable liquids have flash point less than 100
combustable liquds have flash point between 100-200
43
List classification of UV radiation by wavelength
UVA 320-400nm (black light)
UVB 280-320nm (erythemal region)
UVC 100-280nm (germicidal region)
44
Compressed gas cylinders should be secured at all times. T/F
True
45
What is a potential hazard of UV radiation in the presense of chlorinated solvents?
UV radiation reacts with vapors of chlorinated solvents to produce phosgene a potential lung irritant
46
What precautions must employees take if working in the presence of UV radiation?
Eye and skin should be protected against UV exposure
47
What does "LASER" stand for?
light amplification by the stimulated emission of radiation
48
What does ANSI stand for?
American national standards institute
49
list classification of lasers. What is this classification based on?
Class 1: does not emit hazardous level of radiation when operating normally
Class 2: Low-power, not enough power to injure accidentally but can cause injury if beam viewed for extended periods of time
Class 3a: High power, can cause injury if beam concentrated with viewing device.
Class 3b: Produce injury if viewed directly, beam also dangerous if reflected off a mirror like surface
Class IV: Class 3 + fire hazard
Classification is based on power level and hazard potential
50
What is the major hazard associated with lazers?
major hazard is related to beam (burns, eye damage, lacerations, fires) also aerosols, fumes, toxic gases, electric shock
51
What does NSC stand for?
National Safety Council
52
What is the criteria for classifying radiation as ionizing?
Radiation must have enough energy to remove electrons from atoms to create ions.
53
Define and list types of particulate radiation
Composed of particles that are of atomic origin. alpha
| 2 protons and 2 neutrons) and beta particles (electrons or positrons
54
define and list types of nonparticulate radiation
electromagnetic radiation with very short wavelength, composed of photons of energy and can penetrate matter (gamma and x-rays)
55
Through what routes can radiation be hazardous? What are the 2 types of hazards?
```
Routes= inhalation, ingestion, skin contact, proximity
Hazards= internal, external
```
56
What agency controls the use of radioisotopes?
US Nuclear Regulatory Commission
57
Name some common types of hazards presented by machinery.
in running nip points, crush points, pinch points, noise
58
How is chronic noise-induced hearing loss characterized?
Declining sensitivity to frequencies above 2,000 Hz
59
What are OSHA limits on "noise" exposure for employees?
limits noise exposure to 90 decibels measured on the A scale of standard sound level meter at slow response averaged over an 8h workshift
60
list some negative effects of noise
```
hearing loss
make speech difficult
cause loss of concentration
distract workers
increase fatigue
```
61
Ultrasonography is not covered by the OSHA noise standards. T/F
False, if frequency is less than 20 kHz, it is covered
62
Employee knowledge of chemical hazards and protective measures has been increased due to what 2 OSHA health and safety standards?
hazard communication standard, occupational exposure to hazardous chemical in laboratories
63
Name some hazardous properties of chemicals
flammability, corrosiveness, reactivity, explosivity, toxicity
64
what are the most common chemical injuries associated with animal care and use?
burns and irritation of the skin, allergic response in sensitized people
65
Hazards associated with experimental protocols are influenced by what 2 principal factors?
dangerous qualities of the experimental agents
| complexity or type of experimental operations
66
What are the recommended sequences of stages that sould be considered in planning a safe experiment
```
evaluating hazards and assessing risks
management of chemicals
working with chemiclas
working with equipment
disposal of chemicals
lab facilities
government regulations of lab
```
67
Transmission of zoonotic disease in an animal facility that is not involved with infectious disease is rare. T/F
True
68
What does SALS stand for?
Subcommittee on Arbovirus Laboratory Safety
69
What factors go into the selection of an appropriate biosafety level? Specifically, what characteristics of the infectious agent?
severity of disease, mode of transmission, availability of protective immunization or effective therapy, relative risk of exposure created by manipulation in handling the agent and caring for infected animals
70
List and describe animal biosafety levels
ABSL1: basic level of protection for well characterized agents not known to cause disease in healthy humans
ABSL2: handles broad spectrum of moderate risk agents that cause disease in humans by ingestion, percutaneous or mucous membrane exposure
ABSL3: Agents that present risk of respiratory transmission, can cause serious and potentially lethal infection
ABSL4: Exotic agents posing high individual risk of life threatening disease by aerosol route and for which no treatment is available
71
What estimated % of all lab workers eventually develop occupational related asthma?
10%
72
Allergy is most often manifested by cough, wheezing, and shortness of breath when exposed to lab animals. T/F
False, most often manifested by nasal symptoms, itchy eyes and rashes
73
List risk groups for workers exposed to lab animals based on history of allergic disease and sensitization to animal proteins
Normal- no evidence of allergic disease
Atopic- pre existing allergic disease
Asymptomatic- IgE abs to allergenic animal proteins
Symptomatic- Clinical symptoms on exposure to allergenic animal proteins
74
In almost all asthmatic people with lab animal allergy, and shortness of breath when exposed to lab animals. T/F
True
75
Which of the following are examples of anaphylactic reactions?
a. diffuse itching, hives, swelling of face, lips, tongue
b. difficulty breathing due to laryngeal edema
c. asthma with wheezing
d. loss of consciousness due to shock
e. a&b
f. all of the above
F
76
allergic reactions are mediated by what class of immunoglobulins?
IgE
77
What is the most common route of exposure in lab animal allergy?
airborne allergens
78
Mast cells are most abundant in what sites?
Respiratory tract, GI tract, Skin
79
An autosomal dominant trait with variable expression linked to genetic markerson Ch5 has been linked to people more likely to develop IgE abs to allergins
True
80
List types of allergic reactions to lab animal allergens
Contact urticarial, allergic conjunctivitis, allergic rhinitis, asthma, anapylaxis
81
What are the major sources of rat allergen exposure?
urine and saliva
82
Name a major rat urine allergen.
Rat n1A
| Rat n1B
83
Name a major mouse allergen
Mus m1
84
Urine samples from mice contain 100x more Mus m 1 than males. T/F
True
85
Female mice excrete 4x more Mus m than males. T/F
False
86
What are the sources of allergens from guinea pigs? What is the major source?
Dander, fur, saliva, urine. Urine=major
87
Sources of allergens from rabbits? Which are major and which are minor?
Major glycoprotein allergen in fur. Minor allergenic components in saliva and urine.
88
Allergy to cats might predispose workers to the development of allergy to lab animals. T/F
True
89
Name the major cat allergen. Where is it produced?
Protein Fel d1. produced in sebaceous glands of skin and saliva
90
Which of the following is false?
a. Fel d1 is found in all cats
b. cross reactivity occurs throughout all species of cats
c. All cats shed similar amounts of allergen
d. Male cats might shed more than female cats
e. some people can become sensitized to cat albumin
C
91
Which of the following does not decrease concentrations of cat alerrgen in the air?
a. use filtered vacuum cleaner
b. remove carpeting
c. run high efficiency air cleaner
d. wash the cat
e. increase ventilation rate
E.
92
Name the dog allergen and source of exposure.
Can f1, dog albumin, saliva, hair, skin
93
Sensitization to primates is common. T/F
False
94
Name sources of cattle allergens
dander and urine
95
Horses constitute a highly potent source of allergens. T/F
True
96
What are sources of horse allergens?
Daner, skin scrapings, albumin
97
There is no evidence of cross sensitivity between deer and horse allergens. T/F
False
98
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis due to exposure to birds is due to what type of Ab?
precipitating IgG abs to the protein in question
99
List some ways to detect the presence of specific IgE Abs in humans
skin tests,
RAST
ELISA
100
Airborne -allergen load in an animal room depends on what?
Rate of production, rate of removal, relative humidity
101
Surgical disposable masks are effective in minimizing sensitization to lab animal allergens. T/F
False
102
Recommended PPE for symptomatic allergic workers? Requirements to use these PPE's
At a minimum, use of dust mist respirator certified by NIOSH, filtered airhood device. Employees using respirators will need respiratory fit testing and medical clearance
103
What does AAAAI stand for?
American Academy of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology
104
The use of immunotherapy as a means to protect workers from further symptoms has not been fully established. T/F
True
105
Transmission of zoonotic diseases in the laboratory animal environment is uncommon. T/F
True
106
Vigilance for zoonoses is an important aspect of all ___________ transplantations.
xenotransplants
107
B- virus in macaques causes a clinical disease similar to human
a. influenza
b. measles
c. tuberculosis
d. herpes simplex
a
108
An ocular complication of B virus infection in macaques is____________.
conjunctivitis
109
Latency of the B virus is seen in the ganglia of sensory or motor (choose one) nerves serving the region in which the virus was introduced.
sensory
110
NAme three stressors that can induce B virus shedding from peripheral sites.
immunocompromised
shipping
change in housing
111
What period in the macaque life cycle shows the highest incidence of B virus infection
a. infancy
b. adolescence
c. old age
B
112
Although several species of New world and old world monkeys are known to succumb to fatal B virus infection, only macaques and chimpanzees are known to harbor B virus naturally. T/F
True
113
Fomite, as well as human to human, transmission has occurred with B virus infections in humans. T/F
True
114
The incubation period between initial exposure and onset of clinical signs ranges from
a. 1-2 months
b. 1-7 days
c. 2-days to 1 month
d. 3-4 weeks
D
115
Name one of two antiviral therapeutics used if a person has a history and symptoms consistent with B virus infection.
acyclvir
116
Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by a _________ (type of virus).
filovirus
117
What was the name of the Ebola like filovirus that cam from macaques imported into the united states from the Philippines during 1989?
Ebola Reston
118
Name two important modes of transmission for Ebola that do not involve human to animal contact
contact with blood products
| vcontact with fomites
119
```
Marburg virus diseases have been recognized on only ___ occasions.
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
```
c
120
Hantavirus is caused by a ____________ (type of virus)
arenavirus
121
Reservoirs for hantavirus are
a. rodents
b. lagomorphs
c. primates
d. canines
A
122
```
There is epidemiological evidence that __________ can become infected through rodent contace and potentially serve as a reservoir.
a. dogs
b. birds
c fleas
d. cats
```
C
123
The form of hantavirus known as nephropathia includes a severe, acute kidney failure from which patients rarely survive. T/F
True
