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ACLAM study sets > A &A (BBCH24 and A&ABB) > Flashcards

A &A (BBCH24 and A&ABB) Flashcards

1
Q

what is the recommended acclimation period for rodents?

A

24-72hrs

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2
Q

what class of anesthetic are ketamine and tiletamine in?

A

dissociative

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3
Q

effects produced by ketamine

A

a degree of analgesia and immobility without muscle relaxation, adequate for restraint but not for anesthesia

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4
Q

what class of anesthetic are barbituates (sodium pentobarbital) in?

A

sedative hypnotics

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5
Q

effects produced by barbiturates?

A

minimal analgesic effect, affect consciousness, dose related respiratory and cardiovascular depression, decreased cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure

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6
Q

mechanism and classification of Inactin

A

barbituate, sedative hypnotic

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7
Q

uses of Inactin

A

long duration of anesthesia, 3hrs or more in the rat

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8
Q

considerations for Propofol

A

1) alkylphenol derivative 2) respiratory and cardiovascular depression 3) resembles thiopental 4) rapid recovery

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9
Q

another name for Avertin

A

Tribromoethanol

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10
Q

considerations for the use of Avertin

A

short surgical procedures give IP but degradation products are irritants and toxic so may be recommended for terminal procedures only but has been used in transgenic mouse production narrow safety margin- respiratory and circulatory depression, generally unpredictable

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11
Q

describe neuroleptics

A

combination of potent opioids and butyrophenone tranquilizers

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12
Q

effects of alpha-chloralose

A

minimal analgesia, not recommended for painful manipulations, used in studies of long duration while preserving autonomic reflexes, not suitable for survival procedures due to rough induction, prolonged recovery and seizures

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13
Q

uses for chloral hydrate

A

sedative hypnotic, medium duration light anesthesia with minimal effects on cardiovascular function or reflexes, associated with peritonitis and adynamic ileus, carcinogenic

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14
Q

properties of urethane

A

(aka ethyl carbamate) greater analgesia, prolonged stable anesthesia in rats, liver and pulmonary damage and carcinogenic, not suitable for recovery anesthesia

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15
Q

effects of metomidate and etomidate

A

rapid loss of consciousness, minimal analgesia, good cardiovascular stability, bad in that it suppresses the adrenocortical function of some species

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16
Q

sevoflurane+rats+soda lime= ?

A

compound A- nephrotoxic

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17
Q

receptor for Buprenorphine?

A

partial mu agonist

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18
Q

example of alpha2 agonists

A

xylazine, dexmedetomidine

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19
Q

side effects of alpha2 agonists

A

hyperglycemia, bradycardia, vasoconstriction, hypothermia

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20
Q

side effects of additional dosing of alpha2 agonists

A

bradycardia and cardiac arrest

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21
Q

reversal for alpha2 agonists

A

atipamezole

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22
Q

examples of benzodiazepines

A

diazepam and midazolam

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23
Q

effects of benzodiazepines

A

anxiolysis, sedation, and muscle relaxation, not analgesic

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24
Q

reversal of benzodiazepines

A

flumazenil

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25
Q

what form of post op care has been shown to significantly increase rates of pregnancy and fetal implantation?

A

supplemental heat overnight

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26
Q

what are the considerations of anesthetics for mouse fetal surgery and why?

A

isoflurane causes uterine relaxation alpha2 agonists reduce uterine blood flow and increase uterine contractility

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27
Q

effects of isoflurane anesthesia

A

1) cardio and neuro protective 2) little to no GI and liver 3) mixed on the lungs (can cause cilliary disfunction) 4) leukopenia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia in C3H/HeN mice 5) hypogylcemia and metabolic acidosis in neonatal mice

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28
Q

effects of halothane anesthesia

A

1) most extensive effects on cardiopulmonary system 2) potent bronchodilator 3) neuroprotective 4) sustained elevation in cortisterone for up to 24 hours

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29
Q

effects of sevoflurane anesthesia

A

1) cardioprotective and neuroprotective (brain not spinal cord) 2) does not affect tracheal epilethial cell cilliary function 3) nephrotoxic for rats (compound A)

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30
Q

effects of desflurane anesthesia

A

1) quick recovery 2) neuroprotective 3) cardioprotective (even during and after infarct, potential treatment)

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31
Q

effects of methoxyflurane

A

1) low concentration at room temp, most often used in a bell jar set up 2) profound effect on hormone release (HPA axis, ACTH and corticosterone release)

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32
Q

effects of enflurane

A

1) lower margin of safety, apenic index is lower than MAC 2) epileptogenic

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33
Q

which anesthetic is thought to be responsible for causing ocular lesions in rats

A

ketamine/ xylazine

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34
Q

physiologic effects of ketamine/diazepam in rodents

A

minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects poor muscle relaxation

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35
Q

physiologic effects of pentobarbital in rodents

A

significant cardiovascular depression in mice hypotension and uncompensated respiratory acidosis in rats

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36
Q

effects of Thiopental in rodents

A

ultrashort acting barbiturate induction agent administered IV irritant, not advisable for survival procedures

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37
Q

physiologic effects of Telazol in rodents

A

very narrow safety margin

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38
Q

mechanism of action of phenothiazine tranquilizers

A

reduce the animals reaction to handling or pain via sedation and CNS depression, no analgesia, additive positive effect with other anesthetics

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39
Q

effects of morphine in hamsters

A

analgesia without CNS or respiratory depression

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40
Q

effects of morphine on intracranial pressure

A

increases ICP

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41
Q

which NSAIDS do not work via the COX 1 or 2 pathway?

A

Acetaminophen and dipyrone

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42
Q

what is the most safe anesthetic choice for neonatal rodents?

A

inhalents

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43
Q

what is the second most safe anesthetic choice for neonatal rodents?

A

hypothermia can be used in altricial rodents up to 7 days of age

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44
Q

side effect of telazol in rabbits?

A

nephrotoxicity

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45
Q

what are the traditional reflexes used to monitor anesthetic depth in rabbits

A

righting palpebral corneal pedal withdrawl pinna

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46
Q

which reflex is the most accurate measure of depth of anesthesia in rabbits

A

pinna, pedal withdrawl, corneal, palpebral

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47
Q

what is the recommended fasting for rabbits weighing under 3kg?

A

not more than 12 hours

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48
Q

what are some signs of the hypnotzed state in rabbits?

A

miosis analgesia increased depth of respiration reduced respiratory rate, heart rate, and BP

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49
Q

importance of NSAIDS in ferrets

A

deficient in the glucoronidation pathway, may manifest signs of toxicity

50
Q

up to what age can hypothermia be used to induce anestheisa in neonatal ferrets

A

5 days old

51
Q

which inhalent anesthetic has been implicated in causing malignant hyperthermia

A

halothane

52
Q

what cardiovascular defects are swine known to be predisposed to?

A

ventral septal defect patent foramen ovale

53
Q

cardiovascular effects of telazol and xylazine in pigs

A

cardiopressive in swine

54
Q

cardiovascular effects of ketamine/medetomidine and ketamine/midazolam in swine

A

protect against arrhythmias and provide stable hemodynamics in swine

55
Q

respiratory effects of barbiturates in swine

A

potent respiratory depressant in swine

56
Q

concerns about anticholinergics in small ruminants?

A

do not consistently reduce salivary secreations except at high doses and only reduces the aqueous portion-making them thicker, short duration of action

57
Q

concerns about xylazine in ruminants

A

10-20 times more potent. goats>cattle>sheep

58
Q

concerns with diazepam in small ruminants?

A

absorbed poorly following IM injection

59
Q

describe how to perform a posterior epidural block in ruminants and when it would be used?

A

site of injection is the sacrococcygeal or first intercoccygeal space. used to provide anesthesia to the perineum or tail of standing cattle

60
Q

describe how to perform an anterior epidural block in ruminants and when it would be used?

A

lumbosacral space. provides anesthesia to the caudal abdomen and useful for abdominal procedures, effects the motor and sensory block of the pelvic limbs so the animal is unable to stand

61
Q

name the two ways to perform a paravertebral block

A

proximal block and distal block

62
Q

describe how to perform a proximal paravertebral block

A

needle is inserted vertically about 5 cm lateral to the dorsal spinus process until it strikes bone, then walked off the rim and inject into the intertransverse ligament

63
Q

describe how to perform a distal paravertebral block

A

injection is started at the tip of the transverse process and deposited as the needle is advanced toward the spine

64
Q

list three anatomic considerations in regards to anesthesia in swine

A

1) highly susceptible to ventricular arrhythmias 2) fragile pulmonary tissue which may be damaged by over-inflation with mechanical respirators, 3) left hemizygous vein which drains the intercostal vessels into the coronary sinus

65
Q

describe the unique receptors for breathing regulation found in birds

A

intrapulmonary chemoreceptors that are inhibited by high lung PCO2 excited by low lung PCO2 and provide phasic feedback for the control of the rate and depth of breathing

66
Q

effects of diazepam in birds

A

excellent muscle relaxant duration of action is short and recovery is NOT prolonged

67
Q

effects of xylazine in birds

A

profound cardiopulmonary effects including second degree heart block, bradyarrhythmias

68
Q

describe the opioid receptors found in birds

A

they have greater presence of kappa receptor, located in the forebrain, therefore butorphanol provides effective analgesia over morphine

69
Q

give some examples of thermal acute pain models

A

tail flick

tail withdrawl

hot plate

paw withdrawl

70
Q

give some examples of mechanical acute pain models

A

tail-clip

von Frey Filament

71
Q

give some examples of chemical acute pain models

A

formalin

abdominal constriction

72
Q

what are some advantages of the tail flick acute pain assay

A

speed and ease of use

73
Q

what are some disadvantages of disadvantages of the tail flick assay

A

low clinical relevance

74
Q

what are some advantages of the tail withdrawl assay

A

no effect of repeated assay

75
Q

what are some disadvantages of the tail withdrawl assay

A

requires restraint

76
Q

what are some advantages of the hot plate assay

A

speed and ease of use no restraint required

77
Q

what are some disadvantages of the hot plate assay

A

complex behaviors repeated testing effects

78
Q

what are some advantages of the paw withdrawl assay

A

no restraint required can test contralateral hindpaw (allows for independent testing of both sides of the body) no effect of repeated testing

79
Q

what are some disadvantages of the paw withdrawl assay

A

low clinical relevance long habituation time

80
Q

what are some advantages of the von Frey filament assay

A

used in humans

81
Q

what are some disadvantages of the von Frey filament assay

A

long habituation time hard to standardize across labs

82
Q

what are some examples of common chronic pain assays

A

complete freunds adjuvant

chronic constriction injury

partial sciatic nerve ligation

spinal nerve ligation

spared nerve injury

Vincristine,

paclitaxel

83
Q

define hyperalgesia

A

increased response to noxious stimuli

84
Q

define allodynia

A

response to normally non-noxious stimuli

85
Q

what is the most common chemical used for abdominal constriction test

A

glacial acetic acid

86
Q

what does IASP stand for?

A

international association for the study of pain

87
Q

mechanism of action of barbiturates and propofol?

A

decrease the rate of dissociation of GABA from its receptor

88
Q

mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?

A

enhance the affinity of the receptors for GABA

89
Q

how are barbiturates metabolized?

A

by the cytochrome P450 pathway in liver, thus tolerance may be seen with repeated dosing

90
Q

another name for Inactin

A

thiobutabarbital, no longer available in pharmaceutical grade

91
Q

immune system effects of thiopental

A

inhibits cell mediated immunity, strong anti-inflammatory effect

92
Q

in which species is propofol the least effective?

A

rabbits

93
Q

what anesthetic agent is considered ineffective in rabbits and results in both short periods of anesthesia and death?

A

thiobutabarbital

94
Q

anesthetic class of Alphaxalone

A

steroid anesthetic

95
Q

physiologic effects of alphaxalone

A

rapid induction of short term anesthesia

rapid recovery

wide safety margin

minimal accumulation with repeated dose

Cremophor resulted in histamine release and its removal from the market

96
Q

effects of benzodiazepines

A

marked sedation, anxiolytic, spinal cord mediated muscle relaxant, awareness persists, not analgesic, minimal cardiovascular and mild respiratory effects

97
Q

mechanism of action for Ketamine

A

NMDA antagonist, binds to a receptor in the NMDA channel and prevents further ion flux, thus inhibiting glutamate action of the channel in a noncompetitive manner

98
Q

what anesthetic agent are swine resistant to?

A

xylazine and all other alpha 2 agonists

99
Q

what reversal agent is known to increase sexual activity in rats and monkeys?

A

atipamezole, other side effects are increases pain-related responses by blocking noradrenergic feedback inhibition of pain. beneficial effects on alertness , selective attention, planning, learning and recall

100
Q

what is the proposed mechanism of action of inhalation anesthetics

A

enhancement of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA

101
Q

where are the Mu opioid receptors located

A

cerebral cortex, thalamus, periaqueductal gray

102
Q

where are the delta opioid receptors located

A

frontal cortex limbic system, olfactory tubercule

103
Q

where are the kappa opioid receptors located

A

spinal cord

104
Q

mechanism of action of Pentazocine

A

partial agonist of mu receptor(may be weak antagonist) and powerful k receptor agonist

105
Q

mechanism of action of buprenorphine

A

partial mu agonist and k antagonist

106
Q

mechanism of action of butorphanol

A

mu antagonist, k agonist

107
Q

what is the differentiating feature of an A circuit?

A

fresh gas comes in at end of circuit instead of near ET tube connection

108
Q

what is the differentiating feature of a D circuit?

A

rebreating bag is at the end of circuit, exhaust and pop off valve just before bag

109
Q

what is the differentiating feature of an E circuit?

A

no rebreating bag

110
Q

what is the differentiating feature of an F circuit?

A

exhaust and pop off are through the rebreathing bag

111
Q

what is another name for the D circut?

A

a Baine system

112
Q

name the blade

A

Phillips

113
Q

name the blade

A

Robertshaw

114
Q

name the blade

A

modified miller

115
Q

name the blade

A

wisconsin

116
Q

name the blade

A

macintosh

117
Q

name the blade

A

Choi double-angle blade

118
Q

What are the NIOSH recomendations for halogenated anesthetic gasses?

A

should not exceed 2ppm ceiling concentrations over a period of no greater than 1 hour

119
Q

what is the usual method of obtaining time weighted average sampling of halogenated anesthetic gasses?

A

active or passive dosimetry

120
Q

how often does OSHA recommend air monitoring be conducted for waste anesthetic gasses?

A

every 6 months

121
Q

how long should permanent medical records of employees be kept?

A

duration of employment + 20 years

122
Q

what injectable anesthetics have an effect at the GABA receptor?

A

barbiturates

chloral hydrate

alpha-chloralose

tribromoethanol

propofol, metomidate, etomidate

benzodiazepines

ACLAM study sets (22 decks)

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