Neuraxial Flashcards

1
Q

What is density?

A

The ratio of mass to volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is specific gravity?

A

The density of a substance relative to another substance (usually the density of something compared to the density of water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is baricity?

A

The specific gravity where CSF is the substance being compared to (rather than water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is added to increase baricity?

A

Dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is added to decrease baricity?

A

Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the highest points of lordosis in the supine position?

A

C5 and L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the highest points of kyphosis in the supine position?

A

T6 and S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In the supine position, how will an an intrathecal hypobaric solution spread?

A

In the lower lumbar region, because in order to reach the cervical region it would have to sink to the thoracic lordosis, which it can’t do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the primary mechanism of hypotension with neuraxial anesthesia?

A

Blockade of sympathetic preganglionic B fibers (sympathectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The spine of the scapula corresponds with what vertebral level?

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The tip of the scapula corresponds with what vertebral level?

A

T7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the intercristal line?

A

Tuffier’s Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In infants up to 1 yr, Tuffier’s line corresponds with:

A

L5-S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The spinal cord ends in a taper called _______ at _________

A

conus medullaris

L1 (L3 in infants)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where does the dural sac end?

A

S2 in adults

S3 in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the Filum Terminale?

A

A continuation of the pia mater below the level of the conus medullaris. It helps anchor the spine to the coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which veins drain the spinal cord and meninges?

A

Batson’s Plexus, which passes through the lateral and anterior regions of the epidural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The epidural space contains:

A

nerves
fat pads
blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Name the dermatomes: C6 C7 C8 T4 T6 T10 L4
26
Posterior nerve roots carry:
Sensory information
27
Anterior nerve roots carry:
motor and autonomic information
28
With spinal anesthesia, how much higher is autonomic blockade than sensory blockade?
Autonomic blockade is 2-6 dermatomes higher than sensory blockade
29
With spinal anesthesia, how much higher is sensory blockade than motor blockade?
Sensory blockade is two dermatomes higher than motor blockade
30
In the lumbar region, spread is primarily ________
cephalad
31
LA spread In the midthoracic region is _________
equally cephalad and caudad
32
In the cervical region, spread is mostly ______
caudad
33
With epidural anesthesia, how much higher than sensory blockade is autonomic blockade?
There is no differential autonomic blockade with epidural anesthesia! Only spinal! BUT motor blockade 2-4 dermatomes lower
34
Which sensory modality will fade first?
Temperature Then Sharp Then pressure
35
The primary drug-related determinant of epidural block HEIGHT is:
Volume
36
The primary drug-related determinant of epidural block DENSITY is:
LA concentration
37
How does neuraxial anesthesia impact respiratory mechanics?
It impairs inspiration and expiration because it knocks out accessory muscles
38
Does spinal anesthesia cause drowsiness?
Actually yes. It reduces sensory input to the RAS
39
How does spinal anesthesia impact the gut?
Increases peristalsis and relaxes sphincters
40
What reflex contributes to asystole from spinal anesthesia?
Bezold-Jarisch: the heart slows to allow time to fill
41
What is the most likely cause of apnea with spinal anesthesia?
Brainstem hypoperfusion
42
Neuraxial opioids do NOT impact:
sympathectomy proprioception motor blockade
43
What is the MOST lipophilic opioid?
Sufentanil
44
What is the LEAST lipophilic opioid?
Morphine
45
How will a lipophilic opioid behave in the subarachnoid space?
Shorter duration Less spread Early resp depression
46
How will a hydrophilic opioid behave in the subarachnoid space?
Longer duration Wider Spread Late resp depression
47
How do neuraxial opioids inhibit pain?
They inhibit afferent pain transmission in the substantia gelatinosa
48
How do neuraxial opioids impact block density?
They increase density when combined with LAs
49
Which LA decreases the efficacy of neuraxial opioids?
2-chloroprocaine
50
Early phase respiratory depression results from:
systemic absorption
51
Late phase respiratory depression results from:
rostral spread of LAs to the brainstem
52
Late phase respiratory depression is only caused by ______ opioids
hydrophilic
53
Urinary retention is most common in which demographic?
young men
54
N/V from neuraxial opioids results from stimulation of ________
area postrema of the medulla vestibular apparatus
55
Which opioid may reactivate herpes simplex labialis type 1?
Morphine can reactivate oral herpes 2-5 days after administration
56
Sedation from neuraxial opioids is most common with which drug?
Sufentanil
57
How do opioids impact diuresis?
They have an antidiuretic effect by increasing vasopressin release
58
Describe the degree of transfer between epidural opioids and breast milk
Negligible
59
Is increased ICP a contraindication to spinal anesthesia?
Yes. Any sudden change in CSF volume can cause herniation
60
What three cardiac abnormalities should not be candidates for spinal anesthesia?
Ao and Mitral stenosis hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
61
Can MS patient receive spinal anesthesia?
Yes. There is a small chance of exacerbation. You should use a lower dose and concentration of LA because myelination is disturbed
62
In the lumbar region, the epidural space is _______ cm from the skin
3-5
63
Caudal anesthesia is useful in procedures requiring a ______ level block
T10 or lower
64
What are absolute contraindications to caudal anesthesia?
Spina Bifida Meningomyelocele Meningitis
65
How should LOR be assessed in caudal anesthesia?
It should always be with saline, NEVER air
66
How should a patient be positioned for a caudal anesthetic?
Either in Simm's Position OR Prone
67
In a patient receiving lovenox, how should the medication be timed to remove the epidural?
Hold lovenox for 12 hours, pull the epidural, then restart four hours later
68
Is aspirin a contraindication for neuraxial anesthesia?
No
69
How long should plavix be held before neuraxial?
7 days?
70
How long should lovenox be held for neuraxial?
12 hrs for prophy 24 hrs for therapeutic
71
Which organism is usually responsible for post-spinal bacterial meningitis?
Streptococcus Viridians
72
How is a sphenopalatine block performed?
73
What factors increase the risk of transient neurological symptoms?
Lidocaine Lithotomy Knee Arthroscopy
74
What are the s/s of TNS?
Severe back and butt pain that radiates to both legs
75
How long does TNS last?
1-7 days
76
What helps with TNS symptoms?
NSAIDs Opioids Trigger point injections
77
What should you do if an epidural catheter segment breaks off during removal?
78
What should you do in the event of a patchy spinal?
Don't repeat the spinal, since the risk of neurotoxicity is high. Transition to another technique.
79
What should you do in the event of a completely failed spinal?
Repeat in 15-20 minutes
80
What should you do in the event of unilateral spinal?
Position poorly blocked side down Give a few mL of local IV If that doesn't work. convert
81
What is the most common cause of a unilateral epidural?
Catheter in too far
82
Should you pull back on an epidural catheter with the needle in face?
No. You have to remove both simultaneously
83
Which spinal nerves are the most resistant to LAs?
L5 and S1 They are the thickest
84