Boot Camp Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Cross-sensitivity to latex is highest with which allergies?

A

Avocado
Kiwi
Banana and lots of other plants

But NOT shrimp or shellfish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What factors are associated with airway fires?

A

First case on a monday
Sevo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Radial nerve injury is usually caused by:

A

external pressure at the spiral groove

BY

Surgical retractor or IV pole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ulnar nerve injury is usually caused by:

A

external pressure at the post-condylar groove

2/2 pronation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In breast cancer patients, the #1 site of metastasis is:

A

bone, leading to hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the MRI zones?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nitrous tank pressure =

A

745

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are absolute contraindications to ECT?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the maximum dose of tumescent lidocaine?

A

55mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is ideal BP management with a ruptured cerebral AVM?

A

Deliberate Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what length does the swan enter the RV?

A

25-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At what length does the swan enter the PA?

A

30-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At what length is the PA usually positioned appropriately?

A

40-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

INCREASED pseudocholinesterase activity is associated with:

A

obesity
ETOH
Hyperthyroidism (severe)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

DECREASED pseudocholinesterase activity is associated with:

A

Burns
Liver Disease
Malnutrition
Neoplasm
Pregnancy
Neonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some disadvantages of tramadol?

A

Seizures
N/V
Less effective when given with zofran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What genetic diseases cause obesity?

A

Prader Willi
Bardet-Biedl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adipose becomes pathologic when:

A

it releases excess fatty acids and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Class I Obesity BMI

A

30-34.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Class II Obesity BMI

A

35-39.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Class III Obesity BMI

A

> 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Obesity definition in children

A

95th-98th percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Severe obesity definition in children

A

99th percentile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the ventilatory changes in obesity

A

FRC decreases (ERV decreases and RV remains the same)

Closing volume increases

VC decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
How does obesity impact O2 consumption?
Fat is metabolically active, so VO2 is increased and so is CO2 production
24
Does morbid obesity mandate an RSI?
No, not unless there's something else going on
25
Since Succ is water soluble, why do we dose it based on actual body weight?
Because obesity causes increased pseudocholinesterase activity, so a higher dose is required
26
What cardiac parameters are altered in obesity?
Intravascular volume is increased CO is increased HR is unchanged
27
How is cardiac output impacted by fat?
It increases by 100ml/min for every 1kg of extra fat
28
Does obesity lead to diastolic or systolic heart failure?
Diastolic initially
29
The Vd of which drugs is increased in obesity?
BOTH Lipo: more fat Hydro: larger muscle mass and blood volume Lipo >>> Hydro, but both increase
30
How do you calculate LBW?
IBW x 1.3
31
Vd in obese patients is altered by 4 things:
1. Increased blood volume 2. Increased CO 3. Altered plasma protein binding 4. Large fat mass
32
LBW is used to calculate which induction doses?
Prop Roc/Vec Remifentanil
33
Which loading doses are calculated using TBW?
Succ Cis/Atracurium Fentanyl Sufentanil Midazolam
34
Propofol infusions are dosed based on:
TBW
35
Fentanyl infusions are dosed based on:
IBW
36
In obese patients epidural doses should be:
reduced by 75%
37
What is the most sensitive sign of an anastomotic leak following gastric surgery?
Unexplained tachycardia Followed by fever then abdominal pain
38
What cell signaling pathway do opioids use?
Decreases Adenylate cyclase -> decreased cAMP -> increased potassium conduction
39
What are the endogenous ligands for the opioid receptors?
Mu: Endorphins Delta: Enkephalins Kappa: Dynorphins
40
Which opioid receptor is responsible for bradycardia?
Mu
41
Which opioid receptors cause miosis?
Mu and Kappa
42
Which opioid receptors cause diuresis? Which cause retention?
Diuresis: Kappa Retention: Mu and Delta
43
Which receptor is responsible for GI upset?
Mu
44
What are the mu 1 effects?
Supraspinal and spinal analgesia Bradycardia Euphoria Low abuse potential Miosis Hypothermia Urine retention
45
What are the Mu 2 effects?
SPINAL analgesia (the spine is the second part of the CNS) Bradycardia Respiratory depression (2 lungs) Constipation Physical dependence
46
What are the Mu 3 effects?
Immune suppression
47
What are the CNS effects of Mu receptors?
Sedation Euphoria Prolactin Mild Hypothermia
48
What are the CNS effects of delta receptors?
None
49
What are the CNS effects of kappa receptors?
Sedation Dysphoria Hallucinations Delirium
50
Which opioid receptor causes pruritis?
mu
51
The only opioid that doesn't reduce heart rate is:
meperidine, because of its atropine-like ring
52
Do opioids impair the baroreceptor reflex?
no
53
What is the mechanism by which opioids cause nausea?
CRTZ Vestibular apparatus
54
Sphincter of oddi pressure can be reduced by:
glucagon and naloxone
55
Which opioids promote histamine release?
Meperidine Morphine Codeine
56
Which opioid causes the LEAST oddi contraction?
Meperidine
57
In women, morphine is associated with:
greater potency Slower onset longer duration lower postop consumption
58
Name two phenanthrene derivatives
morphine and codeine
59
Which narcotic is a thebaine derivative?
Oxycodone
60
Which narcotic is a piperidine?
Meperidine
61
Which narcotic is a phenylpiperidine?
All of the fentanyls
62
Which narcotic is a diphenylpiperidine?
Methadone
63
Rank the fentanyls in order of potency
Sufentanil (10mcg) Remi/Fent (100mcg) Alfentanil (1000mcg)
64
When does fentanyl withdrawal peak?
6-12 hours
65
When does heroin withdrawal peak?
Onset 6-18 hrs Peak 36-72 hrs
66
When does methadone withdrawal peak?
3 - 21 days
67
Remifentanil is always dosed at:
LBW
68
What are four unique side effects of meperidien?
1. Giving it with MAOs can cause serotonin syndrome 2. Causes atropine-like effects (dry mouth, tachycardia etc) 3. Only opioid with antishivering effect 4. Histamine release
69
What's special about Alfentanil?
Rapid onset because of a pKa that's below physiologic pH
70
Which fentanyl should never be used neuraxially?
Remi It has glycine in the mixture
71
Methadone has three MOAs:
1. Mu Agonism 2. NMDA antagonism 3. MAOI
72
What is methadone's active metabolite?
It doesn't have one
73
What is the MOA of butorphanol?
Mu antagonism (weak) Kappa agonism
74
What is the MOA of buprenorphine?
Partial Mu agonist
75
What is the MOA of nalbuphine?
Mu Antagonism Kappa Agonism
76
Which partial agonist has an extremely high affinity for for mu receptor, making it hard to reverse?
Buprenorphine
77
Which partial agonist is helpful with postop shivering?
Butorphanol
78
Which antagonist does not cross the BBB?
Methylnaltrexone
79
Which antagonist is useful in alcohol withdrawal?
Naltrexone
80
What is the presentation of an ulnar nerve injury?
acute: inability to abduct 5th finger chronic: claw hand
81
What are risk factors for ulnar injury?
Male Pre-existing Extreme habitus Prolonged stay cardiac surgery
82
Which nerve is most likely to be injured during an AC IV insertion?
median
83
Etiologies of median nerve injury include:
Elbow hyperextension carpal tunnel syndrome AC IV
84
The median nerve runs next to which veins?
Basilic and median cubital
85
What is the presentation of a median nerve injury?
Palmar surface of thumb Inability to oppose thumb Hand of benediction (inability to clench fist)
86
Which nerve passes through the spiral groove?
Radial
87
Radial nerve can be injured by:
external compression by an IV pole excessive BP cycling UE tourniquet tucking too tight
88
Which nerve innervates serratus anterior?
SALT: Serratus anterior long thoracic
89
Damage to the long thoracic manifests as:
scapular winging
90
Damage to the suprascapular nerve manifests as:
dull shoulder pain
91
Damage to the suprascapular nerve is usually caused by:
ventral circumduction (rolling onto the dependent arm in lateral position)
92
Obturator injury manifests as:
inability to ADDUCT the leg
93
Obturator injury is usually caused by:
flexion of thigh toward groin Excessive traction during abdominal surgery forceps delivery
94
Femoral nerve injury manifests as:
impaired knee and hip extension Lost sensation over anteromedial surface of leg
95
Femoral nerve injury is usually caused by:
excessive traction during abdominal surgery
96
Saphenous nerve injury manifests as:
reduced sensation of anteromedial leg
97
Saphenous nerve injury is usually caused by:
external pressure to medial leg
98
common peroneal injury manifest as:
foot drop and inability to evert
99
common peroneal injury is usually caused by:
external pressure at fibular head (lithotomy) Fibula = Peroneal Tibial = Saphenous
100
Sciatic nerve injury is usually caused by:
excessive flexion and abduction in lithotomy
101
sciatic nerve injury manifests as:
foot drop
102
Pudendal nerve injury is usually caused by:
compression against a perineal post on a fracture table
103
pudendal nerve injury presents as:
loss of penile sensation
104
Leaving the legs crossed leads to injury in which nerves?
sural (top leg) superficial peroneal (bottom leg)
105
sitting with legs straight can injure which nerve?
Sciatic
106
compartment syndrome is most common in which position?
lithotomy
107
what causes midcervical tetraplegia?
hyperflexion of the neck AND tracheal resection
108
What is the BEST positioning device in prone?
Jackson table is better than wilson or chest rolls
109
When intubating someone with an anterior mediastinal mass you should do two things:
maintain spontaneous ventilation use a reinforced ETT
110
which body part should be placed over the kidney rest?
iliac crest
111
The saphenous is injured:
when the MEDIAL leg is contacted
112
The common peroneal is injured when:
the LATERAL leg is contacted