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PHS 3300 > Neoplasia pt 1 > Flashcards

Neoplasia pt 1 Flashcards

1
Q

abl gene comes from what chromosome

A

9

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2
Q

where does leukemia originate

A

bone marrow

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3
Q

why is fluorodeoxyglucose used to detect cancers in PET scans

A

because cancer cells use so much glucose, they’ll take up most of it

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4
Q

what are ROS’s induced by

A

radiation
UV
other metabolic cellular stresses

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5
Q

80% of acute leukemias are what kind

A

acute myeloid leukemias

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6
Q

what two types of oncogenes are there

A

growth factor receptors/ proteins that help GFR to function

Proteins that are involved in the transcription of genes involved in cell proliferation

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7
Q

how many copies of Rb must be mutated in order to result in cancer

A

both (2)w

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8
Q

name some examples of adenocarcinomas

A

breast
pancreas
ovary
prostate

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9
Q

how can retinoic acid help treat M2M3 cancers

A

they cause the cells to mature quickly and are less likely of growht/division

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10
Q

what is leukopenia

A

reduced immune cell function

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11
Q

how does leukemia spread

A

through the blood stream

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12
Q

what are teh 4 factors of cancer

A

autonomous cell growth
altered cellular morphology
malignant
encompasses multiple diseases

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13
Q

what doe ER+/PR+ mean

A

estrogen receptor positive
progesterone receptor positive

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14
Q

What does Rb (retinoblastoma) do

A

prevents entry into G1 phase of cell division

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15
Q

why is a loss of an amine not always recognized as a mutation

A

sometimes itll mutate into a common base like thymine

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16
Q

what is the TNM system based on

A

extent of the tumor
extent of spread to lymph nodes
presence of metastasis

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17
Q

cancers of epithelial cells are what percent of all cancers

A

over 90

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18
Q

name some reasons that Ras is so good as an oncogene

A

inhibits apoptosis
stimulates growth
stimulates proliferation
stimulares protein synthesis and transcription
allows for cell movement metastasis

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19
Q

what percent of cases are hodgkins lymphoma

A

30

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20
Q

the onset age for acute leukemia is typicall

A

60+ years

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21
Q

can you develop cancer with only an oncogene OR tumor suppressor mutation

A

no, you need both

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22
Q

how common is burkitt lymphoma

A

not super common

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23
Q

what is a somatic mutation

A

a mutation after birth

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24
Q

What two types of lymphoma can be derived from the LZ of the germinal center

A

DLBCL
Follicular

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25
Q

how does a point mutation affect a codon

A

it changes it, changing one of the bases

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26
Q

what are the 4 steps of local invasion

A

looseining Intracellular junctions
attachment
degradation
migration

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27
Q

how do we treat bcr-abl gene

A

target the kinase activity

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28
Q

most common malignancy in children 3-7 is what

A

ALL

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29
Q

what is cachexia

A

a syndrome of altered metabolic activity resulting in muscle protein loss

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30
Q

what are the two biggest lifestyle and environmental factors for cancer

A

Diet
Tobacco

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31
Q

what will a tumor create to entice inflammatory cells

A

cytokines
chemokines

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32
Q

what are the two types of retinoblastoma cancer

A

non-hereditary (sporadic mutations)
Hereditary (born with one Rb- and only need one somatic muattion)

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33
Q

what does cyclin D do

A

pushes cells into G1 phase of replication

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34
Q

what does UV irradiation cause with regards to cancer

A

cross linking of pryimidines

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35
Q

What are teh 3 classifications of DNA mutations

A

Point
Insertion
Deletion

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36
Q

what is the neuroectoderm

A

it forms the neural tube and the nerual crest

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37
Q

what is the most common mutation

A

loss of an amine (NH2)

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38
Q

acute leukemia arises from what kind of cells

A

immature, rapidly dividing cells

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39
Q

What parts of the body are affected with Li Fraumeni syndrome

A

SBLA
Sarcoma
Breast
lymph/leukemia
adrenals

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40
Q

Name 2 specific roles of tumor suppressor genes

A

function as gatekeepers to prevent entry into cell cycle

caretakers to try and maintain DNA

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41
Q

what kind of cells would you be most likely to see HER2 gene amplifications

A

growth factor cells

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42
Q

what does stage 4 cancer mean

A

the cancer has spread to another organ

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43
Q

what is used to see cancer in PET scans

A

flurodeoxyglucose

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44
Q

when tumor cells leave the blood stream and reenter tissue

A

extravasion

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45
Q

what are neuroectodrmal malignancies

A

tumours of the neuroectoderm

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46
Q

why is Ras an excellent oncogene

A

promotes many features of cancer

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47
Q

what system is used to stage a tumour

A

The TNM system

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48
Q

what is intravasation

A

when tumor cells enter the blood stream

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49
Q

Name the two oncogene growth factor receptors/ proteins that help GFR to function

A

HER2/neu
Ras

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50
Q

when tumor cells enter the blood stream

A

intravasion

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51
Q

what are cancers classified based on

A

on the tissue from which they develop

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52
Q

where are lymphoma cancers found

A

in the lymph nodes

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53
Q

pushing cells into G1 has what effect

A

causes them to proliferate

54
Q

Describe nonreciprocal interchromosomal translocation

A

a part of a gene will move to a different gene

55
Q

better prognoisis occurs with acute leukemia when these cells are involved

A

M2/M3

56
Q

describe reed-sternberg cells

A

binucleated cells derived from B cells

57
Q

what does the tumor suppressor gene do

A

inhibits cell proliferation

58
Q

what is the thing that distinguishes between hodgkins and nonhodgkins lymphoma

A

Reed-sternberg cells

59
Q

Name the oncogene protein that are involved in the transcription of genes involved in cell proliferation

A

myc

60
Q

what are the 3 main subtypes of breast cancer

A

ER+/PR+
HER2/neu +
Triple negative

61
Q

Name 3 examples of tumor suppressor genes

A

Retinoblastoma
p53
BRCA 1/2

62
Q

what lymph nodes are reed-sternberg cells first evident in typically

A

cervical

63
Q

chronic leukemias are most common in what ages

A

40-50 is the onset

64
Q

M2 and M3 cell leukemias can be sucessfully treated with what

A

retinoic acid

65
Q

how does lymphoma spread

A

through the lymphatic system

66
Q

what is a tumor promoter in breast cancer

A

estrogen smh

67
Q

an inflammatory response in a tumor does what

A

can promote growth

68
Q

what are sarcoma cancers

A

cancers of connective or non-epithelial tissue

69
Q

Where does burkitt lymphoma originate from

A

the dark zone of the germinal center of the lymph nodes

70
Q

what does the bcr-abl gene do

A

causes bone marrow cells to make large numbers of abnormal white blood cells

71
Q

how does HPV cause cervical cancer

A

it has a protein that causes the destruction of p53

72
Q

where do non hodgkin lymphomas originate

A

germinal center of lymph nodes

73
Q

chronic leukemia is typically what kind of leukocyte

A

granulocyte

74
Q

what are the 3 types of translocations

A

nonreciprocal intrachromosomal

nonreciprocal interchromosomal

reciprocal interchromosomal

75
Q

what is senescence

A

where the cell doesnt die but just sits in the tissuew

76
Q

what is CLL

A

chronic lymphoid leukemia

77
Q

most cases of CLL are what kind of leukemias

A

B cell

78
Q

what percent of cancers are sarcomas

A

1

79
Q

what is dysplasia

A

the prescence of abnormal cells in a tissue

80
Q

what are the 2 purine bases

A

adenine
guanine

81
Q

what do oncogenes do

A

promote cell proliferation

82
Q

what percent of cancers are neuroectodermal malignancies

A

1

83
Q

why can senescence be problematic

A

it releases proteins that helps neighbouring cells divide- can help cancer cells

84
Q

what is used to treat breast cancers via blocking the estrogen receptor

A

tamoxifen

85
Q

what cells are reed-sternberg cells derived from

A

B cells

86
Q

What does BPDE do in regards to your DNA

A

it will add itself to a base covalently - is typically destroyed but sometimes not caught

87
Q

what is “carcinoma in situ”

A

an early cancer that is only present in the layer of cells that in began in

88
Q

How do b cells become reed-sternberg cells

A

they should have undergone apoptosis but didn’t, so when they try and divide, they cant go through with cytokineses and dont fully divide

89
Q

what age does retinoblastoma typically develop in

A

kids younger than 5

90
Q

what does ROS stand for

A

reactive oxygen species

91
Q

what are squamous cell carinomas

A

cancers of cells that are exposed to the outside

92
Q

what is the philadelphia chromosomes

A

specific genetic abnormality in chromosome 22 of leukemia cancer cells

93
Q

what are the two kinds of genes involved in development of cancer

A

tumour suppressor gene
Oncogene

94
Q

what do ROS’s have to do with cancer

A

they can cause direct damage to DNA bases

95
Q

what is the antibody used to target cells expressing HER2/neu

A

Herceptin

96
Q

what is neoplasia

A

abnormal cell growth

97
Q

if BRCA proteins are mutant, what happens

A

the genome becomes unstable because mutations happen and arent properly repaired

98
Q

how to tumor cells in the blood stream prevent detection

A

by interacting and blending in with blood components

99
Q

what are the 4 dna bases

A

adenine
guanine
cytosine
thymine

100
Q

what kind of cancer will you typically see gene amplification

A

breast cancer

101
Q

poor prognosis with acute leukemia is associated with what cells

A

M0/M1

102
Q

describe nonreciprocal intrachromosomal translocation

A

parts of a gene will move to a different part in that same gene

103
Q

who has a better prognosis in ALL children or adults

A

children

104
Q

what does myc do

A

induces the expression of cyclin D to help push cells into G1

105
Q

why is it hard to detect a brain tumor on a pet scan

A

because like tumors, the brain uses so much glucose that it’s going to light up anyways

106
Q

why can cancer cause cachexia

A

because the tumor uses so much glucose and energy that the body breaks down whatever it can

107
Q

what does base deamination do

A

changes the nature of the base to create a point mutation

108
Q

when B cells encounter antigens, where they go to first in the lymph nodes

A

Dark zone of the germinal center

109
Q

if you catch hodgkins lymphoma early, is there a good prognosis

A

yep

110
Q

BRCA genes are part of what complex

A

DNA repair

111
Q

what are the 2 pyrimidine bases

A

cytosine
thymine

112
Q

bcr gene comes from what chromosome

A

22

113
Q

name for reduced immune cell function

A

leukopenia

114
Q

name some examples of squamous cell carcinomas

A

skin
lung
cervix
nasal cavity

115
Q

what are the 3 most common types of lymphoma

A

follicular
diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Hodgkins

116
Q

what is the funciton of a tumor promoter

A

it expands the number of cells with an oncogene activated so that it is more likely that there will be a second mutation in p53 in one of those cells

117
Q

what is regarded as the most important tumor supressor protein

A

p53

118
Q

where does DLBCL originated

A

The light zone of the germinal center of the lymph nodes

119
Q

What does DLBCL stand for

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

120
Q

Describe reciprocal interchromosomal translocation

A

two genes kind of exchange parts of their genes

121
Q

what does p53 promote the production of

A

cell death
proteins that stop the cell cycle (ie activate checkpoints)

122
Q

what is extravasation

A

when tumor cells leave the blood stream and reenter tissue

123
Q

Li Fraumeni syndrome has what kind of mutation of the p53 gene

A

heterozygous

124
Q

what type of cells are affected by adenocarcinomas

A

secretory epithelia

125
Q

what type of lymphoma is derived from immature B cells in the DZ of the germinal center

A

Burkitt lymphoma

126
Q

what causes a frameshift in DNA

A

insertion or deletion of a base

127
Q

Why is it not really a big deal if the third base changes in an aa

A

because there are multiple different codes with variations in the third base that code for the same aa

128
Q

what is ALL

A

acute lymophoblastic leukemia/lymphoma

129
Q

what do oncogenes promote

A

cellular processes necessary for cancer cell proliferation and survival

130
Q

what in the LZ of the germinal center stimulates B cells to divide

A

T cells

131
Q

what is the largest group of cancers

A

carcinomas

PHS 3300 (19 decks)

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