Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2016 Master > nct5 > Flashcards

nct5 Flashcards

1
Q

The topology where signals originate in the headend andare transmitted long distances via trunk cables

A

Tree and Branch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A network architecture that typically uses fiber optic cables to bring signals to selected areas of the system called nodes

A

Hybrid Fiber-Coax (HFC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bi-annual tests, performed in the headend and at a number of end-of-line location

A

FCC Proof-of-Performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The cumulative effect of return path distortions they are added to the signal at various locations in the coaxial portion of the network.

A

Funnel Effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Specifications standards approved by the FCC in 1953for commercial analog color TV broadcasting.

A

National Television Standards Committee (NTSC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a portion of the electromagnetic spectrum whose frequencies are well suited for transmitting and receiving Telecommunications signals through the air.

A

Radio Frequency (RF) Spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Signals that flow downstream, from the headend to the network.

A

Forwards (Downstream) Signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Signals that flow in the upstream direction, from customer to headend

A

Revers (upstream) Signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Device that separates or combines based on frequency.

A

Diplex Filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

typical cutoff frequency for a sub-split diplex filter

A

About 50 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The three major concerns/ limitations of the tree andbranch architecture are:

A

BandwidthImpairmentsDependency on Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The lowest possible power level determined by the thermal noise generated within the electrical componentsbeing tested

A

Noise Floor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The highest power level (amplitude) reached by a carrier

A

Peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A clustering of beats 1.25 MHz above the visual carriers in a CATV network

A

Composite Second Order (CSO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A form of interference or noise resulting from the mixingof all of the various carriers in a CATV network

A

Composite Triple Beat (CTB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Two major types of distortions that are typically associated with CATV

A

Composite Second Order (CSO) and Composite Triple Beat (CTB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The 6 benefits of implementing fiber optics in broadband networks

A

Enhances Picture QualityIncreased ReliabilityDecreased cost of system maintenanceCost effective system bandwidth upgradesCost means of system upgrade requiring a complete change our of electronicsSmall segmented areas allow greater return path functionality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Having or relating to a frequency below the audibility range of the human ear.

A

Infrasonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A stream of atomic nuclei that enter the earth’s atmosphere from outer space at speeds approaching that of light

A

Cosmic Rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Frequency range of satellite systems

A

4GHz to 13GHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The wavelengths most commonly used by the CATVindustry

A

1310nm and 1550nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The type of fiber optic cable that the broadband industry uses

A

Single Mode Fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The process of combining multiple carriers onto a single medium

A

Multiplexing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Width of the Fiber optic core

A

8-10um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Width of the fiber optic cladding

A

125um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Width of the fiber optic coating

A

250um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Combines multiple optical signals in order to amplify them as a group and transported over a single fiber

A

Wave Division Multiplexing (WDM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Allows multiple wavelengths above and below a centerwavelength to be carried on a single optical fiber.

A

Dense Wave Division Multiplexing (DWDM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Three parts of the optical link

A

Fiber Optic CableTransmitter (Laser)Receiver (Node)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Individual fibers are bundled and then placed into these to reduce the possibility of damage

A

Buffer Tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

This diode changes the RF signals to pulsesof light and then transmits them onto an optical fiber

A

Semiconductor Laser Diode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The Three types of optical transmitters that are typically used in broadband HFC Network

A

Fabry-Perot (F-P)Distributed Feedback (DFB)Yttrium-Aluminum-Garnet (YAG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

YAG

A

Yttrium-Aluminum-Garnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DFB

A

Distributed Feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

F-P

A

Fabry-Perot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A spare fiber installed during the construction of the network that was reserved for future use.

A

Dark Fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Three advantages of trunk reduction

A

Shorter CascadesFewer/smaller outages due to segmenting the system into smaller areasImproved picture Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

FTTF

A

Fiber to the Feeder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Advantages of FTTF

A

Shorter CascadesFewer/smaller outages due to segmenting the system intosmaller areas.Increased Bandwidth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

FTTC

A

Fiber to the Curb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PON

A

Passive Optical Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Consists of a transmitter at the Headend and a receiver near the subscriber. Requires a power supply near the node but all other actives have been removed

A

FTTC PON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

4 advantages of FTTC

A

No active devices after nodeNo CascadeFewer/smaller outages due to segmenting the system intovery small areasIncreased Bandwidth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A fiber-based network which uses passive splitters todeliver signals to multiple locations

A

Passive Optical Network (PON)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

FTTH

A

Fiber to the Home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

6 advantages of FTTH

A

Passive networkSingle fiber is dedicated to each subscriberFeatures local battery backup, no large remote power supplies are required.No exterior active devicesNo CascadesIncreased Bandwidth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This will ALWAYS be considered the “Backbone” in an HFC Network

A

The Fiber Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A high-speed line or series of connections that forms a major pathway within a network

A

Backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The duplication of certain pieces and/or portions of thenetwork.

A

Redundancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Comcast’s goal for network reliability

A

“four-nines” or 99.99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A network architecture where nodes, hubs, or headendsmay be connected with fiber optic cables to provideredundancy or increase services

A

Ring Architecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Builds upon ring technology by adding a second (redundant) ring connecting the nodes to the headend. The second ring typically takes a different path

A

Ring within a Ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A facility between the headend and the customer that performs many of the functions of a headend

A

Hubsite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Similar in function to a hubsite, but serving fewer customers

A

Optical Transition Node (OTN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Usually a passive device such as a splitter or directional coupler used to combine radio frequency signals from one source with those from another

A

RF Combiner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Usually a passive device that divides a signal into two equal paths. It may be found on trunk, feeder, or drop cable.

A

RF Splitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Device used to combine the channels for entry onto the cable or fiber optic transmitter

A

Headend Combiner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The difference, in dB, of a signal level, injected into one output port, and the measured level of that same signal on another output port, with the input port properly terminated.

A

Port-to-port isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Obtained by measuring the attenuation between the two output ports (A and B) when the common port (input port) is terminated in the correct value of impedance. An RF generator signal is applied to port A and an RF voltmeter reading is taken at Port B.

A

Isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Provision for connection to a device such as a tap, splitter, set-top box or computer

A

Port

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Used to combine all of the signals to be carried over the cable system into a single medium (cable) for routing to the laser transmitters that are feeding the optical nodes in the system

A

Headend Combining Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A measurement of the reflected signal compared to that of the incident signal

A

Return Loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Device used to divide or combine light carriers on fiber optic cables.

A

Optical Splitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A discontinuous signal whose various states are discrete intervals apart.

A

Digital Signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Device used to convert an analog signal to a digital signal.

A

Digitizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

takes an amplitude measurement of the waveform at fixed intervals of time, and converts them to a binary number

A

Digitizer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The smallest unit of computerized data. Bits are defined as single characters of 0 or 1. Bandwidth is usually measured in bits-persecond.

A

Binary Digit (Bit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A set of Bits that represent a single character. Usually there are 8 Bits in a Byte, sometimes more, depending on how the measurement is being made.

A

Byte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The number of changed states that can occur per second.

A

Baud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The value of “On” in a binary system

A

“1”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The value of “Off” in a Binary system

A

“0”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How many bits are in a “Nibble”?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In ASCII #5 alphabet, how man bits are in a byte?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

If start and stop bits are included with Asynchronous Communications, then how many bits are in a byte?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ADC

A

Analog to Digital Conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

DAC

A

Digital to Analog Conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

A continuously varying signal with an unlimited number of possible values of amplitude and frequency.

A

Analog Signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

a non-continuous signal or carrier that changes its output in discreetly timed steps of voltage level and/or phase that can represent numerical values or other information

A

Digital Transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

3 steps of basic ADC

A

SamplingQuantizationEncoding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The “Measuring” of the analog signal at specific intervals.

A

Sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The assigning of a specific value to each of the samples

A

Quantization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The process by which Quantized values are converted into a data or bit stream

A

Encoding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ASK

A

Amplitude Shift Keying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

FSK

A

Frequency Shift Keying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

QPSK

A

Quadrature Phase Shift Keying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

QAM

A

Quadrature Amplitude Modulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The process of varying the amplitude, frequency, or phase of a carrier to be in step with the instantaneous value of the modulating waveform

A

Modulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Data transmission scheme wherein the carrier is shifted in amplitude

A

Amplitude Shift Keying (ASK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The carrier frequency is shifted to represent the difference between a one and a zero

A

Frequency Shift Keying (FSK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The position on a waveform cycle at a specific point in time. One cycle is defined as 360 degrees of this

A

Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Digital modulation scheme wherein the carrier is shifted in 90 degree steps. There are four possible phase states and the magnitude is constant.

A

Quadrature Phase Shift Keying (QPSK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

BPSK

A

BiPhase Shift Keying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

In QPSK, what does “I” stand for?

A

In-Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In QPSK, what does “Q” Stand for?

A

Quadrature - shifted 90* or one quarter of a cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A graphic depiction of the four phase states of a Quadrature Phase Shift Key signal.

A

Constellation Diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the bandwidth of QPSK in a 6MHz bandwidth?

A

10 Mb/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Digital modulation scheme that changes the phase and the amplitude.

A

Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

a digital transmission technology that splits the frequency band into a number of channels. The channels are each assigned a specific time slot, so that several transmissions can share a single channel without interfering with one another

A

Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The digital equivalent to Signal-to-Noise

A

Modulation Error Ratio (MER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

A joined or connected group of devices

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

A network of computers linked by cable within a building or office complex.

A

Local Area Network (LAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

A network of multiple locations linked by cable withina city or campus

A

Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

A network typically bigger than a city or metropolitan area.

A

Wide Area Network (WAN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A data network connects each of its endpoints to the network with a single link. A central device (hub) is used to aggregate and distribute data traffic to all endpoints and/or other central points in what’s referred to as a clustered star.

A

Star

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Consists of several star networks that have been linked together

A

Clustered Star

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Topology where workstations are connected to the network through a common path

A

Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

A topology in which a data frame is passed around. As it arrives at an endpoint, the endpoint can either pass it along to the next endpoint or attach information to be sent to a destination

A

Token Ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

A network architecture where nodes, hubs, or headends may be connected with fiber optic cables to provide redundancy or increase services.

A

Ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

A method of data transmission that allows characters to be sent at irregular intervals by preceding each character with a 0 and by ending each character with a 1. This is referred to as start (0) and stop bits (1). It is the method, which most PCs use to communicate with each other and mainframes

A

Asynchronous Transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

An extra bit added to help check if the data that isbeing transferred is correct

A

Parity Bit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

The condition that occurs when two events happen in a specific time relationship with each other and both are under control of a master clock. Characters are spaced by time, not by start and stop bits.

A

Synchronous Transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Synchronizing bits used in synchronous transmission to maintain synchronization between transmitter and receiver.

A

Sync Bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

NE

A

Network Elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

MIB

A

Management Information Base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

A unique number assigned to a piece of equipmentused for identification purposes.

A

Media Access Control Address (MAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

UTP

A

Unshielded Twisted Pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

signaling rate of 10BaseT

A

10 Mb/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Signaling rate of 100BaseT

A

100 Mb/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The designation for Ethernet over fiber optic cable, primarily for point-topoint links

A

10Base-F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Ethernet resides in what layers of the OSI model?

A

The 2 lowest levels (layers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

This device works as a multiport signal repeater, broadcasting an incoming signal to all other ports on an ethernet network

A

Ethernet Hub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The four-part numeric address that is assigned to a computer or an account as an identification tool

A

Internet Protocol Address (IP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

IEEE MAC Protocol for Hybrid Fiber-Coax Networks; standard for data communicatons over a cable network

A

802.14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The Four original partners of MCNS (Multimedia Cable Network Partners Ltd.)

A

Comcast, Cox, TCI and Time Warner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

The three companies that joined MCNS in late 1996

A

Media One, Rogers Cablevision and CableLabs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

DOCSIS

A

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

When was DOCSIS 1.0 released? (Month and Year)

A

March 1997

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

The Leading standard for cable modems

A

DOCSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Four devices that must be added to a system to offer high-speed internet

A

CMTS (Cable Modem Termination System)CM (Cable Modem)ServersNoise Filters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

A unit consisting of various hardware and software entities that acts as the hand-off point between the RF based HFC network and other networks such as theInternet and the PSTN.

A

CMTS (Cable Modem Termination System)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Used to terminate, manage and translate high-speed Internet sessions between cable modems in a LAN and other devices in a WAN.

A

CMTS (Cable Modem Termination System)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

The collection of computers accessed through the Internet. Uses a hypertext based system for finding andaccessing its resources.

A

WWW (World Wide Web)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Four Items that a CMTS manages

A

Time SlotsContention SlotsModem DataTransmit Levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Each cable modem is assigned one of these by the CMTS and only one modem is allowed to transmit during this.

A

Time Slot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

These slots are usually used for short data transmissions such as a request for an additional number of reserved time slots

A

Contention Slots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The signal level that the CMTS wants to “See”

A

0dBmV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

A PC on a LAN from which information or applications are requested.

A

Client/Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

A computer circuit board (card) installed in a computer so that the computer can be connected to a network. Provide a dedicated, full-time connection to a network.

A

NIC (Network Interface Card)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Why is it called a cable “Modem”?

A

When they transmit data they “MOdulate” the data onto a carrier, then receive data and “DEModulate” it from the carrier and send it on to the computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Four of the most common servers found in a braodband network

A

DHCPTODTFTPProxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

This server sets up the MAC and IP addresses for the cable modem.

A

DHCP Server(Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

This server sets up a common clock between the CM and the CMTS

A

TOD Server(Time of Day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

This server allows non-protected file transfers, such as aconfiguration file for a modem.

A

TFTP Server(Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

These servers store commonly used (or contractually stored) data. A network may have a series of these servers located in different places.

A

Proxy Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

The two types of noise filters

A

High Pass FilterNotch Filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

These types of filters only allow signals above 50MHz to pass through the filter

A

High Pass Filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

In addition to letting everything above 50 MHz to pass, this filter allows a small spectrum below 50 MHz to pass

A

Notch Filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

The process of setting up the connection between theCMTS and the cable modem, where transmit levels andfrequency are determined.

A

Ranged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

A switch or collection of switches connecting multiple networks

A

POP (Point of Presence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The point of access into theInternet.

A

NAP(Network Access Point)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

The company who provides access to the Internet and the World Wide Web, who usually also provides corefeatures such as e-mail.

A

ISPInternet Service Provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

The local, long-distance and internationalphone system in use today

A

PSTN(Public Switched Telephone Network)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

This device in the Headend controls the operation of CDV.

A

HDT(Host Digital Terminal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Three major components of the Host Digital Terminal

A

Access Bandwidth Manager ShelfModem ShelfSpectrum Manager Shelf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

This Shelf provides the connection between the Network Interface Unit (NIU) and the switch, or more simply, the connection between the HDT and the LEC

A

ABM(Access Bandwidth Manager)

157
Q

The point of demarcation between the network and the customer. It contains the modem necessary for telephony over a cable network.

A

NIU(Network Interface Device)

158
Q

The device that opens or breaks the circuit path in a telephone call. This device looks at the incoming data to determine where the data should get routed.

A

Switch

159
Q

The local phone company is also known as what?

A

LEC(Local Exchange Carrier

160
Q

Shelf on the HDT (Host Digital Terminal) that converts the digital telephone signals into digital signals that are then modulated onto an RF carrier to be transmitted over the HFC Network.

A

Modem Shelf

161
Q

This shelf on the HDT (Host Digital Terminal) monitors the RF spectrum allocated for telephone services over the HFC network. If problems are detected, it can switch the data transmission (telephone call) to another frequency.

A

Spectrum Manager

162
Q

How many subscriber telephone lines can an NIU Handle?

A

4

163
Q

LPSU

A

Local Power Supply Unit

164
Q

The process of setting up the connection between the HDT and the NIU, where transmit levels and frequency are determined.

A

Marshalled

165
Q

Modulating technique that interweaves multiple conversations, based on time.

A

TDMA(Time Division Multiple Access)

166
Q

The number of the person that youare trying to call.

A

Terminating Number

167
Q

The phone company of the person you are trying to call.

A

Terminating LEC

168
Q

The “local” phone office where the subscriber’s lines are connected to the switching equipment.

A

Central Office

169
Q

What is “7” equal to in binary?

A

0111

170
Q

64 QAM has how many phase angles?

A

52

171
Q

16 QAM has how many phase angles?

A

10

172
Q

The distance between two points of like phasein a wave.

A

Wavelength

173
Q

A card made up of material similar to photographic film that changes colors when exposed to light.

A

Photosensitive Card

174
Q

ANSI Laser standard that separates lasers into various classes that take into consideration the operating wavelength, output power level and whether the laser operates as a continuous or pulsed light output

A

Z-136

175
Q

Four nines works out to how many minutes of down time per month?

A

4.5 minutes

176
Q

loss of service to ourcustomers due to a fault in thedelivery network.

A

Outage

177
Q

Minimum telephone service to assure a contact in case of an emergency.

A

Lifeline

178
Q

FCC Standards CFR 47, Part 76.605(a)(1-12)

A

Proof-of-performance (POP) test

179
Q

A continuous wave (CW) frequency onto which information is modulated for transport.

A

Carrier Frequency

180
Q

Maximum Bandwidth of 256QAM

A

42.88Mbps

181
Q

How long must POP tests be kept at the local office?

A

minimum of 5 years

182
Q

how many test points are required for 1,000 to 12,500 customers?

A

6

183
Q

How many test points are required for each additional 12,500 customers?

A

1

184
Q

Channel requirements for POP testing (amount)

A

4 channels plus one additional channel for every 100 MHz.

185
Q

In a cable system with an upper frequency at 750 MHz, how many test channels must be used?

A

11 Channels

186
Q

All channels must be tested during these 3 tests.

A

Video Carrier Level, Audio Carrier Level, Video Carrier Level Stability Test

187
Q

Only one Channel needs to be tested during this non-frequency specific test

A

Hum Modulation

188
Q

How many digital channels must be tested on an all digital system with an upper frequency of 862MHz?

A

0, digital channels are not included and are not tested.

189
Q

The amount of channels during these tests are based solely on the highest operating frequency

A

Video-Audio Carrier Frequency SeparationIn-Channel ResponseCarrier to NoiseCoherent Disturbances Tests

190
Q

This test must be performed twice a year, once during the coldest months and again during the warmest (Jan-Feb and Jul-Aug respectively)

A

Video Carrier Level Stability (24-hour) test

191
Q

This POP test must be performed every three years

A

Color Performance test

192
Q

A circuit that automaticallyadjusts the gain of an amplifier sothat the output signal levels stayconstant despite varying inputlevels.

A

Automatic Gain Control (AGC)

193
Q

a spectrumanalyzer feature that allows theuser to make otherwise intrusiveFCC POP tests in a non-intrusivemanner.

A

Gated Testing

194
Q

When planning POP tests, these four things need to be considered

A

Test timesChannels and programming affected by testingTest lengthsAbility to perform non-intrusive gated testing

195
Q

This test is usually performed by a Headend tech rather than a System Tech

A

Color Performance

196
Q

What would a Discrepancy statement include?

A

Explain all possible misinterpreted fails, such as test point relocation, added channels, encoding issues and so on.

197
Q

POP measurements are to be taken at what location?

A

Input to the subscriber terminal

198
Q

EIA

A

Electronic Industry Association

199
Q

What must an operator do in order to pass the receivability test?

A

Submit documentation showing that their channel lineup conforms to the EIA Channel allocation plan

200
Q

What does the Audio Carrier Frequency Test ensure

A

That the audio carrier frequency for each channel must be 4.5MHz above the video carrier frequency, +/- 5kHz

201
Q

Where is the Audio Carrier Frequency test performed at?

A

The Headend as well as the field test points

202
Q

How many times a year is the Audio Carrier Frequency test performed?

A

Twice annually

203
Q

What type of set-top box can alter the Audio Carrier Frequency?

A

Baseband set-top boxes (as opposed to non-baseband)

204
Q

What six measurements are taken during the 24-hour test?

A

Minimum Visual Signal LevelVisual Signal changeAdjacent Visual SignalAny Other Visual Signal in BandwidthVisual Carrier LevelAudio Carrier Level

205
Q

The six measurements that are taken during the 24-hour test are performed on what channels?

A

All NTSC Channels at each test point location

206
Q

What is the Minimum Visual Signal Level allowed at the end of a 30-meter (100’) cable drop that is connected to the subscriber tap?

A

1.41mV across an internal impedance of 75 ohms (+3dBmV(CT 5-3-22)

207
Q

The square root of the sum ofthe squares of the amplitudes ofindividual components of afunction, such as the frequencycomponents of a signal.

A

Root Mean Square (RMS)

208
Q

Maximum variation of each channel within any six-month period at the end of a 30-meter drop cable

A

8dB

209
Q

Adjacent Visual Signal deviation of the visual signal level of any visual carrier within a 6MHz nominal frequency separation

A

3dB

210
Q

What is the maximum “spread” or deviation among ALL channel levels in a 300MHz cable system and what is the incremental increase

A

10dB1db per 100MHz

211
Q

At what level must the aural signal be maintained in association with the visual signal level?

A

between 10dB and 17dB below the visual signal level

212
Q

At what level must the aural signal be maintained in association with the visual signal level on a baseband converter.

A

between 6.5dB and 17dB below the visual signal level.

213
Q

In a 24-hour test, how many times must the signal level be checked?

A

four times

214
Q

What are the time intervals of the 24-hour test?

A

5 to 7 hours

215
Q

at what frequency is the In-Channel Response test performed?

A

.75MHz to 5Mhz above the lower frequency boundary of the cable channel under test

216
Q

What is the FCC In-Channel Response requirement?

A

+/-2dB or 4dB peak-to-valley

217
Q

To perform this test, a signal must be inserted on the channel, either by the headend technician or by other means

A

In-Channel Response Test

218
Q

FCC Requirement for C/N

A

43dB at each test point

219
Q

What are the three type of coherent disturbances?

A

Composite Second Order (CSO)Composite Triple Beat (CTB)Other interfering signals (i.e. Ingress)

220
Q

What is the FCC requirement for Coherent Disturbances?

A

51dB below the desired carrier level for STD plans and 47dB in IRC and HRC systems

221
Q

The goal of this test is to find the worst beat or interfering signal, regardless of it’s type

A

Coherent Disturbances Test

222
Q

FCC requirement for isolation

A

18dB

223
Q

Because the FCC allows you to submit manufacturers specifications to prove compliance, you rarely need to perform this test:

A

Terminal Isolation Test

224
Q

FCC requirement for Hum Modulation

A

less that 3% of the video carrier level.

225
Q

Where is the Hum Modulation test done?

A

the end of a 30m or 100’ drop

226
Q

how many channels is the Hum Modulation test performed on?

A

One channel per test point

227
Q

How many channels is the Coherent Disturbance test performed on?

A

Dependent on highest frequency

228
Q

What are the three Color Performance tests?

A

Chrominance to Luminance Delay InequalityDifferential GainDifferential Phase

229
Q

FCC Spec for Chrominance to Luminance Delay test

A

Within 170 nanoseconds

230
Q

FCC Spec for Differential Gain

A

Within +/-20%

231
Q

FCC Spec for Differential Phase

A

Within +/-10 degrees

232
Q

Who usually performs the color performance tests?

A

The Headend Technician

233
Q

How many channels are recommended to be tested during the Color Performance test?

A

All NTSC or similar channels

234
Q

How often are the Color Performance Test performed?

A

once every three years

235
Q

Allowable signal leakage level below 54MHz

A

Up to 15uV/m @ 30m

236
Q

Allowable signal leakage level between 54MHz and 216 MHz

A

up to 20uV/m @ 3m

237
Q

Allowable signal leakage above 216MHz

A

up to 15uV/m @30m

238
Q

The two types of leakage monitoring frequency.

A

Continuous MonitoringQuarterly Monitoring

239
Q

Two types of annual leakage monitoring methods

A

Ground BasedFlyover

240
Q

What is the minimum cable strand sample allowed during a ground based leakage measurement?

A

75%

241
Q

What leaks are included in the CLI calculation?

A

All leaks 50uV or greater

242
Q

what is the elevation that a flyover is completed at? (in meters)

A

450m(1476’)

243
Q

Two requirements for monitoring of plant with a handheld signal leakage detector

A

-Must be properly calibrated to detect a leak of 20uV/m or greater @ 3m-Perform all measurements with a horizontally polarized dipole antenna, preferably located no more than 3m from the leak and 3m from the ground

244
Q

What does a Spectrum Analyzer Display?

A

information in the amplitude (vertical) vs. frequency (horizontal) domain over the entire spectrum or portions of it.

245
Q

comparable in certain respects, typically in a way that makes clearer the nature of the things compared.

A

Analogous

246
Q

This filter has a bell-curved “shape,” which it applies to all energy passing through it.

A

Resolution Bandwidth Filter (RBW)

247
Q

This is a low-pass filter at the analyzer detector’s output. This filter takes the RF energy associated with the video modulation on the carrier that has already passed through the RBW filter and the detector and smoothes it out

A

Video Bandwidth Filter (VBW)(CT 5-3-39)

248
Q

The signal to an analyzer is injected here

A

RF Input

249
Q

Used when accessing analyzer’s gated mode, such as in the C/N POP test

A

TV Input Connector

250
Q

The main setting and adjustment keys for the analyzer functions and the display. These keys are most often used in the analyzer’s manual testing modes

A

Function Keys

251
Q

Additional keys whose action changes depending on the selected analyzer mode or function. Most often used in the analyzer’s automated testing modes

A

Softkeys

252
Q

The principal keys useed in the analyzer’s manual modes of operation. They represent the three most basic functions of any spectrum analyzer

A

Frequency, Span and Amplitude keys

253
Q

Adjusts the value or amount for the selected function or measurement

A

Adjustment Knob

254
Q

Adjust value or amount in incremental steps for the selected function or measurement

A

Step Key

255
Q

Allows direct input of a specific value or amount for the selected function or measurement

A

Numeric Keypad

256
Q

Sets the type of measurement unit, such as kHz or MHz, for the selected function or measurement

A

Measurement units’ keys

257
Q

Marker function and trace control keys

A

Access marker functions and set trace control functions such as display line, RBW and VBW

258
Q

Sets analyzer modes, presets and stores or recalls analyzer trace

A

Mode select Key

259
Q

Maximum input power of HP 8591C

A

+72dBmV

260
Q

Maximum input power of Tektronix 2715

A

+69dBmV

261
Q

This must be used when high input levels are required to the analyzer to avoid input overload

A

preselector

262
Q

For the greatest accuracy, how should the carrier peak be adjusted?

A

To the analyzer’s reference level (top of the display)

263
Q

Three tests that can use gated mode on the HP 8591C

A

Carrier to NoiseCoherent Disturbances (CSO measurement only)In-Channel Response

264
Q

states that in order to obtain an accurate recreation of a signal, it must be sampled at a rate of at least twice the highest frequency

A

Nyquist’s Rule

265
Q

What is the minimum and maximum signal level of a 256 QAM channel?

A

-8dBmV to +10dBmV

266
Q

What is the minimum MER of a 256 QAM channel?

A

33dB

267
Q

What is the minimum Pre BER of a 256 QAM Channel?

A

less than 1.0E-07

268
Q

What is the minimum Post BER of a 256 QAM Channel?

A

less than 1.0E-09

269
Q

What is the maximum DOCSIS TX level?

A

Less than or equal to 53dBmV

270
Q

In a constellation diagram, this is when the outer dots are pulled to the center while the ones nearer the center are unaffected

A

Compression

271
Q

In a Constellation Diagram, this is where the dots appear as an arc as you look toward the outer edge of the display

A

Phase Noise

272
Q

In a Constellation diagram, this will cause the dots in the clusters to appear to form circles

A

Coherent interference

273
Q

In this distortion, the distance between the clusters on the I axis are greater, or lesser, than that of the Q axis

A

I Q imbalance

274
Q

Coherent interference can be caused by one of four things, these are:

A

CTB, CSO, Beats and Ingress

275
Q

Improperly installed connectors and jumpers, contamination of the connector, improper cable routing or a localized failure fall under this optical failure category:

A

Patch Panel Related

276
Q

Over or under-driving the optical transmitter falls under this optical failure category

A

System Related

277
Q

Due to causes such as improper bending radius or a clamped cable falls under this optical failure category

A

Installation Related

278
Q

Normally due to construction and work related activities, it can also be damaged by improper installation techniques, gunshots, falling branches and automobile crashes. These types of failure incidents fall under this fiber optic failure category:

A

Construction Related

279
Q

Good isolation in the headend reduces…

A

Adjacent Channel Interference

280
Q

Continuously varying signals

A

Analog Signals

281
Q

A mathematical representation of an analog signal

A

Digital Signal

282
Q

Why can signals travel great distances w/ little to no noise and distortion degrading the signal

A

Signals are regenerated rather than amplified

283
Q

the 2 most commonly used digital modulation schemes that use a combination of changes

A

QPSK and QAM

284
Q

QPSK has ____ Phase states

A

4

285
Q

A combination of QPSK and ASK

A

QAM

286
Q

Device used to analyze digital signals

A

QAM Analyzer

287
Q

Graphic depiction of digital signals

A

Constellation

288
Q

Ratio of the error power to the average power in the ideal QAM signal

A

MER

289
Q

Bits are added to the digital signal in order to detect errors

A

FEC

290
Q

Errored bits compared to total bits

A

BER

291
Q

The position on a waveform cycle at a specific point in time

A

Phase

292
Q

Digital power measurement is _______ power

A

Average

293
Q

Analog power measurement is ____________ power

A

Peak

294
Q

Peak power of a carrier is known as

A

Amplitude

295
Q

Standard for cable modems

A

DOCSIS

296
Q

Terminates, manages, translates HSI between the Cable Modems on the HFC LAN and other devices on the WAN

A

CMTS

297
Q

Decodes ethernet signaling info for incoming packets and applies filtering rules

A

Router (Ethernet Router)

298
Q

Difference between the incident signal and the reflected signal is called:

A

Return Loss

299
Q

This laser is good for many channels, has low noise and is good for long distances

A

DFB (Distributed Feedback)

300
Q

Laser that is noisy and only good for a few channels and short distances

A

F-P (Fabry Perot)

301
Q

Light travels in the core of the fiber because of this concept:

A

Total Internal Reflection

302
Q

The ratio of the velocity of light of 2 mediums is called

A

Index of Refraction

303
Q

Light reflected in the core is called

A

Total Internal Reflection

304
Q

Light travels faster in the ______ because it has a ______ Refractive index than the ________

A

1) Cladding2) Lower3) Core

305
Q

How is light amplified in a LASER?

A

Stimulated Emission of Radiation

306
Q

Which ANSI Class laser is a hazard if the direct or reflected beam is viewed?

A

Class 3B

307
Q

ANSI Class laser hazard if the beam is collected on the eye

A

Class 3A

308
Q

Example of a Class 3A laser

A

Laser Pointer

309
Q

ANSI class laser hazard if beam is viewed

A

Class 2/2A

310
Q

Example of a Class 2/2A laser:

A

Barcode Scanner

311
Q

All of the losses between Optical Transmitter and Receiver:

A

Loss Budget

312
Q

1mW = _____dBm

A

0dBm

313
Q

10mW = ____dBm

A

10dBm

314
Q

A doubling/halving of the optical power (mW) is equal to a ______dBm change

A

3dBm

315
Q

Splice loss is measured using a ______

A

OTDR

316
Q

Equation to convert mW to dBm

A

10Log(mW)

317
Q

Equation to convert dBm to mW

A

10^(dBm/10)

318
Q

Fiber is in tubes much larger than the fiber allowing the fiber to move freely in this cable configuration

A

Loose Tube

319
Q

Similar to loose tube but has 2 steel strength members in the jacket

A

Flex Tube

320
Q

A method of attaching 2 fiber ends w/ a plastic form to align the fiber ends

A

Mechanical splice

321
Q

Clean fiber with this liquid:

A

at least 90% Isopropyl alcohol

322
Q

A temporary splice that uses and index matching gel

A

Mechanical splice

323
Q

Removes the coating from the fiber

A

Fiber Stripper

324
Q

Scores then breaks the fiber

A

Cleaver

325
Q

Uses an electrical arc to join two fibers

A

Fusion splicer

326
Q

Comcast spec for splice loss

A

.05dB

327
Q

Uses a computer program and a video magnifying system to align the fiber ends for splicing

A

Profile alignment

328
Q

Uses a transmitter and a receiver to determine if the fiber ends are aligned before splicing

A

LID (Local Injection and Detection)

329
Q

A string used to separate and cut the outer jacket and armor

A

Rip Cord

330
Q

Splice kits should be bonded to the strand using a _______ and a _________

A

6 ground wire and a strand clamp

331
Q

According to the NCT5 book, name three places to store fiber paperwork

A

1) Splice Trailer2) Restoration Kit3) Headend

332
Q

This is described as the widening of light pulses

A

Dispersion

333
Q

This fiber connector offers a good balance between loss and reflections

A

SC

334
Q

This fiber connector is the most commonly used

A

SC

335
Q

This fiber connector provides a notch and screw connection

A

FC

336
Q

This fiber connector end has a flat cut… Reflections travel straight back to the source

A

UPC

337
Q

This connector end directs reflections into the cladding

A

APC

338
Q

What is used to clean fiber connectors?

A

Dry wipe cleaning tape dispenser

339
Q

What is used to clean fiber receptacles?

A

Lint free wand/swab

340
Q

interface between the headend and the RF plant

A

Node

341
Q

How many nm apart are the DWDM wavelengths? How many GHz is this?

A

.8nm100GHz

342
Q

What is the optimum optical input to a node in dBm and mW?

A

0dBm1mW

343
Q

This part of the optical receiver detects light and converts it to RF

A

Photodiode

344
Q

List the two optical amplifiers

A

EDFAYEDFA

345
Q

Having an alternate feed for backup is called

A

Redundancy

346
Q

This is used to visually see losses, breaks and distance measurements in the fiber link

A

OTDR

347
Q

The ______ uses backscatter to make measurements

A

OTDR

348
Q

Main source of loss in fiber

A

Scattering (Rayleigh)

349
Q

The downward slope of the OTDR trace shows

A

Attenuation

350
Q

Connectors will have both ________ and _______ on the OTDR trace

A

Reflection and Loss (or attenuation)

351
Q

The distance the OTDR can’t see is the _______ ______

A

Dead Zone

352
Q

To overcome the dead zone, you should use a ________ _______ to make up for it

A

Launch Jumper

353
Q

Device that measures light power

A

Optical Power Meter

354
Q

Measures light loss

A

OTDR

355
Q

This is typically considered an upgrade where some trunk cables have been replaced by fiber and bandwidth is not increased

A

Trunk Reduction

356
Q

This is where the entire trunk is replaced with fiber, the entire distribution in replaced w/ new cable and electronics. This is considered a rebuild

A

FTTF (Fiber to the Feeder)

357
Q

All actives are removed except for the node. there are no cascades and only taps after the node

A

FTTC (Fiber to the Curb PON)

358
Q

This is a PON with no active components between the headend and subscriber with a single fiber dedicated to each sub

A

FTTH (Fiber to the Home)also known as out current FTTP (Fiber to the Premise)

359
Q

Device that measures pulling tension applied to the cables

A

Dynamometer

360
Q

Device that prevents excessive pulling tension applied to cables

A

Breakaway swivel

361
Q

Clearance at the pole between cable and power

A

40”

362
Q

Device used to prevent strand sag when installing strand

A

Strand Brake

363
Q

Scanning down the road 12-15 seconds equals what distance range for city driving?

A

1 to 1-1/2 blocks

364
Q

Scanning down the road 12-15 seconds equals what distance range for Highway driving?

A

1/4 to 1/2 mile

365
Q

The 3-4 second rule is used to determine

A

Following distance

366
Q

Before climbing a ladder that is 20’ tall, how far should it be pulled from the base

A

5’

367
Q

Max vehicle slope to go up in an aerial lift

A

5*

368
Q

Safe approach distance to wires containing up to 300VAC

A

No contact

369
Q

Resistance of a circuit to AC

A

Impedance

370
Q

Pulling technique used for very long cable pulls through ducts

A

Mid Pull

371
Q

CRAN

A

Converged Regional Area Network

372
Q

Variation in delay, arriving sometimes in the same order but different time spacing between packets

A

Jitter

373
Q

Delay in time of arrival of packets

A

Latency

374
Q

QOS

A

Quality of Service

375
Q

DQOS

A

Dynamic Quality of Service

376
Q

CBONE

A

Comcast Backbone - Connects regions or CRANs

377
Q

Mathematical representation of an Analog Signal

A

Digital Signal

378
Q

A continuously varying signal

A

Analog Signal

379
Q

Optical power units (two)

A

mWdBm

380
Q

RF Power Units (two)

A

dBmVmV

381
Q

Good Isolation in the headend combining reduces:

A

Adjacent Channel Interference

382
Q

In NCT5 book, how man dB is good isolation?

A

25dB

383
Q

This fiber topology reduces amp cascades and improves picture quality

A

Trunk Reduction

384
Q

Cost effective way to get many optical signals transported

A

WDM

385
Q

an OTDR uses this to make measurements

A

Backscattered light

386
Q

If you want to OTDR great distances, you must increase the _________ _________ to see farther down the fiber

A

Pulse Width

387
Q

The difference between the incident signal and the reflected signal

A

Return loss

388
Q

Directs frequencies of one bandwidth to one port and frequencies of another bandwidth to another port

A

Diplex Filter

389
Q

What is the angle of an APC connector?

A

8-12 degrees

2016 Master (109 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions