Missed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How much feces do you need for a test?

A

2 grams

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2
Q

When can the fetal skeleton be seen on xray?

A

42 days

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3
Q

What muscles do the quads include?

A

rectus femoris and vastis muscles

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4
Q

What is mulberry heart disease?

A

Disease in swine caused by vitamin e deficiency

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5
Q

What is the tidal volume of a dog?

A

15 ml/kg

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6
Q

What meds are used to treat fleas?

A

Lufenuron
Fipranil
Imidacloprid

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7
Q

What is pediculosis

A

Lice infestation

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8
Q

What is the olecranon part of?

A

Ulna

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9
Q

Where are IV catheters placed in horses?

A

jugular

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10
Q

What can chocolate toxicosis cause?

A

tachycardia

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11
Q

What causes saddle thrombus?

A

Heart disease

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12
Q

What does mitochondria produce?

A

ATP

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13
Q

What way should you never give Potassium?

A

bolus

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14
Q

Should oxygen be higher in the lungs or the capillaries?

A

Lungs

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15
Q

What causes red bag?

A

premature placental eruption

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16
Q

Where is the aqueous fluid located?

A

anterior chamber of the eye

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17
Q

What is normal sulcus depth?

A

0-3 mm

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18
Q

How much blood is safe to draw from a horse?

A

15-16 ml/kg

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19
Q

What do myelograms use?

A

contrast dye

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20
Q

What does 3.5 mm represent in screws?

A

Diameter

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21
Q

What does atipamezole reverse?

A

medetomidine

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22
Q

What is included in the uveitis?

A

ciliary body, iris, and choroid

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23
Q

What causes ehrlichia

A

brown dog tick

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24
Q

Can seromas be treated with antibiotics?

A

no

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25
Q

Define afferent and efferent?

A

Afferent is towards
Efferent is away

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26
Q

What causes night blindness in goats?

A

Vitamin a deficiency

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27
Q

What does quinidine treat?

A

atrial fibrillation in horses

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28
Q

What can chloramphenicol cause in humans?

A

aplastic anemia

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29
Q

Where is nutrient absorption greatest?

A

jejunum

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30
Q

What causes Johns Diseases?

A

mycobacterium

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31
Q

What nerve should you be concerned about during calving?

A

obturator

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32
Q

What is measured in the California mastitis test?

A

somatic cell count

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33
Q

What is used to make impressions of teeth?

A

alginate

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34
Q

What is horizontal beam used to diagnos?

A

free air or fluid

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35
Q

What should you do if a patient is apneic?

A

intubate
ventilate
call vet

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36
Q

What is safe to put in the ear if ear drum is ruptured?

A

NaCl

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37
Q

What does a hypotonic solution do to RBCs?

A

Cause them to burst

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38
Q

Where is the thyroid gland?

A

ventral neck

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39
Q

How do you sex turtles?

A

Plastron is concave in males

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40
Q

What is normal central venous pressure?

A

0-10 cm H2O

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41
Q

What does Strongyloides westeri cause?

A

Diarrhea in young horses

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42
Q

What is the ortolani sign for?

A

hip dysplasia

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43
Q

What can happen if you dont taper prednisone?

A

Cause hypadrenocorticism

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44
Q

What is the dog and cat vertebral formula?

A

C7T13L7S3

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45
Q

Is propofol a controlled substance?

A

no

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46
Q

When does ovulation happen?

A

During estrus

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47
Q

What does the parathyroid hormone regulate?

A

potassium

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48
Q

Where should IM injection be in dog?

A

epaxials

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49
Q

What does the CN1 control?

A

Sense of smell

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50
Q

Where is the mitral valve

A

between left atrium and ventricle

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51
Q

What causes visceral larval migrans?

A

Roundworms

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52
Q

What is bovine Vertebral formula?

A

C7T13L6S5

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53
Q

What tube should you use in abdominal cytology?

A

EDTA

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54
Q

What is the blood flow for a fetus?

A

pulmonary artery to aorta to ductus arteriosus

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55
Q

What tube do you use for APTT and PT

A

Citrate

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56
Q

What is the normal urine sg?

A

1.008-1.012

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57
Q

What is the fetlock joint?

A

Metacarpophalangeal

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58
Q

What is the skyline view?

A

Dorsoproximal/Dorsodistal

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59
Q

What would happen with injury to the brain stem?

A

Respiratory arrest

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60
Q

What does CN VI control

A

lateral rectus muscle

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61
Q

How do you improve radiographic quality?

A

Increase MAS Decrease Time

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62
Q

How long does it take for sq fluids to disperse?

A

5-8 hours

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63
Q

Do pigs teeth continuously abrupt?

A

No

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64
Q

What can Phenylbutazone cause?

A

Tissue sloughing

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65
Q

When do you see heinz bodies?

A

oxidative damage

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66
Q

What is cushings disease?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

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67
Q

What is ptyalism?

A

excessive salivation

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68
Q

What is bruxism?

A

teeth grinding

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69
Q

What is borborygmi?

A

Gurgling sounds in the intestines

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70
Q

What is MRI equipment made of?

A

aluminum

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71
Q

What is lyme dz spread by?

A

Ixodes or deer tick

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72
Q

What is trilostane and what does it treat?

A

Vetoryl treats cushings

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73
Q

What is Pachecos disease

A

herpes disease in psittacines

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74
Q

What is the left atrium and ventricle separated by?

A

mitral or bicuspid valve

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75
Q

What are the normal respirations of a cat?

A

24-42

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76
Q

What does the Mannitol Salt Agar do

A

Select for Staphylococcus

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77
Q

What does the oscillometric or doppler measure?

A

Indirect blood pressure

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78
Q

What kind of viruses survive longer in the environment?

A

non-enveloped

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79
Q

Do parasite undergo development on a paratenic host?

A

no

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80
Q

How many sides does a cystine crystal have?

A

6

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81
Q

What species develop caries?

A

Rabbit, chinchilla and dog

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82
Q

What neurotransmitter is responsible for the sympathetic nervous system?

A

epinephrine

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83
Q

How do you identify Strongyloides stercoralis?

A

Baermann technique

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84
Q

What does BUN assess?

A

breakdown product of protein

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85
Q

What is peritonitis?

A

inflammation of the internal abdominal lining

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86
Q

What is cherry eye?

A

prolapse of the gland of nictitans

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87
Q

What is true of higher frequency probes?

A

Increased image resolution but decreased penetrating ability

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88
Q

What do you give for organophosphate toxicity?

A

Atropine

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89
Q

What does antifreeze damage?

A

renal system

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90
Q

What does periodontal disease affect?

A

gingiva

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91
Q

How do you leak check an incision?

A

sterile syringe, needle, and saline

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92
Q

What are the signs of shock?

A

Increased HR
Decreased BP
Pale gums

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93
Q

How many 3-rooted teeth are in dogs?

A

6 all maxillary

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94
Q

What is red bag?

A

Protrusion of the chorioallantois

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95
Q

Is red bag an emergency?

A

yes

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96
Q

Where is the thymus located?

A

cranial mediastinum of the chest

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97
Q

What species does not have gallbladders?

A

horses

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98
Q

What are robert jones bandages for?

A

Stabilize fractures

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99
Q

How do you measure for multi lumen jugular catheters?

A

to 3rd thoracic vertebrae

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100
Q

What are the signs of cyanide toxicity in horses?

A

respiratory distresss with bright red blood and MM

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101
Q

What can cause a loss of motor function during epidurals?

A

Only phenothiazine tranquilizers

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102
Q

What is blood lactate a measure of?

A

blood perfusion and O2 deliveryto tissues

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103
Q

How many ml in a tsp?

A

5

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104
Q

Where should you never administer IM injections in a horse?

A

epaxials

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105
Q

What suture should you use for loop sutures?

A

0 or 1-0 monofilament nonabsorbable

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106
Q

What do positive inotropic drugs do?

A

Increase cardiac contractility

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107
Q

What is the gestation length of horses?

A

340 days

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108
Q

What does horners syndrome cause?

A

miosis

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109
Q

Where are sertoli cell tumors found?

A

testicles

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110
Q

What causes white muscle disease?

A

Vitamin E and selenium deficiency

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111
Q

How do you position for sx for a luxated hip?

A

Lateral recumbency

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112
Q

How do you position for a radiograph of the stifle?

A

Linb to the left and proximal aspect to the top

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113
Q

What does tetracycline cause?

A

tooth discoloration

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114
Q

What are trichodectes?

A

Biting lice

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115
Q

How many BPM for CPR in a dog

A

80-120

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116
Q

What carries oxygen to the fetus?

A

umbilical vein

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117
Q

What is the adverse effect of fluoroquinolones?

A

articular cartilage

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118
Q

What are best inhalants for horses - best to worst?

A

Sevo, halo, iso

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119
Q

What is the perk of non-screen film?

A

more sensitive to xrays

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120
Q

What do cholinergic agents do?

A

Decrease HR
Increase Salivation
Increase Intestinal Motility
Widen pupil

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121
Q

What does the sarcoplasmic reticulem do?

A

Release calcium to achieve muscle contraction

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122
Q

What is the HR of the horse?

A

25-50 BPm

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123
Q

What does CNII innervate?

A

retina

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124
Q

Describe how fixer and developer works

A

1st developer converts exposed silver crystals into black metallic silver
2nd fixer dissolves unexposed silver crystals

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125
Q

What do the doyen forceps do?

A

atraumatically clamp the intestines

126
Q

What do drugs with low solubility produce?

A

rapid induction and recovery rates

127
Q

What mite does not cause pruritis?

A

demodex

128
Q

What virus can Macaque monkeys get?

A

Herpes Virus B

129
Q

What is it if you get milky fluid in a thoracocentesis

A

Chylothorax

130
Q

What does the coombs test evaluate?

A

immune mediated hemolytic anemia

131
Q

What is the coggins test for?

A

equine infectious anemia

132
Q

What is the baermann technique?

A

uses a wire net or cheese cloth to strain

133
Q

What is a major end product in birds?

A

uric acid

134
Q

What can larval migration of S. vulgaris cause?

A

significant verminous arteritis in the mesenteric arteries and thrombosis resulting in colic

135
Q

What is the triangular region of the bladder

A

trigone

136
Q

What is the sarcolemma

A

cell membrane that encloses muscle fiber

137
Q

Where should blood draws be in cancer patients?

A

jugular

138
Q

How many g in an oz?

A

28.35

139
Q

What stage of HW is susceptible to preventatives/

A

L3

140
Q

Do preanesthetic drugs decrease BP

A

No

141
Q

Is fasting required for reptiles?

A

No

142
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system represent?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

143
Q

Where does sperm mature?

A

epdidymis

144
Q

What vein should you use in a dehydrated rabbit?

A

marginal ear vein

145
Q

Where is the SA node located?

A

right atrium

146
Q

What lighting do turtles need?

A

UVB

147
Q

What is decreased with hypochromasia?

A

MCHC

148
Q

What does the screen do in an xray?

A

Decrease exposure necessary to create image

149
Q

What indicates parturition is imminent/

A

Drop in body temp

150
Q

What does Sarcocysitis neurona cause?

A

equine protozoal myeloencephalitis

151
Q

What does the condenser do?

A

Focus light on the object being viewed

152
Q

What does propanolol do?

A

slows the HR

153
Q

What is sodium fluoride do?

A

measure blood glucose

154
Q

What can phenylbutazone cause?

A

right dorsal colitis

155
Q

When should xylazine be used with extreme caution?

A

ruminants

156
Q

What can acepromazine cause that effects stallions?

A

permanent penile prolapse

157
Q

What should you use for long term eye medication in horses?

A

subpalpebral lavage system

158
Q

What is the RR of a dog?

A

10-30 rpm

159
Q

What do lactose fermenting bacteria appear as?

A

pink or red

160
Q

What can addisons dz cause?

A

severe bradycardia

161
Q

What is known as feline parvo?

A

panleukopenia

162
Q

What pumps blood towards the lungs?

A

Right ventricle

163
Q

What does a PCR test do?

A

amplifies DNA

164
Q

What do you need for rodenticide toxicity?

A

fresh frozen plasma

165
Q

What is the benefit of a larger filament?

A

Higher exposures can be used

166
Q

What is a side effect of methimazole?

A

itchy face

167
Q

What does colostrum have that is necessary?

A

immunoglobulins

168
Q

What can happen with being laterally recumbent for too long?

A

atelectasis

169
Q

What is ostertagia?

A

brown stomach worm

170
Q

Why use epinephrine with lidocaine?

A

prolongs the duration

171
Q

What can hypokalemia cause?

A

ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness

172
Q

Does acepromazine cause vomiting?

A

no

173
Q

What is the panniculus reflex test?

A

pinching the skin lateral to the vertebral spine

174
Q

Where are the oviduct?

A

fallopian tubes

175
Q

What does wrights stain do?

A

Differentiate blood cell types

176
Q

What will happen if xray beam is perpendicular to the radius and ulna?

A

Will be foreshortened

177
Q

Why do dogs tie?

A

bulbis glandulis swells

178
Q

What causes vaginal cells to proliferate?

A

estrogen

179
Q

What is an indication of preeclampsia?

A

Low calcium levels

180
Q

What can be used for ventricular premature contractions?

A

lidocaine

181
Q

What nerve is CNI

A

olfactory

182
Q

When do cows go into estrous?

A

Every 21 days

183
Q

What does polycythemia do to PCV

A

increase hematocrit

184
Q

What does clomipramine treat?

A

separation anxiety

185
Q

What is trichodectes?

A

lice

186
Q

What is effective against nematodes?

A

Ivermectin

187
Q

What is an analytical error in a laboratory value?

A

variation in temperature

188
Q

How do you calculate fluid deficit?

A

KG x % dehydration = liters

189
Q

What do piglets need within 3 days of birth?

A

iron dextrose shots in neck

190
Q

How do you calculate minute volume?

A

RR x Tidal volume

191
Q

How do you calculate WBC differential?

A

% of WBC type x total wbc count

192
Q

What do lysosomes do?

A

make enzymes to break up cellular debris

193
Q

How do you position a horse for castration?

A

Lateral recumbency with upper rear leg tied around head

194
Q

What is the order of bovine stomach?

A

Rumen
Reticulem
Omasum
Abomasum

195
Q

What is trilostane?

A

Vetoryl

196
Q

Where do you place an aterial catheter indogs?

A

Dorsal metatarsal

197
Q

What does the atlantoaxial joint do?

A

Moves head from side to side

198
Q

How long do you wait before evaluation of a california mastitis test?

A

20 seconds

199
Q

What does oxidative damage cause?

A

Heinz bodies

200
Q

What causes oxidative damage?

A

lead poisoning

201
Q

What is the canine shock dose?

A

90 ml/kg

202
Q

What should an animal with cardiac insufficiency restrict?

A

sodium

203
Q

What is the most common swine parasite?

A

Ascaris suum

204
Q

What is bog spavin?

A

Tarsocrural effusion

205
Q

What can increased input to the vagus nerve cause?

A

bradycardia

206
Q

What species has a double row of incisors?

A

rabbits

207
Q

What factors most influence xray beam quality?

A

kvp and filtration

208
Q

What principle of radiation says you should continue to decrease radiation exposure?

A

ALARA - as low as reasonably allowed

209
Q

What does parathyroid hormone regulate?

A

calcium

210
Q

What size fence should you use for goats?

A

6 foot

211
Q

What is hyperechoic on an ultrasound image?

A

bone and gas

212
Q

What test should you run with petechia?

A

Template bleeding time (TBT) which determines the platelets ability to plug a wound

213
Q

What are the symptoms of cyanide toxicity in a horse?

A

respiratory distress
dilated pupils
bright red mm

214
Q

What are the frequencies and wave lengths of xrays compared to visible light?

A

Xrays have higher frequencies and shorter wave lengths

215
Q

What do axons do?

A

Carry impulses away from neuronal cell bodies

216
Q

What is the HR of a horse?

A

25-50 bpm

217
Q

What vein should you avoid in swine?

A

Left jugular

218
Q

What is true about reptile sterilization?

A

ovaries should always be removed

219
Q

What is the point of arterial blood samples in blood gas analysis?

A

Determine oxygenation

220
Q

What mm do you evaluate in a horse?

A

nasal mucosa
conjunctiva
vulva

221
Q

Where is nutrient absorption the greatest?

A

jejunum

222
Q

What is ear canal ablation?

A

sx excision and closure of external ear canal

223
Q

What can bacterial sepsis cause?

A

hypoglycemia

224
Q

What parasite has both a direct and indirect life cycle?

A

Toxocara canis

225
Q

What do you need for a minor cross match?

A

recipient rbcs and donor plasma

226
Q

What species is most susceptible to copper toxicity?

A

sheep

227
Q

What will happen if xray beam is perpendicular to cassette of radius and ulna?

A

They will be foreshortened

228
Q

What is a jamshidi needle for?

A

bone marrow core biopsy

229
Q

What happens to the view with a compound microscope?

A

upside down and reversed

230
Q

What does myasthenia gravis cause?

A

weakness and muscle fatigue

231
Q

Describe the effects of xylazine?

A

sedative, analgesic, and provides muscle relaxation

232
Q

How long can you leave a pressure bandage on?

A

4 hours

233
Q

When should a robert bandage be used?

A

When fractures are distal to the elbow or stifle

234
Q

What protein is higher in plasma than serum?

A

fibrinogen

235
Q

What organism causes equine protozoal myeloenchephalitis (EPM) in the horse?

A

Sarcocystitis neurona

236
Q

What is used in a minor cross match?

A

Recipient Red Blood Cells
Donor Plasma

237
Q

What is the common name for proliferative ileitis in hamsters?

A

Wet tail

238
Q

What heart valve is responsible for separating blood between the left atrium and left ventricle?

A

mitral or bicuspid valve

239
Q

What is the etiology of C. botulinism in cattle?

A

ingestion

240
Q

What can gentamicin cause?

A

nephrotoxicity

241
Q

What class of antibiotic is gentamicin?

A

aminoglycoside

242
Q

What medication can be prescribed to increase blood pressure?

A

iv dopamine

243
Q

What are the common toxicities in cattle?

A
  1. aspergillus
  2. salt
  3. lead
244
Q

What medication is used for an NSAID overdose?

A

Misoprostol

245
Q

What disease leads to jaundice and anemia in young foals?

A

neonatal isoerythrolysis

246
Q

A cataract is an opaque protein deposit on what structure?

A

lens

247
Q

What species if overworked is most at risk for hyperthermia?

A

sheep and pigs

248
Q

What is the term that describes nerve fibers that carry an impulse towards the brain?

A

afferent

249
Q

How many mammary glands does the goat have?

A

2

250
Q

Will ketamine cause hypotension?

A

no

251
Q

What is the name of the portion of the stomach that attaches to the esophagus?

A

cardia

252
Q

What are the landmarks for placing an epidural in a dog or cat

A

Wings of the ilium
Dorsal spinous process of L7
Indentation of the lumbosacral injunction

253
Q

Which nerve is most effected with a humeral fracture?

A

radial

254
Q

What is minute volume?

A

volume of air inspired during one minute of respiration

255
Q

How do you calculate the minute volume of cats?

A

180-380 ml/kg/min

256
Q

What is true of anesthetic drugs with low solubility?

A

Produce rapid induction and recovery rates

257
Q

What error would result in a radiograph being completely clear?

A

Exposed film was put in a fixer before developer

258
Q

What condition in cats would cause glucosuria besides diabetes?

A

Renal disease

259
Q

If a dog is having a seizure and you cannot hit a vein, where can you administer valium?

A

rectal

260
Q

What organization establishes standards for food labels?

A

AAFCO

261
Q

What does it mean if an animal is a paratenic host?

A

Does not undergo development on that animal

262
Q

Which bone articulates with the patella?

A

femur

263
Q

When should you give perioperative antibiotics?

A

30 minutes prior to incision

264
Q

What hormone causes vaginal cells to proliferate?

A

estrogen

265
Q

What kind of drug is dexamethasone?

A

steroid

266
Q

What type of placenta does a ruminant have?

A

cotyledonary

267
Q

What is the order of intestinal segments?

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum
colon

268
Q

How should ropes be tied to horses?

A

3 feet of slack and level with the top of the horses back

269
Q

On ultrasound what structure would be a hyperechoic linear structure against the bladder wall?

A

urolith

270
Q

What is the schiff-sherrington posture?

A

Paralysis of the hindlimbs

271
Q

What is the normal amount of gastric reflux obtained from a healthy horse via nasogastric tube placement?

A

1-3 liters

272
Q

Parathyroid hormone regulates which blood value?

A

Calcium

273
Q

What is founder?

A

Inflammation of the laminae and rotation of the third phalanx

274
Q

Ovulation occurs during which part of the estrus cycle?

A

Estrus

275
Q

What should the rectal temperature of a week old puppy be?

A

94-99

276
Q

What crystal is common in dalmatians?

A

ammonium biurate

277
Q

What is the maintenance fluid rate in dogs?

A

60 ml/kg/day

278
Q

What zoonotic disease can macaques have?

A

herpes b

279
Q

Chronic administration of prednisone can cause?

A

cushings disease

280
Q

What condition causes a puppy to have milk coming from nose and coughing or gurgling while he eats?

A

cleft palate

281
Q

Describe intervertebral discs appearing on radiography?

A

appear wider towards the center of the film and narrower towards the end of the film

282
Q

What technique would reduce the amount of scatter radiation that reaches the film?

A

use of a grid with a Potter Bucky diaphragm

283
Q

What electrolyte anomaly causes ventroflexion of the neck and extreme weakness?

A

hypokalemia

284
Q

What is a jamshidi needle for?

A

bone marrow core biopsy

285
Q

Ivermectin is effective against what?

A

nematodes

286
Q

Estrogen toxicity causes what?

A

bone marrow suppression

287
Q

What appears hyperechoic (bright white) on an ultrasound?

A

Bone and gas

288
Q

What is the primary reason porcine boars are castrated if they are destined for food production?

A

To avoid boar taint

289
Q

What is the most sensitive and preferred test for detecting giardia?

A

elisa

290
Q

What comes first developer or fixer?

A

Developer then fixer

291
Q

Which deficiency in sheep would explain muscle spasms, drooling, and stiff gait?

A

Magnesium

292
Q

Which organ is responsible for producing most of the digestive enzymes used to breakdown food?

A

Pancreas

293
Q

Does ketamine cause low blood pressure?

A

No

294
Q

Canine parvovirus causes what laboratory change?

A

Neutropenia

295
Q

When discussing the equine hoof, which structure produces cells that become the hoof wall?

A

Coronary band

296
Q

What are the common clinical signs of a horse with obstructive airway disease?

A

Heave line
Flared nostrils
cough
labored expiratory phase

297
Q

What does glomerular filtration rate directly related to?

A

rate of blood flow to the kidneys

298
Q

What would cause in turtles: weight loss, poor appetite, swollen eyelids, and respiratory problems?

A

Vitamin A deficiency

299
Q

What is the scabies mite in cats?

A

Notoedres

300
Q

What part of the brain coordinates motor activity?

A

Cerebellum

301
Q

What species are lincosamides contraindicated in?

A

Horses

302
Q

What test should you run on a horse that has petechia?

A

Template bleeding time

303
Q

What position is colic surgery performed in?

A

Dorsal recumbency

304
Q

What breed is most at risk for degenerative myelopathy?

A

German shepards

305
Q

How should you position for a tibial fracture

A

Dorsal recumbency with affected leg temporarily hung

306
Q

What mucous membranes do you assess in the horse?

A

Vulva, nasal mucosa, and conjunctiva

307
Q

What is the proper order of intestinal segments?

A

Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Colon

308
Q

What drug is used for treatment in Tritichomonas foetus in cats?

A

Ronidazole

309
Q

What is the top of the shell in a tortoise called?

A

Carapace

310
Q
A