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Vet Tech Prep > Laboratory Diagnostics > Flashcards

Laboratory Diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

What is quality assurance?

A

The minimization of errors during the preanalytical, analytical, and post analytical time frames in sample testing

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2
Q

What are examples of quality assurance?

A
  1. SOPS
  2. Labeling, communication, and recording
  3. Appropriate collection devices
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3
Q

What is quality control?

A

Techniques to test instrumentation, personnel performing tests, and diagnostic testing kits to ensure reliability of results

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4
Q

What are examples of external quality control?

A

Commercially prepared products to test procedures

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5
Q

What are examples of internal quality control?

A

Built into instrument or diagnostic equipment

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6
Q

What is calibration?

A

Techniques to adjust an instrument to improve accuracy of results

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7
Q

When should urinalysis be performed?

A

Within 20-30 minutes of collection or can refrigerate for up to 12 hours

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8
Q

What do you evaluate with physically of urine?

A
  1. Volume
  2. Color
  3. Transparency
  4. Odor
  5. Specific Gravity
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9
Q

How does color correlate with specific gravity?

A

Light urine decreased SG
Dark urine increased SG

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10
Q

What does bile in urine look like?

A

Yellow to green foam

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11
Q

What does hematuria or hemoglobinuria look like?

A

Red or reddish brown

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12
Q

What does myoglobinuria look like?

A

Brown

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13
Q

What does rabbit urine look like?

A

Yellow to cloudy white to orange

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14
Q

What does horse urine look like?

A

More brown

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15
Q

What is assessed with transparency?

A

Turbidity

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16
Q

What is turbidity associated with/

A

Cellular debris

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17
Q

What species have normally cloudy urine?

A

Horses
Cats
Rabbits, Hamsters, and guinea pigs

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18
Q

Why is specific gravity of urine assessed?

A

the ability of the renal tubules to concentrate or dilute filtrates from the glomerulus, indicating how well the kidney can concentrate or dilute urine

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19
Q

What is the SG of glomerular filtrate?

A

The same as plasma

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20
Q

What is Isosthenuria?

A

1.008-1.012 (same as plasma)

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21
Q

What is hyposthenuria?

A

Less than 1.008

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22
Q

What is hypersthenuria?

A

Greater than 1.012

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23
Q

What does low specific gravity mean?

A

Tubules are not concentrating

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24
Q

What does high specific gravity mean?

A

Tubules are over concentrating

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25
Q

Describe urine ph

A

Less than 7 acidic
Greater than 7 Alkaline

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26
Q

What does increased protein in urine mean?

A

Renal disease

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27
Q

What does increased glucose in urine mean?

A

Diabetes or excitement

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28
Q

What does increased ketones in urine in large animals mean?

A

Pregnancy toxemia due to rapid breakdown of fats

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29
Q

What does increased ketones in urine in small animals mean?

A

Diabetes

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30
Q

What do increased bile pigments in urine indicate?

A

Biliary obstruction
Hepatic infections
Toxicity
Hemolytic anemia

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31
Q

What blood components would be in urine?

A

Hematuria
Hemoglobinuria
Myoglobinuria

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32
Q

What does increased leukocytes in urine indicate?

A

Infection

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33
Q

What does increased urobilinogen mean in urine?

A

Liver disease
GI disease
Intravascular hemolysis

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34
Q

What does hematuria indicate?

A

Urinary dz

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35
Q

What does hemoglobinuria indicate?

A

Intravascular hemolysis

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36
Q

What does myoglobinuria indicate?

A

Muscle over exertion

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37
Q

How much urine should be collected

A

at least 5 ml

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38
Q

How to view urine sediment?

A

Lower condenser and view through coverslip at 10x then 40x

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39
Q

What are the epithelial cells found in urine?

A
  1. Squamos
  2. Transitional
  3. Renal
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40
Q

Describe squamos epithelial cells

A
  1. Flat, irregular shaped with angular borders and small nuclei
  2. Derived from urethra, vagina, and vulva
  3. Largest cells
  4. Not clinically significant
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41
Q

Described transitional epithelial cells

A
  1. Variation in size with granular cytoplasm
  2. Associated with inflammation such as cystitis or from catheterization
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42
Q

Described renal epithelial cells

A
  1. Round with large nucleus, slightly larger than wbcs
  2. Increased with renal tubular disease
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43
Q

What do casts indicate?

A

Renal tubular damage

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44
Q

Describe hyaline casts?

A

cylindrical with relatively symmetrical sides and round ends

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45
Q

What is the most common type of cast?

A

Granular

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46
Q

What do waxy casts indicate?

A

Chronic to severe renal tubular damage

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47
Q

What are the types of cellular casts?

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. WBC
  3. RBC
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48
Q

What do epithelial casts indicate?

A

acute nephritis

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49
Q

What do WBC casts indicate?

A

inflammation of the tubules

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50
Q

What do RBC casts indicate?

A

Bleeding into the tubules

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51
Q

Describe struvites

A

Coffin lids

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52
Q

What causes struvites?

A

Urease producing bacteria of the lower urinary tract disease

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53
Q

Describe amorphous phosphate and urates

A

Colorless granular precipitate

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54
Q

What causes phosphate crystals?

A

alkaline urine

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55
Q

What causes Urate crystals?

A

acidic urine

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56
Q

Describe ammonium biurate

A

Round and brownish with long spicules

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57
Q

What causes ammonium biurate crystals?

A

Liver disease or portocaval shunts

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58
Q

What species commonly has ammonium biurate crystals?

A

Dalmations

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59
Q

Describe calcium carbonate crystals

A

Dumbbells with radial striations

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60
Q

What species are calcium carbonate crystals common in?

A

Horses and rabbits

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61
Q

Describe Calcium oxylate crytals?

A

Small colorless envelopes

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62
Q

What causes monohydrate calcium oxylate crystals?

A

ethylene glycol toxicity

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63
Q

What causes dihydrate calcium oxylate crystals?

A

Can be found in healthy animals

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64
Q

Describe leucine crystals

A

small and round with sectioned centers

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65
Q

Describe tyrosine crystals

A

Spiculated and spindle shaped

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66
Q

Describe cystine crystals

A

Flat and 6 sided

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67
Q

What do leucine, tyrosine, and cystine crystals indicate?

A

hepatic dz

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68
Q

What is uric acid?

A

End product of metabolism and oxidation

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69
Q

What species normally produces uric acid?

A

dalmatians

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70
Q

What does bilirubin crystals in urine indicate?

A

Common in canine urine

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71
Q

What are the types of cells in hematology?

A

RBCs WBCs and Platelets

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72
Q

What are the types of WBCs?

A
  1. Neutrophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Basophils
  5. Eosinophils
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73
Q

What WBCs are granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils

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74
Q

What WBCs are agranulocytes?

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

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75
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

phagocytize bacteria

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76
Q

What do lymphocytes do?

A

Immunologic defense

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77
Q

What do monocytes do?

A

Circulate briefly in the bloodstream before becoming macrophages in the tissues

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78
Q

What do basophils do?

A

Respond to allergic reactions

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79
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

Respond to parasitic infection

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80
Q

What is the development cycle of RBCs?

A
  1. Produced in the bone marrow
    Rubriblast
    Prorubricyte
    Rubricyte
    Metarubricyte
    Reticulocyte
    Mautre RBC
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81
Q

What is the development cycle of Granulocytes?

A

Produced in bone marrow
Progranulocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte
Band
Mature

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82
Q

What is the development cycle of monocytes?

A

Produced in bone marrow
Monoblast
Promonocyte
Monocyte

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83
Q

Where are lymphocytes produced?

A

B cell production in bone marrow in mammals
B cell production in bursa of fabricus in avians
T cell production in thymus
Production in adults occurs in lymphoid tissues

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84
Q

What is the development of lymphocytes?

A

Lymphoblast
Prolymphocyte
Lymphocyte

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85
Q

TUBES
1. Purple
2. Green
3. Gray
4. Blue
5. Red
6. Yellow

A
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Sodium Fluoride
  4. Sodium Citrate
  5. Serum Separator
  6. Clot Activator
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86
Q

What are sodium fluoride tubes used for?

A

Glucose tests

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87
Q

What are sodium citrate tubes used for?

A

Coagulation studies

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88
Q

How are RBCs evaluated?

A
  1. PCV
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. RBC Indices
  4. Reticulocyte Count
  5. Morphology
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89
Q

What is PCV?

A

% of RBCs in circulating whole blood

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90
Q

What does decreased PCV indicate?

A

Anemia or overhydration

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91
Q

What does increased PCV indicate?

A

Dehydration

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92
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

Part of RBCs responsible for carrying O2 and CO2

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93
Q

What is hemoglobin count used for?

A

Calculating RBC indices

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94
Q

How do you calculate hemoglobin content?

A

1/3 of PCV

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95
Q

What is MCV?

A

Mean corpuscular volume

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96
Q

What is macrocytosis?

A

Increased MCV

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97
Q

What is microcytosis?

A

Decreased MCV

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98
Q

How do you calculate MCV?

A

(PCV x10) / RBCs in millions
Measured in femtoliters

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99
Q

What is mean corpuscular hemoglobin?

A

The hemoglobin volume

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100
Q

What is hypochromasia?

A

Decreased MCHC

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101
Q

What is hyperchromasia?

A

Increased MCHC

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102
Q

How do you calculate MCH?

A

(Hb concentration x 10) / RBCs in millions
Measured in g/dL

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103
Q

What is MCHC

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

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104
Q

How do you calculate MCHC?

A

(Hb concentration x 100) / PCV as a whole number
Measured in g/dL

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105
Q

What is reticulocyte count?

A

% of reticulocytes included in RBC count

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106
Q

What species does not have reticulocytes?

A

horses

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107
Q

What species has 2 kinds of reticulocytes and what are they?

A

Cats
Aggregate and punctate
Only punctate is counted

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108
Q

How are leukocytes evaluated?

A
  1. Total leukocyte count
  2. Differentiation
  3. Morphology
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109
Q

What is used for manual wbc counts?

A

Neubauer system

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110
Q

What can interfere with WBC counts?

A

nRBCs

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111
Q

What species have nRBCs in peripheral blood normally?

A

Birds and reptiles

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112
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

Increase in WBC

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113
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

Decrease in WBC

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114
Q

What is wbc diferentiation?

A

% of each type of wbc times total wbc count

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115
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

anuclear cytoplasmic fragments from bone marrow megakaryocytes in mammals

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116
Q

How are thrombocytes different in non-mammalians?

A

Nucleated

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117
Q

How are equine thrombocytes different?

A

they are paler

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118
Q

How do you calculate platelets?

A

Average number of platelets in 10 HPF x 20,000

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119
Q

What is mean platelet volume?

A

Provides an average size of platelets

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120
Q

What does rouleaux indicate?

A

Common in horses but can also be seen in cats, dogs, and pigs

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121
Q

What does agglutination indicate?

A

IMHA

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122
Q

What causes hypochromasia?

A

iron deficient anemia

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123
Q

What causes basophilic stippling?

A

lead poisoning

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124
Q

What causes heinz bodies?

A

Oxidative damage
Aceteminophen toxicity in cats and dogs
onion toxicity in dogs

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125
Q

What causes Howell Jolly bodies?

A

Regeneration

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126
Q

What is poikilocytosis?

A

RBC variation in shape

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127
Q

What causes acanthocytes?

A

Liver dz but can be normal in young cattle and goats

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128
Q

What causes blister cells?

A

iron deficiency

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129
Q

What causes crystallized hemoglobin?

A

Normal in cats, llamas, and puppies

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130
Q

What causes dacryocytes?

A

bone marrow disorders

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131
Q

What causes drepanocytes?

A

Invitro in deer, angora goats, and some sheep

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132
Q

What causes eccentrocytes?

A

dogs ingesting aceteminophen and onions

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133
Q

What causes echinocytes?

A

Renal dz and rattle snake bites

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134
Q

What causes elliptocytes?

A

Normal shape for camelids and nonmammalian species

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135
Q

What causes ghost cells?

A

intravascular hemolysis

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136
Q

What causes leptocytes?

A

iron deficiency anemia and IMHA

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137
Q

What causes schistocytes?

A

disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

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138
Q

What causes spherocytes?

A

Hemolytic anemia

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139
Q

What causes stomatocytes?

A

Hereditary condition

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140
Q

What causes neutrophilic bands?

A

Indicate inflammation

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141
Q

What causes pelgar huet anomaly?

A

False left shift

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142
Q

What causes dohle bodies?

A

mild toxemia
more common in cats and horses

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143
Q

What causes cytoplasmic basophilia?

A

Toxicity and reactivity

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144
Q

What cause cytoplasmic vacuolization?

A

Abnormal lysosomes

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145
Q

What causes reactive lymphocytes?

A

Antigenic stimulation

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146
Q

What causes kurloff bodies?

A

Normal in male guinea pigs

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147
Q

What causes plasma cells?

A

End stage of b lymphocytes

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148
Q

What is total protein?

A

Combination of various proteins produced by liver

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149
Q

What protein is most abundant in plasma?

A

Albumin

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150
Q

What is the second most abundant protein in plasma?

A

Globulins

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151
Q

What is globulin commonly measured in large animals?

A

Fibrinogen

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152
Q

What causes hyperproteinemia?

A

Dehydration
inflammation
Reactive neoplasia
multiple myomas

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153
Q

What causes hypoproteinemia?

A

loss of proteins

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154
Q

What is coagulation?

A

complex interaction among vessel walls, epithelial cells, platelets, phospholipids, and soluble proteins called coagulation factors

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155
Q

What is the end product of coagulation

A

Thrombin

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156
Q

What are the types of hemostasis?

A

Primary and Secondary

157
Q

What is primary hemostasis?

A

Vessel walls constrict to reduce blood loss and then platelets are attracted to and adhere to subendothelium

158
Q

What are disorders of primary hemostasis?

A
  1. Prolonged bleeding
  2. petechia
  3. eccymosis
159
Q

What are laboratory evaluations for primary hemostasis?

A

Platelet count
buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)

160
Q

What is secondary hemostasis?

A

Proteins known as coagulation factors that activate each other in a loop system

161
Q

What are the disorders of secondary hemostasis?

A

Delayed hemorrhage
Large hematomas
Bleeding within body cavities

162
Q

What are the pathways of secondary hemostasis?

A
  1. Extrinsic
  2. Intrinsic
  3. Common
163
Q

What does the extrinsic pathway do?

A

initiates coagulation cascade

164
Q

What does the intrinsic pathway do/

A

Proteins and clotting factors are activated

165
Q

What are the laboratory evaluations for the extrinsic pathway?

A
  1. Prothrombin time (PT)
  2. Thrombin and calcium added to citrated plasma
  3. Factor VII
166
Q

What are the laboratory evaluations for the intrinsic pathway?

A

Activated Clotting Time (ACT)
Activated Partial Prothrombin Time (aPTT)

167
Q

What are the laboratory evaluations for the common pathway?

A
  1. Thrombin Time (TT)
  2. Evaluate plasma fibrinogen levels
168
Q

What parasites reside in the heart?

A

Dirofilaria immitis

169
Q

What parasites reside in the subcutaneous tissue?

A

Dipetalonema

170
Q

What parasites reside in the lungs?

A

Lungworms

171
Q

What parasites reside in the abomasum?

A

Cryptosporidium and Trichostrongyles

172
Q

What parasites reside in the digestsive tract?

A

Trichomonads

173
Q

What parasites reside in the large intestines?

A

Whipworms, strongyles, and pinworms

174
Q

What parasites reside in the small and large intestines?

A

Anplocephala
Eimeria
Cryptosporidium

175
Q

What parasites reside in the small intestines?

A

Most intestinal parasites

176
Q

What type of worm is Toxocara?

A

roundworm

177
Q

What type of worm is Toxascaris?

A

roundworm

178
Q

What type of worm is Parascaris?

A

roundworm

179
Q

What type of worm is Ascaris?

A

roundworm

180
Q

What type of worm is Ancyolostoma?

A

Hookworm

181
Q

What type of worm is Uncinaria?

A

hookworm

182
Q

What type of worm is Haemonchus?

A

hookworm

183
Q

What type of worm is Ostertagia?

A

hookworm

184
Q

What type of worm is Trichuris?

A

whipworm

185
Q

What type of worm is Dipylidium?

A

tapeworm

186
Q

What type of worm is Taenia?

A

Tapeworm

187
Q

What type of worm is Anplocephala?

A

tapeworm

188
Q

What type of worm is Moniezia?

A

tapeworm

189
Q

What type of worm is Paragonimus?

A

Lungworm

190
Q

What type of worm is Dictyocaulus?

A

lungworm

191
Q

What type of worm is cystoisospora?

A

Coccidia

192
Q

What type of worm is Eimeira?

A

Coccidia

193
Q

What type of worm is strongyloides?

A

Strongyle

194
Q

What type of worm is cyathostomes?

A

Strongyle

195
Q

What type of worm is Oxyuris?

A

Pinworm

196
Q

What type of worm is Strongylus?

A

Strongyle

197
Q

What type of worm is echinococcus?

A

tapeworm

198
Q

What type of worm is Gasterophilus?

A

Bot fly

199
Q

What type of worm is Fasciola?

A

Liver fluke

200
Q

What does toxocara infect?

A

cats and dogs

201
Q

What does toxascaris infect?

A

dogs and cats

202
Q

What does Parascaris infect?

A

horses

203
Q

What does ascaris infect

A

Pigs

204
Q

What does Ancylostoma infect?

A

Dogs and Cats

205
Q

What does Uncinaria infect?

A

Dogs

206
Q

What does Haemonchus infect?

A

Cattle, Sheep, and goats

207
Q

What does Ostertagia infect?

A

cattle, sheep, and goats

208
Q

What does Echinococcus infect?

A

Dogs and cats

209
Q

What does Trichuris infect?

A

Dogs, Cattle, Sheep, Goats, and Pigs

210
Q

What does Dipylidium infect?

A

dogs and cats

211
Q

What does Taenia infect?

A

dogs and cats

212
Q

What does Anplochephala infect?

A

Horses

213
Q

What does Moniezia infect?

A

Cattle, sheep, and goats

214
Q

What does Paragonimus infect?

A

Cats and Dogs

215
Q

What does dictyocaulus infect?

A

Cattle sheep and goats

216
Q

What does cystoisospora infect?

A

Dogs, cats, and pigs

217
Q

What does Eimeria infect?

A

Horses, Cattle, Sheep, Goats, and Pigs

218
Q

What does Strongyloides infect?

A

Cattle, sheep, goats, and pigs

219
Q

What does Cyathostomes infect?

A

Horses

220
Q

What does Strongylus infect?

A

Horses

221
Q

What does Gasterophilus infect?

A

Horses

222
Q

What does Fasciola infect?

A

Cattle sheep and goats

223
Q

What does Capillaria infect?

A

Cattle, sheep, and goats

224
Q

What does cryptosporidium infect?

A

Everything

225
Q

What does Trichinella infect?

A

Pigs

226
Q

What worms are transmammary/transplacental?

A

Roundworms and Hookworms

227
Q

What worms are transferred by mosquitos?

A

Heartworm

228
Q

What worms are transferred by skin penetration?

A

Hookworms and some whipworms

229
Q

What worms are ingested by crayfish?

A

lungworm

230
Q

What worms are transferred by fleas?

A

tapeworms

231
Q

What worms are transferred by ingestion of muscle?

A

Trichinella and Toxoplasma

232
Q

What worms are facultative?

A

Strongyloides

233
Q

What worms are zoonotic?

A
  1. Roundworm
  2. Hookworm
  3. Tapeworm
  4. Toxoplasma
  5. Strongyloides
  6. Sarcocystitis
234
Q

What zoonotic trait does roundworms cause?

A

Visceral Larval migrans

235
Q

What zoonotic trait does hookworms cause?

A

Cutaneous Larval migrans

236
Q

What zoonotic trait does Toxoplasma cause?

A

Toxoplasmosis

237
Q

What type of parasite is Melophagus?

A

Fly: sheep ked

238
Q

What type of parasite is Hypoderma?

A

Fly: cattle grub

239
Q

What type of parasite is Oestrus?

A

Fly: nasal bot

240
Q

What type of parasite is Cuterebra?

A

Fly warbles

241
Q

What type of parasite is Anopleura?

A

Sucking lice

242
Q

What type of parasite is Pediculus?

A

Sucking lice

243
Q

What type of parasite is Mallophaga?

A

Biting lice

244
Q

What type of parasite is Felicola?

A

Biting lice

245
Q

What type of parasite is Trichodectes?

A

Biting lice

246
Q

What type of parasite is Ctenocephalidaes?

A

Flea

247
Q

What type of parasite is dermacentor?

A

Dog tick

248
Q

What type of parasite is Ixodes?

A

Deer tick

249
Q

What type of parasite is Rhipicephalus?

A

Brown dog tick

250
Q

What does Dermacentor transmit?

A

RMSF, Tularemia, Q fever

251
Q

What does Ixodes transmit?

A

Lyme

252
Q

What does Rhipicephalus transmit?

A

Ehrlichia and Babesia

253
Q

What type of parasite is Sarcoptes?

A

Mange mite

254
Q

What type of parasite is Demodex?

A

mange mite

255
Q

What type of parasite is Cheyletiella?

A

Mite: walking dandruff

256
Q

What type of parasite is Choprioptes?

A

Tail and Leg Mange MIte

257
Q

What type of parasite is Psoroptes?

A

Large animal ear mite

258
Q

What type of parasite is Otodectes?

A

Small animal ear mite

259
Q

What type of parasite is Notoedres?

A

Scabies mite

260
Q

What are the types of chemistries that assess kidney function>

A

CREAT
BUN
SDMA
Uric Acid

261
Q

What parasite causes ocular larval migrans?

A

ROundworm

262
Q

What is creat?

A

byproduct of muscle metabolism

263
Q

What does creat measure?

A

glomerular function

263
Q

What does increased creat indicate?

A

Kidney dz

264
Q

What can affect the results of creat?

A

Hydration status

265
Q

What is BUN?

A

end product of protein metabolism that is excreted by the kidneys

266
Q

What does BUN measure?

A

glomerular filtration and renal function

267
Q

What is indicated by increased BUN?

A

Renal insufficiency and decreased urine output

268
Q

What is indicated by decreased BUN?

A

Anorexia, Liver dz, and increased urine output

269
Q

What is SDMA?

A

An early indicator of kidney disease. Can detect changes at only 25% loss of kidney function

270
Q

What chemistries assess pancreatic function?

A

Glucose
Amylase
Lipase

271
Q

What does increased urine glucose indicate?

A

Diabetes

272
Q

What does increased serum or plasma glucose indicate?

A

Diabetes
Stress
Cushings
Corticosteroids

273
Q

What is amylase?

A

breaksdown complex starches and glycogen

274
Q

What is increased amylase indicate?

A

Pancreatitis
Cushings
GI Obstruction
Renal dz

275
Q

What is lipase?

A

breaks down long chain fatty acids of lipids

276
Q

What does increased lipase indicate?

A

Pancreatitis

277
Q

What are the tests for lipase function?

A

cPL and fPL

278
Q

What is the best indicator for renal disease in avians?

A

Uric acid

279
Q

What chemistries assess liver function?

A

Bilirubin
TP
Albumin
Globulins
Enzymes
Bile Acids

280
Q

What is bilirubin?

A

breakdown of hemoglobin by macrophages in the spleen

281
Q

What does increased bilirubin indicate?

A

Hepatic dz or cholestasis

282
Q

What affects total protein?

A

Absorption and distribution

283
Q

What does increased total protein indicate?

A

Dehydration

284
Q

What does Decreased total protein indicate?

A

Shock and overhydration

285
Q

How much of albumin makes up total protein?

A

35-50%

286
Q

What is albumin?

A

binding and transport protein

287
Q

What does increased albumin indicate?

A

Rare but can indicate shock

288
Q

What does decreased albumin indicate?

A

Many causes but liver dz and starvation are the most common

289
Q

How are globulins determined?

A

Estimating the difference between albumin and TP

290
Q

What is indicated by increased globulins?

A

Inflammation and infections

291
Q

What is indicated by decreased globulins?

A

Failure of passive transfer or overhydration

292
Q

What do variations in enzymes indicate?

A

Hepatic DZ

293
Q

What are the liver enzymes?

A

ALT
AST
ALP
LDH
GGT

294
Q

What are bile acids

A

Formed in the liver from cholesterol, secreted into bile, and stored in the gallbladder. Then reabsorbed in ileus

295
Q

What is indicated by increased bile acids?

A

All forms of liver dz and portosystemic shunts

296
Q

What is indicated by decreased bile acids?

A

Delayed gastric emptying and small intestine bacterial overgrowth

297
Q

What causes hypernatremia?

A

Dehydration

298
Q

What causes hyponatremia?

A

Overhydration, renal dz, V/D, CHF

299
Q

What causes hyperkalemia?

A

Renal disease and addisons

300
Q

What causes hypokalemia?

A

Fluid loss, V/D

301
Q

What causes Hyperchloremia?

A

Hyperparathyroidism
Excessive vitamin d
Bony metastes

302
Q

What causes hypochloremia?

A

Malabsorption
Eclampsia
Pancreatic necrosis
Post parturient lactation

303
Q

What causes hyperphosphatemia?

A

Renal disease and ethylene glycol poisoning

304
Q

What causes hypophosphatemia?

A

Malabsorption
Diabetes
Sarcomas
Cushings

305
Q

When is decreased magnesium significant?

A

Only in sheep and cattle it can cause muscle tetany

306
Q

What is thyroxine?

A

T4 baseline measurement of resting thyroid hormone concentration

307
Q

What is free thyroid hormone?

A

measures the portion of t4 not bound to proteins

308
Q

What are the basic parts of a microscope?

A

Eyepiece
Condenser
Stage
Objectives
Focus

309
Q

How long are cultures held in the incubator?

A

Grown overnight and held for 48 hours

310
Q

What temperature is an incubator?

A

98.6 F or 37 C

311
Q

How are fungal cultures grown?

A

At room temperature in the dark

312
Q

What are the types of media in microbiology?

A

Nutritive
Selective
Differential

313
Q

What does nutritive media grow?

A

All types

314
Q

What does selective media grow?

A

specific types of bacteria

315
Q

What does differential media grow?

A

Differentiates between different types

316
Q

What are the basic types of media?

A

Agar
Broth
Plate
Tube
Slant

317
Q

What is CNA?

A

Columbian Acid Agar
Selects for Gram Positive

318
Q

What is Hektoen Enteric Agar?

A

Selects for salmonella and shigella

319
Q

What is MAC?

A

MacConkey II Agar
Selects for Gram Negative
Differentiates between lactose fermenting and non-lactose fermenting

320
Q

What is MH?

A

Mueller Hinton Agar
Antibiotic Sensitivity

321
Q

What is SS?

A

Salmonella- Shigella Agar
Selects for pathogenic gram negative

322
Q

What is TSA?

A

Trypticase Soy Agar AKA Blood Agar Plate
General nutritive media plate used to observe hemolytic reactions

323
Q

What is a DTM tube?

A

Dermatophyte Test Medium
Isolates pathogenic fungi

324
Q

What is NA?

A

Nutrient Agar Slant
Cultivates and transports nonfastidious organisms

325
Q

What is TSB?

A

Tryticase Soy Broth
used in blood cultures

326
Q

What is a UREA tube?

A

Urea Agar Slant
Determines Urease production of bacteria

327
Q

What specimens are sterile?

A
  1. Blood
  2. Urine
  3. Spinal Fluid
  4. Joint Fluid
  5. Solid Organs
  6. Milk
  7. Lower Respiratory Tract
328
Q

What specimens are non-sterile?

A
  1. hair and fur
  2. Skin
  3. Sputum or Saliva
  4. Intestinal Tract or Feces
  5. Ears
  6. Upper Respiratory Tract
329
Q

What is an acid fast stain?

A

Determines if bacteria is acid fast positive or negative

330
Q

What is a catalase test?

A

Used on all gram positive cocci to determine if staph or strep

331
Q

What is positive and negative on a catalase test?

A

Positive: Staph
Negative: Strep

332
Q

What is a coagulase test?

A

Used on all staph
Positive: More pathogenic

333
Q

What is a gram stain test?

A

Differentiates between gram positive or gram negative

334
Q

What is positive and negative on a gram stain test?

A

Purple is positive
Pink is negative

335
Q

What is an indole test?

A

Positive is E. coli

336
Q

What is the Kirbi-Bauer test?

A

Susceptibility test for staph or gram (-) rods

337
Q

What is an oxidase test?

A

Done on non-lactose fermenting
Positive turns blue and is Pseudomonas or Aermonas

338
Q

What is a UREA test?

A

Used in Lactose fermenting bacteria if the indole is negative (EG not E Coli). If it is positive then it is Klebsiella or Proteus

339
Q

What are the gram positive cocci?

A

Staph and Strep

340
Q

What does Staphylococcus cause?

A

Skin and other infections
Bumblefoot in birds

341
Q

What does Streptococcus cause?

A

Pneumonia, Mastitis, Septicemia

342
Q

What are the gram negative cocci?

A

Neisseria and Moraxella bovis

343
Q

What does Neisseria weaveri cause?

A

Infectious agent in dog bites

344
Q

What does Neisseria iguanae cause?

A

Abscesses in iguanae lizards

345
Q

What does moraxella bovis cause?

A

Pinkeye in cattle

346
Q

What are the gram negative rods?

A

Bacterioides
Fusobacterium
Pseudomonas
Aeromonas

347
Q

What do bacterioids cause?

A

Diarrhea, abscesses, mastitis, periodontitis

348
Q

What does Fusobacterium cause?

A

Dog and Cat bites infection
Thrush in horses
Foot rot in cattle

349
Q

What does pseudomonas and aeromonas casue?

A

Serious non-enteral infections in exotics

350
Q

What is bacillus anthracis?

A

Gram negative rod
Causes sudden death in cattle and sheep

351
Q

What is Clostridium piriformis?

A

Gram negative rod
Causes acute fatal enteritis in rodents and foals

352
Q

What is Cornybacterium equi?

A

Gram Negative Rod
AKA Rhodococcus equi
Foal Pneumonia

353
Q

What is Cornybacterium pseudotuberculosis?

A

Gram Negative Rod
Lymphadenitis in sheeps and goats

354
Q

What is Cornybacterium renale?

A

Gram Negative Rod
UTI in cattle, sheep, and pigs

355
Q

What is Listeria

A

Gram negative rod
infects brain stem

356
Q

What is Erysipelothrix?

A

Gram Negative Rod
Dogs and Fowl: Septicemia
Swine: Diamond Skin Dz

357
Q

What is Nocardia?

A

Gram Negative Rod
Causes Granulatamous Lesions (Lumpy Jaw)

358
Q

What is Actinomyces?

A

Gram Negative Rod
Causes Granulatomous Lesions (Lumpy Jaw)

359
Q

What is dermatophilus?

A

Gram Negative Rod
Rain Rot Skin Infection

360
Q

What is Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Gram negative rod
Pnuemonia in primates

361
Q

What is Mycobacterium avium?

A

Gram negative rod
Fatal GI and Respiratory dz in birds

362
Q

What is Mycobacterium pseudotuberculosis?

A

Gram negative rod
Johnes dz in cattle

363
Q

What is mycoplasma?

A

Pneumonia and arthritis

364
Q

What are the gram negative spirochetes?

A

Campylobacter
Yersinia
Leptospira
Borrelia
Helicobacter

365
Q

What are the gram negative Coccobacilli?

A

Bordetella
Pasteurella
Brucella abortus

366
Q

What does Campylobacter cause?

A

Chronic debilitating diarrhea

367
Q

What does bordetella cause?

A

Respiratory dz in dogs and cats

368
Q

What does Pasteurella cause?

A

Respiratory dz in rabbits

369
Q

What does Brucella abortus cause?

A

Abortions in cattle

370
Q

What are the obligate intracellular bacteria?

A

Chlamydia
Ehrlichia
Rickettsia

371
Q

What does chlamydia cause?

A

Genital and URI infections in humans, cats, pigs, and birds

372
Q

What does ehrlichia cause?

A

Hemorrhagic fever

373
Q

What does Rickettsia cause?

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

374
Q

What are the types of fungi?

A

Dermatophytes
Saprophytes
Yeast
Dimorphic Fungi

375
Q

What are the dermatophytes?

A

Microsporum and Trichophyton

376
Q

What do dermatophytes cause?

A

Ringworm

377
Q

What are the types of Saprophytes?

A

Aspergillus
Mucor
Rhizopus

378
Q

What does Aspergillus cause?

A

Pneumonia in birds

379
Q

What does Mucor and Rhizopus cause?

A

Lymph node, lung, and liver dz

380
Q

What are the types of yeast?

A

Candida
Cryptococcus
Mallassezia

381
Q

What does candida cause?

A

yeast infection of MM of mouth, genitals, respiratory and ears

382
Q

What does cryptococcus cause?

A

Severe nasal infections in dogs and cats
Meningitis in humans

383
Q

What does mallasezia cause?

A

Ear infection

384
Q

What are the types of dimorphic fungi?

A

Histoplasma
Blastomyces
Coccidioides

385
Q

What does Histoplasma cause

A

Respiratory infections in dogs, cats, and humans

386
Q

What does blastomyces cause?

A

Respiratory and skin infections in dogs and humans

387
Q

What does coccidioides casue?

A

Respiratory dz in dogs and humans

388
Q
A

Vet Tech Prep (30 decks)

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