Laboratory Diagnostics Flashcards
What is quality assurance?
The minimization of errors during the preanalytical, analytical, and post analytical time frames in sample testing
What are examples of quality assurance?
- SOPS
- Labeling, communication, and recording
- Appropriate collection devices
What is quality control?
Techniques to test instrumentation, personnel performing tests, and diagnostic testing kits to ensure reliability of results
What are examples of external quality control?
Commercially prepared products to test procedures
What are examples of internal quality control?
Built into instrument or diagnostic equipment
What is calibration?
Techniques to adjust an instrument to improve accuracy of results
When should urinalysis be performed?
Within 20-30 minutes of collection or can refrigerate for up to 12 hours
What do you evaluate with physically of urine?
- Volume
- Color
- Transparency
- Odor
- Specific Gravity
How does color correlate with specific gravity?
Light urine decreased SG
Dark urine increased SG
What does bile in urine look like?
Yellow to green foam
What does hematuria or hemoglobinuria look like?
Red or reddish brown
What does myoglobinuria look like?
Brown
What does rabbit urine look like?
Yellow to cloudy white to orange
What does horse urine look like?
More brown
What is assessed with transparency?
Turbidity
What is turbidity associated with/
Cellular debris
What species have normally cloudy urine?
Horses
Cats
Rabbits, Hamsters, and guinea pigs
Why is specific gravity of urine assessed?
the ability of the renal tubules to concentrate or dilute filtrates from the glomerulus, indicating how well the kidney can concentrate or dilute urine
What is the SG of glomerular filtrate?
The same as plasma
What is Isosthenuria?
1.008-1.012 (same as plasma)
What is hyposthenuria?
Less than 1.008
What is hypersthenuria?
Greater than 1.012
What does low specific gravity mean?
Tubules are not concentrating
What does high specific gravity mean?
Tubules are over concentrating
Describe urine ph
Less than 7 acidic
Greater than 7 Alkaline
What does increased protein in urine mean?
Renal disease
What does increased glucose in urine mean?
Diabetes or excitement
What does increased ketones in urine in large animals mean?
Pregnancy toxemia due to rapid breakdown of fats
What does increased ketones in urine in small animals mean?
Diabetes
What do increased bile pigments in urine indicate?
Biliary obstruction
Hepatic infections
Toxicity
Hemolytic anemia
What blood components would be in urine?
Hematuria
Hemoglobinuria
Myoglobinuria
What does increased leukocytes in urine indicate?
Infection
What does increased urobilinogen mean in urine?
Liver disease
GI disease
Intravascular hemolysis
What does hematuria indicate?
Urinary dz
What does hemoglobinuria indicate?
Intravascular hemolysis
What does myoglobinuria indicate?
Muscle over exertion
How much urine should be collected
at least 5 ml
How to view urine sediment?
Lower condenser and view through coverslip at 10x then 40x
What are the epithelial cells found in urine?
- Squamos
- Transitional
- Renal
Describe squamos epithelial cells
- Flat, irregular shaped with angular borders and small nuclei
- Derived from urethra, vagina, and vulva
- Largest cells
- Not clinically significant
Described transitional epithelial cells
- Variation in size with granular cytoplasm
- Associated with inflammation such as cystitis or from catheterization
Described renal epithelial cells
- Round with large nucleus, slightly larger than wbcs
- Increased with renal tubular disease
What do casts indicate?
Renal tubular damage
Describe hyaline casts?
cylindrical with relatively symmetrical sides and round ends
What is the most common type of cast?
Granular
What do waxy casts indicate?
Chronic to severe renal tubular damage
What are the types of cellular casts?
- Epithelial
- WBC
- RBC
What do epithelial casts indicate?
acute nephritis
What do WBC casts indicate?
inflammation of the tubules
What do RBC casts indicate?
Bleeding into the tubules
Describe struvites
Coffin lids
What causes struvites?
Urease producing bacteria of the lower urinary tract disease
Describe amorphous phosphate and urates
Colorless granular precipitate
What causes phosphate crystals?
alkaline urine
What causes Urate crystals?
acidic urine
Describe ammonium biurate
Round and brownish with long spicules
What causes ammonium biurate crystals?
Liver disease or portocaval shunts
What species commonly has ammonium biurate crystals?
Dalmations
Describe calcium carbonate crystals
Dumbbells with radial striations
What species are calcium carbonate crystals common in?
Horses and rabbits
Describe Calcium oxylate crytals?
Small colorless envelopes
What causes monohydrate calcium oxylate crystals?
ethylene glycol toxicity
What causes dihydrate calcium oxylate crystals?
Can be found in healthy animals
Describe leucine crystals
small and round with sectioned centers
Describe tyrosine crystals
Spiculated and spindle shaped
Describe cystine crystals
Flat and 6 sided
What do leucine, tyrosine, and cystine crystals indicate?
hepatic dz
What is uric acid?
End product of metabolism and oxidation
What species normally produces uric acid?
dalmatians
What does bilirubin crystals in urine indicate?
Common in canine urine
What are the types of cells in hematology?
RBCs WBCs and Platelets
What are the types of WBCs?
- Neutrophils
- Lymphocytes
- Monocytes
- Basophils
- Eosinophils
What WBCs are granulocytes?
neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils
What WBCs are agranulocytes?
lymphocytes and monocytes
What do neutrophils do?
phagocytize bacteria
What do lymphocytes do?
Immunologic defense
What do monocytes do?
Circulate briefly in the bloodstream before becoming macrophages in the tissues
What do basophils do?
Respond to allergic reactions
What do eosinophils do?
Respond to parasitic infection
What is the development cycle of RBCs?
- Produced in the bone marrow
Rubriblast
Prorubricyte
Rubricyte
Metarubricyte
Reticulocyte
Mautre RBC
What is the development cycle of Granulocytes?
Produced in bone marrow
Progranulocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte
Band
Mature
What is the development cycle of monocytes?
Produced in bone marrow
Monoblast
Promonocyte
Monocyte
Where are lymphocytes produced?
B cell production in bone marrow in mammals
B cell production in bursa of fabricus in avians
T cell production in thymus
Production in adults occurs in lymphoid tissues
What is the development of lymphocytes?
Lymphoblast
Prolymphocyte
Lymphocyte
TUBES
1. Purple
2. Green
3. Gray
4. Blue
5. Red
6. Yellow
- EDTA
- Heparin
- Sodium Fluoride
- Sodium Citrate
- Serum Separator
- Clot Activator
What are sodium fluoride tubes used for?
Glucose tests
What are sodium citrate tubes used for?
Coagulation studies
How are RBCs evaluated?
- PCV
- Hemoglobin
- RBC Indices
- Reticulocyte Count
- Morphology
What is PCV?
% of RBCs in circulating whole blood
What does decreased PCV indicate?
Anemia or overhydration
What does increased PCV indicate?
Dehydration
What is hemoglobin?
Part of RBCs responsible for carrying O2 and CO2
What is hemoglobin count used for?
Calculating RBC indices
How do you calculate hemoglobin content?
1/3 of PCV
What is MCV?
Mean corpuscular volume
What is macrocytosis?
Increased MCV
What is microcytosis?
Decreased MCV
How do you calculate MCV?
(PCV x10) / RBCs in millions
Measured in femtoliters
What is mean corpuscular hemoglobin?
The hemoglobin volume
What is hypochromasia?
Decreased MCHC
What is hyperchromasia?
Increased MCHC
How do you calculate MCH?
(Hb concentration x 10) / RBCs in millions
Measured in g/dL
What is MCHC
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
How do you calculate MCHC?
(Hb concentration x 100) / PCV as a whole number
Measured in g/dL
What is reticulocyte count?
% of reticulocytes included in RBC count
What species does not have reticulocytes?
horses
What species has 2 kinds of reticulocytes and what are they?
Cats
Aggregate and punctate
Only punctate is counted
How are leukocytes evaluated?
- Total leukocyte count
- Differentiation
- Morphology
What is used for manual wbc counts?
Neubauer system
What can interfere with WBC counts?
nRBCs
What species have nRBCs in peripheral blood normally?
Birds and reptiles
What is leukocytosis?
Increase in WBC
What is leukopenia?
Decrease in WBC
What is wbc diferentiation?
% of each type of wbc times total wbc count
What are thrombocytes?
anuclear cytoplasmic fragments from bone marrow megakaryocytes in mammals
How are thrombocytes different in non-mammalians?
Nucleated
How are equine thrombocytes different?
they are paler
How do you calculate platelets?
Average number of platelets in 10 HPF x 20,000
What is mean platelet volume?
Provides an average size of platelets
What does rouleaux indicate?
Common in horses but can also be seen in cats, dogs, and pigs
What does agglutination indicate?
IMHA
What causes hypochromasia?
iron deficient anemia
What causes basophilic stippling?
lead poisoning
What causes heinz bodies?
Oxidative damage
Aceteminophen toxicity in cats and dogs
onion toxicity in dogs
What causes Howell Jolly bodies?
Regeneration
What is poikilocytosis?
RBC variation in shape
What causes acanthocytes?
Liver dz but can be normal in young cattle and goats
What causes blister cells?
iron deficiency
What causes crystallized hemoglobin?
Normal in cats, llamas, and puppies
What causes dacryocytes?
bone marrow disorders
What causes drepanocytes?
Invitro in deer, angora goats, and some sheep
What causes eccentrocytes?
dogs ingesting aceteminophen and onions
What causes echinocytes?
Renal dz and rattle snake bites
What causes elliptocytes?
Normal shape for camelids and nonmammalian species
What causes ghost cells?
intravascular hemolysis
What causes leptocytes?
iron deficiency anemia and IMHA
What causes schistocytes?
disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
What causes spherocytes?
Hemolytic anemia
What causes stomatocytes?
Hereditary condition
What causes neutrophilic bands?
Indicate inflammation
What causes pelgar huet anomaly?
False left shift
What causes dohle bodies?
mild toxemia
more common in cats and horses
What causes cytoplasmic basophilia?
Toxicity and reactivity
What cause cytoplasmic vacuolization?
Abnormal lysosomes
What causes reactive lymphocytes?
Antigenic stimulation
What causes kurloff bodies?
Normal in male guinea pigs
What causes plasma cells?
End stage of b lymphocytes
What is total protein?
Combination of various proteins produced by liver
What protein is most abundant in plasma?
Albumin
What is the second most abundant protein in plasma?
Globulins
What is globulin commonly measured in large animals?
Fibrinogen
What causes hyperproteinemia?
Dehydration
inflammation
Reactive neoplasia
multiple myomas
What causes hypoproteinemia?
loss of proteins
What is coagulation?
complex interaction among vessel walls, epithelial cells, platelets, phospholipids, and soluble proteins called coagulation factors
What is the end product of coagulation
Thrombin
What are the types of hemostasis?
Primary and Secondary
What is primary hemostasis?
Vessel walls constrict to reduce blood loss and then platelets are attracted to and adhere to subendothelium
What are disorders of primary hemostasis?
- Prolonged bleeding
- petechia
- eccymosis
What are laboratory evaluations for primary hemostasis?
Platelet count
buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)
What is secondary hemostasis?
Proteins known as coagulation factors that activate each other in a loop system
What are the disorders of secondary hemostasis?
Delayed hemorrhage
Large hematomas
Bleeding within body cavities
What are the pathways of secondary hemostasis?
- Extrinsic
- Intrinsic
- Common
What does the extrinsic pathway do?
initiates coagulation cascade
What does the intrinsic pathway do/
Proteins and clotting factors are activated
What are the laboratory evaluations for the extrinsic pathway?
- Prothrombin time (PT)
- Thrombin and calcium added to citrated plasma
- Factor VII
What are the laboratory evaluations for the intrinsic pathway?
Activated Clotting Time (ACT)
Activated Partial Prothrombin Time (aPTT)
What are the laboratory evaluations for the common pathway?
- Thrombin Time (TT)
- Evaluate plasma fibrinogen levels
What parasites reside in the heart?
Dirofilaria immitis
What parasites reside in the subcutaneous tissue?
Dipetalonema
What parasites reside in the lungs?
Lungworms
What parasites reside in the abomasum?
Cryptosporidium and Trichostrongyles
What parasites reside in the digestsive tract?
Trichomonads
What parasites reside in the large intestines?
Whipworms, strongyles, and pinworms
What parasites reside in the small and large intestines?
Anplocephala
Eimeria
Cryptosporidium
What parasites reside in the small intestines?
Most intestinal parasites
What type of worm is Toxocara?
roundworm
What type of worm is Toxascaris?
roundworm
What type of worm is Parascaris?
roundworm
What type of worm is Ascaris?
roundworm
What type of worm is Ancyolostoma?
Hookworm
What type of worm is Uncinaria?
hookworm
What type of worm is Haemonchus?
hookworm
What type of worm is Ostertagia?
hookworm
What type of worm is Trichuris?
whipworm
What type of worm is Dipylidium?
tapeworm
What type of worm is Taenia?
Tapeworm
What type of worm is Anplocephala?
tapeworm
What type of worm is Moniezia?
tapeworm
What type of worm is Paragonimus?
Lungworm
What type of worm is Dictyocaulus?
lungworm
What type of worm is cystoisospora?
Coccidia
What type of worm is Eimeira?
Coccidia
What type of worm is strongyloides?
Strongyle
What type of worm is cyathostomes?
Strongyle
What type of worm is Oxyuris?
Pinworm
What type of worm is Strongylus?
Strongyle
What type of worm is echinococcus?
tapeworm
What type of worm is Gasterophilus?
Bot fly
What type of worm is Fasciola?
Liver fluke
What does toxocara infect?
cats and dogs
What does toxascaris infect?
dogs and cats
What does Parascaris infect?
horses
What does ascaris infect
Pigs
What does Ancylostoma infect?
Dogs and Cats
What does Uncinaria infect?
Dogs
What does Haemonchus infect?
Cattle, Sheep, and goats
What does Ostertagia infect?
cattle, sheep, and goats
What does Echinococcus infect?
Dogs and cats
What does Trichuris infect?
Dogs, Cattle, Sheep, Goats, and Pigs
What does Dipylidium infect?
dogs and cats
What does Taenia infect?
dogs and cats
What does Anplochephala infect?
Horses
What does Moniezia infect?
Cattle, sheep, and goats
What does Paragonimus infect?
Cats and Dogs
What does dictyocaulus infect?
Cattle sheep and goats
What does cystoisospora infect?
Dogs, cats, and pigs
What does Eimeria infect?
Horses, Cattle, Sheep, Goats, and Pigs
What does Strongyloides infect?
Cattle, sheep, goats, and pigs
What does Cyathostomes infect?
Horses
What does Strongylus infect?
Horses
What does Gasterophilus infect?
Horses
What does Fasciola infect?
Cattle sheep and goats
What does Capillaria infect?
Cattle, sheep, and goats
What does cryptosporidium infect?
Everything
What does Trichinella infect?
Pigs
What worms are transmammary/transplacental?
Roundworms and Hookworms
What worms are transferred by mosquitos?
Heartworm
What worms are transferred by skin penetration?
Hookworms and some whipworms
What worms are ingested by crayfish?
lungworm
What worms are transferred by fleas?
tapeworms
What worms are transferred by ingestion of muscle?
Trichinella and Toxoplasma
What worms are facultative?
Strongyloides
What worms are zoonotic?
- Roundworm
- Hookworm
- Tapeworm
- Toxoplasma
- Strongyloides
- Sarcocystitis
What zoonotic trait does roundworms cause?
Visceral Larval migrans
What zoonotic trait does hookworms cause?
Cutaneous Larval migrans
What zoonotic trait does Toxoplasma cause?
Toxoplasmosis
What type of parasite is Melophagus?
Fly: sheep ked
What type of parasite is Hypoderma?
Fly: cattle grub
What type of parasite is Oestrus?
Fly: nasal bot
What type of parasite is Cuterebra?
Fly warbles
What type of parasite is Anopleura?
Sucking lice
What type of parasite is Pediculus?
Sucking lice
What type of parasite is Mallophaga?
Biting lice
What type of parasite is Felicola?
Biting lice
What type of parasite is Trichodectes?
Biting lice
What type of parasite is Ctenocephalidaes?
Flea
What type of parasite is dermacentor?
Dog tick
What type of parasite is Ixodes?
Deer tick
What type of parasite is Rhipicephalus?
Brown dog tick
What does Dermacentor transmit?
RMSF, Tularemia, Q fever
What does Ixodes transmit?
Lyme
What does Rhipicephalus transmit?
Ehrlichia and Babesia
What type of parasite is Sarcoptes?
Mange mite
What type of parasite is Demodex?
mange mite
What type of parasite is Cheyletiella?
Mite: walking dandruff
What type of parasite is Choprioptes?
Tail and Leg Mange MIte
What type of parasite is Psoroptes?
Large animal ear mite
What type of parasite is Otodectes?
Small animal ear mite
What type of parasite is Notoedres?
Scabies mite
What are the types of chemistries that assess kidney function>
CREAT
BUN
SDMA
Uric Acid
What parasite causes ocular larval migrans?
ROundworm
What is creat?
byproduct of muscle metabolism
What does creat measure?
glomerular function
What does increased creat indicate?
Kidney dz
What can affect the results of creat?
Hydration status
What is BUN?
end product of protein metabolism that is excreted by the kidneys
What does BUN measure?
glomerular filtration and renal function
What is indicated by increased BUN?
Renal insufficiency and decreased urine output
What is indicated by decreased BUN?
Anorexia, Liver dz, and increased urine output
What is SDMA?
An early indicator of kidney disease. Can detect changes at only 25% loss of kidney function
What chemistries assess pancreatic function?
Glucose
Amylase
Lipase
What does increased urine glucose indicate?
Diabetes
What does increased serum or plasma glucose indicate?
Diabetes
Stress
Cushings
Corticosteroids
What is amylase?
breaksdown complex starches and glycogen
What is increased amylase indicate?
Pancreatitis
Cushings
GI Obstruction
Renal dz
What is lipase?
breaks down long chain fatty acids of lipids
What does increased lipase indicate?
Pancreatitis
What are the tests for lipase function?
cPL and fPL
What is the best indicator for renal disease in avians?
Uric acid
What chemistries assess liver function?
Bilirubin
TP
Albumin
Globulins
Enzymes
Bile Acids
What is bilirubin?
breakdown of hemoglobin by macrophages in the spleen
What does increased bilirubin indicate?
Hepatic dz or cholestasis
What affects total protein?
Absorption and distribution
What does increased total protein indicate?
Dehydration
What does Decreased total protein indicate?
Shock and overhydration
How much of albumin makes up total protein?
35-50%
What is albumin?
binding and transport protein
What does increased albumin indicate?
Rare but can indicate shock
What does decreased albumin indicate?
Many causes but liver dz and starvation are the most common
How are globulins determined?
Estimating the difference between albumin and TP
What is indicated by increased globulins?
Inflammation and infections
What is indicated by decreased globulins?
Failure of passive transfer or overhydration
What do variations in enzymes indicate?
Hepatic DZ
What are the liver enzymes?
ALT
AST
ALP
LDH
GGT
What are bile acids
Formed in the liver from cholesterol, secreted into bile, and stored in the gallbladder. Then reabsorbed in ileus
What is indicated by increased bile acids?
All forms of liver dz and portosystemic shunts
What is indicated by decreased bile acids?
Delayed gastric emptying and small intestine bacterial overgrowth
What causes hypernatremia?
Dehydration
What causes hyponatremia?
Overhydration, renal dz, V/D, CHF
What causes hyperkalemia?
Renal disease and addisons
What causes hypokalemia?
Fluid loss, V/D
What causes Hyperchloremia?
Hyperparathyroidism
Excessive vitamin d
Bony metastes
What causes hypochloremia?
Malabsorption
Eclampsia
Pancreatic necrosis
Post parturient lactation
What causes hyperphosphatemia?
Renal disease and ethylene glycol poisoning
What causes hypophosphatemia?
Malabsorption
Diabetes
Sarcomas
Cushings
When is decreased magnesium significant?
Only in sheep and cattle it can cause muscle tetany
What is thyroxine?
T4 baseline measurement of resting thyroid hormone concentration
What is free thyroid hormone?
measures the portion of t4 not bound to proteins
What are the basic parts of a microscope?
Eyepiece
Condenser
Stage
Objectives
Focus
How long are cultures held in the incubator?
Grown overnight and held for 48 hours
What temperature is an incubator?
98.6 F or 37 C
How are fungal cultures grown?
At room temperature in the dark
What are the types of media in microbiology?
Nutritive
Selective
Differential
What does nutritive media grow?
All types
What does selective media grow?
specific types of bacteria
What does differential media grow?
Differentiates between different types
What are the basic types of media?
Agar
Broth
Plate
Tube
Slant
What is CNA?
Columbian Acid Agar
Selects for Gram Positive
What is Hektoen Enteric Agar?
Selects for salmonella and shigella
What is MAC?
MacConkey II Agar
Selects for Gram Negative
Differentiates between lactose fermenting and non-lactose fermenting
What is MH?
Mueller Hinton Agar
Antibiotic Sensitivity
What is SS?
Salmonella- Shigella Agar
Selects for pathogenic gram negative
What is TSA?
Trypticase Soy Agar AKA Blood Agar Plate
General nutritive media plate used to observe hemolytic reactions
What is a DTM tube?
Dermatophyte Test Medium
Isolates pathogenic fungi
What is NA?
Nutrient Agar Slant
Cultivates and transports nonfastidious organisms
What is TSB?
Tryticase Soy Broth
used in blood cultures
What is a UREA tube?
Urea Agar Slant
Determines Urease production of bacteria
What specimens are sterile?
- Blood
- Urine
- Spinal Fluid
- Joint Fluid
- Solid Organs
- Milk
- Lower Respiratory Tract
What specimens are non-sterile?
- hair and fur
- Skin
- Sputum or Saliva
- Intestinal Tract or Feces
- Ears
- Upper Respiratory Tract
What is an acid fast stain?
Determines if bacteria is acid fast positive or negative
What is a catalase test?
Used on all gram positive cocci to determine if staph or strep
What is positive and negative on a catalase test?
Positive: Staph
Negative: Strep
What is a coagulase test?
Used on all staph
Positive: More pathogenic
What is a gram stain test?
Differentiates between gram positive or gram negative
What is positive and negative on a gram stain test?
Purple is positive
Pink is negative
What is an indole test?
Positive is E. coli
What is the Kirbi-Bauer test?
Susceptibility test for staph or gram (-) rods
What is an oxidase test?
Done on non-lactose fermenting
Positive turns blue and is Pseudomonas or Aermonas
What is a UREA test?
Used in Lactose fermenting bacteria if the indole is negative (EG not E Coli). If it is positive then it is Klebsiella or Proteus
What are the gram positive cocci?
Staph and Strep
What does Staphylococcus cause?
Skin and other infections
Bumblefoot in birds
What does Streptococcus cause?
Pneumonia, Mastitis, Septicemia
What are the gram negative cocci?
Neisseria and Moraxella bovis
What does Neisseria weaveri cause?
Infectious agent in dog bites
What does Neisseria iguanae cause?
Abscesses in iguanae lizards
What does moraxella bovis cause?
Pinkeye in cattle
What are the gram negative rods?
Bacterioides
Fusobacterium
Pseudomonas
Aeromonas
What do bacterioids cause?
Diarrhea, abscesses, mastitis, periodontitis
What does Fusobacterium cause?
Dog and Cat bites infection
Thrush in horses
Foot rot in cattle
What does pseudomonas and aeromonas casue?
Serious non-enteral infections in exotics
What is bacillus anthracis?
Gram negative rod
Causes sudden death in cattle and sheep
What is Clostridium piriformis?
Gram negative rod
Causes acute fatal enteritis in rodents and foals
What is Cornybacterium equi?
Gram Negative Rod
AKA Rhodococcus equi
Foal Pneumonia
What is Cornybacterium pseudotuberculosis?
Gram Negative Rod
Lymphadenitis in sheeps and goats
What is Cornybacterium renale?
Gram Negative Rod
UTI in cattle, sheep, and pigs
What is Listeria
Gram negative rod
infects brain stem
What is Erysipelothrix?
Gram Negative Rod
Dogs and Fowl: Septicemia
Swine: Diamond Skin Dz
What is Nocardia?
Gram Negative Rod
Causes Granulatamous Lesions (Lumpy Jaw)
What is Actinomyces?
Gram Negative Rod
Causes Granulatomous Lesions (Lumpy Jaw)
What is dermatophilus?
Gram Negative Rod
Rain Rot Skin Infection
What is Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Gram negative rod
Pnuemonia in primates
What is Mycobacterium avium?
Gram negative rod
Fatal GI and Respiratory dz in birds
What is Mycobacterium pseudotuberculosis?
Gram negative rod
Johnes dz in cattle
What is mycoplasma?
Pneumonia and arthritis
What are the gram negative spirochetes?
Campylobacter
Yersinia
Leptospira
Borrelia
Helicobacter
What are the gram negative Coccobacilli?
Bordetella
Pasteurella
Brucella abortus
What does Campylobacter cause?
Chronic debilitating diarrhea
What does bordetella cause?
Respiratory dz in dogs and cats
What does Pasteurella cause?
Respiratory dz in rabbits
What does Brucella abortus cause?
Abortions in cattle
What are the obligate intracellular bacteria?
Chlamydia
Ehrlichia
Rickettsia
What does chlamydia cause?
Genital and URI infections in humans, cats, pigs, and birds
What does ehrlichia cause?
Hemorrhagic fever
What does Rickettsia cause?
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
What are the types of fungi?
Dermatophytes
Saprophytes
Yeast
Dimorphic Fungi
What are the dermatophytes?
Microsporum and Trichophyton
What do dermatophytes cause?
Ringworm
What are the types of Saprophytes?
Aspergillus
Mucor
Rhizopus
What does Aspergillus cause?
Pneumonia in birds
What does Mucor and Rhizopus cause?
Lymph node, lung, and liver dz
What are the types of yeast?
Candida
Cryptococcus
Mallassezia
What does candida cause?
yeast infection of MM of mouth, genitals, respiratory and ears
What does cryptococcus cause?
Severe nasal infections in dogs and cats
Meningitis in humans
What does mallasezia cause?
Ear infection
What are the types of dimorphic fungi?
Histoplasma
Blastomyces
Coccidioides
What does Histoplasma cause
Respiratory infections in dogs, cats, and humans
What does blastomyces cause?
Respiratory and skin infections in dogs and humans
What does coccidioides casue?
Respiratory dz in dogs and humans
