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Vet Tech Prep > Anesthesia > Flashcards

Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

What diameter of ET tubes is typically used in cats?

A

3-4.5 mm

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2
Q

What diameter of ET tube is used in dogs?

A

1-2 kg starts at a 5 and then goes up 1-2 mm for every 2 kg of dog

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3
Q

How do you measure the length of an ET tube?

A

Tip of nose to thoracic inlet

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4
Q

What could an inappropriate length of ET tube cause?

A

Inappropriate length could result in hypoxia and hypoventilation

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5
Q

How do you check ET tube placement?

A
  1. Observe condensation in tube
  2. Palpate neck area
  3. Observe air movement
  4. Auscultate lung sounds
  5. Observe capnograph
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6
Q

How do you check for leaks?

A

Close pop off valve
Put thumb over tube
Fill reservoir bag with air
Apply positive pressure to reservoir bag and observe manometer up to 30 cm H2O

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7
Q

What patients should you use lidocaine on and why?

A

Cats and rabbits to prevent laryngospasm

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8
Q

What do feline tubes sometimes require that dogs dont?

A

Stylet because of the small size

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9
Q

When can you extubate?

A

When gag reflex is intact and patient is swallowing. Cats you can also monitor for ear flicks.

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10
Q

What is the gas supply?

A

compressed gas cylinder or central supply line

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11
Q

What is the check valve?

A

Ensures one way flow of O2 at beginning of anesthesia machine

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12
Q

What is the Pressure reducing valve?

A

Reduces pressure from tank to approximately 50 psi

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13
Q

What is the pressure gauge?

A

Indicates cylinder pressure when valve is open

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14
Q

What is the flow meter?

A

Measures rate of gas flow in L/min and further reduces pressure to approximately 15 psi

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15
Q

What does the vaporizer do?

A

Converts liquid anesthetic to gasWh

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16
Q

What are the types of breathing systems?

A

F circuit or bain system

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17
Q

What do the unidirectional valves do?

A

Ensure a unidirectional flow of gas in the breathing system. 1 for inspiration and 1 for expiration

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18
Q

What is the reservoir bag for?

A

Used to manually ventilate patient

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19
Q

What does the pop off valve do?

A

Close for leak test or to fill the reservoir bag

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20
Q

What does the CO2 absorber do?

A

Soda lime canister removes CO2 from expired gases

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21
Q

What is the common gas outlet?

A

Where mix of gases exits machine into breathing system

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22
Q

What is the oxygen flush valve?

A

Bypasses vaporizer to deliver pure oxygen

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23
Q

What is the pressure manometer?

A

Measures the pressure in the breathing system

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24
Q

What is the scavenging system?

A

Collects waste gas and delivers to activated charcoal or outside

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25
Q

What is the negative pressure relief valve?

A

Safety valve that opens to allow negative pressure to escape

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26
Q

What is the scavenger interface?

A

Opens to release air if scavenging system fails

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27
Q

What is the circuit alarm?

A

Sounds if pressure level is greater than 15 cm H2O

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28
Q

How do you calculate the volume of cylinders?

A

Multiply the available cylinder pressure in psi by conversion factor

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29
Q

What is the standard pressure in a full O2 cylinder?

A

2200 psi

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30
Q

How do you calculate the volume of a O2 cylinder?

A

Multiply psi by 0.3

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31
Q

When should you change an O2 cylinder

A

When pressure drops below 100

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32
Q

What is vapor pressure?

A

Pressure exerted by gas and varies by temperature

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33
Q

What is an additional measure on the anesthesia machine that can be used to monitor breath?

A

Unidirectional valves

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34
Q

What size patient for a 0.5 L reservoir bag?

A

0-6 kg

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35
Q

What size patient for a 1 L reservoir bag?

A

6-16 kg

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36
Q

What size patient for a 2 L bag?

A

16-35 kg

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37
Q

What size patient for a 3 L bag?

A

greater than 35 kg

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38
Q

What color do granules in soda lime container change?

A

blue or purple

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39
Q

When should you never use the oxygen flush valve?

A

bain system on a small patient

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40
Q

What should the manometer not exceed when providing assisted ventilation?

A

15-20 but in some dogs up to 30

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41
Q

What should the rate and pressure be on an anesthetic ventilator?

A

1:1 inspiration/expiration and no greater than 30 cm H2O

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42
Q

What should you do if a canine is spontaneously breathing?

A

ensure the pop off valve is closed

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43
Q

What is bypassed on a non-rebreathing system?

A

unidirectional valves, pop off valve, and soda lime canister

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44
Q

What systems are monitored with anesthetic monitoring?

A
  1. CNS
  2. Cardiovascular
  3. Ventilation
  4. Oxygenation
  5. Fluids
  6. Temperature
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45
Q

What do you use to measure CNS in anesthetic monitoring?

A
  1. Eye Position
  2. Palpebral Reflex
  3. Corneal Reflex
  4. Pupil size
  5. Pedal Reflex
  6. Jaw Tone
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46
Q

What do you use to measure Cardiovascular in anesthetic monitoring?

A
  1. HR
  2. Pulse Rate
  3. Rhythm
  4. BP
  5. CRT
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47
Q

What do you use to measure ventilation in anesthetic monitoring?

A
  1. Rate
  2. Tidal Volume
  3. Oxygenation
  4. Capnography
  5. Blood Gas Analysis
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48
Q

What is the normal eye position?

A
  1. Central when too light or too deep
  2. Rotate ventromedially during Stage 3, Plane 2
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49
Q

What is the normal palpebral reflex?

A

Disappears as patient gets deeper

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50
Q

What is the normal corneal reflex?

A

Should be present but will disappear with overdose

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51
Q

What is normal pupil size?

A

Constricted in light surgical plane. Dilates in non-surgical or deep surgical plane

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52
Q

What is normal pedal reflex?

A

Disappears with Surgical plane

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53
Q

What is normal jaw tone?

A

Disappears in light surgical plane

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54
Q

What is normal anesthetic HR?

A

Dogs 70-140 BPM
Cats 110-160 BPM

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55
Q

What should be noted with Heart rhythm in anesthetic monitoring?

A

Note arrythmias

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56
Q

What should be noted with pulse in anesthetic monitoring?

A

Pulse should match HR

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57
Q

What is the normal blood pressure in anesthesia monitoring?

A

Systolic 100-160 mmHG
Mean 80-120 mmHG
Diastolic 600-100 mmHG

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58
Q

What is normal CRT?

A

less than 2 seconds

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59
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate?

A

8-20 BPM

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60
Q

What is the normal tidal volume?

A

10-15 ml/kg

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61
Q

What is the normal oxygenation?

A

greater than 98 %

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62
Q

What is the normal capnography?

A

35-44 mmHg

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63
Q

How do you measure eye reflexes?

A

touch or tap

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64
Q

How do you measure eye position and pupil size?

A

Visualize

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65
Q

How do you measure jaw tone?

A

open mouth

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66
Q

How do you measure heart rate, pulse, and rhythm?

A

Palpation
Stethoscope
ECG
Doppler

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67
Q

How do you measure BP?

A

Palpate
MM Color
Indirect Monitor: Doppler or Oscillometric
Direct Monitor: Arterial line

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68
Q

How do you measure RR?

A

Visualize breaths on patient or anesthesia machine
Stethoscope

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69
Q

How do you measure respiratory depth?

A

Capnography

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70
Q

What causes abnormal CNS?

A

Depth of sx plane
Some drugs

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71
Q

What causes bradycardia? (10)

A
  1. Drug effect
  2. Anesthetic depth
  3. End stage hypoxia
  4. Hypertension
  5. Vagal Nerve Stimulation
  6. Hypothermia
  7. Hyperkalemia
  8. Myocardial Ischemia
  9. Hypoxemia
  10. Fluid Overload
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72
Q

What causes Tachycardia (9)?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Hypoxemia
  3. Hypercarbia
  4. Ischemia
  5. Anaphylaxis
  6. Anemia
  7. Hypovolemia
  8. Drug Effects
  9. Fever
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73
Q

What causes hypotension?

A
  1. Hypovolemia
  2. Shock
  3. Drug Effect
  4. Depth of Anesthesia
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74
Q

What causes hypertension?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Hypercarbia
  3. Fever
  4. Drug Effect
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75
Q

What causes decreased CRT?

A

Hypovolemia

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76
Q

What causes tachypnea (7)?

A
  1. Anesthetic Depth
  2. Hypoxemia
  3. Hypercapnea
  4. Hyperthermia
  5. Post Op Pain
  6. Drug Induction
  7. Individual Variation
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77
Q

What causes hypercapnea?

A
  1. Excessive depth of anesthesia
  2. Airway obstruction
  3. Thoracic or Abdominal Restrictive dz
  4. pulmonary dz
  5. Dead space breathing
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78
Q

What causes Hypoxemia?

A
  1. O2 flow too low
  2. Breathing room air
  3. Venous admixture
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79
Q

What causes hypothermia?

A

Thermoregulation fails or environmental losses

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80
Q

What causes hyperthermia?

A
  1. Excessive heat application
  2. Drug Interaction
  3. Genetic defect such as malignant hyperthermia
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81
Q

How many stages of anesthesia are there?

A

4

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82
Q

What is the first stage of anesthesia?

A

Induction phase

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83
Q

What are the signs of stage 1?

A
  1. Sensations become dull
  2. Loss of pain
  3. Normal pupils
  4. Increased BP
  5. Increased RR
  6. Vomiting
  7. Voluntary movement
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84
Q

What is stage 2 phase?

A

Excitement phase

85
Q

What are the signs of stage 2 phase of anesthesia?

A
  1. Struggling
  2. Exaggerated reflexes
  3. Dilated pupils
  4. Irregular respiration
  5. Vomiting
86
Q

How many planes are in stage 3 of anesthesia?

A

4

87
Q

What happens in stage 3, plane 1?

A

Eyeball begins to roll but reflexes are still present

88
Q

What happens in stage 3, plane 2?

A

Ideal surgical plane
1. Respirations deep and regular
2. Fixed eyeball with sluggish pupillary reflex
3. Mild increase in RR and HR with pain
4. Peripheral reflexes absent

89
Q

What happens in stage 3, plane 3?

A
  1. RR decreases and breath no longer deep and regular
  2. Pupils begin to dilate
  3. Pulse fast and faint
  4. Decrease in BP
  5. No response to pain stimuli
90
Q

What happens in stage 3, plane 4?

A
  1. Progressive respiratory paralysis
  2. Decreased tidal volume
  3. Reflexes absent
  4. Pupils dilated and not light responsive
  5. Decreased HR
  6. Decreased BP
  7. Apnea
  8. Pale mm and proglonged CRT
91
Q

What happens in stage 4?

A

Apnea and cardia arrest

92
Q

What is the goal of ventilation?

A

maintain near normal acid-base status and oxygenation and counteract CO2 retention

93
Q

What are the reasons a patient will spontaneously breath?

A
  1. Underventilation
  2. Pain
  3. Light anesthetic plane
94
Q

What can overventilation cause?

A

ruptured alveoli

95
Q

How is tension thorax indicated?

A

Increased pressure with chest expansion

96
Q

What are the mechanisms that regulate pH?

A
  1. Chemical
  2. Respiratory System
  3. Renal System
97
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

CO2 production is greater than CO2 excretion

98
Q

How is respiratory acidosis indicated?

A

Increased CO2 levels

99
Q

What is respiratory acidosis caused by?

A

depressed ventilation

100
Q

What does respiratory acidosis cause?

A

Decreased pH
Increased cardiac output
Vasodilation
Ventricular arrythmias

101
Q

How do you treat respiratory acidosis?

A

Increase ventilation and/or treat underlying disease

102
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

CO2 excretion is greater than CO2 production

103
Q

How is respiratory alkalosis indicated?

A

Decreased CO2 levels

104
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis caused by?

A

excessive ventilation or spontaneous hyperventilation

105
Q

What does respiratory alkalosis cause?

A

Increased pH
Tachycardia
ECG changes

106
Q

What is the tx for respiratory alkalosis?

A

Decrease minute volume or tx cause of hyperventilation

107
Q

What are they types of preanesthetic drugs?

A
  1. Anticholinergics
  2. Tranquilizers and Sedatives
  3. Opioids
  4. Neuroleptanalgesics
108
Q

What are the types of injectable induction agents?

A
  1. Barbiturates
  2. Nonbarbiturates
  3. Dissociatives
109
Q

What are the inhalant anesthetics?

A

Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
Halothane

110
Q

What are the types of anticholinergics?

A

Atropine and Glycopyrrolate

111
Q

What are the indications for anticholinergics?

A
  1. Prevent or tx bradycardia
  2. Increase HR
  3. Reduce salivary and tear secretions
  4. Promote bronchodilation
  5. Dilate Pupils
  6. Reduce GI activity
112
Q

What are the side effects of anticholinergics?

A
  1. May initially produce sinus tachycardia
  2. May produce thicker mucus
113
Q

What are the contraindications for anticholinergics?

A
  1. Preexisting cardiac dz
  2. Geriatric pts
  3. Constipation or ileus
  4. Colic in horses
  5. Bloat in ruminants
114
Q

What are the 4 types of tranquilizers/sedatives?

A
  1. Phenothiazines
  2. Benzodiazepines
  3. Butyrophenes
  4. Alpha 2 Agonists
115
Q

What are the three types of phenothiazenes?

A
  1. Acepromazine
  2. Chlorpromazine
  3. Promazine
116
Q

What are the 4 types of benzodiazepines?

A
  1. Diazepam
  2. Midazolam
  3. Lorazepam
  4. Zolazepam
117
Q

What is the brand name for diazepam?

A

Valium

118
Q

What is the brand name for midazolam?

A

Versed

119
Q

What is the brand name for lorazepam?

A

Ativan

120
Q

What are the 2 types of butyrophenes?

A

Azaperone and Droperidol

121
Q

What is the brand name for azaperone?

A

Strensil

122
Q

What is the brand name for Droperidol?

A

Inapsine

123
Q

What are the 3 Alpha 2 Agonists?

A

Xylazine
Romifidine
Dexmedetomidine

124
Q

What is the brand name for Xylazine?

A

Rompun

125
Q

What is the brand name for Romifidine?

A

Sedivet

126
Q

What is the brand name for Dexmedetomidine?

A

Dexdomitor

127
Q

What reverses Xylazine?

A

Yohimbine

128
Q

What reverses Dexmedetomidine?

A

Yohimbine and atipamezole

129
Q

What is the brand name for atipamezole?

A

Antisedan

130
Q

What are the indications for phenothiazines?

A
  1. Skeletal muscle relaxation
  2. Antiarrythmic
  3. Antiemetic
  4. Inhibit platelet aggregation
131
Q

Do phenothiazines have analgesic properties?

A

No

132
Q

What are the side effects of phenothiazines?

A
  1. May lower seizure threshold
  2. Hypothermia
  3. Hypotension
  4. May cause excitement
  5. May produce penile protrusion
133
Q

What are the contraindications for phenothiazines?

A
  1. Shock
  2. Dehydration
  3. Epilepsy
  4. Depressed patients
  5. Caution with geriatric and pediatric
  6. Avoid in breeding stallions
  7. Boxers and dobermans are more sensitive
134
Q

What are the indications for benzodiazepines?

A
  1. Calming effect
  2. Anticonvulsant
  3. Enhance sedation
  4. Reduce inhalant requirements
  5. Ideal for older, depressed, or anxious patients
135
Q

What are the side effects of benzodiazepines?

A

Bradycardia
Hypertension

136
Q

What are the contraindications for benzodiazepines?

A

Poor hepatic function
Excitable animals

137
Q

What drug do benzodiazepines combine well with?

A

Ketamine

138
Q

What med can be combined with benzodiazepines for excitable animals?

A

Xylazine

139
Q

What are the indications for butyrophenes?

A
  1. Reduce anxiety
  2. Antiemetic
  3. Reduce movement and response to stimuli
  4. Increase RR
140
Q

What are the side effects of butyrophenes?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Decreased cardiac output
  4. Panting
  5. Hypothermia
  6. Produce salivation
141
Q

What is the side effect of very high doses of butyrophenes?

A

Rigidity and seizures

142
Q

What are the indications of alpha 2 agonists?

A
  1. Produce calming effects
  2. Provide profound sedation
  3. Moderate analgesia
  4. Muscle relaxation
  5. Decreased need for anesthetic
143
Q

What are the side effects of Alpha 2 Agonists?

A
  1. Bradycardia, decreased cardiac output, and dysrhythmias
  2. Initial increase in BP followed by decrease in BP
  3. Peripheral vasoconstriction
  4. Hypothermia
  5. Depress swallowing reflex
  6. Vomiting
  7. Slight muscle tremors
  8. Excitement
  9. Reduced intestinal motility
  10. Hyperglycemia and Glucosuria
144
Q

What are the contraindications of Alpha 2 Agonists?

A
  1. Cardio dz
  2. Respiratory dz
  3. Hepatic dz
  4. Renal dz
  5. Diabetes
  6. Shock
  7. GDV
145
Q

What are specific things to remember about Atropine (4)?

A
  1. Potent and fast acting
  2. Will cross blood brain barrier
  3. Will cross placental barrier
  4. IV may cause ventricular arrythmias
146
Q

What are specific things to remember about Glycopyrrolate?

A
  1. Slower onset of action but longer duration
  2. Will not cross blood brain barrier
  3. Will not cross placental barrier
147
Q

What are specific things to remember about diazepam?

A

Do not mix with other drugs when giving IV and do not administer IM

148
Q

What are butyrophenes used for?

A

Swine and exotic animals

149
Q

What is azaperone primarily used for?

A

Sedate and treat aggression in swine

150
Q

What are important things to remember about Xylazine?

A
  1. Most commonly used tranquilizer
  2. Sedation lasts 1-2 hours
  3. Analgesia lasts 30 minutes
  4. Caution in ruminants because it may reduce oxygen exchange
151
Q

What is romifidine used for?

A

Primarily horses

152
Q

Why is romifidine used in horses?

A

More potent than xylazine and dexmedetomidine and it provides longer sedation

153
Q

What are opioids used for?

A

Sedation
Analgesia
Dysphoria
Excitement

154
Q

How are opioid classified?

A

Mu or Partial mu

155
Q

What opioids are partial mu?

A

Bupernorphine and butorphanol

156
Q

What are the indications for opioids?

A
  1. Analgesia
  2. Induction
  3. Balanced anesthesia
  4. CRIS for multimodal anesthesia
  5. Preemptive pain control
157
Q
A
158
Q

What are the side effects of opioids (11)?

A
  1. Bradycardia
  2. Panting in dogs
  3. Hypothermia
  4. Hyperthermia in cats with hydromorphone
  5. Nausea, Vomiting, defecation with morphine and hydro
  6. Constipation
  7. Cough suppression
  8. Addiction
  9. Salivation
  10. Miosis in dogs and pigs
  11. Mydriasis in cats and horses
  12. Noise sensitivity
  13. Sweating in horses
159
Q

What are the contraindications of opioids?

A
  1. Previous hx of excitement
  2. GI obstruction because of vomiting
  3. Diaphragmatic hernia because of vomiting
160
Q

What are the 2 barbiturates used?

A

Pentobarbital and Thiopental

161
Q

What is the difference between pentobarbital and thiopental?

A

Pentobarbital is short acting and thiopental is long acting

162
Q

What are the indications for barbiturates?

A
  1. Sedation
  2. Anticonvulsant
  3. General anesthesia
163
Q

What are the side effects of barbiturates?

A
  1. Non reversible
  2. Respiratory and Cardiovascular depression
  3. Free barbiturates will increase with hypoproteinemia because they are protein binding
164
Q

What breeds should you avoid using thiopental in ?

A

Sight hounds

165
Q

What is the recovery for barbiturates?

A

slow and rough

166
Q

What can happen if you give thiopental perivascularly?

A

Can cause sloughing

167
Q

What are the 5 types of non-barbiturates?

A
  1. Propofol
  2. Alfaxalone
  3. Fentanyl
  4. Etomidate
  5. Guafenisin
168
Q

What are the indications for propofol?

A
  1. Sedation
  2. Induction
  3. Anesthesia maintenance
  4. Anticonvulsant
  5. Muscle relaxation
169
Q

What type of drug is propofol?

A

Short acting hypnotic

170
Q

Described induction and recovery with propofol?

A

Rapid induction and rapid recovery with no hangover

171
Q

What are the side effects of propofol?

A
  1. Transient apnea
  2. Avoid in animals with hypotension
  3. Transient excitement and muscle tremors
  4. Crosses placental barrier
172
Q

Why do you need to discard propofol after 6 hours?

A

Will support bacterial growth

173
Q

Why is alfaxalone used?

A

Newest drug available
Little or no cardiovascular effects
Can be used with any preanesthesia

174
Q

What are the side effects of alfaxalone?

A
  1. No antimicrobial preservatives
  2. Transient induction apnea
  3. Respiratory depression
  4. Cant be used with other IV drugs
  5. Excitement or muscle twitching may occur
  6. Safety not established with pregnancy
175
Q

Describe Fentanyl

A
  1. Primarily an analgesic
  2. Can produce unconsciousness
  3. Neuroleptanalgesic
  4. Does not cause apnea or heart related complications
176
Q

What are the indications for etomidate?

A
  1. Very safe, short acting, rapid distribution
  2. Produce CNS depression
  3. Popular with animals with cardiac dz
  4. Can be bolus or continuous
177
Q

What are the side effects and contraindications of etomidate?

A
  1. No analgesic properties
  2. May cause V/D, nausea, excitement, and apnea
  3. Mild respiratory distress
  4. Produces excessive muscle rigidity and seizures in horses and cattle
  5. Injection may be painful
178
Q

Describe guafenesin

A
  1. IV anesthesia
  2. Muscle relaxant used in large animal
  3. Induction and recovery excitement free
  4. Minimal respiratory and cardiac effect
  5. Excessive doses may cause apneustic effects and muscle rigidity
179
Q

What are they types of dissociative anesthetics?

A

Ketamine and Tiletamine

180
Q

What are the indications of dissociative anesthetics?

A
  1. Analgesia and catalepsy
  2. Selective superficial analgesia
  3. Cardiac stimulation
  4. Increase muscle rigidity
  5. Apneustic breathing
  6. Increase RR
  7. Immobilization of patient
  8. Amnesic
  9. Open eyes with centrally dilated pupils and nystagmus
  10. Can be administered via mouth
181
Q

What are the side effects of Dissociative anesthetics?

A
  1. Small % of cats will show convulsive behavior
  2. Tissue irritation
  3. Increase salivation and lacrimation
  4. Increase intraocular pressure
  5. Temporary personality changes
  6. Excitement on recovery
182
Q

What are the contraindications of dissociative anesthetics?

A
  1. Many induce pulmonary edema or acute heart failure
  2. Use with caution renal and hepatic dz
  3. Never use as a sole agent in cats
  4. Used alone in dogs maay cause seizures
  5. Dont use glaucoma
  6. Prolonged and unreliable recovery
183
Q

What are important things to remember with ketamine?

A
  1. Somatic analgesia
  2. Combined with benzodiazepines for induction
  3. Can be combined with midazolam and given IM
184
Q

What makes up telazol?

A

Zolazepam and tiletamine

185
Q

What are the types of inhalant anesthetics?

A
  1. Isoflurane
  2. Sevoflurane
  3. Desflurane
186
Q

What is vapor pressure?

A

measure of volatility of anesthetic liquid

187
Q

How is potency of inhalant anesthetics determined?

A

Minimum alveolar concentration

188
Q

What is Minimum alveolar concentration?

A

The amount of the drug that produces no response in 50% of patients exposed to painful stimuli

189
Q

What makes inhalent anesthetics more potent?

A

lipid solubility

190
Q

How are inhalant anesthetics distributed?

A

Absorbed from alveoli into the bloodstream

191
Q

How are inhalant anesthetics excreted?

A

The lungs

192
Q

What does uptake depend upon with inhalant anesthetics?

A

Concentration and solubility

193
Q

What are the indications of inhalant anesthetics?

A
  1. Produce general anesthesia and suitable in all species
  2. Provide some analgesia and muscle relaxation
  3. Minimal side effects
  4. Rapid recoveries
  5. Nonexplosive
  6. Inexpensive
194
Q

What is the MAC of Isoflurane?

A

1.2 % in dogs and 1.6% in cats

195
Q

What is the MAC of sevoflurane?

A

2.4% in dogs and 2.6% in cats

196
Q

What is the MAC of desflurane?

A

7.2% in dogs and 9.7% in cats

197
Q

What color labels do inhalant anesthetics have?

A

Iso - Purple
Sevo - Yellow
Des - BLue

198
Q

What are the indications for isoflurane?

A
  1. Least expensive
  2. More muscle relaxation
  3. Malignant hyperthermia in pigs
199
Q

What are the indications of sevoflurane?

A
  1. Most expensive
  2. Excellent choice for avians
  3. Non pungent and non irritating
  4. Less of a hangover
200
Q

What are the indications of desflurane?

A
  1. Pungent and airway irritation
  2. Most rapid acting but may not have fast recovery
  3. Malignant hyperthermia in many species
201
Q

When can regurgitation happen in ruminant anesthesia?

A

Any plane

202
Q

On a ventilator what should inspiration:expiration be?

A

1:1

203
Q

What can hypothermia cause?

A

Tissue acidosis

204
Q

What makes assessment of dehydration harder?

A

Low body fat

205
Q

What is most appropriate suture to close an enterotomy?

A

Absorbable monofilament

206
Q

What can dexmedetomidine cause specifically in cats?

A

vomiting

207
Q

What is sterilization?

A

Removal of all microbes

208
Q
A

Vet Tech Prep (30 decks)

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