Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Lab features of factor XI deficiency and diagnosis

A
  • Prolonged aPTT, which corrects with mixing study
  • confirmation by factor XI activity
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2
Q

Factor XI clinical features

A
  • Bleeding phenotype highly variable
  • NO spontaneous bleeding, hemarthrosis, or muslce hematomas
  • Bleeding typically in setting of trauma or surgery - “injury-related bleeding disorder”
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3
Q

Factor XI deficiency management

A
  • if significant bleeding history, factor XI replacement
  • IF significant bleeding and inhibitor present, recombinant factor VIIa
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4
Q

PCH diagnosis

A

clinical/laboratory
- clinical context of hemolysis precipitated by the cold
- Coombs/DAT + complement (C3) (but can be negative in kids), negative for IgG or IgM
- ideally Donath-landsteiner antibody (But insensitive and can rapidly become negative)

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5
Q

Deauville X meaning

A

New areas of uptake unlikely to be related to lymphoma

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6
Q

Deauville 5 meaning

A

Uptake markedly higher than liver (2-3x) and/or new lesions

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7
Q

Deauville 4 meaning

A

Uptake moderately more than liver uptake, at any site

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8
Q

Deauville 3 meaning

A

Uptake greater than mediastinal blood pool but less than liver

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9
Q

Deauville 1 meaning

A

No uptake

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10
Q

Deauville 2 meaning

A

Uptake less than mediastinal blood pool

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11
Q

Morphine IV to PO conversion

A

1 mg IV = 3 mg PO

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12
Q

Niraparib dosing based on weight and plt count

A

Patients <77 kg or with a platelet count <150,000/mm3: Oral: 200 mg once daily

Patients ≥77 kg and with a platelet count ≥150,000/mm3: Oral: 300 mg once daily

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13
Q

Cryoprecipitate components

A
  • Fibrinogen
  • Factor XIII
  • Von willebrand factor
  • Fibronectin
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14
Q

VITT presentation

A

*Strongly mimics HIT
1) vaccine type – J&J, Astra Zeneca
2) timeframe – typically in a narrow window 5 to 10 days post-vaccination, leading to identification of cases typically between 5 to 30 days post-vaccination (so 5-30 currently used as interval)
3) thrombosis – (most commonly in cerebral veins (including intracranial hemorrhage), deep veins of the leg, pulmonary arteries, and splanchnic vessels). Both arterial + venous.
*But can have thrombosis without thrombocytopenia or thrombocytopenia without thrombosis.
4) Platelet count nadir – between 10,000 and 100,000/microL, with a median platelet count of 47k
5) High frequency of DIC.

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15
Q

VITT diagnosis

A

Positive PF4 antibody + appropriate clinical context (post-COVID vaccine thrombosis and/or thrombocytopenia)

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16
Q

VITT management

A
  • ***High dose IVIG 1 gm/kg (based on actual body weight) daily for 2 days (reduce VITT antibody-induced platelet activation)
  • anticoagulation (DOAC preferred)
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17
Q

Duration of anticoagulation for VITT

A

IF thrombosis → Anticoagulation for minimum 3 months after normalization of the platelet count, as long as no further thrombosis occurs
IF NO thrombosis –> anticoagulation until platelet count recovery and perhaps longer if tolerated (four to six weeks after platelet count recovery)

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18
Q

Porphyria mechanism generally

A
  • Porphyrias are caused by alterations in the enzymes of heme biosynthesis. Heme is essential in the function of many hemoproteins, including hemoglobin and hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes.
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19
Q

Treatment for AIP

A

hemin

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20
Q

1) Diagnosis of AIP 2) confirmatory testing specific for AIP

A

1) elevated plasma and urinary ALA and PGB above baseline (>10 mg/L or >10mg/g)
2) normal or slightly elevated total plasma porphyrins
3) normal or slightly increased stool porphyrins
Confirmatory testing:
1) ***low erythrocyte PBGD activity (deficient enzyme in AIP)
2) genetic testing

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21
Q

AIP clinical features

A
  • develop over hours to days + insomnia as early symptom + persist for days to weeks + unexplained acute abdominal pain (85-95%, poorly localized) + unexplained psychiatric symptoms + peripheral neuropathy + vomiting + muscle weakness + pain in limbs/head/neck/chest + bladder dysfunction + dark or reddish-brown urine
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22
Q

AIP pathophysiology

A

Inherited deficiency of porphobilinogen deaminase (PBGD; also called hydroxymethylbilane synthase [HMBS]), the third enzyme in the heme biosynthetic pathway

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23
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease diagnosis

A
  • undergo neutrophil-function testing (cytochrome c reduction assay, chemiluminescence, nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) reduction test, and dihydrorhodamine (DHR) 123 oxidation test (preferred))
  • Positive findings should be confirmed by genotyping
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24
Q

CGD clinical features

A
  • recurrent, life-threatening bacterial and fungal infections + granuloma formation
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25
Q

CGD mechanism

A

defects in the phagocyte nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidase complex

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26
Q

MBL diagnostic criteria

A

1) monoclonal B cell population (flow cytometry preferred)
2) <5000 cells/microL
3) >3 months
4) no other features of a b cell lymphoproliferative disorder (lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, cytopenias, or extramedullary involvement) or autoimmune disorder or infectious disease

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27
Q

X-linked sideroblastic anemia (XLSA) clinical features

A
  • young boy presenting with hgb of 7 with microcytosis and no evidence of iron deficiency
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28
Q

XLSA treatment

A

B6

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29
Q

1) 2 categories of sideroblastic anemias 2) causes in second category

A

1) clonal sideroblastic anemias, which are stem cell disorders (MDS, MPN)
2) sideroblastic anemia attributed to copper deficiency, certain medications, or excessive alcohol use

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30
Q

Settings in which copper deficiency develops

A

1) malabsorption
2) prolonged parenteral nutrition
3) zinc ingestion

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31
Q

Work up for ring sideroblast detected on bone marrow aspirate

A

Review for history of excessive alcohol use
Test for copper deficiency
Review medications for drug-induced sideroblastic anemia
IF above nondiagnostic, genetic testing: ALAS2 (female only), SF3B1 and JAK2

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32
Q

Primary complication of sideroblastic anemia to be aware of

A
  • iron overload (ineffective erythropoiesis leads to increased iron absorption)
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33
Q

What is Heyde syndrome?

A

VWF is thought to suppress angiogenesis. Patients with aortic stenosis or severe MR have been found to have increased GI angiodysplasia (Heyde syndrome) thought secondary to acquired VWS and VWF deficiency

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34
Q

Brodifacoum is

A

superwarfarin, used as rodenticide, common cause of toxic ingestion leading to coagulopathy

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35
Q

1) Management of toxic ingestion of anticoagulant rodenticides 2) management of associated severe bleeding

A
  • Activated charcoal (assuming normal mental status and no aspiration risk and can be given within 2 hrs)
  • IF normal coags 48h after ingestion, no treatment
  • IF INR less than 4.5 and no bleeding, monitor
  • IF INR greater than 4.5 and no bleeding, oral vitamin K with INR monitoring
  • IF minor bleeding, oral vitamin K
  • IF life threatening bleeding, 4-factor PCC, then FFP by rapid infusion + IV vitamin K
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35
Q

Presentation of brodifacoum/superwarfarin toxicity - 1) timeframe 2) sources of rodenticide

A
  • Spontaneous bleeding following toxic ingestion of rodenticide (in cereal bait, pellets, loose grain, paste)
  • usually 24h delay until bleeding starts
  • lasts for months (much longer half life)
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36
Q

Management of supratherapeutic INR

A
  • Given INR 4.5-10 and no evidence bleeding, no indication for vitamin k (per American Society of Hematology guidelines)
  • Given INR >10 and patient has no evidence of bleeding, recommend vitamin K 2.5 mg or 5 mg PO (per American Society of Hematology guidelines)
  • Given bleeding OR urgent surgery/procedure needed, recommend
    Vitamin K IV 10 mg once, slow infusion
    4 Factor-prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC or Kcentra)
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37
Q

Management of low or intermediate risk MDS

A
  • essentially observation until they become transfusion dependent
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38
Q

Factor dosing calculation in hemophilia B

A

*Goal is to raise factor levels to 100% initially and then maintain factor levels above 50% by bolus q8-12h or continuous infusion
- 1 U/kg raises factor level by 1% (More like 0.75% but can fudge)
100 U/kg raises factor level by 100%

39
Q

venetoclax mechanism

A

BH3-mimetic.[10] Venetoclax blocks the anti-apoptotic B-cell lymphoma-2 (Bcl-2) protein, leading to programmed cell death of CLL cells.

40
Q

Management of low risk myelofibrosis

A
  • IF asymptomatic, observation
  • IF symptomatic, start JAKinhibitor
    *UMass BMT providers had very low threshold to start JAK inhibitors but for boards and by the books, low risk asymptomatic observation is indicated
41
Q

Precipitants of CRS

A
  • CAR-T
  • BiTe
  • *post-transplant cytoxan used for prophylaxis of GVHD
  • *post haplo-HCT
42
Q

Definition of mild CRS

A

Fever without other systemic symptoms

43
Q

Management of mild CRS

A
  • antihistamines, antipyretics, IV fluids, close monitoring
44
Q

Initial management of severe CRS

A

STAT tocilizumab one dose (Start w/ toci since you don’t want to theoretically ablate product with steroids - UMass, UTD argues for toci + steroids given more rapid and complete CRS control and ablation is theoretical)

45
Q

Initial management of patient w/ severe CRS and ICANS

A
  • steroids (toci not effective for ICANS)
46
Q

Management of severe bite associated CRS

A

1) Stop infusion
2) dexamethasone 10 mg up to 4 times/daily (toci less effective than steroids in this setting)

47
Q

Precipitants of atypical HUS

A

**pregnancy →
surgery →
autoimmunity →
congenital

48
Q

Risk factors for hemolysis with IVIG

A
  • high-dose infusions (1 to 2 grams per kg per day)
  • high IVIG doses (eg, >100 grams)
  • female sex,
  • non-O blood group
49
Q

Presentation of CM TMA postpartum

A

All CM-TMA features + can see severe AKI postpartum

50
Q

Lab features of immune TTP

A

(median plt count (10k) almost always <30K) + low grade anemia w/ median hematocrit 21% + reticulocytosis + hemolysis labs (extremely high LDH (around 1000 typically) + indirect hyperbilirubinemia + low haptoglobin) + negative DAT + normal coags + ADAMTS13 <10% (low specificity - many diseases can cause low ADAMTS13)

51
Q

Clinical features of immune TTP

A

Initial symptoms (fatigue, dyspnea, petechia, abdominal pain/ nausea/vomiting (45%), headache/confusion (20%) - typically mild symptoms at onset) + abnormal or normal (more commonly) kidney function (AKI uncommon), often comorbid autoimmune disorders + typically previously healthy person + median age 40 + females more commonly (75%) + increased frequency in pregnancy

52
Q

Major RF’s for recurrent VTE

A

1),Major surgery >30 minutes
2) hospitalization or confined to bed with “bathroom privileges” for ≥3 days due to acute illness
3) CS
4) trauma with fractures
5) high estrogen states - estrogen therapy, pregnancy or puerperium

53
Q

Minor RF’s for recurrent VTE

A

Minor surgery <30 minutes, hospitalization <3 days, reduced mobility at home ≥3 days due to acute illness, lower extremity injury without fracture with reduced mobility ≥3 days, long-haul flight

54
Q

When is it appropriate to measure D-dimer to determine risk of recurrent VTE?

A

female patients with VTE in whom there is uncertainty regarding the appropriateness of extended anticoagulant therapy

55
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

1) nephrotic syndrome (minimal change disease or FSGS)
2) Subacute motor neuropathy (Guillain-Barré) (subacute, progressive, painless, and often asymmetric lower motor neuron weakness)

56
Q

Sweet syndrome presentation

A

abrupt appearance of painful, edematous, and erythematous papules, plaques, or nodules on the skin

57
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with AML

A
  • Sweet syndrome
  • erythroderma
58
Q

What is the function of irradiating PRBCs?

A

Inactivating lymphocytes (Thus, used to prevent ta-GVHD in at-risk individuals)

59
Q

Indications for irradiating PRBCs

A

1) Congenital immunodeficiencies
2) potent immunosuppressive therapies (*purine analogs, ATG, certain monoclonal antibodies)
3) auto or allo transplant recipients
4) Hodgkin Lymphoma
5) Individuals at risk for partial HLA matching with the donor due to directed donations, HLA-matched products, or genetically homogeneous populations

60
Q

How leukoreduction works

A
  • Each unit of whole blood or packed RBCs contains approximately two to five billion (2 to 5 x 109) leukocytes (white blood cells [WBCs]), which are collected along with the other cellular elements. These leukocytes are thought to contribute to a number of adverse effects including febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTRs), human leukocyte antigen (HLA) alloimmunization, and transmission of cytomegalovirus
  • Leukoreduction refers to the selective removal of leukocytes by passing the blood through a leukocyte reduction filter
61
Q

Indications for leukoreduction (by the books)

A

*essentially all PRBCs are leukoreduced now
1) Chronically transfused patients
2) Previous febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
3) Patients undergoing cardiac surgery
4) All recipients (or potential recipients) of solid organ or hematopoietic cell transplants
5) All individuals with acute leukemia, and probably individuals with other malignancies
6) CMV seronegative at-risk patients for whom seronegative components are not supplied

62
Q

Malignant heme pathologies associated with HTLV-1

A

Adult T cell leukemia-lymphoma (ATL) (including CTCL)

63
Q

NCCN recommendation for low emetic risk chemo

A
  • single agent:
    Decadron vs. reglan vs. compazine vs. 5-HT3
64
Q

Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm clinical features

A

aggressive + Lymphadenopathy + cutaneous involvement

65
Q

Blastic plasmacytoid dendritic cell neoplasm immunophenotype

A

CD123 + CD4 + CD56 + TdT + BDCA-2/CD303
*count from 1-6

66
Q

Transplant criteria for amyloidosis

A

1) Age <70 2) SBP >90 3) NYHA <3 4) No more than 2 organs involved (liver, heart, kidney, or autonomic nerve) 5) Troponin T level <0.06 (high sensitivity troponin T <75 ng/ml) 6) NTproBNP <5 ng/L 7) ECOG 0-1 8) CrCl ?30 mL/minute

67
Q

Difference between 3 and 4 factor PCC

A
  • 3 does not have factor VII
68
Q

What is the mechanism of action of FC fusion protein

A

Alprolix Coagulation Factor IX (Recombinant), Fc Fusion Protein, is a recombinant DNA derived, coagulation Factor IX concentrate. It temporarily replaces the missing coagulation Factor IX needed for effective hemostasis. Alprolix contains the Fc region of human IgG1, which binds to the neonatal Fc receptor (FcRn). FcRn is part of a naturally occurring pathway that delays lysosomal degradation of immunoglobulins by cycling them back into circulation, and prolonging their plasma half-life.

69
Q

SVT management

A

IF no VTE RF’s but close to deep vein system (within 5 cm), prophylactic NOAC for 45 days
IF VTE RF’s, then need therapeutic dosing

70
Q

Next step after PVT diagnosed in a young, healthy person

A

JAK2 mutational analysis

71
Q

High leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score suggests what

A

Leukemoid reaction

72
Q

Bone marrow findings in CMML

A
  • <20% blasts by definition
  • dysplasia
73
Q

Key criteria for CMML

A

***monocytosis accounting for >10% of WBC

74
Q

Avapritinib SE to know

A

diarrhea

75
Q

HDAC inhibitors

A
  • romidepsin
  • vorinostat
  • panobinostat
  • belinostat
76
Q

Donor type for patients with familial AML

A

Matched unrelated donor

77
Q

Xa reversal agenet

A

andexanet alfa

78
Q

benefit of exchange over simple transfusion

A

less alloimmunization

79
Q

ICANS treatment

A
  • Prophylactic AED w/ keppra 500 mg BID
  • Dex 10 mg q8h
80
Q

Required prophylaxis with campath

A

PJP

81
Q

Belzutifan SE’s

A

anemia + hypoxia

82
Q

caplacizumab mechanism

A

Binds VWD and blocks its interaction with plt glycoprotein Ib-IX-V

83
Q

Drugs known to cause immune TTP

A
  • bactrim
  • Quetiapine
  • gemcitabine
  • oxaliplatin
  • Quinine
84
Q

Drugs known to cause non-immune TTP

A
  • valproic acid
  • avastin
  • velcade
  • carfilzomib
  • dasatinib
  • docetaxel
  • imatinib
  • ixazomib
  • mitomycin
  • palbociclib
  • pentostatin
  • ponatinib
  • sunitinib
  • cocaine
  • oxycontin
  • cyclosporine
  • everolimus
  • inflixmab
  • sirolimus
  • tacrolimus
85
Q

Revlimid mechanism of action

A
  • Modulates CRL4 E3 ubiquitin ligase
  • Induces the ubiquitination of IKZF1 and IKZF3 by CRL4
86
Q

Immunophenotype of Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

CD1a+
CD207+

87
Q

angiosarcoma immunophenotype

A
  • CD31+
  • CD34+
88
Q

Monomorphic PTLD treatment

A

Anti-CD20 (rituxan)
+ CHOP

89
Q

morphology of cells in LGL

A

large granular lymphocytes

90
Q

Virus associated with ATL

A

HTLV-1

91
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with ATL

A

hypercalcemia

92
Q

mutations to know for T-LGL

A

STAT3 and STAT5b

93
Q

Relevance of cresyl blue staining

A

G6PD + Hgh H disease

94
Q

Blood to transfuse HCT recipient that is A+ with a B+ donor

A

O+ (they will have the blood type of the donor after engraftment BUT a type O pt may have anti-A in their plasma produced by residual lymphocytes either transiently or persistently despite converting to blood type A.