Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fall 2024 > Microbiology CH 11 - Host-Microbe Interactions > Flashcards

Microbiology CH 11 - Host-Microbe Interactions Flashcards

1
Q

Define Symbiosis

A

Sym- Together
-Biosis - Living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Does Symbiosis give the information about the nature of the relationship?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is it called when both species benefit?

A

Mutualism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is it called when one species benefits from an interaction and the other is not affected?

A

Commensalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is it called when one organism benefits and the other is harmed?

A

Parasitism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is similar to Parasitism?

A

Predation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is it called when one organism is harmed by the actions of another, but the other does not benefit from those actions?

A

Amensalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are Opportunistic Pathogens?

A

Organisms that are beneficial or harmless can become harmful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can commensal gut bacteria become pathogenic if the opportunity arises?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Are Staphylococcus aureus and Clostridium difficile opportunistic pathogens?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where does Staphylococcus aureus reside? What can it cause given the right conditions?

A
  1. Non-harmful member of skin microbiota
  2. Severe skin infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where does Clostridium difficile reside? What can it cause given the right conditions?

A
  1. Low levels of large intestine
  2. Normal gut flora is reduced, which leads to excessive growth and a chronic infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 3 conditions that provide opportunities:

A
  1. Compromised immune system
  2. Malnutrition
  3. Excessive antibiotic treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does it mean when it’s stated that the human body is mostly “non-human”?

A

TLDR; Viruses > Bacterial cells > Human cells

More viruses than bacterial cells; more bacterial cells than human cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many microbes are on our skin?

A

10^4 to 10^6 CFU/cm^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

More than anywhere else, microbes are in our ______________

A

digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How many microbes are in our mouth (saliva)?

A

10^8 to 10^9 CFU/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many microbes are in our stomach?

A

10^2 to 10^3 CFU/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How many microbes are in our small intestine?

A

10^5 to 10^7 CFU/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many microbes are in our large intestine?

A

10^9 to 10^12 CFU/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many microbes are in our nose?

A

10^4 CFU/nasal swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many microbes are in our lungs?

A

10^4 CFU/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many microbes are in our urogenital tract?

A

10^6 to 10^8 CFU/ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What 7 factors differentiate microbes from one another?

A
  1. Location on the body
  2. Age
  3. Person to person
  4. Geography
  5. Dietary Lifestyle
  6. Antibiotic Use
  7. Health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What organism causes Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is Staphylococcus aureus an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What causes Toxic Shock Syndrome (mechanism)?

A

Set of toxins produced and enter bloodstream or wounds getting infected from the skin that cause massive immune reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Can Toxic Shock Syndrome be fatal? If so, what percentage of cases leads to a fatality?

A

Yes; 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Fever, vomiting, rash, rapid blood pressure loss, and loss of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Staphylococcus aureus causes what disease?

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 2 main virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus and what does each one result in?

A
  1. Beta-lactamase - makes it resistant to penicillin-type antibiotics
  2. Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin - compound that causes immune reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What 2 factors are needed for treatment of Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A
  1. Treatment of symptoms to prevent organ failure
  2. Antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What kind of antibiotics do you want to AVOID when treating Toxic Shock Syndrome?

A

Antibiotics that aren’t Beta-lactams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Why is treatment of Toxic Shock Syndrome with antibiotics challenging?

A

Additional Abx resistance gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is MRSA and VRSA resistant to respectively? They are becoming more _______, especially in hospitals

A
  1. MRSA - Methicillin
  2. VRSA - Vancomycin
  3. common
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes causes what disease?

A

Pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is another name for Pharyngitis?

A

Strep throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the qualities of Streptococcus pyogenes as a bacterium?

A

Facultatively anaerobic, hemolytic, and gram-positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes can lead to what diseases?

A

Scarlet Fever, Rheumatic Fever, Pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What organism causes Pharyngitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the symptoms of strep throat?

A

Swollen lymph nodes, inflammation of back of pharynx, and pus-filled abscesses covering the tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 2 main important virulence factors for Streptococcus pyogenes?

A
  1. Capsules that contain Hyaluronic Acid
  2. M-Protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where is Hyaluronic Acid found? What is its function in Streptococcus pyogenes?

A
  1. Normal cells in the body
  2. Acts as camouflage against immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is M-Protein?

A

Membrane protein that protects the bacterial cell from being targeted by immune cells (if recognized)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is needed for treatment of Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Long-term antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

For other Streptococcus pyogenes diseases that are NOT pharyngitis, what other drugs may be used?

A

Anti-inflammatories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the qualities of Clostridium botulinum as a bacterium? Where is it found and in what form?

A

Rod-shaped, gram-positive, spore forming obligate anaerobe

Found in soil (usually spore form)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Clostridium botulinum causes what disease?

A

Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What causes Botulism (mechanism)?

A

Toxin that acts as a muscle relaxant, leading to paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the symptoms of Botulism?

A

Blurred vision, dizziness, dry mouth, progressive paralysis, and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is an alternative way Botulism can be contracted in adults? What about in infants?

HINT: This is why you don’t give babies honey

A
  1. Ingestion of toxin (rather than live cells)
  2. Ingestion of spores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Botulism’s virulence factor?

A

Botulinum toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Botulism is caused by what bacteria?

A

Clostridium botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe Botulinum Toxin and how it functions

A
  1. World’s most toxic proteins
  2. Toxic protein binds to ends of muscle-controlling neurons
  3. Binding stops neuron from transmitting its message to muscle, leading to paralysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Are small doses of Botulinum Toxin toxic or dangerous if directly injected into specific muscles?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the 2 ‘steps’ to treating Botulism? What is the alternative treatment for infants?

A
  1. Repeated washing of intestinal tract to remove Clostridium
  2. Antibodies to neutralize toxin
  3. Antibiotics in infant infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How long do symptoms of Botulism last?

A

Years or are permanent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the qualities of Clostridium difficile as a bacterium?

A

Anaerobic gram-positive spore-forming rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What disease does Clostridium difficile lead to (include alternative name)?

A

Pseudomembranous Colitis (C-Diff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where is Clostridium difficile found? When AND why does it become pathogenic?

A
  1. Common member of GI tract
  2. Becomes pathogen after broad-spectrum antibiotics treatment
  3. As normal gut microbiome dies off, C. difficile survive and reproduce rapidly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the symptoms of Colitis? The more lethal symptoms are found especially in __________ patients

A

Inflammation, possible necrosis (death) of colon walls, internal bleeding, and death

Elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the 2 main virulence factors of Clostridium difficile? What are these factors functions/result in?

A
  1. Production of toxins and enzymes, leading to hemorrhagic death of intestinal walls and actual symptoms
  2. Spores that are resistant to antibiotics (Cephalosporin and Penicillin), so it can survive while being hard to get rid of
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the 2 treatment methods for Clostridium difficile? What does each one do?

A
  1. Stronger antibiotics such as vancomycin or metronidazole to kill vegetative cells
  2. Repopulation of GI tract with healthy community of microbes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

___________ from healthy colons are incredibly effective against recurring infection

A

Fecal transplants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pseudomembranous Colitis is caused by what organism?

A

Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the qualities of Mycobacterium tuberculosis as a bacterium?

A

Gram-positive, acid-fast aerobic bacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes what disease?

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Can people be carriers for Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The rate of tuberculosis is relatively ________, due to its ______________

A

low; low virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the symptoms of Tuberculosis?

A

Persistent productive cough, frequently with blood in sputum, fever, and weakness (more symptoms can arise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

In Tuberculosis, what part(s) of the body are infected?

A

Lungs, BUT more organs can be infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Tuberculosis is caused by what organism?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is Mycobacterium tuberculosis’ virulence factor?

A

Mycolic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the 2 functions of mycolic acid?

A
  1. Protects cell from immune system
  2. Protects cell from dehydration - allows survival outside the body for months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Can mycolic acid cell be swallowed by immune cells?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What happens when mycolic acid cell is swallowed by immune cells?

A

Won’t be digested in lysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What makes the cells of Mycobacterium tuberculosis acid-fast?

A

Mycolic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the treatment for Tuberculosis?

A

Long-term antibiotic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the qualities of Bordetella pertussis as a bacterium?

A

Non-motile, aerobic, gram-negative coccobacillus

80
Q

Bordetella pertussis causes what disease (include alternative name)?

A

Whooping Cough (Pertussis)

81
Q

In what group does infection of Bordetella pertussis primarily occur in?

A

Infants

82
Q

What are the symptoms of Whooping Cough?

A

Cold-like symptoms, deep coughing, whooping sound between coughs

83
Q

How many coughing spells occur every day?

A

40-50

84
Q

What are the consequences of the coughing spells?

A

Difficulty breathing, broken ribs, exhaustion, and vomiting

85
Q

Whooping Cough is caused by what organism?

A

Bordetella pertussis

86
Q

Half of the infected infants of Bordetella pertussis require hospitalization. True or False?

A

True

87
Q

What is the main virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis and what does it function in?

A

2 toxins that increase mucus production in tracheal cells, creating more sticky stuff to attach to

88
Q

What are the 2 toxins and what are their functions respectively?

A
  1. Pertussis Toxin - Adhesion, helping attach to host cell (like viral attachment proteins)
  2. Tracheal Cytotoxin - Prevents cilia from moving, so that the mucus stays in place and bacteria can replicate
89
Q

What is the treatment for Whooping Cough?

A

Individual symptoms are treated, so immune system can kill bacteria

90
Q

How do you prevent Whooping Cough?

A

Vaccination

91
Q

What are the qualities of Treponema pallidum as a bacterium?

A

Thin, gram-negative spirochete, obligate parasite

92
Q

Treponema pallidum causes what disease?

A

Syphilis

93
Q

Define what Syphilis is

A

Sexually-transmitted infection that has 3 major stages

94
Q

What is it called when Syphilis-infected individuals who become pregnant transmits it to their embryos?

A

Congenital Syphilis

95
Q

Much of what we know about Syphilis comes from ethical studies. True or False?

A

False

96
Q

Syphilis is caused by what organism?

A

Treponema pallidum

97
Q

What are the 3 stages of Syphilis?

A
  1. Primary syphilis
  2. Secondary syphilis
  3. Tertiary syphilis
98
Q

What is a chancre?

A

Type of ulcer

99
Q

In primary syphilis, where does a chancre form? What is it like when the chancre forms? When does the chancre go away?

A
  1. Site of infection
  2. Frequently painless, may not be noticed
  3. Goes away on its own in 3-6 weeks, even if infection is ongoing
100
Q

What is the timeline for secondary syphilis?

A

3 weeks - 6 months

101
Q

What is the main symptom in secondary syphilis? What are other symptoms that may occur?

A

Primary Symptom: Whole-body rash
Secondary Symptoms: Fever, headaches, sore throat

102
Q

Many of the skin symptoms go away on their own in secondary syphilis. True or False?

A

True

103
Q

After secondary syphilis, what percentage of infections enter a latency that lasts for years or decades?

A

30%

104
Q

Where do complications occur in secondary syphilis?

A

Bones, joints, liver, eyes, and brain

105
Q

In tertiary syphilis, gummas can form in __________. What type of ____________ do gummas form in (be specific)?

NOTE: Both blanks are the same word

A
  1. Tissue
  2. Liver, skin, bone, and cartilage
105
Q

What does latency mean in secondary syphilis?

A

Person is still infected and can still transmit it, but does not have any symptoms

106
Q

What are gummas?

A

Benign tumors

107
Q

What do gummas feel like? What do they cause?

A
  1. Painful, but not fatal
  2. Can still impair function
108
Q

Neurosyphilis is part of what syphilis stage? It’s an infection of what system?

A
  1. Tertiary syphilis
  2. Nervous system
109
Q

What part(s) of the body does neurosyphilis frequently occur in?

A

Blood vessels in brain, cranial nerves, and dorsal roots of spinal cord

110
Q

Symptoms of neurosyphilis are variable, thus depending on the location of the disease. True or False?

A

True

111
Q

What are the variable symptoms of neurosyphilis?

A
  1. Severe headaches
  2. Convulsions
  3. Blindness - Argyll-Robertson pupil
  4. Dementia
112
Q

Treponema pallidum is very easy to grow in lab. True or False?

A

False

113
Q

What causes Syphilis (mechanism)?

A

Spiral shape includes adhesion at the tip, helps attach to epithelial cells

114
Q

After Treponema pallidum is attached to an epithelial cell, what occurs? How many (general amount) tissue types are potential hosts for Treponema pallidum?

A
  1. Cell multiplies rapidly and penetrates into capillaries
  2. Many tissue types are potential hosts
115
Q

How is Syphilis treated? Specifically, what kind is used?

A
  1. Antibiotics are extremely effective
  2. Ciprofloxacin commonly used
116
Q

Historically, what was used to treat Syphilis? Name 2

A

Mercury and arsenic

117
Q

How can Syphilis be prevented?

A

Contact avoidance (condoms) and treatment of the infected before sexual contact

118
Q

What are the qualities of Neisseria gonorrhea as a bacterium?

A

Gram-negative, aerobic diplococcus

119
Q

Neisseria gonorrhea causes what disease?

A

Gonorrhea

120
Q

Gonorrhea is a sexually-transmitted disease with different symptoms in men and women. True or False?

A

True

121
Q

What are the symptoms of gonorrhea in men?

A

Painful urination, pus, infertility (rare)

122
Q

50% of women mistake gonorrhea for what disease?

A

Bladder infection

123
Q

What percentage of women are asymptomatic when it comes to gonorrhea?

A

50%

124
Q

Gonorrhea is caused by what organism?

A

Neisseria gonorrhea

125
Q

Can Neisseria gonorrhea attach to vaginal cells?

A

No

126
Q

Where does Neisseria gonorrhea attach to in women?

A

Cells further up in genital tract (cervix, uterus, fallopian tube)

127
Q

What disease can Neisseria gonorrhea cause in WOMEN?

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

128
Q

What are the 4 virulence factors of Neisseria gonorrhea? What are their functions?

A
  1. Fimbriae - Attach to host cell (cell specific)
  2. Capsule
  3. Enzymes - Destroy host antibodies
  4. Constantly changing surface proteins - So host doesn’t develop long term immunity
129
Q

How is Gonorrhea treated? What specific one is used?

A

Antibiotics; cephalosporins

130
Q

What is the challenge in treating Gonorrhea?

A

Resistant strains are arising

131
Q

Enteric bacteria include what organisms? List 3

A
  1. Escherichia Coli
  2. Salmonella
  3. Yersinia
132
Q

What is the name of a sub-group of Enteric bacteria called?

A

Coliforms

133
Q

What are the characteristics of Enteric bacteria? What are they frequently associated with?

A
  1. Facultatively anaerobic, gram-negative rods that don’t form endospores and can ferment lactose
  2. Frequently associated with fecal contamination
134
Q

What are the 4 virulence factors of Enteric bacteria?

A
  1. Capsules and fimbriae
  2. Toxins (that often lead to diarrhea)
  3. Hemolysins
  4. Type-3 secretion systems (T3SS)
135
Q

What organism causes Bubonic Plague?

A

Yersinia pestis

136
Q

What kind of bacterium is Yersinia pestis?

A

Enteric bacterium

137
Q

Do different strains of Yersinia pestis have different severities?

A

Yes

138
Q

What are the symptoms of Bubonic Plague?

A

High fever, Buboes (very swollen lymph nodes), bacteremia (bacteria in the blood), necrosis of tissue, and death

139
Q

How is Yersinia transmitted?

A

Fleas on rodents (rats and squirrels)

140
Q

What is another name for the Bubonic Plague? How much of Europe did it kill?

A
  1. Black death
  2. 1/3 of Europe
141
Q

Yersinia pestis causes what disease?

A

Bubonic Plague

142
Q

What are the 2 key virulence factors of Bubonic Plague? Describe each one

A
  1. Type-3 Secretion System (S3SS) - creates link between bacterium and host phagocyte (immune cell)
  2. Toxin it injects - Induces apoptosis in immune cell, so it doesn’t attack Yersinia pestis cell
143
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death

144
Q

How is Yersinia pestis treated?

A

Antibiotics, with easier treatment with early detection

145
Q

How is Yersinia pestis prevented?

A

Control of rodent populations

146
Q

What is Hepatitis?

A

Inflammatory condition of the liver

147
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the liver?

A
  1. Sugar storage and regulation in the blood
  2. Production of clotting agents
  3. Removal of toxins in the body
148
Q

What is Jaundice?

A

Accumulation of bilirubin (metabolic waste product) in the blood

149
Q

What are the 4 main symptoms of Hepatitis?

A
  1. Jaundice
  2. Abdominal distress
  3. Bleeding into skin and internal organs
  4. Chronic inflammation leading to cirrhosis
150
Q

What is the genome of Hepatitis B? What is the function?

A
  1. Partially dsDNA, partially ssDNA
  2. Replicates with an RNA intermediate
151
Q

What does Hepatitis B do?
HINT: 2 parts

A
  1. Infects liver cells, then is released by exocytosis
  2. Cell doesn’t die and continues to make more virions (billions of virions per mL of blood)
152
Q

What can happen in the Hepatitis B process?
HINT: 4 parts

A
  1. Viral replication process releases a lot of incomplete viral particles
  2. Capsid proteins coated with surface antigens, but no genomes
  3. Incomplete viral particles aren’t infectious, but is still recognized by the immune system
  4. Viral particles overwhelm immune system
153
Q

How is Hepatitis B transmitted? List 2 ways

A
  1. Any bodily fluids
  2. Improperly sterilized needles (or even shared razors or toothbrushes)
154
Q

How infectious is Hepatitis B?

A
  1. Incredibly infectious
  2. High viral load in infected individuals
  3. Infective dose relatively low
155
Q

Treatment of Hepatitis B is HARDER than prevention. True or False?

A

True

156
Q

Vaccination is incredibly _______, especially in ____________. What is the efficacy rate?

A
  1. Effective; childhood
  2. 95%
157
Q

What is the study of the frequency and distribution of disease and other health-related factors in a population?

A

Epidemiology

158
Q

What 3 questions are asked in Epidemiology?

A
  1. How frequent are outbreaks?
  2. Who is susceptible?
  3. Where does the disease come from?
159
Q

Epidemiology is a complex field that combines what other fields?

A

Biology, psychology, meterology, and climatology

160
Q

What are the 6 stages of a disease?

A
  1. Infection
  2. Incubation
  3. Prodomal period
  4. Illness
  5. Decline
  6. Convalescence
161
Q

What is the acquisition of a pathogen or its transition into pathogenicity?

A

Infection

162
Q

What is the time between infection and the arrival of the first symptoms?

A

Incubation

163
Q

What is when generalized, mild symptoms arise?

A

Prodomal period

164
Q

What is frequently associated with a gradual immune response, rather than the illness itself?

A

Prodomal period

165
Q

What is when symptoms are most evident and the disease is usually identified?

A

Illness

166
Q

What is when treatment and/or the immune system works to combat the disease?

A

Decline

167
Q

What happens during the Decline phase of a disease? Alternatively, what else can happen?

A
  1. Limits and destroys the pathogen
  2. If that doesn’t occur, patient may die
168
Q

What is the phase in which recovery from the disease (no symptoms) takes place?

A

Convalescence

169
Q

Depending on the disease, a patient may be infectious during ANY stage. True or False?

A

True

170
Q

What are the 3 main ways disease can spread?

A
  1. Animal Reservoirs
  2. Human Carriers
  3. Nonliving Reservoirs
171
Q

What are diseases spread by animals called?

A

Zoonotic diseases

172
Q

What are 4 ways transmission can occur via animal reservoir?

A
  1. Eating an infected animal
  2. Contact with animal waste
  3. Animal bites
  4. Biological vectors
173
Q

What are the 2 main reasons as to why controlling animal reservoirs are challenging?

A
  1. If there are many animals
  2. If the animals are wild
174
Q

Human carriers are frequently ______________

A

Asymptomatic

175
Q

Does transmission via human reservoir require direct contact?

A

No

176
Q

How may transmission via human reservoir occur?

A

Contact with contaminated materials

177
Q

What are diseases that arise when a patient is hospitalized for something else? What type of pathogens are these typically?

A

Nosocomial infections; opportunistic pathogens

178
Q

Name 3 possible nonliving reservoirs

A
  1. Water
  2. Food
  3. Soil
179
Q

How are nonliving reservoirs contaminated?

A

Contact with an infected individual

180
Q

What is a parasite that can be found in bodies of water where animals defecate?

A

Giardia

181
Q

What 2 bacterium’s spores can be found in soil?

A

Tetanus and Anthrax

182
Q

What is it called when pathogens are spread by people or objects that people touch?

A

Contact Transmission

183
Q

What kind of transmission is person-to-person?

A

Direct contact

184
Q

What kind of transmission happens via inanimate objects that transmit the pathogens?

A

Indirect Contact

185
Q

What kind of transmission occurs if two people are very close when one coughs or sneezes?

A

Droplet Transmission

186
Q

How far do droplets within droplet transmission travel?

A

Less than 1 meter

187
Q

What is it when pathogens are spread by some nonliving intermediate?

A

Vehicle Transmission

188
Q

What is it when droplets travel more than 1 meter? What can propel droplets further?

A

Airborne Transmission; Air conditioning, wind, sweeping, shaking out clothes

189
Q

What transmission involves contaminated water source? What do organisms frequently rely on?

A

Waterborne Transmission; rely on fecal-oral route travel

190
Q

What transmission involves contaminated food? What does it rely on?

A

Foodborne Transmission; fecal-oral route

191
Q

What transmission involves contaminated fluids being handled outside the body? What is an example of this?

A

Bodily Fluid Transmission; Blood transfusions with contaminated blood

192
Q

What transmission is the spread of a pathogen through an intermediate animal? What kind of animal is it typically and what does it typically do?

A

Vector Transmission; Insect does not cause the disease, it carries it

193
Q

What is it when the pathogen reproduces within the vector and usually has a step in its life cycle that requires the vector? Give an example

A

Biological Vector; fleas carrying plaque

194
Q

What is it when the pathogen doesn’t reproduce within the vector, but the vector physically moves the pathogen? Give an example

A

Mechanical Vector; houseflies land on contaminant, then land on food

Fall 2024 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions