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Microbiology > Micro Chapter 39 > Flashcards

Micro Chapter 39 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding chlamydial pneumonia?
A) Hosts inhale the reticulate bodies that are designed exclusively for transmission and infection
B) Only 10% of adults have antibody to the chlamydiae
C) Chlamydial pneumonia infections have been linked with coronary artery disease and vascular disease
D) Chlamydial pneumonia infections are severe and often result in death

A

C

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2
Q 
Which of the following bacterial infections is spread via airborne transmission?
	A)	Meningitis
	B)	Plague
	C)	Staphylococcal diseases
	D)	All of the above
A

A

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3
Q

Production of the diphtheria toxin requires tox phage infection by Corynebacterium diphtheriae and results in which of the following host conditions?
A) Blockage of nerve transmission
B) Damage and lysis of alveolar macrophages
C) Degranulation of mast cells and overstimulation of the host immune response
D) Pseudomembrane formation on the pharynx and respiratory mucosa

A

D

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4
Q 
Widespread vaccines are available against which of the following airborne diseases?
	A)	Diphtheria
	B)	Pertussis
	C)	Meningitis
	D)	All of the above
A

D

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding Legionnaires’ disease?
A) Human-to-human spread is common
B) Legionella pneumophila microbes reside in air conditioning systems in large numbers
C) Antibiotics are ineffective against Legionella pneumophila
D) Legionella pneumophila is responsible for the majority of pneumonias in normally healthy adults

A

B

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6
Q 
Which of the following microorganisms is the causative agent of bacterial meningitis?
	A)	Streptococcus pneumoniae
	B)	Neisseria meningitidis
	C)	Haemophilus influenzae
	D)	All of the above
A

D

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7
Q 
The most common cause of meningitis in children under five years is
	A)	Streptococcus pneumoniae
	B)	Neisseria meningitidis
	C)	Haemophilus influenzae
	D)	All of the above
A

C

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8
Q

Mycobacterium infections are difficult to treat because
A) Mycobacteria multiply too rapidly once inside host cells
B) Waxy mycoloic acids make mycobacteria resistant to the penetration of water soluble antibiotics
C) Mycobacteria remain undetected by the host immune system
D) All of the above

A

B

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)?
A) MAC is the most common cause of mycobacterial infections in the United States
B) Well-established treatments are abundant and effective
C) Pulmonary MAC is a common opportunistic infection of AIDS patients
D) All of the above

A

A

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10
Q

Which of the following is a virulence factor found in Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb)?
A) Production of exotoxins
B) Presence of unique lipids and glycolipids
C) Formation of cysts
D) All of the above

A

B

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11
Q 
The formation of many small tubercles with the ability to move throughout the body is characteristic of which stage of tuberculosis?
	A)	Miliary tuberculosis
	B)	Latent-dormant tuberculosis
	C)	Active tuberculosis
	D)	All of the above
A

A

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12
Q

The most common means of acquiring multidrug-resistant strains of tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is
A) Direct transmission from infected individuals
B) Over-prescription of anti-tuberculosis drugs
C) Inadequate drug therapy
D) Presence of anti-tuberculosis drugs in the food supply

A

C

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is true of Mycobacterium pneumoniae?
A) Cells lack a cell wall and lack the ability to synthesize peptidoglycan
B) Cells are resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics
C) Cells produce peroxide that may be toxic to cells
D) All of the above

A

D

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14
Q

Bordetella pertussis, the causative agent of pertussis, exhibits which of the following virulence factors?
A) Production of several toxins that damage respiratory cells
B) Presence of unique membrane lipids and receptors
C) Formation of cysts allowing cells to evade the host immune response
D) All of the above

A

A

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15
Q 
During which stage of pertussis infection is characterized by prolonged coughing sieges?
	A)	The catarrhal stage
	B)	The paroxysmal stage
	C)	The convalescent stage
	D)	None of the above
A

B

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16
Q 
Which virulence factor found in the group A streptococci (GAS) facilitates attachment to host cells and prevents opsonization by complement protein C3b?
	A)	Streptokinases
	B)	Streptolysins O and S
	C)	M protein
	D)	All of the above
A

C

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17
Q 
Which of the following diseases is one of the most common bacterial infections of humans?
	A)	Streptococcal pharyngitis
	B)	Pertussis
	C)	Lyme disease
	D)	Cholera
A

A

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18
Q 
Which of the following diseases can occur after an acute streptococcal infection?
	A)	Pneumonia
	B)	Glomerulonephritis
	C)	Coronary artery disease
	D)	Spleenomegaly
A

B

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19
Q 
Which of the following bacterial diseases is spread via arthropods?
	A)	Tetanus
	B)	Leprosy
	C)	Shigellosis
	D)	Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A

D

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20
Q 
Erythema migrans, the ring-shaped rash in Lyme disease, occurs during which stage of infection?
	A)	Localized infection stage
	B)	Disseminated stage
	C)	Late stage
	D)	None of the above
A

A

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21
Q 
The causative agent of the plague is
	A)	Borrelia burgdorferi
	B)	Yersinia pestis
	C)	Rickettsia rickettsii
	D)	Streptococcus agalactiae
A

B

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22
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A) Cells are transmitted via mosquito vectors
B) Cells are obligate intracellular parasites
C) Cells act as energy parasites by exchanging internal ADP for external ATP
D) Is fatal in 50% of untreated cases

A

C

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23
Q 
Which of the following diseases is transmitted via direct contact?
	A)	Group B streptococcal disease
	B)	Peptic ulcer disease and gastritis
	C)	Gonorrhea
	D)	All of the above
A

D

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding clostridial myonecrosis, or gas gangrene?
A) Clostridia are found in soils worldwide and as normal flora in the human large intestines
B) Clostridia use the TCA cycle as a means of energy production
C) Long term infections respond well to antibiotic treatment
D) All of the above

A

A

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25
Q 
The most common cause of sepsis and meningitis in newborns is
	A)	Haemophilus influenzae
	B)	Neisseria meningitidis
	C)	Streptococcus agalactiae
	D)	Staphylococcus aureus
A

C

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26
Q 
Group B streptococcus (GBS) is primarily transmitted from person to person via
	A)	Sexual activities
	B)	Fomites
	C)	Casual skin contact
	D)	Vaginal delivery of a newborn
A

D

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27
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding leprosy?
A) The disease has a long incubation period of 3 to 5 years
B) Transmission occurs via contact with nasal secretions
C) Bacteria invade nerve and skin cells and become obligate intracellular parasites
D) All of the above

A

D

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28
Q

What happens to the majority of individuals exposed to Mycobacterium leprae?
A) Remain healthy without any signs or symptoms
B) Development of tuberculoid or neural leprosy
C) Development of lepromatous or progressive leprosy
D) Development of a borderline form of leprosy that combines both 2 and 3

A

A

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29
Q 
Which of the following microorganisms has been classified as a class I carcinogen by the World Health Organization?
	A)	Mycobacterium leprae
	B)	Helicobacter pylori
	C)	Treponema palladium
	D)	Staphylococcus aureus
A

B

30
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding Helicobacter pylori infection?
A) Cells secrete urease to create a localized alkaline environment
B) Cells bind to the antigens associated with blood group determination
C) Approximately one-half of the world’s population is estimated to be infected
D) All of the above

A

D

31
Q

Which of the following virulence factors is exhibited by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, the causative agent of gonorrhea?
A) Production of pili and protein II that function as adhesins
B) Abundant flagella allow cells to swim in cervical and vaginal secretions
C) Formation of cysts allow cells to live outside of the host
D) All of the above

A

A

32
Q 
Pelvic inflammatory disease resulting from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ infection damages the fallopian tubes and surrounding tissues and is the major cause of sterility and ectopic pregnancies.
	A)	Mycoplasma hominis
	B)	Neisseria gonorrhoeae
	C)	Chlamydia trachomatis
	D)	Ureaplasma urealyticum
A

B

33
Q 
Silver nitrate or other prophylactic treatments are provided to newborns to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum, or conjunctivitis of the newborn, a disease caused by which organism?
	A)	Mycoplasma hominis
	B)	Neisseria gonorrhoeae
	C)	Chlamydia trachomatis
	D)	Ureaplasma urealyticum
A

B

34
Q 
The most common cause of nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) is
	A)	Mycoplasma hominis
	B)	Neisseria gonorrhoeae
	C)	Chlamydia trachomatis
	D)	Ureaplasma urealyticum
A

C

35
Q 
Chancres are a common symptom during which stage of syphilis infection?
	A)	Primary stage
	B)	Secondary stage
	C)	Tertiary stage
	D)	None of the above
A

C

36
Q 
During this stage of syphilis, about 40% of untreated patients develop degenerative lesions that damage skin, bone, and nervous tissues.
	A)	Primary stage
	B)	Secondary stage
	C)	Tertiary stage
	D)	None of the above
A

C

37
Q

Which of the following characteristics is used to differentiate between pathogenic and non-pathogenic Staphylococci in the laboratory?
A) Ability to digest erythrocytes in blood agar
B) Cell wall peptidoglycan and teichoic acids
C) Ability to produce exotoxins
D) Ability to synthesize coagulase

A

D

38
Q

What is the purpose of slime produced by pathogenic staphylococci?
A) Allows for adherence to smooth surfaces such as catheters and medical devices
B) Inhibits neutrophil chemotaxis
C) Inhibits antimicrobial agents
D) All of the above

A

D

39
Q 
Which of the following diseases result from staphylococcal infections?
	A)	Impetigo
	B)	Carbuncles
	C)	Toxic shock syndrome
	D)	All of the above
A

D

40
Q 
Staphylococcus aureus produces \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that causes skin to peel in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS).
	A)	Streptolysin S
	B)	M protein
	C)	Exfoliative toxin
	D)	Neurotoxin
A

C

41
Q 
TSST-1 protein produced by Staphylococcus aureus in toxic shock syndrome acts as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to overstimulate the immune system.
	A)	Superantigens
	B)	Immune system toxins
	C)	Perforins
	D)	Lysozymes
A

A

42
Q 
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is predominantly a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ infection.
	A)	Opportunistic
	B)	Nosocomial
	C)	Childhood
	D)	None of the above
A

B

43
Q 
Which of the following diseases results from streptococci infection?
	A)	Cellulitis
	B)	Impetigo
	C)	Erysipelas
	D)	All of the above
A

D

44
Q 
Group A Streptococcus can lead to deadly forms of necrotizing fasciitis resulting from which of the following products?
	A)	Coagulases
	B)	Spe exotoxins
	C)	Bacteriocins
	D)	Enterotoxins
A

B

45
Q

Tetanospasmin, the toxin released by Clostridium tetani in tetanus infection, produces which of the following results?
A) Inhibits the transmission of nerve impulses
B) Lyses host nerve cells
C) Damages host muscle tissue
D) Leads to uncontrolled stimulation of skeletal muscles

A

D

46
Q

Prevention of tetanus infection depends on which of the following?
A) Active immunization with toxoid
B) Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil
C) Prophylactic use of antitoxin
D) All of the above

A

D

47
Q 
Which of the following microorganisms is the causative agent of the greatest cause of blindness throughout the world?
	A)	Neisseria gonorrhoeae
	B)	Chlamydia trachomatis
	C)	Treponema palladium
	D)	Clostridium botulinum
A

B

48
Q 
Which of the following diseases is transmitted via food and/or water?
	A)	Anthrax
	B)	Botulism
	C)	Plague
	D)	Lyme disease
A

B

49
Q 
Toxins common to food-borne infections that disrupt the functioning of the intestinal mucosa are called
	A)	Exotoxins
	B)	Coagulases
	C)	Enterotoxins
	D)	Lysins
A

C

50
Q 
Which of the following food-borne diseases usually results from home-canned food that has not been heated sufficiently to kill Clostridium botulinum spores?
	A)	Staphylococcal food poisoning
	B)	Gastroenteritis
	C)	Botulism
	D)	Listeriosis
A

C

51
Q 
Which of the following organisms is associated with birds and animals and is the cause of human gastroenteritis?
	A)	Campylobacter jejuni
	B)	Salmonella spp.
	C)	Shigella spp.
	D)	Escherichia coli O157:H7
A

A

52
Q

Vibrio cholerae bacteria secrete choleragen, a cholera toxin that has which of the following effects on the host?
A) Acts as superantigen and stimulates a hyper-immune response
B) Damages the microvilli in the intestines to inhibit nutrient absorption
C) Damages the intestinal epithelium producing bleeding ulcers
D) Hypersecretion of water and chloride ions while inhibiting absorption of sodium ions

A

D

53
Q

Cholera toxin is transmitted to cholera bacteria by
A) Non-enteric bacteria
B) Lysogenic CTX filamentous bacteriophage
C) Random gene fragments in the environments
D) All of the above

A

B

54
Q 
Which of the following microorganisms is the major causative agent of traveler's diarrhea?
	A)	Escherichia coli
	B)	Vibrio cholerae
	C)	Salmonella enterica
	D)	Shigella sonnei
A

A

55
Q

Which of the following factors has been implicated as being the primary initiator of septic shock from gram-negative bacteria?
A) Presence of unique outer membrane proteins
B) Presence of M proteins
C) Presence of Lipid A moiety of lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
D) All of the above

A

C

56
Q

Which of the following characteristics best defines bacterial sepsis?
A) Temperature above 38 degrees Celsius or below 36 degrees Celsius
B) Heart rate above 90 beats per minute
C) Respiratory rate above 20 breaths per minute
D) Any two of these criteria

A

D

57
Q 
Which of the following diseases is associated with contaminated water or food including beef products, poultry, eggs, and egg products?
	A)	Salmonellosis
	B)	Shigellosis
	C)	Escherichia coli gastroenteritis
	D)	Staphylococcal food poisoning
A

A

58
Q 
Which of the following microorganisms is the cause of bacillary dysentery and uses a type III secretion system to deliver specific virulence factors to target epithelial cells?
	A)	Escherichia coli
	B)	Salmonella spp.
	C)	Shigella spp.
	D)	Staphylococcus spp.
A

C

59
Q 
Which of the following diseases is the major type of food intoxication in the United States?
	A)	Staphylococcal food poisoning
	B)	Escherichia coli gastroenteritis
	C)	Shigellosis
	D)	Salmonellosis
A

A

60
Q 
Inhalation of spores of Bacillus anthracis can result in which of the following types of anthrax infection?
	A)	Cutaneous anthrax
	B)	Pulmonary anthrax
	C)	Gastrointestinal anthrax
	D)	All of the above
A

B

61
Q 
The primary virulence factor of Bacillus anthracis is its ability to
	A)	Lyse alveolar macrophages
	B)	Damage epithelial skin cells
	C)	Kill phagocytic macrophages
	D)	All of the above
A

C

62
Q 
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from wild bison and elk populations to domestic cattle and sometimes humans?
	A)	Anthrax
	B)	Brucellosis
	C)	Psittacosis
	D)	Q fever
A

B

63
Q 
Which of the following diseases can occur in epidemic form among slaughterhouse workers and can be transmitted through inhalation of dust contaminated with bacteria from dried animal feces?
	A)	Anthrax
	B)	Brucellosis
	C)	Q Fever
	D)	Tularemia
A

C

64
Q 
Which of the following diseases is transmitted via contact with infected animals, particularly rabbits?
	A)	Anthrax
	B)	Brucellosis
	C)	Q Fever
	D)	Tularemia
A

D

65
Q 
Which of the following intestinal disease is common among hospitalized patients?
	A)	Shigellosis
	B)	Gastroenteritis
	C)	Antibiotic-associated colitis
	D)	Salmonellosis
A

C

66
Q

Antibiotic use is the main modifiable risk factor for which of the following opportunistic diseases?
A) Dental caries
B) Colitis resulting from Clostridium difficile
C) Bacterial vaginosis
D) Streptococcal pneumonia

A

B

67
Q 
The presence of clue cells is used to diagnose which of the following opportunistic infections?
	A)	Antibiotic-associated colitis
	B)	Bacterial vaginosis
	C)	Dental caries
	D)	Streptococcal pneumonia
A

B

68
Q 
Dental plaque formation begins with which of the following microorganisms?
	A)	Streptococcus spp.
	B)	Staphylococcus spp.
	C)	Candida spp.
	D)	Lactobacillus spp.
A

A

69
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a biomolecule that binds and cements dental bacteria together to form a biofilm on the teeth.
	A)	Starch
	B)	Glucose
	C)	Lipopolysaccharide
	D)	Glucan
A

D

70
Q 
The most common chronic opportunistic infection in adults is
	A)	Bacterial vaginosis
	B)	Streptococcal pneumonia
	C)	Periodontal disease
	D)	Antibiotic-associated colitis
A

C

71
Q 
The majority of respiratory diseases known as pneumonia are caused by
	A)	Legionella pneumophila
	B)	Chlamydophila pneumoniae
	C)	Mycobacterium tuberculosis
	D)	Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

D

72
Q 
The primary virulence factor of Streptococcus pneumoniae is
	A)	Slime layer
	B)	Capsular polysaccharide
	C)	M protein
	D)	Enterotoxin
A

B

Microbiology (42 decks)

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