Final Flashcards
Which of the following is the BEST description of the field of Microbiology?
A- The study of diseases caused by viruses and bacteria
B- The study of living organisms too small to be seen without magnification
C-The study of all microorganisms except viruses
D-The study of things in the microscope
E- The study of simple livings things
B
Cells that have a true membrane-bound nucleus are referred to as
A- prokaryotic B- Eukaryotic C- Urkaryotic D- Karyotic E- A and B
B
Which of the following is NOT a Domain of Life as shown on the Universal Tree?
A-Bacteria B- Viruses C- Eukarya D- Archaea E- actually, all of these are Domains of LIfe?
B
Eukaryotic organelles that arose by endosymbiosis include
A- lysosomes B- the Golgi C- the ER D-Two of these E- none of these
E
The universal phylogenetic tree is constructed from comparisons of which of the following
A- the gene for ribosomal RNA B- conserved proteins C- conserved metabolic pathways D- conserved organelles E- Two of the above
A
Which of the following observations by Francesco Redi refuted the idea of spontaneous generation
A- Flies laid eggs on uncovered meat and maggots developed
B- Covered pieces of meat did not produce maggots spontaneously
C- Maggots and flies are usually associated with meat
D- All of the above
E- Non of the above
B
Which of the following examples DOES NOT illustrate Koch’s postulates
A- The microorganism is present in diseased individuals but not healthy individuals
B- The suspected organisms are isolated and grown in pure culture
C- A different disease resulted when the isolated microorganism was inoculated into a healthy host
D- isolation of the same microorganism from the inoculated host occurs.
E- actually ALL of these illustrate Koch’s postulates
C
Why did bacteria ultimately grow in the broth during Pasteur’s spontaneous generation experiment?
A- Freezing the broth did not kill all the bacteria
B- He ended up adding bacteria to the broth
C- The neck of the flask was bent
D- The changed the broth to the correct temperature
E- The neck of the flask was broken
E
The external cells surface is best visualized with a
A- light microscope B- dark-field microscope C-transmission electron microscope D- scanning electron microscope E- confocal microscope
D
As the magnification of a series of objective lenses increases, the working distance
A- increases B- decreases C- stays the same D- turns over E- inverts
B
The bending of light as it passes from one medium to another is called
A- resolution B- Aperture C- refraction D- Magnification E- Interference
C
In order for one lens to magnify an image more than another lens it must be
A- shaped differently B- thicker C- thinner D- made of different glass E- closer to the eye piece
A
Basic dyes
A- are hydrophobic B- are negatively charged C- are positively charged D- are aromatic E- are hydrophilic
C
The best resolution achieved by bright field microscopes is approximately
A- 10 micrometers B- 1 micrometer C- 0.2 micrometers D- 0.2 nanometers E- 0.2 angstroms
C
The electron microscope is capable of observing organisms at a higher resolution than the bright field microscope because
A- The wavelength of the illuminating beam is much longer than that of visible light
B- The wavelength of the illuminating beam is much shorter than that of visible light
C- The distance between the lens and the specimen is greatly reduced
D- The distance between the lens and the specimen is lengthened greatly
E- Two of the above are true
B
True or False
Simple staining can be used to distinguish organisms based on their staining properties
A- True
B- False
B
The term used to describe bacteria that have a spherical shape is
A- coccus B- bacillus C- viberio D- coccobacillus E- spherillia
A
Bacterial cells of the same species that are variable in shape are said to be
A- vibrio B- pleomorphic C- coccobacilli D- hyphal E- mycelium
B
Which of the following is/are function of the prokaryotic Plasma membrane?
A- control cell content B- manage energy C- determine and maintain cell shape D- all of the above E- two of the above
E
Survival under harsh environmental conditions
A- Nucleoid B- Ribosome C- Inclusions D- Endospore E- Pili
D
Storage of carbon phosphate and other substances
A- Nucleoid B- Ribosome C- Inclusions D- Endospore E- Pili
C
About 1000 of these per prokaryotic cell and they are used to make proteins
A- Nucleoid B- Ribosome C- Inclusions D- Endospore E- Pili
B
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the periplasmic space
A- it is found only in gram-negative bacteria
B- it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
C- it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-postive bacteria
D- it is larger in gram-postive bacteria than it is in gram-negative bacteria
E- TWO of these are True
B
Bacteria are small because
A- Their cell wall can't get bigger B- surface area is a squared function C- volume is a cubed function D-all of the above E- two of the above
E
Which of the following is NOT part of the bacterial envelope?
A- Plasma Membrane
B- Peptidoglycan
C-Periplasmic Space
D- Outer membrane of Gram Positive Bacteria
E- Actually, all of these are part of the envelope
D
Which of the following describes a bacterial call with several flagella clustered at one end?
A- Monotrichous B- Amphitrichous C- Lophotrichous D- Peritrichous E- Multitrichous
C
In Bacteria, the force that drives the rotation of the flagella is
A- Active transport B- Facilitated diffusion C- Proton-motive force D- Glycolysis E- Microtubule motors
C
Most protein sorting HAPPENS here
A- Golgi Apparatus B-Nucleolus C- Rough ER D- Smooth ER E- Lysosome
A
Most protein sorting STARTS here
A- Golgi Apparatus B-Nucleolus C- Rough ER D- Smooth ER E- Lysosome
C
Organelle where polymers are degraded so their subunits can be reused
A- Golgi Apparatus B-Nucleolus C- Rough ER D- Smooth ER E- Lysosome
E
The part of the eukaryotic cell that is inside the plasma membrane but does not include the nucleus is the
A- the cytoplasm B- the cytosol C- the periplasm D- the protoplasm E- the endomembrane system
A
Place these cytoskeleton components in order by size from largest to smallest.
A- microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules
B- microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments
C- Intermediate filaments, microfilaments, microtubules
D- Intermediate filaments, microtubules, microfilaments
E- micro filaments, microtubules, intermediate filaments
B
The function of the nucleolus is
A- to synthesize proteins
B- to transport proteins and lipids
C- As the respository for the cells genetic information
D- As the main site of membrane synthesis
E- None of the above
E
In eukaryotes which cytoskeleton filament forms a rigid and strong structure that provides the shape and support of the cell but is not directly involved in movement?
A- Microfilaments B-Intermediate filaments C- Microtubles D- All of the above E- None of the above
B
1- Two unlike organisms living together with one being inside the other
endosymbiosis
2- A tentative explanation for an observation, phenomenon, or scientific problem that can be tested by further investigation
hypothesis
3- The supposed development of living organisms from nonliving matter
spontaneous generation
4- The lens located below the stage of a light microscope that focuses a cone of light on the sample
condensor
5- any staining procedure that distinguishes organisms based on their staining properties
differential staining
6- A microscope that retains proper focus when the objectives are changed
parfocal
7- Term describing a molecule that has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions
amphipathic
8-A layer of well-organized material not easily washed off lying outside the cell wall
capsule
9-the pattern of microbial behavior in which the microorganism moves toward chemical attractants and away from repellents
chemotaxis
10- the bacterial plasma membrane PLUS all the structures outside of it
cell envelope
11-Organic compounds that must be supplied in the diet for growth because they are essential cell components or precursors of such components and cannot be synthesized by the organism
growth factors
12- A complex of DNA and proteins, primarily histones, in the cell nucleus that stains readily with basic dyes and condenses to form chromosomes during cell division
chromatin
13- The process in which a cell takes up solutes or particles by enclosing them in vesicles pinched off from its plasma membrane
endocytosis
14-a membrane- enclosed structure within a cell such as a mitochondrion vacuole, or chloroplast, that performs a specific function
organelle
1- the limitation on microbial yield at high nutrient levels is
A- the rate of protein synthesis B- the rate of DNA replication C- the saturation of the transport proteins for nutrient uptake D- the buildup of toxic waste products E- all of the aboce
D
2- Bacteria benefit from Binary Fission because it is
A- asexual B- Fast C- exponential D- all three of these E- only two of these
D
3- Which of the following is most likely NOT a reason why cells enter stationary phase?
A- they are running out of an essential nutrient
B- they are running out of oxygen
C- the accumulation of toxic waste products
D- their biochemical reactions are at equilibrium
E- the population has reached a critical size limit
D
4- Given a log phase bacterial culture with 20 cells and a generation time of 30 minutes how many cells will there be in two hours?
A- 80 B- 160 C- 320 D- 640 E- 1000
C
5- Peptidoglycan synthesis starts in the
A- Cytoplasm B- Cell membrane C- Cell wall D- periplasmic space E- Nucleolus
A
6- penicillin binding proteins
A- help the antibiotic enter the cell B- link peptidoglycan strands together C- help the antibiotic leave the cell D- stop the sntibiotic from binding to the ribosome E- two of the above are true
B
7- A more turbid culture of bacterial cells will result in
A- a high absorbance reading with the specrophotometer
B- a low absorbance reading with the specrophotometer
C- no reading on the spectrophotometer
D- a changing absorbance reading with the spectrophotometer
E- None of the above
A
8- Which of the following helps prevent the infection of living tissue by microorganisms
A- lysozyme B- Sterilizing agent C- bacteriostatic agent D- antiseptic agent E- disinfecting agent
D
9- the reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe is called
A- disinfection B- antisepsis C- sterilization D- sanitization E-cidation
D
10- The time required for a control agent to kill 90% of the microorganisms or spores in a sample under specified condition is called
A- the contact time B- the D value C- the Z value D- the log death value E- Non of the above
B
11- when antiseptics and disinfectants are compared. disinfectants are generally
A- less toxic B- more Toxic C- equally as toxic D- unpredictable in toxicity E- no generalization can be made
B
12- The practice of heating food and beverages to temperatures below boiling in order to control microbial growth is called
A-Tyndallization B- Autoclaving C- Antisepsis D- paseurization E- Heat provessing
D
13- Which of the following influence(s) the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent
A- concentration of the agent B- duration of exposure C- temperature D- all of the choices E- only two of the choices
D
14- True or False
The main reason iodine works so well as an antiseptic is that is also a strong disinfectant
A- True
B- False
B
15- which of the following metabolic processes can be classified as anabolism
A- Breaking down glucose to pyruvate B- ADP+phosphate = ATP C- synthesizing proteins from amino acids D- all of the above E- two of the above
E
16- A reaction that requires an input of energy is
A- exergonic B- spotaneous C- catabolic D- two of these E- none of these
E
17- The organisms use light as an energy source and organic molecules as a carbon source
A- photolithoautotrophs B- chemoorganoheterotrophs C- photoorganoheterotrophs D- chemolithoautotrophs E- None of these
C
18- these organisms use light as an energy source and reduced inorganic molecules as an electron source
A- photolithoautotrophs B- chemoorganoheterotrophs C- photoorganoheterotrophs D- chemolithoautotrophs E- None of these
A
19- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Phosphate by an enzyme in a biochemical pathway is called______ phosphorylation
A- chemiosmotic B- oxidative C- pathway D- substrate-level E- enzymatic
D
20- Energy is released as
A- a phosphate group is hydrolyzed from ATP B- ADP is phosphorylated C- ATP is phosphorylated D- none of the above E- Two of the above
A
21- Non-competitive enzyme inhibitors work by
A- damaging the active sire of the enzyme
B- denaturing the enzyme
C- competing with the substrate for an enzyme’s catalytic site and prevents formation of product
D- changing the shape of the active site
E-None of the above
D
22- Which of the following is TRUE regarding the ATP produced in Glycolysis AND the TCA cycle?
A- both require high energy elections passing down a transport chain
B- both are produced by ATP synthase
C- both are examples of substrate-level phosphorylation
D- both require the use of a PMF
E- two of these are TRUE
C
23- Which of the following is NOT produced by glycolysis?
A- pyruvate B- ATP C- NADH D- carbon, dioxide E- Actually, all of these are produced by glycolysis
D
24- Which of the following is NOT produced by the TCA cycle?
A- pyruvate B- GTP C- NADH D- carbon dioxide E- Actually, all of these are produced by the TCA cycle
A
25- The primary activated carrier for high energy electrons in catabolic processes is
A- produced by glycolysis B- produced by the TCA cycle C- NADH D- all of these are correct E- TWO of these are correct
D
26- in fermentation the final electron acceptor is
A- oxygen B- endogenous C- exogenous D- PMF E- carbon dioxide
B
27- What causes the rotor of ATP synthase to spin?
A- PMF B- electron motion C- ATP formation D- NADH oxidation E- Oxygen taking electrons
A
28- Which of the following it TRUE of oxidative phosporylation?
A- generates ATP using enzymes in the pathway
B- uses an endogenous elecrton acceptor
C- Does not involve an electron transport chain
D- requires oxygen
E- none of these are true
E
