Final Flashcards
Which of the following is the BEST description of the field of Microbiology?
A- The study of diseases caused by viruses and bacteria
B- The study of living organisms too small to be seen without magnification
C-The study of all microorganisms except viruses
D-The study of things in the microscope
E- The study of simple livings things
B
Cells that have a true membrane-bound nucleus are referred to as
A- prokaryotic B- Eukaryotic C- Urkaryotic D- Karyotic E- A and B
B
Which of the following is NOT a Domain of Life as shown on the Universal Tree?
A-Bacteria B- Viruses C- Eukarya D- Archaea E- actually, all of these are Domains of LIfe?
B
Eukaryotic organelles that arose by endosymbiosis include
A- lysosomes B- the Golgi C- the ER D-Two of these E- none of these
E
The universal phylogenetic tree is constructed from comparisons of which of the following
A- the gene for ribosomal RNA B- conserved proteins C- conserved metabolic pathways D- conserved organelles E- Two of the above
A
Which of the following observations by Francesco Redi refuted the idea of spontaneous generation
A- Flies laid eggs on uncovered meat and maggots developed
B- Covered pieces of meat did not produce maggots spontaneously
C- Maggots and flies are usually associated with meat
D- All of the above
E- Non of the above
B
Which of the following examples DOES NOT illustrate Koch’s postulates
A- The microorganism is present in diseased individuals but not healthy individuals
B- The suspected organisms are isolated and grown in pure culture
C- A different disease resulted when the isolated microorganism was inoculated into a healthy host
D- isolation of the same microorganism from the inoculated host occurs.
E- actually ALL of these illustrate Koch’s postulates
C
Why did bacteria ultimately grow in the broth during Pasteur’s spontaneous generation experiment?
A- Freezing the broth did not kill all the bacteria
B- He ended up adding bacteria to the broth
C- The neck of the flask was bent
D- The changed the broth to the correct temperature
E- The neck of the flask was broken
E
The external cells surface is best visualized with a
A- light microscope B- dark-field microscope C-transmission electron microscope D- scanning electron microscope E- confocal microscope
D
As the magnification of a series of objective lenses increases, the working distance
A- increases B- decreases C- stays the same D- turns over E- inverts
B
The bending of light as it passes from one medium to another is called
A- resolution B- Aperture C- refraction D- Magnification E- Interference
C
In order for one lens to magnify an image more than another lens it must be
A- shaped differently B- thicker C- thinner D- made of different glass E- closer to the eye piece
A
Basic dyes
A- are hydrophobic B- are negatively charged C- are positively charged D- are aromatic E- are hydrophilic
C
The best resolution achieved by bright field microscopes is approximately
A- 10 micrometers B- 1 micrometer C- 0.2 micrometers D- 0.2 nanometers E- 0.2 angstroms
C
The electron microscope is capable of observing organisms at a higher resolution than the bright field microscope because
A- The wavelength of the illuminating beam is much longer than that of visible light
B- The wavelength of the illuminating beam is much shorter than that of visible light
C- The distance between the lens and the specimen is greatly reduced
D- The distance between the lens and the specimen is lengthened greatly
E- Two of the above are true
B
True or False
Simple staining can be used to distinguish organisms based on their staining properties
A- True
B- False
B
The term used to describe bacteria that have a spherical shape is
A- coccus B- bacillus C- viberio D- coccobacillus E- spherillia
A
Bacterial cells of the same species that are variable in shape are said to be
A- vibrio B- pleomorphic C- coccobacilli D- hyphal E- mycelium
B
Which of the following is/are function of the prokaryotic Plasma membrane?
A- control cell content B- manage energy C- determine and maintain cell shape D- all of the above E- two of the above
E
Survival under harsh environmental conditions
A- Nucleoid B- Ribosome C- Inclusions D- Endospore E- Pili
D
Storage of carbon phosphate and other substances
A- Nucleoid B- Ribosome C- Inclusions D- Endospore E- Pili
C
About 1000 of these per prokaryotic cell and they are used to make proteins
A- Nucleoid B- Ribosome C- Inclusions D- Endospore E- Pili
B
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the periplasmic space
A- it is found only in gram-negative bacteria
B- it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
C- it is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram-postive bacteria
D- it is larger in gram-postive bacteria than it is in gram-negative bacteria
E- TWO of these are True
B
Bacteria are small because
A- Their cell wall can't get bigger B- surface area is a squared function C- volume is a cubed function D-all of the above E- two of the above
E
Which of the following is NOT part of the bacterial envelope?
A- Plasma Membrane
B- Peptidoglycan
C-Periplasmic Space
D- Outer membrane of Gram Positive Bacteria
E- Actually, all of these are part of the envelope
D
Which of the following describes a bacterial call with several flagella clustered at one end?
A- Monotrichous B- Amphitrichous C- Lophotrichous D- Peritrichous E- Multitrichous
C
In Bacteria, the force that drives the rotation of the flagella is
A- Active transport B- Facilitated diffusion C- Proton-motive force D- Glycolysis E- Microtubule motors
C
Most protein sorting HAPPENS here
A- Golgi Apparatus B-Nucleolus C- Rough ER D- Smooth ER E- Lysosome
A
Most protein sorting STARTS here
A- Golgi Apparatus B-Nucleolus C- Rough ER D- Smooth ER E- Lysosome
C
Organelle where polymers are degraded so their subunits can be reused
A- Golgi Apparatus B-Nucleolus C- Rough ER D- Smooth ER E- Lysosome
E
The part of the eukaryotic cell that is inside the plasma membrane but does not include the nucleus is the
A- the cytoplasm B- the cytosol C- the periplasm D- the protoplasm E- the endomembrane system
A
Place these cytoskeleton components in order by size from largest to smallest.
A- microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules
B- microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments
C- Intermediate filaments, microfilaments, microtubules
D- Intermediate filaments, microtubules, microfilaments
E- micro filaments, microtubules, intermediate filaments
B
The function of the nucleolus is
A- to synthesize proteins
B- to transport proteins and lipids
C- As the respository for the cells genetic information
D- As the main site of membrane synthesis
E- None of the above
E
In eukaryotes which cytoskeleton filament forms a rigid and strong structure that provides the shape and support of the cell but is not directly involved in movement?
A- Microfilaments B-Intermediate filaments C- Microtubles D- All of the above E- None of the above
B
1- Two unlike organisms living together with one being inside the other
endosymbiosis
2- A tentative explanation for an observation, phenomenon, or scientific problem that can be tested by further investigation
hypothesis
3- The supposed development of living organisms from nonliving matter
spontaneous generation
4- The lens located below the stage of a light microscope that focuses a cone of light on the sample
condensor
5- any staining procedure that distinguishes organisms based on their staining properties
differential staining
6- A microscope that retains proper focus when the objectives are changed
parfocal
7- Term describing a molecule that has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions
amphipathic
8-A layer of well-organized material not easily washed off lying outside the cell wall
capsule
9-the pattern of microbial behavior in which the microorganism moves toward chemical attractants and away from repellents
chemotaxis
10- the bacterial plasma membrane PLUS all the structures outside of it
cell envelope
11-Organic compounds that must be supplied in the diet for growth because they are essential cell components or precursors of such components and cannot be synthesized by the organism
growth factors
12- A complex of DNA and proteins, primarily histones, in the cell nucleus that stains readily with basic dyes and condenses to form chromosomes during cell division
chromatin
13- The process in which a cell takes up solutes or particles by enclosing them in vesicles pinched off from its plasma membrane
endocytosis
14-a membrane- enclosed structure within a cell such as a mitochondrion vacuole, or chloroplast, that performs a specific function
organelle
1- the limitation on microbial yield at high nutrient levels is
A- the rate of protein synthesis B- the rate of DNA replication C- the saturation of the transport proteins for nutrient uptake D- the buildup of toxic waste products E- all of the aboce
D
2- Bacteria benefit from Binary Fission because it is
A- asexual B- Fast C- exponential D- all three of these E- only two of these
D
3- Which of the following is most likely NOT a reason why cells enter stationary phase?
A- they are running out of an essential nutrient
B- they are running out of oxygen
C- the accumulation of toxic waste products
D- their biochemical reactions are at equilibrium
E- the population has reached a critical size limit
D
4- Given a log phase bacterial culture with 20 cells and a generation time of 30 minutes how many cells will there be in two hours?
A- 80 B- 160 C- 320 D- 640 E- 1000
C
5- Peptidoglycan synthesis starts in the
A- Cytoplasm B- Cell membrane C- Cell wall D- periplasmic space E- Nucleolus
A
6- penicillin binding proteins
A- help the antibiotic enter the cell B- link peptidoglycan strands together C- help the antibiotic leave the cell D- stop the sntibiotic from binding to the ribosome E- two of the above are true
B
7- A more turbid culture of bacterial cells will result in
A- a high absorbance reading with the specrophotometer
B- a low absorbance reading with the specrophotometer
C- no reading on the spectrophotometer
D- a changing absorbance reading with the spectrophotometer
E- None of the above
A
8- Which of the following helps prevent the infection of living tissue by microorganisms
A- lysozyme B- Sterilizing agent C- bacteriostatic agent D- antiseptic agent E- disinfecting agent
D
9- the reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe is called
A- disinfection B- antisepsis C- sterilization D- sanitization E-cidation
D
10- The time required for a control agent to kill 90% of the microorganisms or spores in a sample under specified condition is called
A- the contact time B- the D value C- the Z value D- the log death value E- Non of the above
B
11- when antiseptics and disinfectants are compared. disinfectants are generally
A- less toxic B- more Toxic C- equally as toxic D- unpredictable in toxicity E- no generalization can be made
B
12- The practice of heating food and beverages to temperatures below boiling in order to control microbial growth is called
A-Tyndallization B- Autoclaving C- Antisepsis D- paseurization E- Heat provessing
D
13- Which of the following influence(s) the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent
A- concentration of the agent B- duration of exposure C- temperature D- all of the choices E- only two of the choices
D
14- True or False
The main reason iodine works so well as an antiseptic is that is also a strong disinfectant
A- True
B- False
B
15- which of the following metabolic processes can be classified as anabolism
A- Breaking down glucose to pyruvate B- ADP+phosphate = ATP C- synthesizing proteins from amino acids D- all of the above E- two of the above
E
16- A reaction that requires an input of energy is
A- exergonic B- spotaneous C- catabolic D- two of these E- none of these
E
17- The organisms use light as an energy source and organic molecules as a carbon source
A- photolithoautotrophs B- chemoorganoheterotrophs C- photoorganoheterotrophs D- chemolithoautotrophs E- None of these
C
18- these organisms use light as an energy source and reduced inorganic molecules as an electron source
A- photolithoautotrophs B- chemoorganoheterotrophs C- photoorganoheterotrophs D- chemolithoautotrophs E- None of these
A
19- the synthesis of ATP from ADP and Phosphate by an enzyme in a biochemical pathway is called______ phosphorylation
A- chemiosmotic B- oxidative C- pathway D- substrate-level E- enzymatic
D
20- Energy is released as
A- a phosphate group is hydrolyzed from ATP B- ADP is phosphorylated C- ATP is phosphorylated D- none of the above E- Two of the above
A
21- Non-competitive enzyme inhibitors work by
A- damaging the active sire of the enzyme
B- denaturing the enzyme
C- competing with the substrate for an enzyme’s catalytic site and prevents formation of product
D- changing the shape of the active site
E-None of the above
D
22- Which of the following is TRUE regarding the ATP produced in Glycolysis AND the TCA cycle?
A- both require high energy elections passing down a transport chain
B- both are produced by ATP synthase
C- both are examples of substrate-level phosphorylation
D- both require the use of a PMF
E- two of these are TRUE
C
23- Which of the following is NOT produced by glycolysis?
A- pyruvate B- ATP C- NADH D- carbon, dioxide E- Actually, all of these are produced by glycolysis
D
24- Which of the following is NOT produced by the TCA cycle?
A- pyruvate B- GTP C- NADH D- carbon dioxide E- Actually, all of these are produced by the TCA cycle
A
25- The primary activated carrier for high energy electrons in catabolic processes is
A- produced by glycolysis B- produced by the TCA cycle C- NADH D- all of these are correct E- TWO of these are correct
D
26- in fermentation the final electron acceptor is
A- oxygen B- endogenous C- exogenous D- PMF E- carbon dioxide
B
27- What causes the rotor of ATP synthase to spin?
A- PMF B- electron motion C- ATP formation D- NADH oxidation E- Oxygen taking electrons
A
28- Which of the following it TRUE of oxidative phosporylation?
A- generates ATP using enzymes in the pathway
B- uses an endogenous elecrton acceptor
C- Does not involve an electron transport chain
D- requires oxygen
E- none of these are true
E
29- True or False
Many enzyme catalysed reactions are freely reversible; however. some key steps require separate enzymes for the reverse reaction in order to provide for independent regulation of anabolic and catabolic pathways
A- True
B- False
A
30- The main activated carried for electrons in anabolism is
A- NADH B- NADPH C- FMN D- Pyruvate E- Carbon DIoxide
B
31- ______ reactions are used to replace TCA cycle intermediates that have been used to provide carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis
A- Amphibolic B- Metameric C- Anabolic D- Catabolic E- Anaplerotic
E
32- Which of the following was important for Calvin to determine the pathway of the Calvin Cycle?
A- he could purchase CO2 that was labeled with 14C
B- he could separate molecules with chromatography
C- He could determine the structure of the separated molecules
D- All of these were important
E- Two of these were important
D
33- True or False
The steps of glycolysis and TCA cycle produce many of the precursor metabolites for anabolic processes
A- True
B- False
A
34- Which of the following is/are needed for the synthesis of large cellular molecules?
A- a carbon source B- an energy source C- an electron source D- precursor metabolires E- all of these are needed
E
1- A series of chemical reactions that occurs as part of the dark reactions of photosynthesis, in which carbon is broken away from gaseous carbon dioxide and fixed as orgasnic carbon in compounds that are ultimately used to make sugars and starch as food
Calvin Cycle
2- a substance or preparation for killing algae
algicide
3- an enzyme that change their shape or conformation upon binding of a modulator
allosteric enzyme
4- and increase in the number of microorganisms
growth
5- an organism that manufactures its own food from inorganic substances using light for energy
phototroph
6- any chemical agent used chiefly on inanimate objects to destroy or inhibit the growth of harmful organisms
disinfectant
7- Microorganisms that do not require oxygen for growth but do grow better with it
falcultative aerobe
8- reactions that replenish depleted tricarboxylic acid cycle intermediates
amaplerotic reactions
9- the amount of energy that must be put into a system in order to cause a chemical process to occur
activation energy
10- the destruction of all living micoorganisms
sterilization
11- the material or substance on which an enzyme acts
substrate
12- the process in cell metabolism by which respiratory enzymes in the mitochondria synthesize ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate during the oxidation of NADH by molecular oxygen
oxidative phosphorylation
13- the rotating enzyme complex that couples ATP production to the flow of hydrogen ions.
ATP synthase
14- the time required for a microbial population to double in number
generation time
1- Which of the following is true in a DNA double helix?
A- the two DNA strands are complimentary B- purines pair with pyrimidines C- the two DNA strands are covalently bonded to each other D- All three of these are true E- Two of these are true
E
2- What did Griffith determine with his transformation experiment?
A- the transforming material is DNA B- A transforming material changed non-virulent pathogens to virulent pathogens C- DNA carries genetic information D- All of the above E- Two of the above
B
3- Which of the following is TRUE regarding Avery’s enzyme experiments?
A- Only the protein would be destroyed
B- he could clearly see the DNA in the SEM
C- the proteins and the DNA could be labeled with different isotopes
D- Protease treatment did not eliminate transformation
E- the experiments did not work with R bacteria
D
4- for the single strand of DNA 5’-CCTTAAGG-3’ what would be the opposite strand?
A- 5'TTAACCAA3' B- 5'CCTTAAGG3' C- 5'AACCAATT3' D- 5'GGAATTCC3' E- 5'GGAAUUCC3'
B
5-The fact that each replication fork has a leading and lagging strand means that DNA replication is
A- semi conservative B- asymmetrical C- degenerate D- bi-directional E- dualistic
B
6- the fact that each new DNA double helix has one old strand and one new strand means that DNA replication is
A- semi conservative B- asymmetrical C- degenerate D- bi-directional E- universal
A
7- Which of the following is TRUE of the lagging strand?
A- It is synthesized continuously in the 5’ to 3’ direction
B- It is synthesized continuously in the 3’ to 5’ direction
C- It is synthesized discontinuously in short fragments in the 5’ to 3’ direction
D- It is synthesized discontinuously in short fragments in the 3’ to 5’ direction
E- It is synthesized discontinuously in short fragments in both directions
C
8- RNA in cells differs from DNA in that
A- the base uracil complements the base adenine
B- RNA molecules with incorrect nucleotides do not get repaired
C- it is single stranded and can fold up into a variety of structures
D- all of the above
E- two of the above
D
9- Synthesis of an RNA copy of a gene using DNA as a template is called
A- transcription B- translation C- replication D- recombination E- reverse transcription
A
10- Which of the following statements about the genetic code is NOT correct?
A- all 64ncodons specify amino acids
B- More than one codon can specify a particular amino acid
C- Some amino acids are specified by only one condon
D- for most part, the genetic code is the same in prokaryotes and eukaryotes
E- all of the above are correct
A
11- The DNA sequence where transcription initiates is called the
A-Primer B- Promoter C-Sigma site D- Origin E- start condon
B
12- The site on the DNA to which a repressor protein binds is the _____
A- operon B- operator C- promoter D- TATA box E- terminator
B
13- True or False
Even though the lac operon is inducible and the Trp operon is repressible in both cases the substance being measured binds to the repressor
A- True
B- False
A
14- if we discovered a new operon in bacteria that gets turned on in the presence of a particular substance, we would say that operon is_____
A- inducible B- repressible C- under negative control D- under positive control E- constituitive
A
15- Repressor proteins bind at the
A- Operator B- Activator-binding sites C- First structural gene of the operon D- origin E- None of the above
A
16- True or False
In bacteria the enzymes required to use a particular energy source are constitutively expressed
A- True
B- False
B
17- What term describes a set of bacterial genes that are regulated together under the control of a single promoter?
A- condon B-constitutive C- transcription D- operon E- anticodon
D
Which operon is an example of negative transcriptional control of repressible genes?
A- the lac operon B- the trp operon C- both of these D- neither of these E- sometimes one of these but other times both of them
B
19- A mutation that take a mutant away from wild type is called a _____ mutation
A- forward B- reverse C- wild card D- suppressor E- compensating
A
20- spontaneous mutations are caused by
A- errors in DNA replication B- mutagenic chemicals C- UV radiation D- all of the above E- two of the above
A
21- A ________ mutation creates a new stop codon in the reading frame
A- missense B- nonsense C- silent D- impeding E- frameshift
B
22- Which type of mutation involves a single base substitution that changes a codon for one amino acid into a codon for another?
A- Silent mutation B- Missense Mutation C- Nonsense mutation D- Frameshift mutation E- Coding mutation
B
23- Which type of mutation involves a single base substitutions that changes a codon for one amino acid into a codon for another?
A- Plaque assay B- replica plating C- serial dilution D- all of the above can be used E- TWO of the above can be used
B
24- Lysine auxotrophs
A- Produce their own lysine and can only grow on media without lysine.
B- produce their own lysine, and can only grow on media with lysine added
C- are unable to produce lysine and can only grow on media without lysine
D- are unable to produce lysine and can only grow on media with lysine added
E- revert to lysine heterotrophes when exposed to UV light
D
25- True or False
In the Ames test, if a chemical is a mutagen you expect to see more colonies on the petri dish that does NOT contain the chemical
A- True
B- False
B
26- True or False
When cells perform DNA mismatch repair they have no way of knowing which DNA strand contains the correct nucleotide so they only actually correct the mistake half of the time.
A- True
B- False
B
27- Which of the following best describes the basis for separation of DNA fragments during gel electrophoresis?
A- the fragments with the highest percentage of G and C will migrate fastest
B- the fragments with the highest percentage of A and T will migrate fastest
C- the largest fragments will migrate fastest
D- the smallest fragments will migrate fastest
E- the DNA molecules with positive charge move faster
D
28- A DNA molecule made with DNA from two different organisms is called
A- plasmid B- vector C- transgenic DNA molecule D- recombinant DNA molecule E- cohesive DNA molecule
D
29- The purpose of the Southern blotting technique is to
A- Amplify fragments of DNA
B- Cut DNA into small fragments
C- Construct a plasmid vector
D- Detect specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA molecules
E- Blot out incorrect genes during gene therapy
D
30- Cohesive or sticky ends for cloning are produced using
A- restriction endoucleases B- RNA polymerase C- DNA ligase D- reverse transcriptase E- DNA polymerase
A
31- Which of the following methods can be used to obtain a large amount of DNA from a single source?
A- cloning B- the Polymerase Chain Reaction C- Transcription D- All of the above E- Two of the above
E
32- True of False
In order to determine the DNA fingerprint for a particular person we need to use multiple chromosomal locations
A- True
B- False
A
33- In order to express eucaryotic genes (like human insulin) in bacteria the _____ must first be removed
A- introns B- exons C- enhancers D- 3' poly A sequence E- RNA primers
A
Which of the following is NOT made of DNA
A- promoter B- origin of replication C- operator D- repressor E- template strand
D
1- A chemicals or physical agent that causes mutations
mutagen
2- A DNA binding protein binds near the gene and turns up the level of expression
positive control
3- A DNA copy of an RNA molecule
complimentary DNA
4- A permanent heritable change in the genetic material
mutation
5- A polymerase that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA from DNA template
reverse transcriptase
6- a protein coded for by a regulator gene that can bind to the operator and inhibit transcription
repressor protein
7- a small molecule that stimulates the syntheses of RNA from DNA template
inducer
8- An organism with a mutation that causes it to lose the ability to synthesize an essential nutrient
aucotroph
9- Enzyme that uses ATP energy to unwind DNA ahead of the replication fork
helicase
10- technique used to synthesize large quantities of specific nucleotide sequences from small amounts of DNA
polymerase chain reaction
11- The base triplet on a tRNA that is complementary to the triplet codon on mRNA
anticodon
12- The RNA that is structural and catalytic part of a ribosome
rRNA
13- The segment of DNA to which the repressor protein binds; it controls the expression of the genes adjacent to it
operator
14- to make identical copies of a DNA sequence
replication
1- True of False
Unlike living organisms, viruses do not evolve
A- True
B- False
B
2- The function of the viral capsid is to
A- Protect the viral genome B- Encode viral proteins C- Replicate the viral genome D- All of the above E- Two of the above
A
3- The process by which a virus particle becomes connected to the host cell is called
A- attachment B- entry C- uncoating D-adsorption E- cytosis
D
4- True or False
Bacteriophages grown on a lawn of bacteria form individual colonies which can be counted to determine how many viruses are in the culture
A- True
B- False
B
5- The best microscopic method for studying viruses is
A- Bright-field microscopy B-Dark-field microscopy C- Electron microscopy D- Phase contrast microscopy E- Flourescence microscopy
C
6- True or False
The simplest way to determine if two viruses are related to each other is to determine the shape of their nucelocapsid
A- True
B- False
B
7- The process that forms virions is called
A- replication B- translation C- transcription D- self-assembly E- lysis
D
Bacteriophages that do not have a lysongenic option are said to be
A- lytic B- temperate C- Non-integrative D- replicative E- virulent
E
9- Which of the following is NOT used to classify Eucaryotic viruses?
A- morphology B- Replication strategy C- Genetic relatedness D- Genome structure E- Actually all of these are used
E
10- Single-stranded RNA viruses that have an RNA genome that is identical in base sequence of mRNA produced by the virus are called
A- Negative-strand viruses B- Posititive-strand viruses C- mRNA viruses D- Bacteriophages E- Two of the above
B
11- Which of the following types of virus would most likely be able to complete its life cycle using only normal host cell enzymes?
A- +RNA B- dsDNA C- -RNA D- retrovirus E- all of these can
B
12- What type of enzyme would produce the genomes for double stranded RNA viruses?
A- reverse transcriptase B- DNA- dependant RNA polymerase C- DNA- Dependant DNA polymerase D- RNA- Dependant RNA polymerase E- RNA- Dependant DNA polymerase
D
13- What type of enzyme would produce the genomes for retroviruses viruses
A- reverse transcriptase B- DNA- dependant RNA polymerase C- DNA- Dependant DNA polymerase D- RNA- Dependant RNA polymerase E- RNA- Dependant DNA polymerase
B
14- Which of the following characteristics of biruses can be used to classify them as non-living a cellular agents of infection?
A-They reproduce
B- they evolve
C- they alter their gene expression in response to stimuli
D- they must carry out metabolic processes within a host cell
E- they kill the host cell
D
15- Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the non-specific immune Response?
A- it is also called non specific resistance
B- it acts as a first line of defense
C- it offers resistance to any microbe or foreign material
D- it has a memory
E- it involves antigen presentation
D
16- Another name for leukocyte is
A- macrophage B- white blood cell C- T-cell D- dentritic cell E- basophil
B
17- True or False
Even though macrophages are part of the nonspecific immune response they play an important role in connecting to the specific immune response
A- True
B- False
A
Phagocytic white blood cells that circulate in the blood and migrate to sites of infection are called
A-esonophils B- neutrophils C- T-cells D- B- Cells E- basophils
B
19- The coating of microorganisms by serum components thereby preparing them for recognition and igestion by phagocytic cells is called
A- Agglutination B- Opsonization C- Differentiation D- Apoptpsis E- phagogenesis
B
20- a specific type of PRRs that function as signaling receptors bind the host cell nucleus and initiate appropriate gene expression are called
A- PAMPs B- Toll-like receptors (TLRs) C- MHC class I receptors D- MHC class II receptors E- opsonizers
B
21- Which of the following is the primary function of the Dendritic Cells?
A- Antigen Presentation B- Phagocytosis C- Memory D- Antibody Production E- Cytokine Synthesis
A
22- True or False
Because complement proteins must be activated before they can work they are considered part of the acquired immune response
A- True
B- False
B
23- Substances that are recognized as foreign and provoke immune responses are called
A- antibodies B- Antigens C- infective agents D- inducers E- prions
B
24- Which of the following is a physical barrier in the nonspecific defense of a mammalian host?
A- inflammation B- phagocytosis C- fever D- mucous membranes E- all of these
D
25- The ability of the immune system to mount a response only to the current pathogen is called
A- diversity B- specificity C- memory D- differentiation E- recognition of foreignness
B
26- circulating immunoglobulins are part of
A- the complement system B- cellular immunity C- humoral immunity D- innate immunity E- none of these
C
27-A microbial antigen with four epitopes would have a valence of
A- one B- two C- four D- eight E- ten
C
28- Childhood vaccination is an example of __ immunity
A- natural B- Passive C- Active D- Natural Passive E- Natural Active
C
29- Which of the following is an example of how innate and acquired immunity are connected
A- a dendritic call presenting an antigen to a T- call
B- A monocyte differentiating into a macrophage
C- B-cells dividing into memory cells
D- a cytotoxic T-cell killing an infected cell
E- A T-cell stimulating a B-cell to become a plasma call
A
30- T cell attack
A- a host cells that have been parasitized by microorganisms
B- transplanted tissue cells from one hose to another
C- cancer cells
D- infected macrophages
E- all of the choices
E
31- B cells that are actively producing antibodies are called
A- memory cells B- bursa cells C- activated cells D- plasma cells E- stem cells
D
32- memory B cells are produced during
A- vaccination B- the Primary Immune Response C- the Secondary Immune Response D- all of these E- two of these
D
33- True or False
Although the secondary immune response is faster lower amounts of antibodies are produced
A- True
B- False
B
34- Which of the following is not a consequence of antibody binding?
A- agglutination B- opsinization C- neutralization D- negative selection E- precipitation
D
1- obligatge intracellular parasite
virus
2- The latent form of a temperate phage that remains within the lysogen usually integrated into the host chromosomes
prophage
3- a clear area in a lawn of host cells that results from their lysis by viruses
plaque
4- A gene whose activity is associtated with the conversion of normal calls to cancer cells
oncogene
5- a cirus life cycle that results in the lysis of the host cell
lytic cycle
6- existing in a person or animal from birth
innate
7- a localized protective reaction of tissue to irritation injury or infection characterized be pain redness swelling and sometimes loss of function
inflammation
8- an outer membranous layer that surrounds the necleocapsid is some viruses
envelope
9- any of several regulatory proteins such as the interleukins and lymphokines that are released by cells of the immune system and act as intercellular mediators in the generation of an immune response
cytokines
10- The process by which an antigen selects the best fitting B-cell receptor activating that B cell resulting in the synthesis of antibody and clonal expansion
clonal selection
11- of or relating to an immune response by the body against one of its own cells or tissues
autoimmunity
12- a glycoprotein made by plasma cells (mature B cells) in response to the introduction of an antigen
antibody
13- the reversion of an animal cell to a more primitive undifferentiated state
anaplasia
14- any virus bacterium or other agent that causes disease
pathogen
