Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACLAM Boards > Mice > Flashcards

Mice Flashcards

1
Q

Place the following caging materials in order of decreasing cost and durability: Polypropylene, polycarbonate and polystyrene

A

Polycarbonate, polypropylene and polystyrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

From what material are disposable, recyclable cages made?

A

Polyethylene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How many grams of food per day does a mouse eat after weaning?

A) 2-4
B) 3-5
C) 5-7
D) 7-9

A

B

Require 12 g of food per 100 g body weight per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How many mL of water does an adult mouse drink per day?

A) 3-4
B) 4-5
C) 5-6
D) 6-7

A

D

Decreased water intake will decrease food consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many lung lobes does a mouse have? Left and right?

A

5 total - One left lobe and 4 right lobes (superior, middle, inferior and postcaval)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the vertebral formula for the mouse?

A

C7 T13 L6 S4 C28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many pairs of mammary glands does a mouse typically have?

A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7

A

B (Rats typically have 6 pairs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Age of sexual maturity in mice?

A

28-49 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the accessory sex glands of the male mouse?

A

1 pair of coagulating glands
1 pair of vesicular glands
1 pair of preputial glands
1 pair of ampullary glands
1 pair of bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s glands)
2 pairs of prostate glands (dorsal and ventral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the Whitten effect?

A

Male pheromones stimulate synchronous estrus in a female population (Majority of female mice will enter a new estrus cycle by the 3rd day of exposure)

A WITTY male turns them on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Bruce effect?

A

If pregnant mice are exposed to strange males during the pre-implantation period (1-5 days post breeding) the pregnancy will be aborted. Seen most frequently within 24-48 hr post-breeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the Lee-Boot effect?

A

When female mice are housed together in small groups without a male present, there is an increase in the incidence of spontaneous pseudopregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Vandenbergh effect?

A

Accidental exposure of prepubescent female mice to male urine accelerates female puberty

Vroom to puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the Hoover-Drichamer effect?

A

Presence of urine from a foreign pregnant or lactating female prolongs estrus

DRichamer –> Estrus DRaggs on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Duration of gestation in a mouse?

A

19-21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are pheromones and what are the definitions of releaser pheromones, primer pheromones and signaler pheromones?

A

Pheromones = Diverse chemical factors that trigger innate (non-learned) social responses among conspecifics

Releaser pheromone = A pheromone that elicits immediate behavioral response

Primer pheromone = A pheromone that mediates a slowly developing and longer lasting endocrine response

Signaler pheromone = A pheromone that conveys individual or group identity + mediates parent-offspring recognition and mate choice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are major urinary proteins (Mups)?

A

Components of chemosensory communication in mice

Cluster of 21 Mups genes on chromosome 4 (“urine on the floor”)

Small soluble lipocalins that bind pheromones and function as transporters and stabilizers; also act as pheromones themselves

Excreted in urine, nasal mucosa, lacrimal glands and salivary glands

Also kairomones (chemical signals b/t species)

Potent allergens ex. Mus m 1 (Mup 17 gene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Type of placentation in mice?

A

Discoid, labyrinhine, hemochorial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Urine output of a mouse?

A

1 mL/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

According to The Guide, what are the acceptable temperature and humidity ranges for rooms housing mice?

A

Temp = 68-79F
Humidity = 30-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the thermoneutral zone of a mouse?

A

29.6-30.5C/85.3-86.9F according to BB or 26-34C according to The Guide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the blood volume of a mouse?

A

~5 ml/100 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the predominant immune cell type of a mouse?

A

Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

of toes on a mouse foot?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dental formula of mice?

A

(I1/1, C0/0, PM0/0, M3/3)x2 = 16

Incisors hypsodontic

Third molars small and may be absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Harderian gland and where is it located?

A

Deep within the orbit of the eye

Produces porphyrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When do eyes and ears open in mouse pups?

A

Ears - 2-3 days (Can hear at 21 days)
Eyes - 12-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nonagouti locus

A

Chromosome 2

A (agouti) = Wildtype

A^Y > A^vY > A^W > A = a^t > a > a^e > a^l

Yellow (A^Y) lethal when homozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tyrp1 locus

A

Chromosome 4

Black (Tyrp1^+) = Wildtype

Tyrp1+ > Tyrp^b (brown)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tyr locus

A

Chromosome 7

Tyr (pigmented) = Wildtype

Tyr^+ > Tyr^c = Tyr^c-ch=Tyr^c-e=Tyr^c-ch (Recessive genes act in semidominant manner with each other)

Tyr^c epistatic when homozygous

Albinism associated with blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Myo5a locus

A

Chromosome 9

Myo5a^+ (Non-dilute) = Wildtype

Myo5a^+ > Myo5a^d (dilute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Oca2 locus

A

Chromosome 7

Oca2^P = Wildtype (black eyes)

P > p (pink eyes, dilute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Mlph locus

A

Chromosome 1

Mlph+ = Wildtype

+ > ln (leaden; usually indistinguishable from dilute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Kit locus

A

Chromosome 5

Kit^+ = Wildtype

W-y, W and Wsh –> Various white spotting patterns; associated with mast cell deficiency and poor gametogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Lyst locus

A

Chromosome 13

Lyst^+ = Wildtype

bg-j –> Beige; lysosomal trafficking defects, resemples Chediak-Higashi syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ednrb locus

A

Chromosome 14

+ = Wildtype

s = Piebald; associated with aganglionic megacolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Mo locus

A

X-chromosome (sex-linked)

Atp7a^+ = Wildtype

Atp7a^mo = Tortoiseshell/brindle; resembles menkes disease (copper transport issues)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many chromosomes does a mouse have?

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Definitions of isogenic and co-isogenic?

A

Isogenic = Genetically identical to each other at all loci

Co-isogenic = Only differ at one locus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the definition of a substrain?

A

Branches of an inbred strain that are separated after F20, but before F40 and have been separated for 100 generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Definitions of congenic and consomic

A

Congenic = Strain in which a gene with an allele of interest is transferred to a different genetic background

Consomic = A whole chromosome is transferred to a different genetic background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Definitions of outcross, incross, intercross and backcross?

A

Outcross = Mating unlike homozygotes

Incross = Mating like homozygotes

Intercross = Mating heterozygotes

Backcross = Mating of a homozygote with a heterozygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a recombinant inbred mouse? How is it made and what is the nomenclature?

A

Developed by single-pair random matings of mice from an F2 generation created by crossing mice of 2 inbred strains.

  1. Outcross two inbred lines to create F1 hybrids –> 2. Intercross F1 hybrids to create F2 –> 3. Inbreed each line of interest separately for 20 generations to create RI

Ex. Collaborative cross mice

Female strain x male strain#/lab code (BxD1/Ty)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a recombinant congenic? How is it made and what is the nomenclature?

A

Similar to RI, but 1+ backcrosses to one parental strain are made after the F1 generation before inbreeding begins

Background strain c donor strain # (CcS1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is an advanced intercross line? How is it made and what is the nomenclature?

A

Subset of RI

Intercross to create F1 –> Intercross to create F2 –> Intercross subsequent generations while avoiding sibling mating

Purpose = To recombine tightly linked genes

Lab code:Strain1,Strain2-Generation # (Pri:B6,D2-G6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a coisogenic strain and what is the nomenclature?

A

Single mutation in an inbred strain (usually spontaneous)

Strain - gene (in italics) (C3H/HeSn-ash/+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a congenic strain? Nomenclature?

A

Short chromosomal segment of interest was transferred from another strain or stock from repeated backcrossing (at least 10 backcross generations)

Background strain.donor strain - allele (B6.AKR-H2^k)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is an insipient congenic? Nomenclature?

A

Backcrossing for a congenic strain is incomplete (N5-9)

Background strain;donor strain - allele (B6;129-Abc^tm12zz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a consomic strain? Nomenclature?

A

A chromosome has been transferred from a donor strain to a background strain

Host strain - Chr#^Donor strain (C57BL/6J-Chr 19^SPR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a conplastic strain? Nomenclature?

A

Male nuclear genome of one inbred strain is backcrossed to female cytoplasmic genome of another strain for at least 10 generations

Male strain - mt^female strain (C57BL/6J-mt^BALB/c)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is a segregating inbred strain? Nomenclature?

A

Inbred strain in which a particular allele/mutation is maintained in a heterozygous state. Maintained by inbreeding 20+ generations with forced heterozygosity at each generation for the locus of interest

Nomenclature like a normal inbred strain but allele is italicized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the nomenclature for a transgenic strain?

A

Strain - Tg, mode of insertion, (inserted DNA), number assigned, lab code

Ex. FVB/N - TgN(MBP)1Xxx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does CRISPR stand for?

A

Clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Nude mouse

A

Foxn1^nu (Chromosome 11; spontaneous)

Blocks normal thymic epithelium dev. –> No T cell development in thymus, but extrathymic T cell differentiation pathways functional –> Leaky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

SCID mouse

A

Prkdc^scid (Chromosome 16; spontaneous)

Defect in repair of ds DNA breaks –> VDJ recombination does not occur and functional B and T cells can’t develop –> No B or T cells

Leaky w/ age

Very sensitive to irradiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Rag1/Rag2 mice

A

Rag1^tm1 or Rag2^tm1 (Chromosome 2, GEM)

KO Rag gene –> Unable to initiate VDJ recombination –> No functional T or B cells (Earlier in VDJ process so no leakiness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

NOD mouse

A

Non-obese diabetic, polygenic

Type 1 diabetes due to immune-mediated destruction of pancreatic islets

Immunoweird - Defects in antigen presentation, T cell regulation, NK cell function, cytokine production, lack complement C5

Background for higher order immunodeficients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Beige mouse

A

Lyst^bg (Chromosome 13, spontaneous)

Lysosomal storage disease –> Model for Chediak-Higashi syndrome

Reduced granulocyte bactericidal activity and NK cell deficient

Beige colored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

XID mouse

A

Btk^xid (X Chromosome, spontaneous)

Brunton’s tyrosine kinase mutation (important for B cell maturation and signaling) –> B cell deficiency

Model of X-linked agammaglobulinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Moth-eaten mouse

A

Ptpn6^me (Chromosome 6, spontaneous)

Protein tyrosine phosphatase, non-receptor type 6 –> Deficiency of NK and cytotoxic T cells

Name refers to moth-eaten coat secondary to folliculitis

Used to study apoptosis and autoimmune syndromes

Short lifespan (3 weeks in homozygotes due to autoimmune pneumonitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Gamma-c null mouse

A

X chromosome

Signaling component for many cytokines –> Deficiency in B and T cells, no NK cells –> Severe combined immunodeficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

NSG or NRG

A

Lack B, T and NK cells

Engrafts widest range of solid and hematolymphoid cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

NSGS

A

Same as NSG + Tgs to support engraftment of human hematopoietic lineages

CMV-IL3 = Human IL-3; Supports hematopoietic stem cell, megakaryocyte, basophil and eosinophil development

CSF2 = Human GM-CSF; myeloid differentiation

KITLG = Human KIT ligand; supports myeloid engraftment and mast cell development (Binds human and mouse orthologs)

Used for creation of humanized mice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

MRL.lpr mouse

A

Fas^lpr: Lymphoproliferation spontaneous mutation in the apoptosis-signaling receptor Fas antigen; premature termination of transcription

Hypergammaglobulinemia, anti-dsDNA autoantibodies, massive lymphadenopathy (proliferation of T-cells), glomerulonephritis, splenomegaly

Spontaneous model of SLE and Sjogren syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Gld mouse

A

Fasl^gld: Fas ligand mutation –> Generalized lymphoproliferative diseaes

Autoimmunity similar to lpr mouse

Increased B and T cells and massive lymphadenopathy

Clinical signs dep on background strain

Spontaneous model of autoimmunity/SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

BXSB.yaa mouse

A

Recombinant inbred strain derived from B6 and SB/Le mice

Y chromosome autoimmune accelerator locus (yaa) –> Autoimmunity to self-antigens, glomerulonephritis, splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy in MALE mice only

Mortality by 6 months

Spontaneous model of autoimmunity/SLE

67
Q

BWF1 mouse

A

NZB x NZW outcross

One of the most well-characterized models of murine lupus (spontaneous)

Glomerulonephritis and systemic autoimmunity

68
Q

ApoE KO mice

A

Apolipoprotein E involved in fat metabolism

Mice develop aortic atherosclerotic plaques similar to humans when fed a regular diet

Model of CV disease

69
Q

LDL receptor KO (LDLR KO) mice

A

Model of CV disease

Less overt w/ slower growing plaques when fed a normal diet, but severe aortic atherosclerotic lesions when fed high fat/cholesterol diet

70
Q

ob mouse

A

Obese mouse

Circulating leptin deficient –> Morbid obesity, hyperglycemia, hyperinsulinemia, dyslipidemia

71
Q

db mouse

A

Diabetes mouse (Recessive mutation)

Leptin receptor dysfunction –> Model of leptin resistance

72
Q

Mahogany (mg) mouse

A

Mutation in the attractin gene that makes mice resistant to diet-induced obesity

Leaner than wt mice

73
Q

tubby (tb) mouse

A

Late-onset obesity w/o diabetes

Deafness and retinal degeneration

74
Q

Lethal yellow agouti (A^Y) mouse as a model of obesity

A

Moderate to late-onset obesity, hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance

Dominant mutation on chromosome 2

Homozygotes –> Pre-implantation lethality

75
Q

NZO mouse

A

Inbred strain bred for increased BW (Can be massively obese)

Model for metabolic syndrome

Fat stored primarily in abdomen, hyperinsulinemic, but not severely hyperglycemis

76
Q

KK mouse

A

Inbred strain bred for increased body weight (moderate obesity)

Hyperinsulinemia and impaired glucose tolerance

77
Q

Wellesley mouse

A

F1 hybrid between C3H and I

Hyperinsulinemia and mod. hyperglycemic

78
Q

Which mouse strain is used in immunology as a source of Thy1.1 antigen? Other main use of this strain?

A

AKR

Develop spontaneous leukemia –> Used in cancer biology

79
Q

The A mouse has a high incidence of spontaneously and chemically-induced _____

A

Lung adenomas –> Used for cancer biology research

80
Q

What strain is known to form plasmacytomas after injection with mineral oil?

A

BALB/c

81
Q

What condition is the DBA/1 mouse used to model?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

Immunization w/ type II collagen –> Development of severe autoimmune polyarthritis

82
Q

What two common strains often exhibit acallosity?

A

BALB/c and 129

83
Q

What common strain spontaneously develops reticulum cell sarcomas resembling Hodgkin’s disease?

A

SJL

84
Q

What strain develops nephrogenic diabetes insipidus with age?

A

SWR

85
Q

NZB/B1N mouse

A

High incidence of IMHA and model for SLE

Autoimmunity, hemolytic anemia, proteinuria and immune complex glomerulonephritis (more severe in females)

Agouti

86
Q

What 5 common strains are blind by weaning? Due to what mutation?

A

FVB, C3H, SJL, SWR, CBA

Pde6d^rd1 mutation

87
Q

What 6 common strains develop progressive hearing loss? Due to what mutation?

A

129, A, BALB/c, C57BL, DBA/1 and 2, NOD

Cdh23^ahl mutation

88
Q

A/J mice are used as a model for what human condition?

A

Dysferlin-deficient muscular dystrophy

Homozygous retrotransposon insertion into the dysferlin gene (Dysf^prmd)

89
Q

AKR mice have a very high incidence of ____ lymphoma

A

Thymic

90
Q

What strain was developed by selecting for high mammary tumor incidence associated with MMTV?

A

C3H

Today, most have been cesarian rederived to eliminate exogenous MMTV, but endogenous still present –> Delayed tumor onset

91
Q

What two commonly used strains is predisposed to developing acidophilic crystalline pneumonia and hyalinosis?

A

C57BL and 129

92
Q

What strain commonly develops persistent mammary hyperplasia?

A

FVB/N

93
Q

SJL/J mice are used to model what two human diseases?

A

Hodgkin’s disease and limb girdle muscular dystrophy 2B (Dysf^im mutation)

Also susceptible to experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis

94
Q

You perform a gram stain on an impression smear taken of a mouse liver containing white nodules. You see gram positive bacteria in Chinese letter-like configurations. What is the bacterium?

A

Corynebacterium kutscheri

95
Q

What is the most common causative agent of botryomycosis in mice? What is the name of the common histo finding?

A

Staphylococcus spp.
Splendore Hoeppli material

96
Q

On histology from a sick mouse, you see perivascular granulomatosis with accumulations of large, foamy epithelioid macrophages. What is the likely causative agent? What stain should you use to look for it?

A

Mycobacterium spp.

Acid/fast stain –> Fite-Faraco, Ziehl-Nielsen, Kinyoun

B6 and BALB/c susceptible and DBA/2, C3H resistant

97
Q

What is the expected gross appearance of the lungs from a mouse with respiratory mycoplasmosis?

A

A cobblestone appearance

98
Q

What is the appropriate stain to use when you suspect CAR bacillus infection?

A

Warthin-Starry silver stain

99
Q

What is the causative agent of Tyzzer’s disease?

A

Clostridium piliforme (only gram negative clostridium)

Obligate intracellular, spore-forming bacillus

100
Q

You suspect Tyzzer’s disease as the cause for a spate of unexpected deaths in a mouse colony. What are the expected gross and histo findings? Best stain(s) to look for causative agent? Resistant and susceptible strains?

A

Necrosis in liver and intestine (not usually heart)

Coagulative necrosis with intracellular pick-up-sticks

Silver, Geimsa or PAS stain

Susceptible = DBA/2, CBA/N, C3
Resistant = C57BL/6, AL/N, A/HeN, AKR/N, CBA/CaHN, C3H/HeN+, NNIH

101
Q

What is the causative agent of transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia? What is the hallmark gross pathologic finding? What strains are resistant and susceptible?

A

Citrobacter rodentium (gram negative rod)

Severe thickening of descending colon

Susceptible = C3H/H3J, AKR, FVB
Resistant = DBA, BALB/c, B6, NIH Swiss

102
Q

What is the best way to keep Pseudomonas aeruginosa out of your mouse colonies?

A

Acidify or hyperchlorinate the drinking water

103
Q

What strains are susceptible to Helicobacter-associated hepatitis? What strains are resistant?

A

Susceptible = A/J, SCID NCr, BALB/c, C3H/HeNCr, SJL/NCr

Resistant = C57BL/6J

104
Q

Ectromelia virus - DNA or RNA virus? Enveloped or non-enveloped? Family and genus?

A

Enveloped DNA virus
Poxviridae family and orthopox genus

105
Q

What strains are highly susceptible to ectromelia virus? Resistant?

A

Susceptible = BALB/c, A, DBA, C3H, SWR
Resistant = C57BL/6, AKR, SJL

106
Q

What is pathognomonic for ectromelia virus?

A

Lesions in the liver, spleen and intestine with intracytoplasmic inclusions

107
Q

Mouse cytomegalovirus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or non-enveloped? Family? Subfamily? Genus?

A

Enveloped DNA virus

Family = Herpesviridae, Subfamily = Betaherpesvirinae, Genus = Muromegalovirus

108
Q

Expected histo findings in a mouse infected by cytomegalovirus?

A

Megalocytes with intranuclear and/or cytoplasmic inclusions in the salivary glands

109
Q

Strains susceptible to cytomegalovirus? Resistant?

A

Susceptible = BALB/c, A
Resistant = B6, B10, CBA, C3H

110
Q

Mouse thymic virus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family? Subfamily? Genus?

A

Enveloped DNA virus

Family = Herpesviridae, Subfamily = Betaherpesvirinae, Genus = Muromegalovirus

111
Q

Minute virus of mice - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family?

A

Non-enveloped, DNA virus

Family = Parvoviridae

112
Q

Mouse parvovirus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family?

A

Non-enveloped, DNA virus
Family = Parvoviridae

113
Q

Murineadenovirus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family? Genus?

A

Non-enveloped, DNA virus
Family = Adenoviridae, Genus = Mastadenovirus

114
Q

What strains are susceptible to adenovirus? Resistant?

A

Susceptible = <3wk, B6, DBA/2, SJL, SWR, outbred CD-1
Resistant = BALB/c, C3H/HeJ

115
Q

Histo findings associated with adenovirus infection?

A

Intranuclear inclusions in intestinal epithelium especially distal SI

116
Q

Polyomavirus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family?

A

Non-enveloped, DNA virus
Family = Polyomaviridae

117
Q

K virus (murine pneumotropic virus) - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family?

A

Non-enveloped, DNA virus
Family = Polyomaviridae

118
Q

Lactate dehydrogenase elevating virus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family? Genus?

A

RNA, enveloped virus
Family = Arteriviridae, Genus = Arterivirus

119
Q

Clinical sign seen in immunodeficient mice infected with LDV? Route of infection?

A

Poliomyelitis
Route - Mechanical transfer (aggression), contaminated biologics

120
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family? Genus?

A

Enveloped, RNA virus
Family = Arenaviridae, Genus = Arenavirus

121
Q

How is LCMV transmitted? Clinical signs in people?

A

Contact, aerosol, vertical, biologics

In people, CS = Flu-like symptoms to severe CNS dz

122
Q

Sendai virus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family? Genus?

A

Enveloped, RNA virus
Family = Paramyxoviridae, Genus = Respirovirus

123
Q

Gross pathology associated with Sendai virus infection in a mouse?

A

Partial to complete lung consolidation, plum colored serosanguinous froth

124
Q

Cell tropism of Sendai virus?

A

Airway epithelium and type II pneumocytes

125
Q

Rotavirus (EDIM) - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family?

A

Non-enveloped, RNA virus
Family = Reoviridae

126
Q

Mouse hepatitis virus (LIVIM) - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family?

A

Enveloped, RNA virus
Family = Coronaviridae

127
Q

Gross pathology expected in a mouse pup infected with mouse hepatitis virus?

A

Empty stomach, runted, yellow-white foci in multiple tissues (liver)

128
Q

Theiler’s mutine encephalomyelitis virus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family? Genus?

A

Non-enveloped, RNA virus
Family = Picornoviridae, Genus = Cardiovirus

129
Q

Clinical sign of TMEV? Susceptible strains? Resistant?

A

Flaccid posterior paralysis

Susceptible = SJL, DBA/2, C3H/He, SWR, PLJ
Resistant = BALB/c, B6, A, 129

130
Q

Mouse norovirus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family? Genus?

A

Non-enveloped, RNA virus

Family = Caliciviridae, Genus = Norovirus

131
Q

Hantavirus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Family?

A

Enveloped, RNA virus

Family = Bunyaviridae

132
Q

Mammary tumor virus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Genus?

A

Enveloped, RNA virus

Genus = Betaretrovirus

Retroelement

133
Q

Mouse leukemia virus - DNA or RNA? Enveloped or not? Genus?

A

Enveloped, RNA virus

Genus = Gammaretrovirus

Retroelement

134
Q

Strains that develop MMTV associated mammary carcinoma?

A

C3H, DBA, GRS, SJL

135
Q

Strains that develop MLV associated lymphoma?

A

AKR (thymic), BALB/c (late onset multicentric lymphoma)

136
Q

Myobia musculi

A

Fur mite of mice

Non-burrowing, found at base of hair shaft (head, neck, shoulders, flank)

Feeds on extracellular tissue fluids –> Immune sensitization of the host

Spread by direct contact

Dx: Skin scrape, tape test

Tx: Ivermectin and chlorpyrifos

137
Q

Mycoptes musculinus

A

Mange mite

Non-burrowing, fur mite (face, head, neck, inguinal regions, base of tail)

Feeds on superficial epidermal tissue

Dx: Tape test, direct exam of pelage

Tx: Ivermectin and chlorpyrifos

138
Q

Psoregates simplex

A

Burrowing mite (all stages within a single hair follicle/lesion)

Transmission by direct contact

CS = Small white subdermal nodules, variable pruritis, auricular mange

Tx: Ivermectin

139
Q

Radfordia affinis

A

Non-burrowing, fur mite

Second pair of claws with uneven length

Pathogenesis, CS, Dx and Tx similar to M. musculi

140
Q

Ornithonyssus bacoti

A

Tropical rat mite

Crazy legs

Rats and mice

CS = Intense pruritis, anemia, debilitation, infertility, death

Dx = ID of engorged mite

Tx = Malathion, chlorpyrifos, ivermectin

Dz vector

141
Q

Sarcoptes scabei

A

Burrowing mite

Wide host range, zoonotic

142
Q

Liponyssoides sanguineus

A

House mouse mite

Mice, rats and humans (primarily wild rodents)

Bloodsucking, only on host when feeding

Causes rash in humans and vector for rickettsial pox (R. akari)

143
Q

Demodex musculi

A

Cigar-shaped

Transmitted during nursing

Found in follicles

Dx = Deep skin scrape, hair plucks, histology

144
Q

Polyplax serrata

A

Common louse of lab mice

Eggs on the base of hair shafts

CS = Erythema, pruritis, anemia, restlessness

Dx = Exam of pelage, tape test

Tx = Rederivation

Transmit Mycoplasma coccoides, Francisella tularensis

145
Q

Polyplax spinulosa

A

Spined rat louse

Rats, mice, voles, GPs

Eggs near skin

CS = Unthrifty, restless, pruritis, dermatitis, anemia

Transmits Rickettsia typhi, Mycoplasma haemomuris, Trypanosoma lewisi, Brucella brucei, Borrelia duttoni

146
Q

What type of stain is used to visualize Pneumocystis species on histology?

A

Silver stains

147
Q

Ringworm of mice and GPs? Dx?

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

Dx = Hair pluck from periphery of lesion, deep skin scrape, staining of histo section with silver stain or Schiff’s reagent, culture

Tx = Rederivation

148
Q

Hymenolepis/rodentolepis nana

A

Dwarf tapeworm - infects mice, rats, humans

Eggs have prominent polar filaments and rostellar hooks

CS = Weight loss and focal enteritis in young mice

Only cestode that does not require an intermediate host

PPP = 20-30 days

Dx = Fecal float, open intestine in peri dish of warm tap water to see adults

Tx = Praziquantel, albendazole, mebendazole, thiabendazole

149
Q

Syphacia obvelata

A

Mouse pinworm

Eggs flattened on one side with pointed ends

CS = Usually subclinical; rectal prolapse, intussusception, enteritis, fecal impaction

Direct lifecycle, fecal-oral

Worms mature and mate in cecum and females lay eggs on perineal skin

Dx = Tape test, PCR of fecal pellets

Tx = Piperazine, ivermectin, benzimidazole compounds, fenbendazole + decontamination

150
Q

Aspiculuris tetraptera

A

Mouse pinworm

Ellipsoidal eggs

CS = Usually subclinical; rectal prolapse, intussusception, enteritis, fecal impaction

Direct lifecycle

Lay eggs in LI

Dx = Fecal

151
Q
A
151
Q

How can you differentiate Myobia musculi from Radfordia affinis?

A

Myobia –> One claw on second pair of legs

Radfordia –> Two asymmetric claws on second pair of legs

152
Q

Strains known for soft tissue mineralization of the heart?

A

BALB/c, C3H, DBA

153
Q

What strain is known to develop Reye’s like syndrome? What is it?

A

BALB/cByJ

Rapidly deteriorating encephalopathy secondary to hepatic dysfunction and hyperammonia

Swollen, pale liver and kidneys

154
Q

What strains commonly exhibit acallosity?

A

BALB/c and 129

155
Q

What strains are prone to audiogenic seizures?

A

DBA/2, SJL, LP

156
Q

Strains that are homozygous for the Pde6d^rd1 mutation? Phenotype?

A

C3H, FVB, SJL, FVB, CBA, SWR

Blindness due to rod degeneration

157
Q

What type of neoplasia do C3H mice develop? Why?

A

Mammary tumors (100% of females by 9 months)

Endogenous MMTVs

158
Q

What strain is highly susceptible to pulmonary adenomas/adenocarcinomas?

A

A

159
Q

What strains are especially prone to hepatocellular tumors?

A

A and DBA

160
Q

What strains are prone to pituitary gland adenomas and what do those adenomas produce?

A

B6, Swiss mice, FVB/N

Prolactin

161
Q

Mice have an absolute requirement for a dietary source of what essential fatty acids?

A

Linoleic and arachadonic acid

162
Q
A

ACLAM Boards (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions