Med Law Slides Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the Constitution

A
-Separation of powers
 (establish branches) 
-form a central government (framework) 
-power to tax 
-Federalism 
-Civil Rights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the supreme law of the land

A

The US constitution since 1787

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the constitution provide:

A

A republican form of government for free and independent states

A federation by which powers are allocated to the central government and others to the state

And a separation of legislative, executive, and judicial branches of government

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the basic principles of the constitution

A

Government by the people

All states equal

3 branches of Gov

All persons equal

Inherent rights of the people

Gov authority can be changed by altering the constitution

Is the highest law in the land

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many articles are in the constitution

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many amendments are in the constitution

A

27 total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are teh 1 ten amendments of the constitution considered

A

The bill of rights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why do we have a military justice system

A

Promote Justice

Maintain Good order and discipline

Promote efficiency and effectiveness

Strengthen National security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the definition of a law

A

A system of rules that defines socially acceptable behavior and sets punishments for violations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference in Criminal and Civil law determination

A

Criminal is beyond a reasonable doubt

Civil is by the preponderance of evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three sources of law

A

Statutes

Common Law

Administrative Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a statute

A

A written law passed by a legislature of the state or federal government

General propositions that courts apply to specific situations

Used to forbid certain acts to aid society

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of law is the UCMJ

A

Statutory Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Common Law

A

Unwritten law that is based on general principles

Developed by judges and courts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define administrative law

A

Concerning the establishment and operation of gov agencies

Defines duties, rules, and powers of government agencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What type of law is OSHA and DoD regulations

A

Administrative Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the definition of a contract

A

A legally binding agreement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the elements of a contract

A
  • competent parties
  • legal subject
  • OFFER
  • ACCEPTANCE
  • CONSIDERATION
  • mutual agreement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the types of contracts that are valid

A

Written, oral, expressed, or implied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of contract is a lease agreement

A

Express contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of contract is babysitting or mowing a persons lawn

A

Implied contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the two types of remedies sought in contracts

A

Specific performance and damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When would specific damages be applied

A

When monetary damages are inadequate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the primary purpose of damage awards under contract law

A

To place the injured party in the position they would have been in if the contract had been performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an elemental contract defense

A

States that an element requires for contract formation is missing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a performance/ satisfaction contract defense

A

The parties have accepted the contract performance as adequate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a impossibility contract defense

A

Something happens after contract formation that makes the contract impossible or impracticable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is sovereign immunity

A

The sovereign or state cannot commit a legal wrong and is immune from civil suit or criminal prosecution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a frustration of performance contract defense

A

Events occur or circumstances arise which substantially frustrate a party’s purpose in entering the contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a statute of limitations

A

Sets the maximum time after an event when legal proceeding may be initiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is res judicata

A

A case in which there has been a final judgment and is no longer subject to appeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What law governments commercial contracts

A

State Law
Admin law does not apply
Changes must be approved unanimously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a civil lawsuit

A

A lawsuit brought about in court when one person claims to have suffered a loss due to the actions of another person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is civil liability

A

Responsibility for payment of damages, or for other court imposed penalties in a civil lawsuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define negligence

A

Failure to exercise a degree of care that would be taken by another reasonable person under the same circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is a Tort?

A

A non-contractual civil wrong

  • Against a person (real or corporate)
  • Against a persons property
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is meant by tortious conduct

A

A wrongful act, damage, or injury, not involving contractual obligation
-done willfully or negligently
(Civil suit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are three types of tort

A

Torts of strict liability
Intentional torts
Negligent torts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define strict liability tort

A

Activities so dangerous that an individual engaging in those activities is liable regardless of intent or negligence resulting in harm.

Ex) blasting or owning a dangerous animal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Surgery without informed consent is…

A

Both an intentional tort and a criminal act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the types of intentional torts

A
Assault 
Abandonment 
Defamation 
False imprisonments 
Violation of the right of privacy 
Intentional infliction of emotional distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the elements of strict liability torts

A

The tort occurred

The defendant is responsible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the elements of negligent tort

A
Duty 
Negligent Breach 
Causation 
Injury 
Damages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is a negligent tort

A

A breach of duty, other than contractual duty, which gives rise to a cause of action from damages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the standard of duty under negligent tort

A

What an ordinary person with common sense would do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the definition of causation under negligence tort

A

An injury was a reasonably foreseeable consequence of a breach of duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are damages awarded for in torts of negligence

A

Compensation for a financial loss, loss of or damage to personal property, or an injury to a person.

48
Q

How are damages awarded under contract law

A

Applies in breach of contract actions

Awarded to compensate the injured party

To place the injured party in the position they would have been in the contract was performed.

49
Q

What defines negligent medical torts

A

Failure to need the standard of care

  • failure to consult
  • failure to refer
  • failure to obtain informed consent
  • abandonment
  • breach of confidentiality
50
Q

What is the Good Samaritan defense

A

Legal protection to people who give reasonable assistance to those who are, or who they believe to be, inured, ill, in peril, or otherwise incapacitated

51
Q

What is the assumption of risk tort defense

A

Once a person has knowingly and voluntarily engaged in the risky activity, he cannot sue the host for injuries or damages incurred

52
Q

What is contributory negligence

A

If negligent conduct on the part of the plaintiff/injured party contributes to the negligence of the defendant in caused the injury or damage, the plaintiff is barred from recovery

-if you were also negligent then it was your fault too.

53
Q

What is comparative negligence

A

A partial legal defense that reduces the amount of damages that a plaintiff can recover in a negligence-based claim, based upon the degree to which the plaintiffs own negligence contributed to causes the injury.

54
Q

What is vicarious liability

A

A hospital or doctor can be held vicariously liable for a claim based on the acts of one of its employees

55
Q

What is respondeat superior

A

Let the master answer

56
Q

What is res ipsa loquitur

A

A doctrine which applies when the negligence is so apparent, a presumption of the breach of duty leading to the action or occurrence can be made by the court.

57
Q

Who can be negligent under med mal practice

A
Health care providers 
Social Workers 
Counselors 
Assistants 
Institutions 
MTF commanders
58
Q

What is the standard of care

A

RPPUTC

The Reasonably Prudent Person Under The Circumstances

59
Q

What is the locality rule

A

The standard of care to be applied to the professionals conduct is the reasonable care exercised by similar professionals in the same vicinity and professional community

60
Q

What is the National/ profesional rule of standard of care

A

Requires a doctor to the use the degree of skill and care of a reasonable competent practitioner in his field under same or similar circumstances

61
Q

How are standards of care determined

A
Statutes 
Federal agencies 
Regulations and Rules 
ByLaws 
Textbooks 
Job descriptions 
Expert Witness
62
Q

What is the Daubert Standard and where does it come from

A

The rule of evidence that determines whether an expert witness is admissible as a form of evidence at trail

Duabert v. Merrill Dow Pharma

63
Q

What is rule 702

A

Sets the parameters for expert witness

64
Q

What does res ipsa loquitur literally mean

A

“The thing speaks for itself”

65
Q

What doctrine would a hospital be liable if it fails to uphold a proper standard of care to the patient

A

Corporate negligence

66
Q

What does the term vicarious liability mean

A

Aka imputed liability

Assigns liability to an individual who did not actually cause the harm but who has a specific superiors legal relationship to the person who did

67
Q

What must an employee be within for respondeat superior to apply?

A

Within the scope of their employment

68
Q

What is a Potentially compensable event

A

An adverse event that occurs in the delivery of healthcare or services with resulting injury to the patient

69
Q

How are providers reported to the national practitioner data bank

A

If they are found not to have met the Standard of Care in a medical mal case

70
Q

Who makes the final decision on Standard of Care evaluation

A

The Surgeon General

71
Q

What is the National Practitioner Data Bank

A

A collection of reports on medical mal prac payments made on behalf of health care providers

72
Q

What is the Defense Practitioner Data Bank

A

Accounts for personal injury or death of service members caused by the failure of a practitioner to meet the profesional standard of care.

73
Q

What is the health care integrity and protection data bank

A

Contains information on important health care related criminal convictions

74
Q

What is the American theory of damages

A

The amount of money necessary to make the injured party whole

75
Q

What are the types of damages in Tort

A

Compensatory
Punitive
Special
General

76
Q

What are nominal damages

A

Token damages awarded to redress a violation of a legal right that the law deems necessary to protect. Even if there has been no actual harm or monetary loss

Damages affirm that a legal right has been violated

77
Q

What is the difference between special and general damages

A

Special- financial losses of monetary value directly caused by the defendants actions

General- money awarded for things for which the value is more difficult to determine

78
Q

Are additurs allowed in federal court

A

NO

79
Q

What is an additur

A

The power of a trial court to assess damages or increase a jury award of damages found to be excessively low

80
Q

What is a remittitur

A

A ruling by a judge lowering the amount of damages granted by a jury in a civil case

81
Q

What is the federal tort claims act…

A

Waiver of sovereign immunity that allows individuals to sue the US for neglect acts of US government personnel acting within the scope of employment

82
Q

What are the exceptions to liability under the federal tort claims act

A

Employees intentional acts

Claims raising from combat
Claims arising in foreign countries
Service-members injured incident to service or while exercising a military privilege.

83
Q

Federal tort claims act uses what doctrine to make the government reliable

A

Respondeat Superior

84
Q

What does the Federal Tort Claims act gov agents from

A

Personal liability for harm resulting from their negligent IN SCOPE torts

85
Q

What is the feres doctrine

A

The government is not liable under the FTCA for injuries to service embers when those injuries arose out of, or were in the course of, activities incident to service.

86
Q

How long does the US government have to process a FTCA claim>

A

6 months

87
Q

If a party is not satisfied with the outcome in a FTCA claim, what can they do next?

A

File suit in Federal District Court

88
Q

What are the rules and limits to the FTCA

A
2 year statute of limitations 
Trial by judge alone ( no jury) 
Trial in district US court 
No limit on damages 
NO PUNITIVE DAMAGES
89
Q

To use the FTCA, a plaintiff must first….

A

Submit an administrative claim to the responsible federal agency prior to the initiation of a lawsuit

90
Q

What is the motion for party substitution

A

When the US “steps into the shoes” of employees who acted within the scope of their employment in FTCA claim

91
Q

What are the three proper claimants under the FTCA

A

Civilians
Dependents
Retirees

92
Q

Where is the military claims act valid

A

Overseas and is administrative only

93
Q

What are the rules of the military claims act

A
2 year SoL (extended during war) 
Administrative only 
No right to a trial 
Damages in excess of 100,000 must be forward to the Comptroller General 
No punitive damages
94
Q

What does the foreign claims act do

A

Operates overseas to promote and to maintain friendly relations through prompt payment of meritorious claims

95
Q

When does the foreign claims act not apply

A

When the claimant is an enemy of the US

Or is resulting from enemy actions

96
Q

What provided immunity to doctors acting within the scope of their duties in the military

A

Gonzales act/ FELRTCA

Federal employees liability reform and tort compensation act

97
Q

What is the Military medical accountability act

A

Passed in 2019
Allows claims against the US for injuries and deaths of a solider caused by medical malpractice that occurs in a covered military medical facility

Cannot be from before 2017
Limited to 100,000 by the DoD
Over 100,000 by US treasury
(NO PUNITIVE DAMAGES)

98
Q

Who determines capacity to consent

A

Determined by a physician

99
Q

What information much a patient receive in order to make an informed consent

A

Procedure
Alternatives
Risk and Benefits
Questions

100
Q

What is the difference between reasonable physician standard and reasonable patient standard

A

Physician- what a reasonable physician would disclose

Patient- what an reasonable patients would consider material before making a decision

101
Q

What determines the ability to make a decision

A

Legal age

To take in, process, and communicate information

102
Q

What is the difference of capacity and competence

A

Capacity is a medical determination or ability

Competence is a legal determination adjudged by the court

103
Q

What are exceptions to informed consent

A
Patient waiver 
Emergency 
Therapeutic privilege 
Order by court 
Required by law 
Non consensual treatment permitted by law
104
Q

Medical care furnished without consent may be considered assault under which UCMJ article

A

Article 128

105
Q

What must hospitals provide at the time of admission

A

Advance Directives

106
Q

What are the three types of Advanced Directives

A

DNR
Durable Medical Power of Attorney
Living Will

107
Q

Define power of attorney

A

A written document that appoints another persons to act on their behalf
General or specific
Requires legal capacity

Terminates when the granger dies or becomes incompetent

108
Q

What is a durable power of attorney

A

Same as a Power of attorney except
it continues beyond incapacity and death of grantor

Most often used for health care issues

109
Q

What is a living will

A

General used for terminal illnesses
Takes effect at start of medical problem
Provides instructions to HC providers

110
Q

What are the states with death with divinity statues

A

Oregon, Washington, Vermont, Californian, colorado and Hawaii

111
Q

What are the rules for death with dignity

A

Terminally Ill prognosis form at least 2 different doctors

Evaluation from a mental health professional from capacity

Request for life ending meds made at least 20 days apart

2 witness cant be relatives
Death witnessed by non interested party

112
Q

What is the freedom of information act

A

Since 1967

Provided the public the right to request access to records from any federal agency

113
Q

What are the exceptions to the freedom of information act

A

Properly classified secret information

Related solely to internal personnel rules and practices

Excerpted by other statutes

Trade secrets

Privileges letters or memoranda

Personnel medical files

Law enforcement investigations

Maps

114
Q

What is the privacy law

A

Enacted in 1974

Ensures that no secret files are kept on US citizens

115
Q

What is HIPAA

A

Enacted in 1996
Provided the first nationally recognized regulations for the use/disclosure of individuals health information

Protected health information