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IPAP 21-2 Freshman Semester > AP HEAD NECK AND TORSO > Flashcards

AP HEAD NECK AND TORSO Flashcards

1
Q

How many bones in human body

A

206

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2
Q

Why do kids have more bones than adults

A

Because some bones fuse during development

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3
Q

What are the two parts of the skeleton

A

Axial Skeleton

Appendicular Skeleton

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4
Q

What are the basic types of bones

A
  • long
  • short
  • flat
  • irregular
  • sesamoid
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5
Q

Where are sutures located

A

In joints between bones of the skull

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6
Q

Describe long bones

A 
Are greater in length than in width
Consist of shaft and extremities (end) 
slight surged for strength and distribute stress 
Mostly compact bone in the diaphysis 
Commonly spongy bone in the epiphyses
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7
Q

What are examples of long bones

A

Femur, tibia, humerus, ulna, radius

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8
Q

Describe short bones

A

Nearly equal in length and width
Consist of spongy bone tissue except at surface
Surface is a thin layer of compact bone tissue

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9
Q

Examples of short bones

A

Carpal bones of the wrist

Remember PISIFORM is a sesamoid bone

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10
Q

Describe flat bones

A

Generally thin
Consist of two parallel plates of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone
Provide protection
Areas for muscle attachment

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11
Q

Examples of flat bones

A

Cranial bones, sternum, ribs, scapulae

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12
Q

Describe sesamoid bones

A

Develop in certain tendons that have considerable friction, tension.
Protect tendons from excessive wear and tear
-may change direction of pull of a tendon

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13
Q

Example of sesamoid bones

A

Patella,

Sesamoid

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14
Q

Describe sutural bones

A

NOT THE SAME AS SUTURES
Classified by location not shape
Call bones that are located in sutures between cranial bones

Formed due to additional ossification centers in or near sutures

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15
Q

Describe irregular bones

A

Complies shapes that prevent grouping them into typical bone groups

-vary in the amount of spongy and compact bones

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16
Q

Examples of irregular bones

A

Vertebrae, hip bones, calcaneus

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17
Q

What are processes

A

Projections or outgrowths

Either help form joints or serve as attachment points for connective tissue

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18
Q

What parts of bone allow for passage of soft tissue and participate in joints

A

Depressions and openings

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19
Q

What is the difference between the origin and the insertion of muscles

A

Origin: is the on the bone that does not move when the muscle shortens/ contracts

(Normally proximal)

Insertion: is the bone that moves with contraction

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20
Q

How do we name muscles

A 
Patterns of fascicles 
Size 
Shape 
Action
Number of origins 
Location
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21
Q

What are the 7 fascicle arrangements of muscles

A 
Unipennate 
Bipennate 
Multipennate 
Triangular 
Circular 
Fusiform 
Parallel
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22
Q

Describe parallel fascicles

A

Fascicles are parallel to the longitudinal axis of the muscle
terminate at either end in flat tendons

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23
Q

describe fusifrom fascicle formation

A

Fascicles nearly parallel to the longitudinal axis of muscle

terminate in flat tendons where diameter is less that at the belly

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24
Q

This of processes as….

A

Muscle attachment points

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25
Q

What is a fossa

A

A shallow depression in a bone

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26
Q

What is a Foramen

A

A hole

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27
Q

What is a meatus

A

A tube like opening

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28
Q

What is a condyle

A

Large, round protuberance at the end of a bone

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29
Q

What is a facet

A

Smoot flat articular surface

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30
Q

What is a crest

A

Prominent ridge or elongated projection

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31
Q

What is a line/línea

A

A long narrow ridge or border, less prominent than a crest

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32
Q

What is a spinous process

A

Sharpe slender projection

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33
Q

What is a trochanter

A

Very large projection

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34
Q

What is tubercle

A

Small, rounded projection

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35
Q

What is a tuberosity

A

Large, rounded, usually roughened projection

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36
Q

Describe circular fascicles

A

Aka sphincters

fascicles in concentric circular arrangements

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37
Q

Describe triangular fascicles

A

Convergent

Fascicles that spread over a broad area, and converge at a thick central tendon give the muscle a triangular appearance

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38
Q

Describe Unipennate fascicles

A

Are short in relation to total muscle length, and are arranged on only on side of the tendon

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39
Q

Describe Bipennate fascicles

A

Are arranged on both sides of centrally positions tendons which extend nearly the entire length of the muscle

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40
Q

Describe multipennate fascicles

A

Attach obliquely from many direction to several tendons, which in turn extend nearly the entire length of the muscle

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41
Q

What does rectus mean

A

Parallel to midline

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42
Q

Define transfers

A

Perpendicular to midline

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43
Q

Define oblique

A

Diagonal to midline

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44
Q

Define maximums

A

Means largest

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45
Q

Define medius

A

Means intermediate

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46
Q

Define minimus

A

Means smallest

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47
Q

Define longus

A

means long

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48
Q

Define brevis

A

Means short

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49
Q

Define latissimus

A

Means Widest

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50
Q

Define longissimus

A

Means longest

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51
Q

Define magnus

A

Means Large

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52
Q

Define Major

A

Means Larger

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53
Q

Define minor

A

Means smaller

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54
Q

Define Vastus

A

Means huge

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55
Q

Define Deltoid shape

A

Triangular

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56
Q

Define trapezius shape

A

Trapezoidal

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57
Q

Define serratus shape

A

Saw-toothed

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58
Q

Describe rhomboid shape

A

Diamond shaped

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59
Q

Describe orbicularis shape

A

Circular

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60
Q

Describe pectinate shape

A

Comblike

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61
Q

Define piriformis shape

A

Pear shaped

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62
Q

Describe platys shape

A

Flat

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63
Q

Describe quadratus shape

A

Square shaped, four sided

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64
Q

Describe gracilis shape

A

Slender

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65
Q

Describe flexor action

A

Decreases a joint angle

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66
Q

Describe extensor action

A

Increase a joint angle

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67
Q

Describe abducter action

A

Moves AWAY from midline

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68
Q

Describe adductor action

A

moves a bone CLOSER to midline

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69
Q

Levator action

A

Raises or elevates a body part

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70
Q

Depressor action

A

Lowers or depresses a body part

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71
Q

Supinator action

A

Turns Palm anteriorly

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72
Q

Pronator action

A

Turns palm posteriorly

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73
Q

Sphincter action

A

Decreases the size on an opening

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74
Q

Tensor action

A

Makes a body part rigid

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75
Q

Rotator action

A

Rotates a bone around its longitudinal axis

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76
Q

What is bicep origin number

A

2

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77
Q

What is triceps origin number

A

3

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78
Q

What is quadriceps origin number

A

4

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79
Q

What is the prime mover

A

The agonist

Contracts to cause the desired action

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80
Q

What is the antagonist

A

Stretches and yields to prime mover

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81
Q

Describe a synergistic

A

Contract to stabilize nearby joints

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82
Q

What are fixations

A

Stabilize the origin of the prime mover

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83
Q

What is Hilton’s law

A

Is the observation that a nerve that innervates a joint also told to innervate the muscles that move the joint, and the skin that covers the attachments of those muscles

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84
Q

What fact does Hiltons Law arise from

A

Embryological development

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85
Q

What is entrapment neuropathy

A

Physical compression or irritation of major nerve trunks and peripheral nerves, producing distant nerve pain

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86
Q

Entrapment Neuropathy of the upper limbs

A

Neck
Should
Elbow
Wrist

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87
Q

Entrapment Nueropathy of the neck

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

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88
Q

Entrapment Nueropathy of the shoulder

A

Supra clavicular neuritis

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89
Q

Entrapment Neuropathy of the elbow

A

Ulnar neuritis
Median Neuritis
Radial neuritis

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90
Q

Entrapment neuropathy of the lower limbs

A

Hip
Leg
Foot

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91
Q

Entrapment neuropathy of the hip

A

Piriformis syndrome

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92
Q

Entrapment Neuropathy of the leg

A

Compartment syndrome

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93
Q

Entrapment neuropathy of the foot

A

Tarsal tunnel syndrome.
Medial plantar neuritis
Digital neuritis
Deep Fibular neuritis

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94
Q

S/S of Entrapment neuropathy

A

Symptoms: Tingling, pain
Followed by accompanied reduced sensation of complete numbness

Signs: muscle weakness, associated atrophy

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95
Q

What are the two main circulatory routes

A

Systemic and pulmonary

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96
Q

Where do all systemic arteries Branch from

A

AORTA

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97
Q

What are the four branches of the AORTA

A

Ascending,
ARCH
Thoracic
Abdominal

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98
Q

What are venae comitantes

A

Viens that accompany arteries

are often dedicated as single vessels, but in fact they tend to be multiple vessels

Have the same name as the corresponding artery

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99
Q

How is venous blood warmed as it travels back to the heart

A

By venae comitantes

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100
Q

Define Myotome

A

All the muscles or parts of muscles receiving innervation from one spinal nerve

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101
Q

What does it mean to be “recurrent”

A

That its “running in a reverse” direction

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102
Q

How do the venae comitantes play a role in the arteriovenous pump

A

Veins stretch and flatten as the artery expands during contraction of the heart… milking blood through the veins

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103
Q

What are the layer of the SCALP

Superficial to Deep

A 
S-Skin
C-Connective Tissue 
A-Aponerousis 
L-Loose Connective Tissue 
P- Pericranium
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104
Q

What are the two connective tissues of the scalp

A

Subcutaneous/ Hypodermis

And

Loose CT
(danger space of loose areolar CT)

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105
Q

What three layers of the skin of the scalp are connected and move as a single unit

A

SKIN
CONNECTIVE TISSUE
APONEUROSIS

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106
Q

What area of the scalp can fill with pus, or blood due to infection

A

The loose CT area

Aka the DANGER AREA

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107
Q

How many bones are in the skull

A

22

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108
Q

What are the two parts of the skull

A

Neurocranium and facial skeleton

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109
Q

What is the neurocranium

A

Cranial Vault or Brain Box

Encompasses the brain, cranial meninges, cranial nerves, and associated structures

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110
Q

What composes the Facial Skeleton

A

Anterior part of the skull containing the orbits, nasal cavities, maxilla (upper jaw), mandible (lower jaw).

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111
Q

What is the facial skeleton also called

A

Viscerocranium or Splanchnocranium

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112
Q

What are the bones of the neurocranium

A 
Frontal bone (1) 
Parietal Bones (2) 
Temporal Bones (2) 
Occipital Bone (1) 
Sphenoid Bone (1) 
Ethmoid Bone (1) 
 *8 total*
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113
Q

How are the bones of the neurocranium connected

A

Most are largely flat, curved bones united by fibrous interlocking sutures

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114
Q

What is the space within the neurocranium called

A

Cranial Vault

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115
Q

What are the two parts of the cranial vault

A

Calvaria and Basicranium

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116
Q

What is the calvaria

A

Aka the skullcap

Is the dome like roof of the cranium, made up of the superior portions of the frontal bone, occipital bone, and parietal bones

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117
Q

What is the basicranium,

A

AKA cranial base

Is the floor of the cranium, basically comprising the occipital, sphenoid,
Petrous portion of the temporal bone,
Vomer, palatines, and a portion of the maxillae

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118
Q

What is the function of the 8 cranial bones

A
  • protect the brain and house the ear ossicles

- provide muscle attachments for the jaw, neck, and facial muscles

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119
Q

What is the function of the facial bones

A

-protect delicate sense organs
Like smell, taste, vision

-support entrances to digestive and respiratory systems

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120
Q

What are the 8 cranial bones

A

the same bones as the neurocranium

Frontal
Parietal (2) 
Temporal (2) 
Occipital 
Sphenoid 
And ethmoid
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121
Q

What does the frontal bone form

A 
Forehead
Roof of orbits 
Anterior cranial floor 
Suborbital Margin 
Frontal Sinus
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122
Q

When does the frontal suture close

A

By age 6.

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123
Q

What is the frontal suture called before its closed

A

Metopic suture

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124
Q

What does the parietal bone form

A

Sides and roof of cranial cavity

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125
Q

What does the temporal bones from

A 
Zygonatic process froms part of arch 
External auditory meatus 
Mastoid process
Styloid process 
Stylomastoid  Foramen 
Mandíbula fossa 
Petrous portion 
Caryatid Foramen 
Jugular Foramen
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126
Q

What CN is associated with the stylomastoid Foramen of the temporal bone

A

CN VII

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127
Q

What CN is associated with the petrous portion of the temporal bone

A

CN VIII

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128
Q

What does the occipital bone form

A

Foramen Magnum
Occipital condyles
External occipital protuberance attachment of ligamentum nuchae
Superior and inferior unchallenged lines

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129
Q

What is the keystone bone and why is it called that

A

The sphenoid bone

Because it articulates with all other cranial bones

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130
Q

Where is the sphenoid bone located and what does it compose

A

In the middle part of the base of the skull

Composes ptygoid processes that are attachment sites for jaw muscles

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131
Q

What do the greater wings of the sphenoid bone form

A

The anteriolateral floor of the cranium and the lateral part of the skull

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132
Q

Describe the body of the sphenoid

A

Is a cable like portion holding the sphenoid sinuses

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133
Q

What do the lesser wings of the sphenoid form

A

Part of the orbit of the eye and part of the cranium floor

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134
Q

What are the pterygoid processes

A

Attachment points from muscles that move the mandible

lateral and medial pterygoid muscles on each side

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135
Q

What is the passageway for CN III, IV, VI and CNV1

A

Superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid bone

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136
Q

Where does CN V2 pass through

A

Forman rotundum of the sphenoid bone

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137
Q

Where does CN V3 transmit through

A

The Foramen Ovale of the Sphenoid Bone

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138
Q

What does teh sella turcica of the sphenoid bone hold

A

The Pituitary gland

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139
Q

What is the central depression of the sphenoid bone called,,,

A

The hypophyseal fossa

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140
Q

What does the ethmoid bone form

A

Forms portion of cranial floor
Medial wall of the orbit
Superior portion of the nasal septum
And most of the superior walls of the nasal cavity

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141
Q

Which bone is a major supporting structure of the nasal cavity

A

The ethmoid bone

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142
Q

What does the cristales galli of the ethmoid bone attach

A

Attaches to the falx cerebri

Celebrating L and R cerebral hemispheres

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143
Q

Where does CN I pass through

A

The olfactory for amine of the ethmoid bone

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144
Q

What do the lateral masses of the ethmoid bone contain

A

Lateral masses

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145
Q

What is the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

A

The upper part of the sandal septum

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146
Q

What are the turbinates

A

Portion of the ethmoid bones

Made from the superior and middle nasal conchae

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147
Q

What are the functions of the superior and middle nasal conchae

A

Increase vascular surface to warm passing air
Causes inhaled air to swirl and impact mucus (Filters air)

Superior conchae house the olfactory receptors

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148
Q

What are the 14 Facial Bones

A 
Nasal (2) 
Maxillae (2) 
Zygomatic (2) 
Mandible (1) 
Lacrimal (2) 
Palatine (2) 
Inf.. Nasal Conchae (2) 
Vomer (1)
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149
Q

What do the alveolar processes of the maxillae and mandible

A

A sockets for teeth

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150
Q

What structures do the maxillary bones make up

A 
Floor of the orbit 
Floor of the nasal cavity 
Hard palate 
Maxillary sinus 
Alveolar processes of the upper teeth
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151
Q

What do the zygomatic bones make up

A

Cheekbones
Lateral walls of the orbit
Combines with the termporal bone for the zygomatic arch

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152
Q

What structures arrise from the lacrimal bones

A

Medial wall of the orbit

Lacrimal fossa houses the lacrimal sac

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153
Q

What is another name for the inferior nasal concha

A

Turbinate

154
Q

What are the three portions of the mandible

A

Body, angle, and the rami

155
Q

What are the two Foramen of the mandible

A

The mandibular and mental Foramen

156
Q

What are the two processes of the mandible

A

Alveolar and the coronoid processes

157
Q

What structures does the palatine bone make up

A

The back end of the hard palate and a part of the orbit

158
Q

Where is the vomer

A

Posterior part of the nasal septum

159
Q

What three things comprise the nasal septum

A

Vomer
Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid
Septal cartilage

160
Q

What are the 7 bones that make up the orbits

A
  • Maxillary
  • Frontal
  • zygomatic
  • ethmoid
  • lacrimal
  • sphenoid
  • palatine
161
Q

What 5 important Foramina are associated with each orbit

A
  • optic foramen
  • superior orbital fissure
  • inf. Orbital fissure
  • supraorbital foramen
  • lacrimal fossa
162
Q

What two bones make the roof of the orbit

A

Frontal and sphenoid

163
Q

What makes the lateral wall of the orbit

A

Zygomatic bone and sphenoid

164
Q

What make the orbital floor

A

Maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine bones

165
Q

What makes the medial wall of the orbit

A

Maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid and sphenoid bones

166
Q

What are the 4 sutures of primary importance

A
  • Coronal
  • Sagittal
  • lambdoidal
  • squamous
167
Q

Where is the sagittal suture

A

Along the sagittal plane, combines the two parietal bones

168
Q

Where is the lambdoid suture

A

Posterior

Unites the parietal and occipital bones

169
Q

Where is the coronal suture

A

Along the frontal plane

Unites frontal with both parietal bones

170
Q

Where is the squamous suture

A

Unites each parietal bone to the temporal bone

Located laterally

171
Q

What are the 4 fontanels

A

Anterior
Posterior
Anteriolaterals
Posterolaterals

172
Q

What are the two major functions of fontanels

A

Enable the fetal skull to pass through the birth canal

Permit rapid growth of the brain during infancy

173
Q

What are the paranasal sinuses

A

Cavities in bones of the skull that communicate with the nasal cavity

  • lined with mucous membranes
  • serve to lighten the weight of the skull
  • are resonating chambers for speech
174
Q

What are the cranial bones that contain the paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillae

175
Q

What are the four paranasal sinuses

A

Frontal sinus
Ethmoid Sinus
Sphenoidal Sinus
Maxillary Sinus

176
Q

What are the 3 muscles that move the mandible

A

Masseter, termporalis, and pterygoids

177
Q

What CN innervates movement of the maxillae

A

CN V3

178
Q

What are the movements and correlated muscles of the mandible

A

Protracts and elevates
Aka biting
(Temporalis and Masseter)

Retracts
(Temporalis)

179
Q

What is the only muscle that depresses the mandible

A

Lateral pterygoid

180
Q

What two muscles move the jaw side to side for mastication

A

Lateral and medial pterygoid

181
Q

What are the two points of origin for the occipitofronatalis

A

Occipital belly: occipital bone

Frontal belly: galea aponeurotica

182
Q

What are the two insertion points for the occiputofrontalis

A

Occipital belly: galea aponeurotica

Frontal belly: fascia and skin superior to the eye and nose

183
Q

What is the action and innervation of the Occipitofrontalis

A

Elevated eyebrows and wrinkles the skin of the forehead
(look surprised)

Innervation CN VII

184
Q

What is the origin of the Zygomaticus major and minor

A

Zygomatic bone

185
Q

What is the insertion points of the Zygomatic Major and Minor

A

Major: skin at the angle of the mouth and orbicularis oris

Minor: Upper Lip

186
Q

What is the action and innervation of the Zygomaticus Major and Minor

A

Action-
Major: draws angle of mouth superiorly and laterally (smiling)

Minor: elevated the upper lip, exposing the maxillary teeth

Innervation: CN VII
(zygomatic and bucal branch)

187
Q

What is the Insertion of the lavator labii superioris

A

In the skin at angle of mouth and orbicularis oris

188
Q

What is the action and innervation of the Levator labii superioris

A

Raises upper lip

Innervation CN VII
Zygomatic Branch

189
Q

What is the insertion site of the depressor labii inferioris

A

In the skin of lower lip

190
Q

What is the action and innervation of the depressor labii inferioris

A

Depresses Lower Lip

Innervation CN VII
Mandibular Branch

191
Q

What is the insertion site of the depressor ánguli oris

A

In the angle of the mouth

192
Q

What is the action and innervation of depressor anguli oris

A

Draws the mouth laterally and inferiorly ( frowning )

Innervation: CN VII
Mandibular branch

193
Q

What is the origin of the orbicularis oris

A

Muscle fibers surrounding the opening of the mouth

194
Q

What is the insertion side of the orbicularis oris

A

Skin at the corner of the mouth

195
Q

What is the action and innervations of the orbicularis oris

A

Action: Closes and protrudes lips
Compresses lips against teeth,
Shapes lips during speech

(Monkey face)

Innervation: CN VII
(Bucal Branch)

196
Q

What is the insertion site of the Buccinator

A

Orbicularis Oris

197
Q

What is the action and innervation of the buccinator

A

Presses cheeks against teeth and lips, whistling, sucking,
Draws corner of the mouth laterally
Assists in mastication by keeping food in between teeth.

Innervation: CN VII
(Bucal Branch)

198
Q

Where is the insertion site of the risorius

A

In the skin at the angle of the mouth

199
Q

What is the action and innervation of the risorius

A

draws the angle of the mouth laterally, as in grimacing

Innervation: CNVII
bucal branch

200
Q

What is the insertion site of the mentalis

A

In the skin of the chin

201
Q

What is the action and innervation of the mentalis

A

Elevated and protrudes the lower lip and pulls the skin of the chin
(Pouting)

Innervation: mandibular branch

202
Q

What is the insertion site of the platysma

A

Mandible, muscle around angle of the mouth, and skin of the lower face

203
Q

What is the action and innervation of the platysma

A

Draws outer part of lower lip inferiorly and posteriorly,
(Pouting)
Depresses the mandible

Innervation: CN VII
(Cervical Branch)

204
Q

What is the insertion site of orbicularis oculi

A

Circular path around the orbit

205
Q

What is the action and innervation of the orbicularis oculi

A

Closes and squints eye
(Orbital part)
Depresses upper eyelid
Elevated lower eyelid

Innervation: CN VII
(Temporal branch and Zygomatic Branch)

206
Q

Is the Levator palperbrae a muscle of facial expression

A

NO

It opens the eye
Innervation CN III but does not contribute to facial expression

207
Q

Where is the insertion site of corrugator supercilii

A

Skin of the eyebrow

208
Q

What are the actions and innervations of the corrugator supercilii

A

Action: draws the eyebrow inferiorly and medically
(Frowning)
Wrinkles the skin of the forehead vertically

Innervation: CN VII
(Temporal branch)

209
Q

Where is the origin and the insertion site of the sternocleiodmastoid

A

Origin: Sternum and clavicle

Insertion: onto mastoid process of the temporal bone

210
Q

What is the action and innervation of sternocleidmastoid

A

Action: contraction of both flexes the cervical verebrae
(Shin toward the manubrium)
And Thrusts chin forward
(Keeps head level)

Contraction of only one, laterally flexes the neck and rotates the face in opposite direction

Innervation: CN XI

211
Q

What is the scalene Muscle Group

A
  • Attach cervical vertebrae to uppermost ribs
  • Flex, laterally flex and rotate the head
  • participate in forced respiration
  • innervated by Cervical Spinal Nerves C3-C8
212
Q

What two muscle groups are innervated by CN XI

A

Sternocliodmastoid and the Trapezius

213
Q

What are the two groups of muscles associated with the anterior aspect of the neck

A

Suprahyoid and Infrahyoid Muscles

214
Q

What do the suprahyoid and infrahyoid do….

A

Stabilize the hyoid bone

Allowing it to be a firm base on which the tongue can move

215
Q

Describe the shape and specifics of the Hyoid Bone

A

U-shaped bone

articulates with no other bone in your body

Has a horizontal body and paired projections
(The greater and lesser horns)

Suspended by a ligament from the skull

**supports the tongue and provides attachment for tongue, neck, and pharyngeal muscle

216
Q

What are the four suprahyoid muscles

A

Digastric
Stylohyoid
Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid

217
Q

What is the general function of the suprahyoid muscle group

A

They elevate the hyoid bone, the floor of the oral cavity, and tongue during swallowing

218
Q

What are the 4 muscles of the infrahyoid muscles

A

Omohyoid
Sternhyoid
Strenothyroid
Thyrohyoid

219
Q

What is the general function of the infrahyoid muscle group

A

Depress the hyoid bone and move the larynx during swallowing and speech

220
Q

define the suboccipital region

A

-Upper back of the neck-

Is the triangular area inferior to the occipital region of the head

221
Q

What are the 4 muscles of teh subocciptial region

A

Rectus cavities posterior
(Major and Minor)

Obliquus Capitis
(Inferior and superior)

222
Q

External carotid arteries supply …

A

Structures external to the skull as branches of maxillary and superficial temporal branches

223
Q

What do the Internal carotid arteries supply

A

Circle of Willis

Eyeballs and brain

224
Q

How do the internal carotid arteries enter the cranial cavity

A

Through the carotid canals in the petrous part of the temporal bones

225
Q

The verterbral arteries passs through the,,.

A

Foramen magnum

226
Q

Circle of Willis

A

Connects the posterior and anterior blood supplies to the brain by connection the branches of the basilar artery with branches of the internal carotid arteries

227
Q

What makes up the circle of Willis

A

The vertebral arteries become the basilar arteries, and communicates with anterior and 2 posterior communicating arteries

228
Q

Where do dural venous sinuses drain to

A

The internal jugular vein

229
Q

Where is the thoracic duct

A

Is the L lymphatic duct located at the junction of the left internal jugular and left subclavian veins

230
Q

Where is the R lymphatic duct

A

At the junction of the R internal jugular and right subclavian veins

231
Q

Which cranial bone contains the carotid foramen

A

Temporal Bone

232
Q

What are the dermatomes of the face

A

Face: CN V
C2: Occipital Protuberance
C3: Gentleman’s collar

233
Q

What comprises the cervical plexus

A

The ventral rami of spinal nerves C1-C5

234
Q

What does the greater occipital nerve supply

A

The back of the head and protuberance

235
Q

What does the lesser occipital nerve supply

A

Posterior to the ear

236
Q

What does the great auricular nerve supply

A

Goes from the lobe of the ear and runs along the mandible (jaw line)

237
Q

What are the nerves of dermatome C2

A

Greater Occiptial

238
Q

The great auricular and lesser occipital is part of the

A

Cervical plexus

239
Q

What does the cervical plexus supply

A

Supplies the skin, muscles of the head and neck and the PHRENIC NERVES

240
Q

What causes occipital neuralgias

A

When the greater occipital nerve gets entrapped at the obliquus capitis inferior muscle

Causes Pain in the back of the head

241
Q

What muscle does the greater occipital nerve emerge from beneath

A

The obliquus capitis inferior muscle

242
Q

What is the only moveable joint of the head

A

Temporal Joint

TMJ

243
Q

The mandible articulates with the temporal bone to from the….

A

Temporomandibular Joint

244
Q

What is TMJ syndrome

A

Dysfunction to varying degrees of the TMJ joint.

245
Q

What are the muscles of the TMJ

A

Temporal
Masseter
Lateral pteygoid
Medial ptyergoid

246
Q

What kind of joint in the TMJ

A

A hinge joint

247
Q

In the TMJ the head of the mandible fits into the

A

Mandibular fossa

248
Q

What disk and tubercle is in the TMJ

A

Articular tubercle

Articular Disk

249
Q

What are the subsections of the posterior triangle of the neck

A

Occipital triangle and the subclavian triangle

250
Q

What are the important features of the occipital triangle

A

TheCN XI
Occipital artery
And the cervical plexus

251
Q

What are the important feartures of the subclavian triangle

A

The subclavian artery and vein

252
Q

What are the subdivisions of the anterior triangle

A

Submandibular
Submental
Muscular triangle
Carotid Triangle

253
Q

What is in the submental triangle

A

The submental lymph nodes

Hyoid bone

254
Q

What is in the submandibular triangle

A

The facial artery and the facial vein

Along with the submandibular lymph nodes and glands

255
Q

What is in the carotid triangle

A 
Common carotid artery 
Internal and external carotid arteries 
Internal jugular vein 
Vagus nerve 
And parts of the thyroid 
And parts of the larynx
256
Q

What is the vagus nerve also called

A

A transient nerve

257
Q

What is in the muscular nerves

A

It’s bellow the hyoid
And contains infra hyoid muscles

Contains parts of the thyroid
Parathyroid and trachea and larynx

258
Q

What are 2 transient nerves in the neck

A

Vagus and Phrenic Nerves

259
Q

How many bones are in the vertebral column

A

26

7-12-5-5-4

260
Q

What are the 4 natural curves of the vertebrae

A

Cervical
Lumbar
Thoracic
Sacral

261
Q

What curves are formed during fetal development

A

Thoracic and Sacral Curves

262
Q

When is the cervical curve formed

A

When infants begin to raise their head at around 4 months

263
Q

When in the lumbar curve formed

A

When infants begin to sit up and walk around 1 year old

264
Q

What is kyphosis

A

Humpback

Is abnormal increase in the thoracic curve

265
Q

What is dowagers hump

A

A colloquial name for kyphosis in older women caused by wedge fxs of the thoracic vertebrae resulting from osteoporosis

266
Q

What is lordosis

A

Sway back

Characterized by an anterior rotation of the pelvis at the hip producing an abnormal increase in the lumbar curvature

Associated with weakened trunk musculature.

267
Q

What can cause lordosis

A

Late pregnancy due to gravity

Obesity

268
Q

What is scoliosis

A

Curved back

Characterized by an abnormal lateral curve that is accompanied by a rotation of the vertebrae

The spinous processes turn TOWARD the cavity of the abnormal curvature.

269
Q

What is the most common deformity of the vertebral column in pubertal girls?

A

Scoliosis

270
Q

How many processes are on a typical vertebrae

A

7 :

2 transverse
1 spinous
4 articular

271
Q

What makes up the vertebral arch

A

The pedicle and the lamina

272
Q

What makes the intervertebral foramina

A

2 vertebral notches together

273
Q

What is the first cervical vertebra called

A

The atlas

274
Q

What is the 2nd cervical vertebra called

A

Axis

275
Q

What is the 7th cervical vertebra called

A

Vertebra prominens

276
Q

What are typical cervical vertebral like

A

Smaller bodies
Larger canal
Have bifid processes
Shorter with transerves foramen for vertebral arteries

277
Q

The transverse foramina transmits the

A

Vertebral arteries

278
Q

What are the two craniovertebral joints in the cervical region

A

The Atlanta-occipital joint and atlanoaxial joint

Synovial Joints

279
Q

In the cervical region, a ring of bone, has superior facets for occipital condyles

A

Atlas C1

280
Q

In the cervical region, dens or odontological process is body of atlas

A

Axis C2

281
Q

What is the tectorial membrane

A

A strong superior continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament

282
Q

What is the hangman’s fx

A

Is the common name given to a fracture of both pedicles of the C2 vertebrae

283
Q

What are specific characteristics of thoracic vertebrae

A

Articulate with the ribs

Have larger and stronger bodies

Have facet joints for connecting ribs.

284
Q

Describe rib articulation with the spinal vertebrae

A

Tubercle of the rib articulates with the transverse process of the vertebrae

The head of the rib articulates with the vertebral bodies

285
Q

What is specific about lumbar vertebrae

A

Are the strongest and largest of the vertebral column

Have short thick spinous and transverse processes

286
Q

How many bones form the sacrum

A

5 bones fused

287
Q

What is the foundation of the pelvic girdle

A

The sacrum

288
Q

What are the median, medial, and lateral sacral crest

A

Median- are fused rudimentary spinous processes

Medial- fused articular processes

Lateral- tips of transverse processes of fused sacral vertebrae

289
Q

How many bones fuse to form the coccyx

A

4

290
Q

At what age does the coccyx finish fusing

A

Generally by age 30

291
Q

What are coccygeal cornua

A

Rudimentary articular processes

292
Q

What is the medical importance of the sacral and coccygeal cornu

A

Important landmarks for caudal anesthesia

Local anesthetic injected into sacral canal at the sacral hiatus and coccygeal nerves.

293
Q

Describe a intervertebral disk

A

Fibrocartilage ring with a pulpy center

294
Q

What causes herniated intervertebral discs

A

Flexion of the vertebral column pushes the nucleus pulposus posteriorly toward the thinnest part of the annulus fibrosis

295
Q

If degeneration of the posterior longitudinal ligament and wearing of the anulus have occurred, what can happen in intervertebral disk herniation

A

The nucleus pospusus may herniate into the vertebral canal and compress on the spinal cord or the nerve roots of the cuadra equina

296
Q

What can forcible hyper flexion of the neck cause

A

May rupture the intervertebral disk without fx the vertebral body

297
Q

What are the most common ruptures intervertebral disks?

A

C5/C6 and C6/C7

Which would compress the nerves of C6 or C7 respectively

298
Q

What can hyperextension of the neck cause

A

May stretch of tear the anterior longitudinal ligament

Whiplash

299
Q

what is a zygapophyseal joint

A

Facet joints

-plane synovial joints between superior and inferior articular processes of adjacent vertebrae

300
Q

What do accessory ligaments in a zygapophysial joint do

A

Unite the laminae, the transverse processes, and the spinous processes to help stabilize the joint

301
Q

What can injury or disease of the zygapophysial joint cause

A

They are closes associated with spinal nerves, so osteoarthritis in the joint causes pain and distribution patterns along the dermatomes of the affected spinal nerve along with spasms of the associated myotomes

302
Q

What is foraminal stenosis

A

Narrowing of one of more spinal formamina

Commonly at C5/6 and C6/7 in the neck and L3/4, L4/5, and L5/S1 in the low back

S/s;
Associated with back or neck pain with sciatica or branchialgia

303
Q

Where and what is the anterior longitudinal ligament

A

Strong, broad fibrous band that covers and connects anterior aspects of vertebral bodies and intervertebral disks

304
Q

The anterior longitudinal ligament extends from

A

Atlas to the sacrum

305
Q

What is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament

A

Maintains stability of the joints between vertebral bodies, and helps prevent hyperextension of the vertebral column

306
Q

What is the Posterior Longitudinal ligament

A

A ligament that runs within the vertebral canal along the posterior aspect of the verterbral bodies

-is narrower and weaker that the anterior longitudinal ligament

307
Q

What is the function of the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Helps to prevent hyper flexion of the vertebral coló un and herniation or posterior protrusion of the vertebral disks

308
Q

What is the ligamenta Flava

A

Are broad, yellow elastic fibrous tissue that join adjacent laminae of verterbral arches

309
Q

What is the function of the ligamenta flava

A

To prevent separation of the vertebral lamina, to arrest abrupt flexion of the vertebral colómn, and help prevent injury to vertebral disks

310
Q

What is the supraspinous ligament

A

Is the most posterior connection on the spinous process

-joins the tips of the spinous processes on C7 through the sacrum

311
Q

What is the ligamentum nuchae

A

A thickening of the supraspinous ligament in the neck spanning from C7 to the occipital protuberance

312
Q

What is the artery that is related around each vertebra

A

The segmental artery

313
Q

What are the two Venus plexuses the spinal cord

A

The anterior and posterior vertebral venous plexus

314
Q

What are the attributes of ribs 1-7

A

Called true ribs
Have costal cartilage
And attach directly to the sternum

315
Q

What is the attribute of the 1st rib

A

Has the sharpest curvature

Articulates with the manubrium at a point below the clavicle

316
Q

What is the attribute of the second rib

A

Attaches at the eternal angle

317
Q

What is the attribute of ribs 3-7

A

Sternal coastal articulations are direct to the body of the sternum

318
Q

What are the vertbrochondral ribs

A

Ribs 8-10
Aka False Ribs

  • Do not have direct articulation with the sternum
  • Indirectly articúlate with the sternum by joining with the costal cartilage of rib 7
319
Q

What is the costal arch

A

Is the arrangement of costal cartilages that provide for the indirect articulation of ribs 8-9-10

320
Q

What are the attributes of ribs 11 and 12

A

Have no anterior articulation with the sternum

Are called floating ribs
Are also false ribs

321
Q

What is the head of a rib

A

Has either one articulating facet with articulated with the facet of the body of the corresponding vertebrae

Or

Has two articulating facets which articulate with the Demi facets of the bodies of adjacent vertebrae as well as the intervertebral disk

322
Q

What is the tubercle of the rib

A

The site of articulation of the rib with the transverse process of posterior vertebrae of the same number

323
Q

What is the neck of the rib

A

Attaches to the head of the bid to the body of the rib

324
Q

What is the sternal extremity of a rib

A

Is the site of costochondral articulation of the rib to its cartilage

325
Q

What is the costal groove of the rib

A

Begins near the tubercle on the body of the rib and provides some protection for the Intercostal nerve and vessels

326
Q

What is the costal angle of the ribs

A

Is a abrupt change in the curvature of the shaft of the rib

327
Q

Describe the sternum

A 
Is a flat, elongated bone in the middle of the anterior portion of the thoracic cage 
Approx 5-6 inches in length 
Consists of 3 parts 
-manubrium 
-body 
-Xiphoid process
328
Q

What is the jugular notch of the sternum

A

Lies just between the clavicles, and is the most superior landmark of the sternum

329
Q

What is the sternoclavicular notch of the sternum

A

Is the point of articulation of the sternal extremity of the clavicle with with manubrium

330
Q

What is the sternal angle of the sternum

A
  • at the junction of the manubrium and the body of the sternum
  • is the location of the cartilaginous articulation of the second pair of ribs
331
Q

What kind of joint is the xiphisternal joint

A

And synchonrosis

-progressively fusses as we age, later becoming a synostosis in older persons

332
Q

What is costochondritis

A

Inflamation of the junctions where the upper rib joins with the cartilage that holds them to the sternum

Usually goes away on its own.
Cause unknown

333
Q

what are extrinsic back muscles

A

Superficial group of muscles that produce control of limb movements

-intermediate group of muscles that are involved in respiration

334
Q

What are intrinsic back muscles

A

True back muscles

Specifically act on the vertebral column producing its movements and maintaining posture

335
Q

Name the superficial back muscles

A

-Trapezius
-Levator scapulae
-Rhomboideus
(Major) (Minor)
-Latissimus dorsi

336
Q

Name the intrinsic muscles of the back

A
  • Erector spinae

- Transversospinal muscles

337
Q

What are the three muscles that make up the erector spinae group

A

Spinallis (medial)
Longissimus (intermediate)
Illiocostalis (lateral)

338
Q

Describe the erector spinae group

A

Origin is sacrum and illiac crest
Externos throughout the lenght of the back
Controls flexion and lateral bending

339
Q

What are the muscles that make up the transversospinal group

A

Rotatores (rotate)
Multifidus (my)
Semispinalis (spine)

340
Q

What are nerves innervate the transverospinalis

A

Dorsal rami of spinal nerves

341
Q

What are thoracoappendicular muscles

A
  • Anterior thoracic muscles or axial muscles that produce and control limb movements
  • generally considered upper limb muscles
342
Q

What are the muscles that assist in breathing

A

Diaphragm
Scalenes
Intercostals
Some thoracoappendicular muscles

343
Q

Name the anterior thoracoappendicular muscles

A

Pectoralis Major and Minor
Subclavius
Serratus anterior

344
Q

What are the posterior thoracoappendicular muscles

A

Latissimus dorsi

345
Q

How many layers are there to intercostal muscles

A 
3 layers 
Outer layer-external intercostal 
Middle layer-internal intercostal 
Innermost layer- Transversus thoracis 
-subcostal muscles 
-innermost Intercostal muscles
346
Q

Intercostal muscles are _____ innervated by ________intrecostal nerves

A

ALL

Segmental

347
Q

Origin/ insertion/ function of the external intercostal muscles

A

Travels obliquely downward from the inferior border of the rib above to the superior border of the bib below

  • Elevates the rib cage.
  • muscle of inspiration
348
Q

Origin/insertion/ function of the internal intercostal muscles

A

Originate from the superior border of the rib below and insert on the inferior border of the rib above

-oriented at right angels to the external intercostal muscle

  • depress the rib cage
  • muscles of forced expiration
349
Q

Where are the transverse thoracic muscles

A

Originate from the sternum and insert on the cartilages of the ribs

350
Q

What are the two muscle groups of the innermost layer of the rib cage

A

Subcostal and innermost intercostal

351
Q

Subcostal muscle group

A

Muscles bridge two intercostal spaces and “probably” elevate the ribs

-no test question-

352
Q

Innermost intercostal muscle group

A

Muscles bridge an intercostal space and are “probably” muscles of expiration

-no test question-

353
Q

Upon leaving the intervertebral foramina the spinal nerves divide into

A

Posterior and anterior primary rami

354
Q

The anterior rami of the thoracic spinal nerves form the

A

Intercostal nerves

355
Q

The posterior rami of the thoracic spinal nerves ….

A

Pass posteriorly to supply the joint, muscles, and skin of the back in the thoracic region .

356
Q

What spinal nerves supply the dermatomes of the anterior thorax

A

The dorsal roots of spinal nerves C5 and T1-T6

357
Q

Dermatome landmark for C5

A

Jugular notch and clavicles

358
Q

Dermatome landmark for T1

A

Inferior to C5, continues down the anterior portion of the arms

359
Q

Landmark for T4

A

Nipples

360
Q

Dermatome Landmark for T7

A

Xiphoid process

361
Q

Dermatome landmark for T10

A

umbillicus

362
Q

What is the most superior dermatome of the back that does not supply the upper limbs

A

T1

363
Q

Where is the mediastinum located

A

Between the two pulmonary cavities

364
Q

What is in the glandular plane of the superior mediastinum

A

Thyroid
Thymus
Lymph glands

365
Q

What is in the venous plane of the superior mediastinum

A

Left and right brachiocephalic vein
Superior vena cava
Arch of the azygos vein

366
Q

What does the arterial nervous plane of the superior mediastinum contain

A 
Aortic arch and its branches 
-brachiocephalic 
-left common carotid 
-left subclavian 
And the vagus and phrenic nerve
367
Q

What is in the visceral nervous plane of the Superior mediastinum

A

Trachea
Esophagus
Branch of the vagus nerve
(Innervates the larynx, pharynx, and sensory for bronchial tree below the volcano chords)

368
Q

What is in the lymphatic plane of the Superior mediastinum

A

-Thorcic duct
(Main duct for most of the lymphatic)
(Terminates at the left junction of the subclavian and jugular veins)

369
Q

What is in the anterior mediastinum

A

Connective tissue and fat
Few blood vessels and lymph
Sometimes the lower end of the thymus

370
Q

What is the only thing in the middle mediastinum

A

The pericardium surrounding the heart

371
Q

What is in the posterior mediastinum

A 
Thoracic aorta, duct 
Lymph nodes 
Azygos and hemiazygos 
Esophagus  and esophagus plexus 
Thoracic sympathetic trunk and splanchic nerves
372
Q

What are the three flat muscles of te abdominal wall

A

External oblique
Internal Oblique
And the transverse abdominal

373
Q

What are the two vertical muscles of the abdominal wall

A 
Rectus abdominal 
And pyramidalis (sometimes absent)
374
Q

What forms the rectus sheath of the abdomen

A

Flat muscles have an anterior and medial aponeuroses which collectively forms the rectus sheath

375
Q

What are the arteries of the anteriolateral wall

A

The superior and inferior Epigastric arteries

376
Q

Describe the superior epigastric artery

A

Artery is a continuation of the internal thoracic artery

It enter the recutus sheath and provides blood to the rectus abdominus

377
Q

Abdominal Aorta

A

Runs anterior to the vertebral column

-has parietal and visceral branch’s

378
Q

What are the three branches of the celiac trunk

A

The common hepatic, splenic, ande left gastric branches

379
Q

The left gastric feeds

A

The stomach and esophagus

380
Q

What does the superior Mesenteric artery feed

A

Pancreas, duodenum, jejuni, ileum, ascending colon, and transverse colon

381
Q

Where does the infer. Mesenteric supply

A

The transverse and desecening colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum

IPAP 21-2 Freshman Semester (22 decks)

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