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ACE Personal Training > Lesson 8: Skeletal, Nervous + Muscular Systems > Flashcards

Lesson 8: Skeletal, Nervous + Muscular Systems Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 4 types of bones?

A

Long, short, flat and irregular.

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2
Q

What is a long bone?

A

Long bones are longer than their width.

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3
Q

What is an example of a long bone?

A

Femur / tibia

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4
Q

What is a short bone?

A

Short bones are similar sizes in length and width.

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5
Q

What is an example of a short bone?

A

Carpals / tarpals

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6
Q

What is a flat bone?

A

Flat bones are thin and usually curved.

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7
Q

What is an example of a flat bone?

A

Ribs / sternum

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8
Q

What is an irregular bone?

A

Irregular bones are ones that don’t fit into the categories of long / short or flat bones.

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9
Q

What is an example of an irregular bone?

A

Hips / vertebrae

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10
Q

Why are cortical bones essential?

A

They provide strength as they are the tendon attachment sites for muscles as well as for organ protection.

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11
Q

What is the structure of a cortical bone similar to?

A

Honeycomb

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12
Q

What do trabecular bones provide a large surface for?

A

Mineral exchange.

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13
Q

What do trabecular bones do alongside providing large surface area for mineral exchange?

A

Maintain skeletal strength and integrity.

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14
Q

What is the structure of trabecular bones like?

A

Spongey

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15
Q

What are areas that contain a lot of trabecular bones more prone to?

A

Osteoporosis

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16
Q

What are epiphyses?

A

The two ends of diaphysis.

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17
Q

What is the diaphysis in a bone?

A

The ‘shaft’ or middle part that forms the bone.

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18
Q

What is the medullary cavity in a bone?

A

The hollow bit inside diaphysis that is also called the yellow bone marrow cavity.

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19
Q

What is the endosteum in a bone?

A

The thin connective tissue layer.

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20
Q

What is the periosteum in a bone?

A

The dense connective tissue that is supplied with nerves and blood cells.

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21
Q

What are the diaphysis and outer layers of epiphyses composed of?

A

Cortical bone

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22
Q

What are the central regions of epiphyses composed of?

A

Trabecular bone

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23
Q

Some long bones contain red marrow, what is this essential for?

A

The manufacturing and maturation of red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets.

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24
Q

What is the epiphyseal cartilage?

A

The ‘growth plate’ that seperate the diaphysis and epiphysis in children/young adults to allow for bone growth.

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25
Q

What is proprioception?

A

Proprioception is the sense of knowing where the body is in relation to various segments and the external environment.

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26
Q

How does proprioception work?

A

Sensory information is gathered via receptors in the skin, inner ears, in/around joints and muscles.

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27
Q

What do the cutaneous receptors send sensory information (for proprioception) about?

A

The cutaneous receptors are skin receptors. They gather information regarding pressure, touch and movement of skin hairs.

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28
Q

What do joint receptors send information (for proprioception) about?

A

They send information regarding positions, velocity and accelerations occuring at joints.

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29
Q

Where are the joint receptors located?

A

In the joint capsules and surrounding ligaments.

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30
Q

What do pressure receptors send information (for proprioception) about?

A

They add further information regarding pressure changes that is important for postural adjustments and normal gait.

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31
Q

What are Pacinian Corpuscles?

A

Receptors deep in the skin and joint capsules that are sensitive to pressure.

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32
Q

What are Meissner’s Corpuscles?

A

Receptors located in the superficial layers of the skin that respond to light touch.

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33
Q

What external forces are placed on a muscle fiber in order for it to lengthen?

A

Gravity, momentum, antagonistic muscle contraction and force applied via someone else.

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34
Q

What should the sarcomere do when stretching effectively (and without injury)?

A

The sarcomere should lengthen to a point where it overlaps filaments with at least X1 Cross-Bridge between the actin and myosin.

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35
Q

What does aging inevitably cause a decrease in (muscle wise)?

A

Muscle function, strength, endurance, agility and flexibility.

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36
Q

How would the effects of aging worsen?

A

If the individual is inactive, has a disease or is injured.

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37
Q

Why does muscle essentially decline with age?

A

This is due to atrophy AKA the wasting away of muscle.

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38
Q

What does muscle atrophy cause/do?

A

Muscle atrophy causes decreases in muscle size and number of fibers as well as the water component. The muscle fibers are replaced with collagen which causes the muscles to essentially stiffen up and decrease mobility.

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39
Q

What does resistance training enhance in tendons and ligaments?

A

Tensile strength of tendons and ligaments.

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40
Q

What does stretching maintain for tendons/ligaments and muscles? And what does it allow for joints?

A

Maintains suppleness/flexibility and allows full ROM at joints.

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41
Q

Why are women generally more flexible than men?

A

Men and women have both anatomical and physiological differences that give women more room for flexibility.
Examples are wider hips in women, heavier and rougher pelvic bones in men, women having shorter legs.

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42
Q

Why might a fractured elbow have reduced functionality?

A

A fractured elbow will have excess calcium in the joint space which will cause the reduction in movement.

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43
Q

How might skin affect a joint’s movement?

A

If there has been a recent injury or surgery where there is a laceration/tear/incision then the skin tissue will become inelastic and incapable of stretching at the joint.

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44
Q

Why does a higher intramuscular temperature affect the effectiveness of stretching a muscle? (3)

A

By increasing the intramuscular temperature:

  1. The muscle’s collagen ability will enhance
  2. Elastin components within musculotendinous units will deform
  3. The Golgi-tendon Organ’s will reflexively relax through autogenic inhibition.
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45
Q

What is the optimal temperaute for a muscle to achieve effective stretching?

A

103 degree F (39 degree C)

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46
Q

What does cooling down post-exercises all the body to do? (5)

A
  1. Cool down core temperature
  2. Muscular relaxation
  3. Promote removal of waste products via blood
  4. Reduce muscular pain/soreness
  5. Adjust cardiovascular system back to normal
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47
Q

When is muscle temperatures at their highest?

A

Immediatly post-exercise.

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48
Q

What are some physiological functions that exhibit circadian rhythms and max/min functions at specific times throughout the day? (6)

A 
Blood Pressure
Body Temperature
Heart Rate
Hormone Levels
Alertness
Responsiveness Oscillate (Movement Back/Forth)
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49
Q

Why could height differ throughout the day?

A

The vertbral column/spine may become shorter during the day due to fluctuating fluid levels surrounding its intervertebral disks. In day time, the spine is vertical and therefore subject to dynamic muscular forces, gravitional forces of body weight and hydrostatic pressure. This causes the vertebrae’s surroundings to narrow as fluid is squeezed out of the disks.
Since the spine is horizontal at night, the disks can reabsorb fluids from the surrounding areas and renew it’s usual body length.

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50
Q

What implications does the increased hydration and subsequent swelling (of disks) upon waking have on the spine?

A
  1. Increased stiffness during lumbar flexion (bending forward.)
  2. Lumbar disks/ligaments having greater risk of injury.
  3. Lower ROM in the AM compared to later on.
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51
Q

Why should a programme focused on increasing flexibility be performed later in the day?

A

There is more risk of injury in the morning due to the temporary swelling (of increased disk hydration) from sleeping as well as limited ROM.

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52
Q

What is the epiphyseal line?

A

When growing is complete and the epiphyseal cartilage is replaced by a bone aka the epiphyseal line.

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53
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

A dense connective tissue layer that covers the outer surface of the bone.

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54
Q

What is remodelling?

A

The continual reshaping/rebuilding of the skeleton in response to internal/external signals from specialized bone cells.

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55
Q

What can remodelling do?

A

It can either build bone (osteoblasts) or break it down (osteoclasts.)

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56
Q

What are the reasons for remodelling?

A
  1. To repair damage to the skeleton that can results from repeated stress.
  2. To prevent accumulation of old bone.
  3. To remove calcium/phosphorus from the bones when these minerals are deficient in diet.
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57
Q

What does Wolff’s law indicate?

A

That changes in bone structure coincide with changes in bone function. For example, when the skeleton is subject to stressful forces, it responds by laying down more bone tissue, thus increasing the bone density.

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58
Q

What happens when you experience prolonged amounts of bed rest?

A

Your bones lose minerals and density.

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59
Q

What are the most important functions of the axial skeleton? (3)

A
  1. Protect the Central Nervous System
  2. Provide main axial body support
  3. Protect the organs of the thorax
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60
Q

What does the axial skeleton consist of?

A

Skull, vertebral colum, sternum, ribs, 33 vertebrae.

61
Q

What are the vertbrae regions that make up the 33 vertebrae in the axial skeleton? (3)

A
  1. X7 Cervical Vertebrae in upper spine
  2. X12 Thoracic Vertebrae - each attached to a rib
  3. X5 Lumbar Vertebrae making the sacrum and cocyx
62
Q

What does the appendicular skeleton consist of? (3)

A
  1. Upper/Lower Body Limb Bones
  2. Pectoral (Shoulder)
  3. Pelvic Girdles (Hips)
63
Q

Where does the pectoral girdle (hips) attach to the axial skeleton?

A

Only at the sternum.

64
Q

Why does the Pectoral Girdles have wide ROM at the shoulder?

A

Due to minimal connection with the axial skeleton.

65
Q

What does the Pelvic Girdle consist of?

A

The ilium, ischium, pulois-os coxae.

66
Q

What supports the pelvic girdle on either side?

A

The pubic symphysis.

67
Q

What is an articulation?

A

When two bones meet at a junction, they articulate.

68
Q

What are the 3 types of joints?

A
  1. Fibrous
  2. Cartilaginous
  3. Synovial
69
Q

Are Fibrous joints synarthrodial or diarthrodial?

A

They are synarthroidal meaning they allow very little movement.

70
Q

Are cartilaginous joints synarthrodial or diarthrodial?

A

They are synarthrodial meaning they allow very little movement.

71
Q

Are synovial joints synarthrodial or diarthrodial?

A

Synovial joints are diarthrodial meaning they are freely movable,

72
Q

What are the 4 characteristic traits of a synovial joint?

A
  1. Articular cartilage
  2. Articular capsule
  3. Synovial membrane
  4. Synovial fluid
73
Q

What is the most common type of joints?

A

Synovial joints.

74
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage that covers the ends of long bones.

75
Q

What is does an articular capsule do?

A

It encloses a joint with double-layered membranes.

The outer layer forms ligaments and the inner layer (synovial membrane) lubricates the joints via synovial fluid.

76
Q

What does the movement of synovial joints depend on?

A

The shape of their bony structures and articular surfaces.

77
Q

What is the Axis of Rotation?

A

AOR is an imaginary line that creates a right angle at the plane of movement where a joint rotates,

78
Q

How many AOR’s do uniaxial/uniplanar joints have + how many planes can they move in?

A

They have only on AOR and so can only move in 1 plane.

79
Q

How many AOR’s do biplanar/biaxial joints have + how many planes can they move in?

A

These are joints that are perpendicular to each other and so have 2 AOR that allow movement in 2 planes.

80
Q

How many AOR’s do multiplanar/triaxial joints have + how many planes can they move in?

A

They have 3 AOR and so can move in 3 planes.

81
Q

What is an example of a multipanar/triaxial joint and in what ways can it allow movement?

A

The shoulder is an example of a multiplanar/triaxial joint and it allows the humerus to move anteriorly/posteriorly as well as laterally, medially and rotate internally/externally.

82
Q

What are the 4 groups of movement that occur in synovial joints?

A
  1. Gliding
  2. Angular
  3. Circumduction
  4. Rotational
83
Q

What is a gliding movement in synovial joints?

A

When surfaces of 2 adjoining bones move back and forth upon each other.

84
Q

What is an angular movement in synovial joints?

A

An increase or decrease in the angle between 2 adjoining bones.

85
Q

What is a circumduction movement in synovial joints?

A

A biplanar movement involving a combination of flexion, abduction, extension and adduction.

86
Q

What are the 4 different angular movements for synovial joints?

A
  1. Flexion
  2. Extension
  3. Abduction
  4. Adduction
87
Q

What is a flexion movement?

A

Flexion is when the bones that make a joint move toward one another in the sagittal plane. This decreases the joint angle between them.

88
Q

What is the sagittal plane?

A

The sagittal plane is the longitudinal plane that divides the body in to right and left portions.

89
Q

What is an extension movement?

A

An extension is the opposite of a flexion movement. It causes the angle between the joining bones to increase in the sagittal plane.

90
Q

What is an abduction movement?

A

The movement of a limb or joint away from the midline of the body.

91
Q

What is an adduction movement?

A

The movement of a limb or joint towards the midline of the body.

92
Q

What is a circumduction movement?

A

A circumduction movement is the combination of all 4 synovial joint movements - only certain joints can perform all 4.

93
Q

What is rotation?

A

Rotation is the motion of a bone along a central (longitude) axis.

94
Q

What are supination and pronation rotations? + Examples

A

These rotations that occur at the radioulnar joints.

For exmaple, rotating the forearm outwards is supination whereas rotating inwards is pronation.

95
Q

What is the frontal plane?

A

The longitduinal section that runs along the sagittal plane to divide the body into anterior and posterior planes.

96
Q

What is the transverse plane?

A

An anatomical term used for the imaginary line that divides the body into upper and lower sections.
(The horizontal plane)

97
Q

What does the central nervous system do?

A

The CNS collects information on the body’s condition both externally and internally. After analyzing this information, it stores the information and controls bodily systems in response.

98
Q

What is the neuromuscular system?

A

A connection of muscles to the brain and spinal chord through a network of nerve circuits direct muscular energy.

99
Q

What is the nervous system split into? (2)

A

Central Nervous System and Peripheral Nervous System.

100
Q

What is the CNS responsible for?

A

Receiving sensory input from the peripheral nervous system and then creating a response to the input.

101
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system made of?

A

Pairings of nerves that branch out of the brain and spinal chord from different regions. It is composed of all nervous structures outside the CNS such as nerves and ganglia.

102
Q

What does the PNS split into?

A

Functionally, the PNS seperates into an afferent (sensory) division and an efferent (motor) division.

103
Q

What does the Afferent division of the PNS do?

A

Carries nerve impulses to the CNS from receptors located in the skin, fascia, joints and visceral organs.

104
Q

What does the Efferent division of the PNS do?

A

Handles the outgoing data.

105
Q

What can the Efferent division be further divided into?

A

Somatic and Autonomic Nervous Systems.

106
Q

What does the Somatic Nervous System do?

A

Carries nerve impulses from the CNS to the skeletal muscles. This can be a reflex which is unconscious but usually it is a conscious control.

107
Q

Is the Somatic NS consciously controlled or unconsciously?

A

Usually conscious unless it is a reflex response.

108
Q

What does the Autonomic NS do?

A

Transmits impulses to smooth muscles, cardiac muscles and glands.

109
Q

How is the autonomic NS further divided?

A

It is further divided into parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions.

110
Q

How is the sympathetic divison used in the autonomic nervous system?

A

The sympathetic NS is activated when there’s a stressor/emergency. It allows the body to stop storiung energy and mobilize all resources to handle the stressor.

111
Q

What does the parasympathetic system do for the autonomic nervous system?

A

It aids all of the normal functions when the body is relaxed.
Examples are digestion, growth, energy storage.

112
Q

What is a neuron?

A

The most basic structural and functional component of a nervous systen.
It is composed of a cell body (soma) and one or more processes-fibrous extensions (dendrites and axons.)

113
Q

What does a dendrite do?

A

Conducts electrical impulses towards cell bodies.

114
Q

What do axons do?

A

Transmit electrical signals away from the cell bodies.

115
Q

How many axons and dendrites does a neuron have?

A

A single neuron could have hundreds of dendrites but only ever one axon.

116
Q

What is the main function of the shoulder girdle muscles?

A

To fixate the scapula.

117
Q

What are the 4 posterior muscles that ‘anchor’ the scapula?

A
  1. Trapezius
  2. Rhomboid Major
  3. Rhomboid Minor
  4. Levator Scapulae
118
Q

What are the 2 anterior muscles that ‘anchor’ the scapula?

A
  1. Pectoralis Minor

2. Serratus Anterior

119
Q

What happens when the upper trapezius contracts versus when the lower trapezius contracts?

A

When the upper trapezius contracts it causes the scapula to elevate - like shrugging the shoulders. This depresses when the lower traps contract.

120
Q

What muscles (and how) do pull ups work?

A

Pull ups work both the rhomboid major and minor muscles. When hanging, the scauplae pulls away from the top of the chest and when you pull up, the rhomboids draw the medial border of the scapular down and back towards the spinal column.

121
Q

What do the levator scauplae muscles do?

A

They help to elevate the superior medial portion of the scapula as well as bilaterally extending the neck and unilaterally flexing the neck to one side when the scapulae is ‘anchored’ by the pectarolis minor.

122
Q

What is the most mobile joint in the body?

A

The shoulder joint

123
Q

What 9 muscles cross the shoulder joint and insert on the humerus?

A
  1. Supraspinatus
  2. Infraspinatus
  3. Subscapularis
  4. Teres Minor
  5. Deltoid
  6. Teres Major
  7. Coracobrachialis
  8. Pectoralis Major
  9. Latissimus Dorsi
124
Q

What 4 muscles make up the rotator cuff (SITS)?

A

Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Subscapularis, Teres Minor

125
Q

Where do the rotator cuff muscles primarily hold the humeral head?

A

In the glenoid fossa in the scapula.

126
Q

The _________ _______ is the prime mover for knee extension when acting concentrically. The ________ are the primary knee flexors.

A

quadriceps femoris

hamstrings

127
Q

The teres major arises from the lower medial portion of the scapula and primarily acts to?

A

internally rotate the humerus

128
Q

Although they originate from different areas, all four quadriceps muscles converge and share one tendon of insertion, what is this called?

A

The Patellar Tendon

129
Q

Golgi tendon organs are sensory receptors located between the _______________.

A

muscle belly and tendon

130
Q

Golgi tendons cause _______________ when the muscle contraction ceases.

A

autogenic inhibition

131
Q

During _______________ stretching, the activation of the Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) cause the muscle spindles to relax and, therefore, an increase in the stretch.

A

static

132
Q

When the muscle spindle’s reflex contraction occurs, it causes the antagonist muscle group to relax. This is known as _______________.

A

reciprocal inhibition

133
Q

Why are type 1 muscle fibers fatigue-resistant?

A

The high concentration of myoglobin, the large number of capillaries, and the high mitochondrial content make type I fibers resistant to fatigue and capable of sustaining aerobic metabolism.

134
Q

What type of fibers are used during aerobic metabolism?

A

type 1/slow-twitch

135
Q

True or false - Type IIx muscle fibers are known as fast-glycolytic fibers.

A

True

136
Q

True or false - Type IIa muscle fibers can only sustain activity for less than 30 seconds.

A

Type IIa muscle fibers possess speed, fatigue resistance, and force-production capabilities somewhere between type I and type IIx muscle fibers. They can sustain an effort for longer than type IIx fibers—up to three minutes in highly trained athletes.

137
Q

What 4 muscles internally rotate the shoulder joint?

A

Subscapularis, deltoid, latissimus dorsi, teres major.

138
Q

Which muscles abduct the thigh? (3)

A

Gluteus minimus + maximus + inferior gemellus.

139
Q

What 3 muscles help extend the thigh?

A

Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus

140
Q

What 2 muscles flex the thigh?

A

Rectus femoris

Sartorius

141
Q

Which muscles flex the forearm? (2)

A

Biceps brachii and brachialis

142
Q

Which 3 muscles externally rotate the hip joint?

A

Iliacus
Biceps femoris
Psoas major

143
Q

What is the insertion of the coracobrachialis muscles?

A

body of the humerus

144
Q

Which muscles flexes the knee joint? (5)

A 
Sartorius
Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus 
Gracillis
145
Q

the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus is the insertion point of what muscle?

A

deltoid

146
Q

What is the origin of the Subscapularis muscle?

A

subscapular fossa of scapula

147
Q

What is the insertion point of the psoas major?

A

lesser trochanter of femur

148
Q

What 3 muscles internally rotate the leg?

A

Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Sartorius

149
Q

What muscles flex the hip joint?

A

psoas major

iliacus

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