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ACE Personal Training > Lesson 16: Functional Movement and Resistance Training > Flashcards

Lesson 16: Functional Movement and Resistance Training Flashcards

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1
Q

What is joint stability defined as?

A

The ability to maintain or control joint movement or position.

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2
Q

How is joint stability achieved?

A

Through the synergistic actions of the joint’s components aka muscles, ligaments, joint capsules and the neuromuscular systems.

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3
Q

What is joint mobility defined as?

A

The range of uninhibited movement around a joint or body segment.

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4
Q

How is joint mobility achieved?

A

Through the synergistic actions of the components of the joint and neuromuscular system.

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5
Q

Movement efficiency involves a synergistic approach between stability and mobility, how does this work?

A

proximal stability promotes distal mobility

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6
Q

Does the glenohumeral joint promote mobility or stability?

A

mobility

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7
Q

Does the scapulathoracic region promote mobility or stability?

A

Stability

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8
Q

Does the thoracic spine promote mobility or stability?

A

Mobility

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9
Q

Does the lumbar spine promote mobility or stability?

A

Stability

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10
Q

Does the hip promote mobility or stability?

A

Mobility

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11
Q

Does the knee promote mobility or stability?

A

Stability

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12
Q

Does the ankle promote mobility or stability?

A

Mobility

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13
Q

Does the foot promote mobility or stability?

A

Stability

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14
Q

What will occur when mobility is compromised?

A

The joint will seek to achieve full ROM by involving movement into another plane and/or certain stable joints may look to compromise stability in order to reach the desired level of mobility.

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15
Q

If the hip flexors lack flexibility in a bird dog movement, what is likely to occur due to compromised mobility?

A

The extended leg and hip will likely rotate in to the transverse plane.

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16
Q

If a client with kyphosis tries to extend the thoracic spine, what is likely to occur as a result of compensation for the lack of thoracic mobility?

A

An increase in lumbar lordosis

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17
Q

True or false, muscle imbalances do not alter the physiological and neurological properties of muscles?

A

False

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18
Q

True or false, muscle imbalance contributes to dysfunctional movement?

A

True

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19
Q

How do technological advancements such as exercise machines raise a potential concern for mobility and stability training?

A

Often, individuals with limited stability/mobility will use the machines for compensated movement, yet, this does not fix the original issue.

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20
Q

What are the 6 stages of dysfunctional movement?

A
  1. Muscle imbalance
  2. The muscle imbalance alters physiological and neurological properties
  3. The mobility-stability relationship is compromised
  4. The body learns to achieve the desired movement with least resistance
  5. Dysfunctional movement occurs
  6. There is an inevitable breakdown of the body
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21
Q

Why does periods of inactivity (ie sedentary) lead to muscle imbalances and therefore physiological and neurological property issues?

A

During periods of inactivity, joints are held in shortened position causing certain muscles to shorten and their antagonist muscles to lengthen.

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22
Q

What is the length-tension relationship between?

A

The length-tension relationship is between the contractile proteins of a sarcomere and their force generating capacity.

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23
Q

What are two examples of contractile proteins?

A

Actin, myosin

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24
Q

What does a slight stretch of the sarcomere beyond its normal resting length result in?

A

This increases the spatial arrangement between the muscle’s contractile proteins and increases the force generating capacity - AKA this is length-tension relationship.

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25
Q

What would reduce the muscle’s force-generating potential?

A

Stretching the sarcomere beyond optimal range and beyond that of the length-tension relationship. Also shortening the sarcomere beyond resting length.

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26
Q

When sarcomere is at its resting length, it is at around 80% of muscle tension, what happens to the % of muscle tension when it shortens and overly lengthens?

A

When it shortens, the % of muscle tension severely decreases and vice versa.

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27
Q

What contributes to shortening of muscles? (4)

A

Muscle immobilzation, passive shortening, trauma and aging

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28
Q

How many sarcomeres will a typical muscle myofibril have?

A

500,000 sarcomeres arranged in series.

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29
Q

What happens to the muscles on the opposing side of the lengthened muscles?

A

They adapt and add sarcomeres in series to shift the length tension curve. They generate more force when lengthened but reduced force when shortened or at normal resting length.

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30
Q

How would you restore the normal resting length in a muscle that is currently overly lengthened or shortened?

A

This requires a physiological adaptation and strengthening in the normal-resting-length position as opposed to lengthened position.

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31
Q

What is a force-couple relationship?

A

The definition of muscles working together to provide opposing, directional or contralateral pulls at joints.

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32
Q

What is joint movement dependent on?

A

Nerve activity

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33
Q

What is done (to some degree) to help stabilize and control movement within a joint movement?

A

Simultaneous co-contraction of the antagonist muscle.

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34
Q

What is increased within the muscle and subsequently implied when a muscle becomes shortened?

A

Tonicity is increased within the muscle and this implies that the muscle requires a smaller or weaker nerve impulse for contraction.

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35
Q

If a muscle is shortened, and the client tries to activate the antagonist muscle at a joint - what will the agonist do?

A

The agonist will have a reduced irritability threshold meaning it will require weaker nerve impulses to contract. Therefore, the agonist will prematurely activate and inhibit the antagonist’s contraction.

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36
Q

What is a hypertonic muscle?

A

Simply, a tight muscle. It has too much tone/tension.

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37
Q

Hypertonic muscles decrease the neural drive to the opposing muscle, what is this via?

A

Reciprocal Inhibition

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38
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A

Reciprocal Inhibition is the process of the antagonist/opposing muscle relaxing to allow contraction of the agonist on the other side of the joint.

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39
Q

What is an example of reciprocal inhibition in a bicep curl?

A

To contract your elbow flexors (biceps) your elbow extensors (triceps) must be inhibted.

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40
Q

What is synergistic dominance?

A

When the body has to use other muscles at the joint to become the prime mover due to other muscles (at the joint) being weak/shortened.

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41
Q

Phase 1 of Resistance Training first focuses on stabilization of the lumbar spine/region. What is the next focus point?

A

When the lumbar spine region appears to be stabilized and core function is of an adequate level, you move to the hips and thoracic spine which are adjacent to the lumbar spine.

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42
Q

After stabilizing the lumbar region and hips/thoracic spine, what is the next focus point?

A

The next focus is the scapulthoracic region.

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43
Q

After stabilizing and increasing mobility of the lumbo-pelvic, thoracic and shoulder regions - what is the next focus for the Resistance Training programme?

A

Enhancing stability and mobility of the distal extremities.

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44
Q

Why is it important to develop stability before trying to improve mobility?

A

Because focusing on mobility may compromise existing stability within the segment due to muscles needing to alter their functions to assist in providing stability.

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45
Q

What type of fibers do muscles that act primarily as stabilizers contain more concentrations of?

A

Type 1 muscle fibers / slow-twitch

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46
Q

What type of fibers do muscles that act primarily for joint movement and force-generation contain greater concentrations of?

A

Type 2 muscle fibers / fast-twitch

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47
Q

What type of muscle fibers are better suited for strength and power type training?

A

Fast-twitch / type 2

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48
Q

If a client demonstrates a lack of trunk stability during a hurdle step test, what will this show?

A

That they have low core function.

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49
Q

If a client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt during a static postural assessment, what muscles are tight and what needs to be addressed?

A

The hip flexors are tight and the trainer needs to address a lack of hip flexor mobility.

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50
Q

Phase 1 will consider all types of stretching, what are these? (5)

A 
myofascial release
static stretch
proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
dynamic stretch
ballistic stretch
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51
Q

What type of stretching would be recommended for a deconditioned client with poor flexibility and muscle imbalance pre-workout, during, post-workout?

A

Pre: Myofascial release before warm up and static stretching post-workout.
During: Dynamic
Post: Myofascial Release, Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation, Static

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52
Q

What type of stretching would be recommended for a conditioned client with good flexibility and muscle balance pre-workout, during, post-workout?

A

Pre: Myofascial release and dynamic stretches.
During: Dynamic
Post: Myofascial Release, Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation, Static

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53
Q

What type of stretching would be recommended for a performance athlete with good flexibility and muscle balance pre-workout, during, post-workout?

A

Pre: Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching.
During: Dynamic
Post: Myofascial release, Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation & Static

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54
Q

What does Self-Myofascial Release theoretically reset and reduce?

A

It is though to reset the proprioceptive mechanisms of soft tissue and reduce hypertonicity (tightness) within the muscles and fascia - thereby increasing ROM.

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55
Q

What does Autogenic Inhibition state that activation of Golgi-tendon organ inhibits?

A

Muscle spindle response

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56
Q

When a contraction or active stretch movement in an agonist is performed for over 6 seconds, what happens to the antagonist?

A

The antagonist muscle becomes inhibited and allows it to be stretched.

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57
Q

What should the strengthening of muscles to improve posture initially focus on?

A

Placing the client in positions of good posture and beginning low-grade isometric contractions of 2-4 reps and 5-10 seconds.

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58
Q

Why is it better to gradually increase exercise volume to improve strength and endurance when focusing on improving posture?

A

Because higher intensities and a requirement of greater forces will evoke faulty recruitment patterns and may overload the muscles.

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59
Q

What is an example of an exercise that a client should perform to help strengthen their posterior deltoids and rhomboids that are associated with forward-rounded shoulders?

A

Reverse flys in a supine position, they should isometrically press the back of arms into the floor.

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60
Q

Activation of the core muscles produces a ‘hoop tension’ effect, what does this do?

A

Increased intraabdominal pressure which creates a lift pressure against the diaphragm, increases traction between the lumbar vertebrae and reduces joint/disc compression in the lumbar discs by creating a rigid cylinder to stabilize the spine against loading forces.

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61
Q

What is recommended that the activating core phase should begin focusing on?

A

It should begin by focusing on stability within the lumbar spine, particularly exercises that emphasize Transverse Abdominis Activation and re-education of faulty motor patterns.

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62
Q

Why might obese clients find it uncomfortable to lie on their backs or assume an all-fours position?

A

Due to the extra girth around their abdomen.

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63
Q

When should clients implement bracing of the core?

A

During movements with external loading forces

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64
Q

What should stage 1: core function of activating the core emphasize?

A

It should emphasize core activation exercises and isolated stabilization under minimal spinal loading

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65
Q

What should stage 2: static balance of activating the core emphasize?

A

It should emphasize seated and standing stabilization over a fixed base of support.

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66
Q

What should stage 3: dynamic balance of activating the core emphasize?

A

It should emphasize whole-body stabilization over a dynamic base of support.

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67
Q

How should a client perform a Supine Drawing-In (centering)?

A

They should assume a supine, bent-knee position and align knees + second toe with anterior superior iliac spine. Hands are in line with belly button on sides, contract and activate core muscles for 1-2 sets, 10 reps with a 2-second tempo.

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68
Q

How should a client perform a Quadruped Drawing-In (centering) with extremity movement?

A

AKA BIRD DOGS
Client assumes quadruped position with knees under hips and hands/shoulders - they must maintain a neutral spine. They lift one arm + opposite leg off the floor and perform a slow controlled rep in which they lift and lower both limbs simultaneously.

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69
Q

How do you progress the Quadruped Drawing-In with extremity movement in an individual that is having difficulty stabilizing?

A

First, perform the exercise with only raising one arm for 1-2 sets with 10 reps and 2 second temp.
Then perform the same with only raising one leg.
Then once all limbs have been worked, move into performing it with raising contralateral limbs.

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70
Q

In the core function stage of Proximal Stability, in what order do you progress through the exercises of Supine Drawing-in and Quadruped Drawing-in?

A

First you work on Supine Drawing-in, once that demonstrates good activation of the core and pelvic floor, they may move onto quadruped drawing-in.

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71
Q

What is the goal of the hips and thoracic spine stage in proximal mobility phase? And what should be the focal point?

A

The goal is to improve mobility between these two joints that are adjacent to the lumbar spine. The focal point comes from previous postural observations during movement screens and any limitations that need improved.

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72
Q

What is a monoarticulate muscle? Give an example muscle.

A

One that crosses one joint.

Example: soleus muscle

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73
Q

What is a biarticulate muscle? Give an example muscle.

A

One that crosses two joints.

Example: Hamstrings

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74
Q

Why should trainers incorporate flexibility exercises in all 3 planes?

A

Because muscles contribute to movement in all 3 planes.

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75
Q

What is the objective of the cat-camel motion exercise?

A

To improve extensibility within the lumbar extensor muscles.

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76
Q

What is the objective of a pelvic tilt movement?

A

To improve hip mobility in the sagittal plane.

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77
Q

What is the objective of the pelvic tilt progression of supine bent-knee marches?

A

To improve hip mobility in the sagittal plane without compromising lumbar stability during lower-extremity movement.

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78
Q

What is the objective of the pelvic tilt progression of modified dead bug with reverse bent-knee marches?

A

To improve hip mobility in the sagittal plane without compromising lumbar stability during lower-extremity movement.

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79
Q

What is the objective of the lying hip flexor stretch?

A

To improve mobility of the hip flexors in the sagittal plane without compromising lumbar stability.

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80
Q

What is the objective of the half-kneeling triplanar stretch?

A

To improve mobility of the hip flexors in all 3 planes without compromising lumbar stability.

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81
Q

What is the objective of the lying hamstring stretch?

A

To improve mobility of the hamstrings in the sagittal plane without compromising lumbar stability.

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82
Q

What is the objective of the shoulder bridge (glute bridge) movement?

A

To improve hip mobility and stability and core stability by activating gluteal muscle groups.

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83
Q

What is the objective of the supine 90-90 hip rotator stretch?

A

To improve hip mobility in the transverse plane.

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84
Q

What is the objective of the spinal extensions and spinal twists?

A

To promote thoracic extension.

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85
Q

What is the objective of spinal twists?

A

To promote trunk rotation, primarily through the thoracic spine with some lateral hip mobility.

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86
Q

What is the objective of rocking quadrupeds?

A

To promote hip and thoracic mobility while simultaneously maintain lumbar stability.

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87
Q

How does the scapulothoracic joint impact the mobility of the glenohumeral joint?

A

The glenohumeral joint’s ability to achieve a degree of movement is contingent upon the stability of the scapulothoracic region.

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88
Q

Why does stability of the scapulothoracic region require synergistic action from force-couples?

A

Because the scapulae only attach to the axial skeleton via clavicles, stabilization requires muscular balance within the force-couples of the joint.

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89
Q

Why would a programme promoting scapulothoracic stability may need to include stretches to promote extensibilty of both the muscle and joint structures?

A

Because many muscles of the scapulothoracic region cross the glenohumeral joint and require substanial amounts of mobility.

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90
Q

Why is it critical that an inferior glide of the humeral head during abduction of the arm?

A

Because the articular surface of the humeral head is almost twice the size of the glenoid fossa and cannot operate as a true ball-and-socket joint. This glide allows that.

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91
Q

If the deltoid acted alone during abduction, what would occur?

A

Pure superior glide would occur which would impinge the humeral head against the coracoacromial arch.

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92
Q

Why does promoting stability in the scapulothoracic region require thoracic mobility and good muscle balance?

A

With good thoracic mobility and muscle balance, the scapulothoracic region can effectively stabilize the scapula and control movement whilst the more distal mobilizers (e.g deltoids) can generate larger amounts of force.

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93
Q

Apart from thoracic mobility, what else is considered a key factor to promoting scapulothoracic stabilization?

A
  • tissue extensibility
  • healthy rotator cuff muscle function
  • muscle balance within parascapular muscles
  • the ability to resist upward glide and impingement against the coracoacromial arch during deltoid action
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94
Q

What are different stretches to do to stretch the inferior, posterior, anterior and superior components of the shoulder capsule?

A

Inferior - overhead triceps stretch
Posterior - bringing the arm in front and across body
Anterior - pectoralis stretch
Superior - placing towel in between bent elbow and chest, pull elbow downard and inwards

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95
Q

What is the key role of the serratus anterior in both closed and open kinetic chain movements to promote scapulothoracic stability?

A

During close-kinetic-chain movements, the SA moves the thorax toward a more fixed and stable scapulae. During open-kinetic-chain movements, the SA controls movement of the scapulae against a fixed rib cage.

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96
Q

Why are closed kinetic-chain movements considered more functional?

A

Because they mimic daily activites, load and compress joints, increase kinesthetic awareness and proprioception.

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97
Q

Why are open kinetic-chain movement not as effective and functional than CKC?

A

Because they do not restore coordinated parascapular control and can be too challenging in deconditioned individuals.

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Perfectly
98
Q

What is the objective of shoulder packing?

A

To kinesthetically improve awareness of good scapular position and to improve flexibility and strength of key parascapular muscles.

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99
Q

What position must a client perform rotator cuff conditioning muscles from?

A

A packed shoulder position.

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100
Q

What is the objective of the internal and external humeral rotation?

A

To improve rotator cuff function while maintaining good scapular position.

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101
Q

What is the objective of a diagonals movement?

A

To improve rotator cuff function with four integrated movements in two diagonal patterns at the glenohumeral joint and scapulothoracic joints.

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102
Q

What is the objective of reverse flys with supine 90-90?

A

To strengthen the posterior muscles of the shoulder complex.

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103
Q

What is the objective of prone arm lifts?

A

To strengthen the parascapular muscles.

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104
Q

What is the objective of a closed kinetic chain weight shift?

A

To stabilize the scapulothoracic joint and lumbar spine in a closed kinetic chain position.

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105
Q

Within the distal segments of the body, what muscles are often problematic and exhibit tightness/limited mobility?

A

The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles.

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106
Q

What is likely to happen once a stretch reaches the muscles flexibility limit?

A

It is likely compensated movement with further stretching past this point will occur.

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107
Q

Where does a person COG usually locate?

A

2 inches anterior to the spine in the location of the first and second sacral joints. But it varies from person to person.

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108
Q

The body is considered stable when its _____ __ ____ falls within its base of support.

A

line of gravity

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109
Q

What is the limit of stability?

A

The degree of allowable sway away from the line of gravity that can be tolerated without a need to change the base of support.

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110
Q

What factors need to be followed through static-balance exercises over a fixed BOS when introudcing static-balance training to core function?

A
  • engaging the core musculature throughout each exercise
  • performing them in seated positions using stable or unstable surfaces to impose small changes to the balance centers
  • progressively manipulating training variables to challenge the body’s balance centers and LOS
  • using more static exercises that maintain postural control for 5-10 seconds
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111
Q

Once core balance is deemed good, what two extra challenging variables can be added to exercises to challenge balance?

A
  • reducing points of contact

- adding additional unstable surfaces

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112
Q

What are the training variables for static balance (core)?

A
  • 2-3 times a week
  • performing exercises toward the beginning of workouts before onset of fatigue
  • performing 1 set of 2-4 reps, each for 5-10 seconds
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113
Q

What are the training conditions for static balance (core)?

A
  • Changing BOS from wide to narrow
  • Raising center of gravity
  • Shifting line of gravity
  • Sensory alteration in front of clients face, performing slow hand-eye tracking or slow head movements
  • sensory removal such as closing eyes
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114
Q

What is increased during integrated movements that causes greater need for spine stabilization?

A

The effects of external loads, gravity and reactive forces.

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115
Q

What are the 4 different stance-position progressions for testing static balance?

A
  1. Narrow stance - hip-width stance
  2. Split stance - staggerd stance
  3. Tandem stance
  4. Single leg stance
116
Q

What screening will identify any issues for a single-leg stance?

A

the step-hurdle screen

117
Q

What does standing efficiently on a single leg mandate?

A

It mandates stability in the stance-leg, hip and torso.

118
Q

What should a client learn to effectively control before learning single-leg movements?

A

Hip Adduction

119
Q

What will weak hip abductors place stress on when single-leg stance is performed?

A

The knees

120
Q

What is the objective of a single-leg stance?

A

To promote stability within the stance-leg and hip during a single-leg stand.

121
Q

During a single-leg stance test, how will you know there is an issue?

A

When the client cannot control the hip moving 2+ inches away from the plum line when foot is raised.

122
Q

How can you introduce dynamic upper-extremity movement patterns over a static base of support?

A

Arms can move unilaterally one at a time, bilaterally, reciprocally (alternating,) and feet can be in any stance except single-leg.

123
Q

How can you introduce lower-extremity movement patterns over a static base of support?

A

By assuming single-leg stance or swining one leg forward and backwards.

124
Q

How can you introduce upper and lower extremity movement patterns over a static base of support?

A

Move limbs ipsilaterally (same side) or contralaterally (opposite sides,) move limbs ‘in sync’ and ‘out of sync.’

125
Q

Which phase of training will start to primarily implement and focus on dynamic-balance training?

A

Phase 2: Movement Training

126
Q

What factors alter the time frame it takes to successfully train ADL movements in phase 2 of training?

A
  1. current conditioning level
  2. body type
  3. past experiences
  4. abilityies
  5. attitudes
  6. motivation
  7. emotional make-up
  8. learning styles
  9. maturation
127
Q

Why are glute and quad dominance more critical to women?

A

Due to their larger Q-Angle, joint laxity associated with hormones, smaller ligaments and surface area for attachment.

128
Q

What is a Q-Angle?

A

The angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur and line of pull of the patellar ligament.

129
Q

How can you determine a client’s ankle mobility in terms of limitation for a bend and lift movement?

A

Ask the client to stand with one foot on a low riser with their tibia perpendicular to the floor. As they slowly lean forward and dorsiflex the ankle, the heel will either lift up or the ankle will fall into pronation.

130
Q

What is the objective of a hip-hinge?

A

To emphasize glute dominance over quad dominance during the initial 10-15 degrees of movement.

131
Q

What is the objective of the lower-extremity alignment exercise?

A

To promote alignment among the hips, knees and feet during a bend-and-lift movement.

132
Q

With the lower-extremity alignment exercise, how do you alter it to strengthen the hip abductors and hip adductors?

A

To strengthen hip abductors, wrap an elastic band around the knees,
To strengthen hip adductors, squeeze a soft ball between the knees.

133
Q

What is the objective of the Figure-4 Position?

A

To promote optimal alignment between the trunk and tibia, as well as optimal position of the spine.
AKA perform a proper form in squat

134
Q

What is the objective of a half-kneeling lunge rise? (pulse lunge)

A

To teach the proper mechanics of the rising portion of the lunge.

135
Q

What is the objective of a lunge movement?

A

To teach the proper mechanics of a full lunge.

136
Q

What is the objective of the lunge matrix movement?

A

To promote stability and mobility throughout the kinetic chain using variations of the standard lunge movement.

137
Q

What is the collaborative effort that allows shoulder flexion and overhead presses to move to 180 degrees?

A

It is a collaboration of the capulae rotating against the rib cage and the humerus rotating within the glenoid fossa.

138
Q

What must first be established to facilitate scapular stability during pushing and pulling movements?

A

Mobility within the thoracic spine.

139
Q

What is the objective of the bilateral and unilateral presses?

A

To execute open-chain pushing movements in unsupported environments without compromising stability in the scapulothoracic joint and lumbar spine.

140
Q

What is the progression exercises of bilateral and unilateral presses?

A
  1. Seated press
  2. Standing press with a split-stance
  3. Single-arm press with a contralateral-stance
  4. Single-arm press with an ipsilateral-stance
141
Q

What is the objective of the thoracic matrix?

A

To promote multiplanar thoracic mobility with drivers while stabilizing the kinetic chain.

142
Q

What is a stance progression through the thoracic matrix?

A

To progress from a neutral stance to a staggered stance and then onto various lunge and squat positions.

143
Q

What is the objective of an overhead press?

A

To provide additional stability to the shoulder capsule during the lowering phase of overhead pressing movements.

144
Q

What is a progression from the overhead press?

A

To go from a barbell to holding dumbbells and performing a variety of shoulder-press movements whilst introducing changes in the plane of movement.

145
Q

When it comes to pulling movements, stabilization of the scapulothoracic region is important. What does a trainer need to identify when training?

A

Whether they want to train a client to pull away from a position of scapular stability to work the shoulder or to intentionally incorporate scapular retraction into the pulling motion.

146
Q

What is the objective of a bilateral and unilateral row?

A

To execute open-kinetic-chain pulling movements in unsupported environments without compromising stability of the scapulothoracic joint and lumbar spine.

147
Q

What is the progression of a bilateral or unilateral row?

A
  1. Seated row
  2. Standing row
  3. Single-arm row with a contralateral-stance
  4. Single-arm row with an ipsilateral-stance.
148
Q

What are anatomy trains or myofascial slings?

A

Muscles, fascia and ligaments that work together to transfer load through the lumbar and pelvic region.

149
Q

Why should a trainer wait to train rotational movements until the client has conditioned their core?

A

Because these movements increase forces placed along the vertebrae.

150
Q

What actions do wood chop exercise movements include?

A

A pulling action down the front of the body, a pushing action through the upper extremeity, stabilization of the trunk in all 3 planes and weight transference through the hips and legs.

151
Q

What actions do hay balers include?

A

A pulling action to initiate movement up across the front of body, stabilization of the trunk in all 3 planes and weight transference through hips and legs.

152
Q

Why is the need for thoracic mobility and lumbar stability greater for rotational movement than push/pull?

A

Because without them, the shoulders and hips may become compromised due to the 3-dimensional movement pattern which increases risk of injury.

153
Q

What is the objective of the wood chop and hay baler movements?

A

To introduce basic spiral patterns with small, controlled forces placed along the spine.

154
Q

What are the progressions of the wood chop and hay baler movements?

A
  1. Long movement arm with arms extended and close to body
  2. Standing short moment arm with split-stance and bent elbows
  3. Standing long moment arm with extended arms, split-stance and torso/hips aligned forward
  4. Hip hinge/squat with hands raised toward shoulder
  5. Long moment arm with elbows extended with elbows extended and wide grip
  6. Full chop allowing the torso to rotate further past the hips
155
Q

What is the objective of the wood chop and hay baler movements with a cable machine or relastic resistance?

A

To add external resistance from a cable or elastic resistance to the full wood chop/hay baler patterns.

156
Q

Why would the intensity of the hay baler potentially be greater to the wood chop movement?

A

Due to the directional pull of gravity and the need to lift against gravitational forces in a hay baler versus resisting or slowing the effects of gravity in the wood chop.

157
Q

Does the thoracic spine offer greater mobility than the lumbar spine or does the lumbar spine offer greater mobility than the thoracic spine?

A

The thoracic spine offers greater mobility.

158
Q

What is training volume?

A

The total amount of work completed.

159
Q

Is it recommended to do a low or high training volume when starting a new exercise? Why?

A

Low because this promotes and encourages success.

160
Q

How many seconds do you spend in concentric and eccentric phases in a 6-second rep?

A

2-3 in concentric

3-4 in eccentric

161
Q

What should the focus be on in a 6-second rep?

A

On control and reaching a full ROM.

162
Q

What is the most effective rep development?

A

A double-rep development such as moving from 8 reps with desired weight to 12 reps and then progressing to a higher weight once that has been achieved.

163
Q

How long does it take to lose strength gains?

A

It takes 8 weeks to lose 50% and 16 weeks to lose it all.

164
Q

What is a period training regime?

A

This is a programme in which the sets, reps, weights variables are changed in specific intervals.

165
Q

What is a linear periodization programme?

A

In linear, the training protocol in each microcycle is the same. Training variables do not change until the next microcycle.

166
Q

What are the 2 types of periodization training programmes?

A

Linear and undulating

167
Q

What is an undulating periodization training programme?

A

The training variables change within the microcycle but also change in the next one.

168
Q

What are the first 3 steps before determining what phase of training a new client should move into?

A
  1. Health history
  2. Understanding client’s goals
  3. Appropriate assessments
169
Q

What do you need to exhibit in order to move to phase 2 (movement training) of training?

A

good postural and core stability, good joint stability and mobility.

170
Q

Which of the 4 phases of training really focuses on improving Activities of Daily Living?

A

Phase 2: movement training

171
Q

What is a good teacing movement pattern?

A

The part-whole pattern. This is where you teach individual components of the exercise, master each component and then perform the full exercise.

172
Q

Concentric actions occur when muscles shorten, eccentric actions occur when they lengthen, what occurs when they don’t change length but still produce force?

A

Isometric actions

173
Q

A woman that doesn’t incorporate strength training loses ____ pounds of muscle every year.

A

0.5

174
Q

Why is muscle tissue constantly active?

A

For the purpose of maintenance and remodeling of muscle proteins.

175
Q

Resting skeletal muscles (even while asleep) are responsibe for more than ____% of the body’s calorie use.

A

25%

176
Q

Why does resistance exercise aid calorie expenditure?

A

Because it increases resting metabolic rates

177
Q

How long after a challenging strength-training session does the body require increased energy for due to microtraumar-repair and muscle-remodeling?

A

72 hours

178
Q

Why does the body’s resting metabolic rate increase following strength-training?

A

To aid microtrauma-repair and muscle-remodeling.

179
Q

Why can jogging cause greater stress on the knees?

A

Because it places more stress on the posterior leg muscles than the anterior ones.

180
Q

What does a balanced programme that incorporates strength/resistance and cardio training avoid?

A

It avoids muscle imbalances and overuse.

181
Q

Concentrations of what hormones increase during a resistance session?

A

Catabolic (cortisol, epinephrine) and Anabolic (growth, testosterone)

182
Q

What must nerve impulses activate via the CNS for a resistance exercise to take place?

A

Nerve impulses must be transmitted from the CNS to activate the appropriate motor units and muscle fibers in the prime mover muscles.

183
Q

What fuel sources are used by the prime mover muscles during resistance training?

A

Creatine phosphate and glycogen

184
Q

The cellular combustion of CP and glycogen results in metabolic-by-products being released during training, what are they?

A

hydrogen ions

lactate

185
Q

In what system do acute adaptations to resistance exercise take place?

A

the endocrine system

186
Q

What are the 2 principal long-term adaptations to progressive resistance training?

A

increased muscular strength

hypertrophy (increased muscle size)

187
Q

What is motor learning?

A

Strength gains as the result of neurological factors usually at the start of a new programme.

188
Q

What is myofibrillar hypertrophy?

A

The increase in the number of myofibrils within the muscle fibers and therefore greater muscle contraction force.

189
Q

What is sarcoplasmic hypertrophy?

A

The increase in muscle cell sarcoplasm that surrounds the myofibrils.

190
Q

What does sarcoplasmic hypertrophy increase?

A

The cross-sectional area or size of the muscle.

191
Q

What is transient hypertrophy?

A

The ‘pump’ immediately after resistance training

192
Q

What factors influence muscular strength and hpertrophy?

A 
Hormone levels
Gender
Age
Muscle fiber type
Muscle length
Limb length
Tendon insertion point
193
Q

What are higher levels of the growth hormone and testosterone favourable for?

A

Increasing muscular strength and size

194
Q

Why do men typically have higher muscle mass and overall muscular strength than women?

A

Due to larger body size, higher lean weight percentage and more anabolic hormones.

195
Q

What type of muscle fibers are smaller with more aerobic power AKA they give lower levels of force but for longer periods?

A

Type 1 Fibers / Slow Twitch

196
Q

What type of muscle fibers are typically larger with more anaerobic capacity but for shorter periods?

A

Type 2 Fibers / Fast Twitch

197
Q

Which muscle fibers will be activated with low external forces and which for high external forces?

A

Slow twitch/type 1 fibers are activated for low force production and fast twitch/type 2 for high force.

198
Q

Which type of muscle fibers play a larger role in hypertrophy?

A

Fast-twitch/type 2 as they can generate more force

199
Q

Why does muscle length make it easier for some to build more muscle?

A

Because those with long muscles have shorter tendon attachments and those with short muscles have longer tendon attachments. Therefore, longer muscles have more potential to build.

200
Q

Do shorter limbs provide leverage advantages for force/strength over longer limbs?

A

Yes

201
Q

Can a person’s tendon insertion point provide differences in their strength performance?

A

Yes, if someone’s tendon of insertion is closer to their elbow then they will not generate much strength as opposed to if it were farther away.

202
Q

What training variables affect the rate and degree of strength development?

A

Volume, intensity, tempo, rest intervals and frequency.

203
Q

What is the recommended frequency of training for beginners, intermediates and advance trainers weekly?

A

Beginner - 2-3
Intermediate - 3-4
Advanced - 4-7

204
Q

What is the repetition-volume calculation?

A

sets x reps = volume

205
Q

What is the load-volume caculation?

A

exercise weight load x reps x sets

206
Q

How long should the concentric and eccentric actions of an exercise take in a 6 second rep?

A 
concentric = 1-3 seconds
eccentric = 2-4 seconds
207
Q

What is a typical rest interval for someone looking to maximize muscle size?

A

30 - 90 seconds

208
Q

Progressively training to muscle fatigue with 70-80% of max resistance represents an ______ exercise bout that provides effective strength-building stimulus.

A

anaerobic

209
Q

What do each of the following represent in periodized training?
Macrocycles
Mesocycles
Microcyles

A 
Macrocycles = overall time frame for a specific periodization programme
Mesocycle = shorter-term goals that are addressed in time segments less than macrocycles
Microcycles = shorter-term goals, SMART goals that provide reinforcement for making small steps to larger goals
210
Q

How long do Macrocycles, Mesocycles and Microcycles last?

A 
Macro = 6-12 months
Meso = 3 months
Micro = 2-4 weeks
211
Q

What does the acronym FIRST stand for?

A 
Frequency
Intensity
Reps
Sets
Type
212
Q

Do open or closed chain movements involve more muscles an joints?

A

Closed-chain

213
Q

People with weak stabilizer muscles exhibit problems with performing proper, efficient movement which can lead to injury/pain, should their programme focus more so on closed or open kinetic chain movements?

A

Closed-chain

214
Q

What is the recommended training intensity % for someone looking to build muscular endurance?

A

60-70% of max resistance

215
Q

At what % should you increase weight loads in training programmes?

A

5%

216
Q

What is the purpose of a superset?

A

To train a different muscle - usually antagonist/opposing -whilst the other is recovering.

217
Q

How does supersetting affect the metabolic response?

A

It increases the clients metabolic response because muscular activity is occurring throughout the entire workout.

218
Q

Why is it not practical to involve weekly weight load increases to a regular programme?

A

Because some clients will progress faster and others slower meaning they may progress too quickly and risk injury.

219
Q

Muscle hypertrophy sessions generally favour relatively high training _____ and brief rests between sets.

A

volume

220
Q

What is the optimal rep range and rest intervals for muscle hypertrophy?

A

Rep range of 6-12 with 60-90 seconds rest.

221
Q

What is a compound set?

A

When the client performs two or more exercises for the same muscles in rapid succession to push for higher fatigue and pump.

222
Q

What is breakdown training?

A

When you train to muscle fatigue and then immediately reduce the resistance by 10-20% and perform as many reps as you can.
AKA drop set

223
Q

What is assisted training?

A

When you train to muscle fatigue and then receive manual assistance from someone else on the lifting phase for 3-5 post-fatigue reps.

224
Q

Why should you periodically take measurements of body comp and circumferences throughout body building?

A

Because bodybuilding is about growing muscle size so a lack of improvement will indicate that a change in training is needed.

225
Q

What are the 2 power equations?

A 
power = force x velocity
power = work / time
226
Q

What is the equation to calculate force?

A

mass x acceleration

227
Q

What is the equation to calculate velocity?

A

distance / time

228
Q

What is the equation to calculate work?

A

force x distance

229
Q

To progress to performance training (phase 4) what prerequisites should clients exhibit?

A
  • a foundation of strength and joint mobility/stability
  • adequate static and dynamic balance
  • effective core function
  • anaerobic efficiency
  • athleticism
  • no contraindications to load bearing, dynamic movements
  • no medical concerns that affect balance or motor skills
230
Q

Who would not be appropriate for power training?

A

clients that exhibit problems with postural stability and movement mechanics

231
Q

What questions should a trainer ask if their client expresses interest in performance training?

A
  • which movement patterns and activities are required for the client to be successful in reaching their performance goals?
  • what are the athletic skills and abilities they currently lack?
  • what are the common injuries associated with the activity?
232
Q

What does plyometric exercises involve?

A

Quick and powerful movements that involve the stretch-shortening cycle (eccentric contraction followed by immediate concentric)

233
Q

How does plyometric exercises increase total force production?

A

When the muscles are rapidly stretched in an eccentric action and immediately followed by a concentric action which shortens them, the stored energy is released and results in increased total force production.

234
Q

What is the period of time between an eccentric and concentric action called?

A

The amortization phase

235
Q

What is the amortization phase?

A

The period of time between an eccentric and concentric action

236
Q

When a quick stretch is detected, what do muscle spindles respond by doing?

A

They invoke an involuntary concentric contraction (stretch reflex) which increases the agonist muscles activity and therefore increase muscular force production.

237
Q

What happens if the amortization phase is prolonged?

A

The stored musculotendinous energy will dissipate and will be lost as heat and the reflexive potential is lost.

238
Q

What do lower and upper body plyometric exercises involve?

A

Lower body exercises involve jumps and bounds on one leg or both legs.

Upper body exercises involve medicine ball throws, catches, different types of push-ups, anything that will increase force production with an implement like a bat/racquet etc.

239
Q

How should plyometric programming exercises progress?

A
  1. Linear-forward
  2. Lateral
  3. Backpedal
  4. Rotational
  5. Crossover, cutting, curve
240
Q

When should personal trainers introduce high intensity, lower-body plyometric drills?

A

Only after the clients have demonstrated their ability to successfully squat 1.5 x their body weight or complete 5 squats with 60% of their body weight in 5 seconds.

241
Q

When should plyometric drills be performed in order to reduce risk of injury?

A

At the start of a training session after the completion of a dynamic warm up.

242
Q

What should the frequency of plyometric and speed/agility training workouts be?

A

It should range between 1 and 3 sessions a week.

243
Q

What is the recommended recovery period between high-intensity plyometric workout sessions?

A

48-72 hours

244
Q

Speed strength is the ability to develop force at high velocities, what does it rely on?

A

A person’s reactive ability.

245
Q

A client is preparing for a recreational tennis tournament in 3 months time, how long would each cycle be in this and what type of training exercises will be programmed?

A

3 months gives them a 12 week macrocycle which can be broken into 3 mesocycles of 4 weeks each and then further divided into 2 week microcycles.
The program will also focus on both lower and upper body power-training.

246
Q

What are the benefits of small-group training sessions?

A

For the trainer, it provides advantages in finance, time management and referrals as they are training more people in the same amount of time who can then talk to their friends.
For the clients, it is a lower-cost, enhanced accountability/motivation amongst workout partners and an opportunity to receive one on one instructions with a qualified PT.

247
Q

In a study by Faigenbaum 1993, how much more strength did the boys/girls that performed 5 basic resistance exercises twice a week for 8 weeks gain opposed to those that didn’t?

A

5 x more strength

248
Q

How should older adults avoid an unnecessary increase in blood pressure when working out?

A

By following proper breathing protocols

249
Q

What exercises are particularly well-suited to selectorized resistance machines? And why?

A 
Trunk flexion
Trunk extension
Trunk rotation
Knee flexion
Knee extension
Hip adduction
Hip abduction

Because it is hard to isolate these joint actions with free weights.

250
Q

Why are cable machines useful for stabilizer muscles?

A

Because they typically require contraction of many stabilizer muscles in order to maintain proper posture and positioning during the exercise performance.

251
Q

What are some benefits of kettlebell exercises?

A

Developing strength and power through integrated, whole-body movements in various planes.

252
Q

What happens if the learning and mastery phases of a programme are skipped?

A

The client’s nervous system and soft tissues have not been allowed to adapt properly which may result in injury.

253
Q

Why are medicine balls ideal for performing fast movements against resistance to enhance muscle power?

A

Because they permit a powerful exercise action that does not stress joint structures at the end of a movement because the resistance is then released.

254
Q

After how many seconds of a body-weight exercise is the strength-building stimulus diminished?

A

100 seconds

255
Q

How can you enhance body-weight exercises?

A

Wear a weighted vest, strap on weight plates, ankle weights; switching the angle of push and pull movements.

256
Q

What are hydrolysates?

A

Short amino-acid chains of partially digested protein.

257
Q

What % of protein is in whey powder, why concentrate and whey isolate?

A 
Powder = 11 - 15%
Concentrate = 25 - 89%
Isolate = 90+ %
258
Q

How much of milk’s protein content is accounted for by casein? And how does casein release into the bloodstream?

A

70-80%
and casein exists in micelle which is found in milk and provides a sustained slow release of AA’s into the bloodstream. sometimes lasting for hours.

259
Q

What does Glutamine do for the body?

A

Increases strength
Speeds recovery
Decreases frequency of respiratory infections
Prevents overtraining effects

260
Q

What does B-alanine (carnosine) and sodium bicarbonate act as in muscle tissue?

A

They act as pH buffers in muscle tissue, contribute to a less acidic environment which allows for a delay in fatigue and enhancement of muscle force and power output.

261
Q

What are benefits of caffeine?

A 
ward off sleep
improve athletic performance
decrease pain and fatigue
boost memory
enhance mood
262
Q

How long does it take for caffeine to enter the bloodstream?

A

It takes 40-60 mins for caffeine to reach all organs of the body and can have lasting effects for up to 6 hours.

263
Q

What does caffeine do to a nerve cell?

A

Nerve cells cannot tell the difference between adenosine and caffeine so, if it responds to caffeine it can exaggerate a stress response, speed up activity, constrict the brain’s blood vessels and increase neuron firing. Whereas if it responds to adenosine it dilates blood vessels and allows sleep.

264
Q

If a nerve cell responds to caffeine, what does the pituitary gland respond with?

A

The pituitary gland will increase activity by sending a message to the adrenals to produce adrenaline which is the fight or flight hormone.
This involves pupils and breathing tubes dilating, increased HR, blood flow shunts to the muscles, rise in BP, muscle contractions, excess glucose released from the liver into the bloodstream.

265
Q

How does caffeine positively affect exercise?

A

It sustains duration, maximises effort at 85% VO2 Max in cyclists, and quickens speed in endurance events.

266
Q

Why will caffeine respond better to infrequent users?

A

Because the brain in frequent users will be producing more adenosine receptors for adenosine binding meaning the effects are lowered.

267
Q

What is the benefit of ingesting creatine?

A

Boosting your body’s muscle creatine stores and enhancing muscle strength.

268
Q

Why is iron vital for athletes?

A

It is necessary for the synthesis of hemoglobin and myoglobin, two iron-protein complexes that deliver oxygen from the lungs to the working muscles.

269
Q

Why is zinc vital for athletes? How is it lost?

A

Zinc is important for immune function, protein synthesis and blood formation. It is lost through strenuous exercise especially in humid circumstances.

270
Q

Why is B12 vital for athletes?

A

B12 is important for normal metabolism of nerve tissue, protein, fat and carbs.

271
Q

Why is riboflavin vital for athletes?

A

It is vital for energy production, stored in the muscles and used mainly in times of muscular fatigue.

272
Q

Why is Vitamin D vital for athletes?

A

Vitamin D aids the absorption of calcium, bone growth and mineralization.

273
Q

Why is calcium important?

A

It is important for blood clotting, nerve transmission and muscle stimulation.

274
Q

What do androstenedione supplements claim to do?

A

Increase testosterone levels and therefore promote muscle size and strength.

275
Q

What are the risks of repeated Androstenedione use?

A

Decreased high density lipoprotein levels
increased cardiovascular disease risk
increased prostate cancer + pancreatic cancer risk
baldness
gynecomastia in men

276
Q

What are Androstenedione and Dehydroepiandrosterone precursors to?

A

Testosterone

277
Q

What does Dehydroepiandrosterone claim to do?

A

Promote youthfulness, virility, enhance strength

278
Q

Why is spot-reducing not possible?

A

Because people lose fat from adipose deposit areas in the reverse order that they accumulated the fat.

279
Q

Why are women not likely to ‘bulk’ up through weight training?

A

Women are typically smaller in size, have less muscle tissue and lower levels of anabolic hormones. Only a small % of women possess the genetic make up to actually experience significant muscle hypertrophy.

280
Q

Some individuals think using light weights and high reps will improve muscle tone, others believe high weight and low reps will increase muscle mass - why is this information incorrect?

A

To improve muscle mass or muscle tone, it only matters if you fatigue the working muscle within the anaerobic energy system time limit. If you do either of these but do not fatigue the muscle, no build will commence.

281
Q

What are the benefits of resistance training in youth?

A 
Improved cardiovascular risk profile
Better body composition
Better weight control
Stronger bones
More proficient motor-skill performance
Reduced injury risk
Positive psychosocial outcomes
282
Q

Some believe that free weights are superior to machines, why is this not completely true?

A

Whilst free weights require greater activation of the joint-stabilization muscles, they both provide the same resistance that is needed to fatigue the working muscle. Machines can also allow for better muscle isolation work.

283
Q

Some believe that when you stop resistance training, the muscle turns to fat - why is this untrue?

A

Muscle and fat are two different things. When you train, you gain muscle due to hypertrophy and reduce fat - when you stop, you may lose muscle due to atrophy and fat will increase due to lower caloric expenditure.

284
Q

What is the Valsava effect?

A

It occurs when someone holds their breath during exercise and raises their BP. It reduces cardiac output, which is the amount of blood that the heart puts out with every beat.

285
Q

What is the caution level of BP during exercise?

A

250mmHg Systolic BP

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