Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ACE Personal Training > Lesson 11: Physiological Assessments > Flashcards

Lesson 11: Physiological Assessments Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
ACE ® Health Coach flashcards
1
Q

What considerations should be made before choosing appropriate assessments for a client? (4)

A
  1. Goals
  2. Current fitness level
  3. Availability of equipment
  4. Your own familiarity with assessment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What test would you use to assess the VT1?

A

Submaximal talk test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How would you measure a client’s VT1 during the appropriate test?

A

The client will walk/cycle with a workload intensity of 3-4 on the RPE 10 point scale for around 2-3 mins. During the last 20 seconds, the client repeats a phrase and depending on their difficulty to talk, you assess if the VT1 has been achieved. Continue until it is achieved aka talking is difficult and measure HR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are ACE IFT Model’s Cardiorespiratory Training Phases?

A

Phase 1: Aerobic-base training
Phase 2: aerobic-efficiency training
Phase 3: anaerobic-endurance training
Phase 4: anaerobic-power training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the VT1 HR considered as for client training at Phase 2 of the IFT Model?

A

The VT1 HR is the desired HR for exercise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How would you test VT2?

A

Client runs/cycles at a workload that can be sustained for 20 mins and HR is recorded every 5 mins. The VT2 HR is determined by taking the average HR (from every 5 mins) and multiplying by .95.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is VT2 a good indicator of for a training programme?

A

The length of intervals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are 4 muscular endurance tests?

A
  1. Push-up test
  2. McGills Torso Test Battery
  3. Curl up test
  4. Bodyweight squat test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do muscular endurance tests assess?

A

The capacity of the muscle before reaching fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What muscles does the push-up test assess?

A

Pectoral Triceps and Anterior Deltoids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What can push-ups improve the muscular endurance of?

A
  1. Chest
  2. Shoulder
  3. Triceps
  4. Scapular Stabilizers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What ratios do you assess after the 3 McGills Torso Test Battery?

A

Flexion:Extension
Right Bridge:Left Bridge
Side Bridge:Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What muscles does the Trunk Flexor Test assess?

A

Transverse Abdominis, Quadratus Lumborum, Erector Spinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What muscles does the Trunk Lateral Test assess?

A

Transver Abdominis, Obliques, Quadratus Lumborum, Erector Spinae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What muscles does the Trunk Extensor Test assess?

A

Erector Spinae, Longissimus, Iliocostatus, Mutlifidi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 2 muscular strength tests you can complete?

A

1-rep or 10-rep max tests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What movements are often used in the 1-10 rep tests?

A

Bench press, squat, leg press.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do you estimate a client’s 1-rep max from a 10-rep test?

A

If the client can perform 10 squats at 185lbs then you multiply the weight by 1.41 to get the estimated 1rep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are 3 examples of tests you would administrate to test power?

A
  1. Standing long jump
  2. Vertical jump
  3. Kneeling overhead toss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 2 examples of anaerobic tests you would administrate to test power?

A
  1. Margaria Kalamen Stair Climb

2. 300 Yard Shuttle Run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are 3 examples of tests you would administrate to test speed, agility and coordination?

A
  1. Pro-agility
  2. T-test
  3. 40 yard dash
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What do health related assessments focus on? (5)

A
  1. Flexibility
  2. Muscular endurance
  3. Muscular strength
  4. Cardiorespiratory
  5. Body comp + antrhropometry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do skill related assessments focus on? (6)

A
  1. Speed
  2. Agility
  3. Coordination
  4. Reactivity
  5. Anaerobic capacity
  6. Anaerobic power
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

10 signs/symptoms to immediatly stop a test?

A
  1. Failure of equipment
  2. Signs of poor perfusion
  3. increased nervous system symptoms
  4. leg cramp/claudication
  5. request to stop
  6. onset of angina/chest pain
  7. significant drop in systolic BP despite increase in intensity
  8. Excessive rise in BP
  9. Excessive fatigue
  10. Excessive short breath/wheezing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are anthropometric measurements?

A

Weight, height and circumference to assess body size/dimension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 6 Body Comp tests?

A
  1. Bioelectrical Impedance
  2. DXA Scans
  3. Hydrostatic weighing
  4. Near Infrared Interactance
  5. Skinfold measurements
  6. Whole-body air displacement plethysmography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 4 body mass tests?

A
  1. Body Mass Index
  2. Girth measurements
  3. Height
  4. Weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the essential fat amounts for men and women?

A

Men 2-5%, Women 10-13%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does the term overweight mean?

A

Used for someone who is 20% over their ideal body weight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does the term overfat mean?

A

Used to describe an excess of body fat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does the Bioelectrical Impedance measure?

A

electrical signals as they pass through fat, lean mass and water in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the air displacement plethysmography (ADP) what does it measure?

A

An egg-shaped chamber that measures the amount of air displaced when someone sits on it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the Dual Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA) and what does it do?

A

it is a whole body scanning system that delivers a low-dose x-ray that reads both bone and soft tissue mass and identifies fat distribution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is hydrostatic weighing?

A

It is the measurement of displaced water that flows out when someone is fully submerged and measures body fat via body density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does a magnetic resonance imaging machine measure body composition?

A

It used magnetic forces to assess how much fat someone has and where it is placed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does a Near-Infrared Interactance measure body composition?

A

It uses a fiber optic probe connected to a digital analyzer that indirectly measures tissue composition (aka fat and water.) The calculations are placed in to an equation with height, weight, frame size and activity level to determine body comp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What does a Total-Body Electrical Compedence test do?

A

Uses an electromagnetic force field to assess the relative body fat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the Archimedes Principple equation?

A

Density = mass divided by volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What air is left in the body during the Hydrostatic Weight test?

A

Residual Volume and air in the gastrointestinal tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Residual Volume?

A

the air that is left in the body after fully exhaling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What 3 sites should be tested in the Skinfold Test for both men and women?

A

Men - chest, thigh and abdominal

Women - triceps, thigh, suprailium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you perform a skinfold test?

A

Holding the calipers in the right hand, use your left index and thumb to pinch 8cm of skin that is 1cm above the measurement site, grasp the skin and pull away from underlying muscle.
Pull the calipers trigger and slowly release, read the dial to nearest 0.5mm around 2-3 secs after release. Remove caliper and then remove pinch and repeat on same site at least twice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What side of the body should skin fold tests be performed?

A

Right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the body density of fat tissue in Gram Per Cubic Centre (g/cc) ?

A

0.9 g/cc3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the body density of fat-free tissue in Gram Per Cubic Centre (g/cc) ?

A

1.1 g/cc3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Siri equation?

A

(495/body density) - 450 = % fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the Brozek et al equation?

A

(457/body density) - 414 = % fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

According to Body Fat % Classifications, what are the % for athletes both men and women?

A

Men - 6-13%

Women - 14-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

According to Body Fat % Classifications, what are the % for fitness both men and women?

A

Men - 14-17%

Women - 21-24%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

According to Body Fat % Classifications, what are the % for average both men and women?

A

Men - 18-24%

Women - 25-31%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

According to Body Fat % Classifications, what are the % for obese both men and women?

A

Men - 25% +

Women - 31% +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How would you calculate someone’s desired body weight?

A
  1. 100% - body % = lean mass %
  2. Body weight X lean mass % = lean mass
  3. 100 - desired body fat % = desired lean mass %
  4. lean body mass / desired lean body mass % = desired body weight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the BMI Calculation?

A
  1. Convert weight from LB to KG by dividing LB by 2.2
  2. Convert height from inches to cm to meters by multiplying by 2.54 them dividing by 100.
  3. KG / Meters = BMI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

According to BMI, what is considered underweight?

A

< 18.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

According to BMI, what is considered normal?

A

18.5 - 24.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

According to BMI, what is considered overweight?

A

25 - 29.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

According to BMI, what is considered grade 1 obese?

A

30 - 34.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

According to BMI, what is considered grade 2 obese?

A

35 - 39.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

According to BMI, what is considered grade 3 obese?

A

> 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where would you take the abdomen girth measurement?

A

Greater anterior extension of abdomen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where would you take the arm girth measurement?

A

Midway between acromion and olecranon processes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where would you take the butt/hip girth measurement?

A

Horizontally at max circumference of butt - this is later used in WHR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where would you take the calf girth measurement?

A

Horizontally max circumference between the knee and ankle and perpendicular to long axis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where would you take the forearm girth measurement?

A

Perpendicular to long axis at max circumference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where would you take the midthigh girth measurement?

A

When standing with one foot on a bench so that knee is at 90 degrees, measurement is taken midway between inguinal crease and proximal border of patella.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Where would you take the upper thigh girth measurement?

A

Horizontally at max circumference of upper thigh just below gluteal fold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Where would you take the waist girth measurement?

A

Horizontally at narrowest part of torso or directly above iliac crest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What does Waist-Hip Ratio help determine?

A

If you are Andriod (apple) or Glynoid (pear) shaped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Where do the Android and Glynoid body types store fat?

A

Android - abdominal area

Glynoid - hips/thighs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How do you calculate Waist-Hip Ratio?

A

Waist Measurement / Hip Measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are excellent WHR for men and women?

A

Men - < 0.85

Women - <0.75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are good WHR for men and women?

A

Men - 0.85-0.89

Women - 0.75-0.79

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are average WHR for men and women?

A

Men - 0.9-0.95

Women - 0.8-0.86

74
Q

What are considered to be at risk WHR for men and women?

A

Men - >0.95

Women - >0.86

75
Q

What type of fat tends to contribute to Android body type fat distribution and why is this bad?

A

Visceral and it is bad because it encroaches the organs and is associated with insulin resistance.

76
Q

For every 1inch of waist increase in men, what risk occurs? (5)

A
  1. BP increase of 10%
  2. Blood Cholesterol increase of 8%
  3. High Density Lipoprotein increase of 15%
  4. Triglycerides Increase 18%
  5. Metabolic Syndrome risk increase 18%
77
Q

What waist circumference is considered very low risk for men and women?

A

Men - <32.1 inches

Women - <27.3 inches

78
Q

What waist circumference is considered low risk for men and women?

A

Men - 31.2-38.6 inches

Women - 27.3-34.7 inches

79
Q

What waist circumference is considered high risk for men and women?

A

Men - 39-46.8 inches

Women - 35.1-42.5 inches

80
Q

What waist circumference is considered very high risk for men and women?

A

Men - > 46.8 inches

Women - > 42.9 inches

81
Q

What is cardiorespiratory fitness?

A

How well the body can perform dynamic activity using large muscle groups at a moderate to high intensity for extended periods of time.

82
Q

What does cardiorespiratory fitness depend their to be good interrelationships between?

A

The cardiovascular, respiratory and skeletal muscle systems.

83
Q

What can testing cardiorespiratory fitness determine?

A
  1. Functional capacity
  2. A level of cardiorespiratory function that can serve as a starting point for aerobic conditioning
  3. Any underlying abnormalities that signify stages of cardiovascular disease
  4. Progress from previous testing.
84
Q

What is the Vo2 Max used to measure?

A

Someones cardiorespiratory efficieny.

85
Q

What is the VO2 Max an estimation of?

A

The body’s ability to use oxygen for energy.

86
Q

Is it recommended that VO2 Max tests are maximal or submaximal and why?

A

Submaximal because there are high risks for performing a maximal test, the most severe being cardiac arrest.

87
Q

What 2 calculations cause an error/lack of accuracy when estimating max oxygen uptake?

A
  1. The ‘220-age’ calculation for max HR as this is a standard deviation of 12BPM so does not suit every person.
  2. The charts/equations used to estimate max HR at submaximal workloads are on the basis that everyone expends the same amount of energy and uses the same amount of oxygen.
88
Q

What are 4 different types of tests that can be used to test cardiorespiratory fitness?

A
  1. Cycle test
  2. Ventilatory threshold tests
  3. Field tests
  4. Step tests
89
Q

What is the most effective way to measure Max Heart Rate?

A

With an EKG machine during a graded exercise test.

90
Q

What percentile should PT clients aim to achieve for max oxygen uptake?

A

> 30th percentile.

91
Q

What would a max oxygen uptake of below 20th percentile represent?

A

An increased risk of death.

92
Q

What are the 4 major indicators that someone is at risk of a coronary event during a General Exercise Test?

A
  1. Decrease or significant increase in BP during exercise.
  2. Inadequate HR response to exercise.
  3. Exercise Duration.
  4. Heart-rate recovery.
93
Q

What BP readings would suggest a risk of coronary event during exercise? (3)

A
  1. A SBP that is lower during exercise as opposed to prior-resting reading.
  2. A SBP that increases to 250mmHg.
  3. A SBP that increases during immediate post-exercise recovery.
94
Q

Why does exercise duration read as an indicator for a coronary event with a General Exercise Test?

A

The longer someone can exercise, generally, the less at risk they are.

95
Q

How many heart rate BPM should someone decrease in during recovery for both standing and seated?

A

Standing - 12BPM after 1min post-exercise

Seated - 22BMP after 2min post-exercise

96
Q

When should you measure heart rate during a general exercise test?

A

At the last 15 seconds of every minute.

97
Q

When should you measure blood pressure during a general exercise test?

A

During the last 45 seconds of every stage.

98
Q

When should you read the ratings of perceived exertion during a general exercise test?

A

Last 5 seconds of every minute.

99
Q

What should you always be aware of prior to fitness testing? (4)

A
  1. Medications/supplements
  2. Recent musculoskeletal injury/limiting orthopedic response
  3. Illness
  4. Time of last meal
100
Q

Why would someone on Beta Blockers have their general exercise test invalidated?

A

Because beta blockers will blunt their HR response.

101
Q

What could stimulants do for someone’s general exercise test reading?

A

It could exaggerate their HR response.

102
Q

Why is it particularly important to list your client’s last meal before fitness testing?

A

To avoid hypoglycemia which is when your blood sugar level is lower than normal.

103
Q

What are the advantages of a cycle ergometer test?

A
  1. controlled environment

2. easier to manually read HR and BP as the arms are relatively more stationary than on a treadmill

104
Q

What are the disadvantages of a cycle ergometer test?

A
  1. May underestimate a client that is not accustomed to cycling so their legs will fatigue quicker which provide a lower result
  2. BP may also be higher due to prolonged muscle contractions
105
Q

Who is a cycle ergometer test not suited for?

A
  1. Someone that is obese and uncomfortable on the seat
  2. Someone with orthopedic problems that limits their knee ROM to 110 degrees
  3. Someone with neuromuscular problems and cannot maintain a cadence of 50 rotations per minute.
106
Q

What is a YMCA Bike Test?

A

A cycle ergometer test that measures HR response to incremental and predetermined 3 min workloads that progressively show higher HR-responses.

107
Q

What are the 5 pre-test procedures for a YMCA Bike test?

A
  1. Estimate the submax target HR as 85% of predetermined max heart rate using the age formula (208-(0.7xage)x85%)
  2. Convert the clients weight to KG by multiply LB x 2.2
  3. Record resting and seated BP
  4. Adjust seat height and record position to ensure accuracy and consistency
  5. Ask client to maintain cycle at 50 rpm.
108
Q

What are the test protocols during a cycle ergometer test?

A
  1. Each stage is 3 min long and first stage starts at 150 kgm per min (25 watts).
  2. Correct measurements are taken at end of each min and start of third min.
  3. Before moving to next stage, HR must be within 5BPM within previous min reading and if not, client continues for another minute.
  4. The client’s HR at the end of each stage will determine their usual workload for stage 2 and so on for each stage.
109
Q

What is the heart rate reserve?

A

Difference between someones resting HR and maximum HR.

110
Q

What calculation do you make post-exercise for a cycle ergometer test?

A
  1. Draw a graph with HR BPM and power output on each axis.
  2. Draw point at clients MHR and then 2 points at steady-state HR between 110 and 155 against their respective workloads.
  3. Draw a line to coordinate HR’s and extend to MHR.
  4. Draw a perpendicular line to baseline to determine the estimated VO2 max along the X-axis.
111
Q

How would you convert oxygen uptake to VO2 Max?

A

Oxygen uptake divided by body weight.

  1. convert litre per min to millilitre by multiplying by 1000.
  2. Convert bodyweight from lb to kg by multiplying by 2.2
  3. Divide ml by kg
112
Q

What is anaerobic glycolysis?

A

The transformation of glucose to lactate when limited amounts of oxygen are available.

113
Q

How long can anaerobic glycolysis fuel short intense exercise?

A

10 seconds to 2 mins.

114
Q

What does breathing rate increase to and from during strenous exercise?

A

From 12-15 breaths a min to 35-45.

115
Q

What does tidal volume increase to and from during strenous exercise?

A

From 0.4-1L per min to 3L+.

116
Q

Is the challenge on the cardiorespiratory system found at VT1 due to inspiration or expiration of CO2?

A

Inspiration

117
Q

Is the need for oxygen found at VT1 due to an increase in tidal volume or respiratory rate?

A

Tidal volume

118
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ratio?

A

The ratio of co2 produced in the metabolism versus oxygen used.

119
Q

What is a usual respiratory exchange ratio score for VT1 and VT2

A

VT1 - 0.85-0.87

VT2 - 1

120
Q

Who is ventilatory threshold testing not suitable for?

A
  1. Individuals with certain breathing problems like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease etc.
  2. People prone to anxiety or panic attacks.
  3. People recovering from a respiratory infection.
121
Q

How long should each stage of a submaximal talk test last?

A

60-120 seconds.

122
Q

How much should the HR increase by before moving in to the next stage of a Ventilatory Threshold test?

A

5 BPM.

123
Q

What needs to be measured and planned prior to a submaximal talk test? (4)

A
  1. Type of test - cycle ergometer, treadmill
  2. Testing stages and workload increases
  3. Completion of test within 8-16 mins
  4. Standing and seated HR/BP need to be measured
124
Q

Why should a submaximal talk test for VT1 be completed within 8-16 mins and no longer?

A

To avoid muscle fatigue due to prolonged exercise that may influence the results.

125
Q

What happens when fats are the primary fuel during a VT test?

A

If fats are the primary fuel then you are still below VT1 and the demand for O2 is still met with increased tidal volume.
Talking is comfortable but the client may be taking deep breaths every 5-10 words.

126
Q

What happens when carbohydrates are the primary fuel during a VT test?

A

If carbohydrates are the primary fuel then you are now above VT2 and the demand for CO2 removal is met with increased breathing/hyperventilation. Talking is now uncomfortable.

127
Q

What is the test protocol for a submaximal VT1 test after the warm-up?

A
  1. Once warmed up, adjust the intensity so the client reaches 120bpm and maintain this until their HR increases by 5bpm.
  2. When it has increased, ask them to recite something for 20-30 seconds and comment on the comfort of speaking.
  3. If talking is uncomfortable, you have reached VT1, if it was fine then continue to increase intensity and HR by 5bpm until it is uncomfortable.
128
Q

How can you predict VT2 using a 15-20 min test?

A

Trainers can estimate the equivalent HR response by taking the average HR from the 15-20 min test and multiplying by 95%.

129
Q

What is a cardiovascular drift?

A

An increase in HR during prolonged endurance exercise with little to no change in the workload or intensity.

130
Q

What are field tests not suited for?

A
  1. Extreme weather conditions
  2. Individuals with health challenges that prevent continuous walking
  3. Individuals with breathing difficulties that are increased by pollution or outside allergens
131
Q

What is the purpose of the Rockport Fitness Walking Test and how long is it?

A

1 Mile in length and its purpose is to estimate VO2 max from their immediate post-exercise heart rate.

132
Q

How is the VO2 max calculated with a Rockport Fitness Walking Test results?

A

you calculate their immediate post walk HR and 1 mile walk time.

133
Q

Why might the Rockport Fitness Walking Test provide under-predicted results?

A

Because walking does not impose such a cardiorespiratory challenge, it and under-evaluate people’s VO2 ax.

134
Q

What is the test protocol for the Rockport Fitness 1 Mile Walking test?

A
  1. Record clients weight and age
  2. Record their completed time and immediate post-walk HR
  3. calculate VO2 max
135
Q

How would you calculate someones HR without a monitor?

A

Manually take their HR for 15 seconds then multiply by 4

136
Q

How many clicks/steps should the metronome be set to in a YMCA Submaximal Step Test?

A

96 click per minute or 24 steps.

137
Q

What is the test protocol for the YMCA Submaximal Step Test?

A
  1. Client begins stepping for 3 mins
  2. Immediately after 3 mins, client sits and record HR for one full minute
  3. HR is recorded
138
Q

What is the test score based on with the YMCA Submaximal Step Test?

A

That their HR will decrease within the one min immediate-post-exercise.

139
Q

What are 6 health benefits of muscular fitness?

A
  1. Enhances ability to carry out activities of daily life
  2. Provides musculoskeletal integrity and lowers risk of musculoskeletal injury
  3. Enhances or maintains fat-free mass + positively impacts resting metabolic rate
  4. Guards against osteoporosis by enhancing bone density
  5. Enhances glucose tolerance
  6. Reduces cardiovascular response to resistance type activities
140
Q

What should you ALWAYS screen for before muscular fitness assessments?

A

Low back pain and other orthopedic issues.

141
Q

What gender should perform modified push ups in the push-ups test?

A

Women

142
Q

What is considered a full push up?

A
  1. Full elbow extensions and rigid torso and straight back in the up position
  2. Chest touches the trainers fist without resting the stomach on the floor in down position
143
Q

What does a full-sit up require help from and where does this place additional load to?

A

The hip flexors which places additional load on the lumbar spine.

144
Q

Who is the curl up test not suited for?

A

Individuals with low back pain or cervical neck issues.

145
Q

What is the start position for a curl-up test?

A

Client lies supine, feet flat on floor, knees bent to 90 degrees and arms crossed at neck.

146
Q

When performing the curl-up test, what should you look for?

A

That client is still breathing throughout and not flexing cervical spine by curling the neck.

147
Q

Who are the Bodyweight Squat Test not suitable for?

A
  1. Individuals with deconditioned or frail lower extremities
  2. Individuals with balance concerns
  3. Individuals with orthopedic issues
  4. Individuals with improper squat form
148
Q

What is considered fatigue in a bodyweight squat test?

A

The client’s fails to fully lower, pauses to rest or faulters during standing position.

149
Q

What 3 things is strength dependable on?

A

Muscle size (diameter,) limb length and neurological adaptation.

150
Q

What is absolute strength?

A

The greatest amount of weight that can be lifted at one time - 1RM.

151
Q

What is relative strength?

A

The maximum amount of force someone can exert in relation to their body weight.

152
Q

How is relative strength calculated?

A

Absolute strength divided by weight.

153
Q

What can strength tests determine and show? (4)

A

Muscular fitness, weaknesses/imbalances, rehabilitation progress and training effectiveness.

154
Q

Why is prolonged static stretching discouraged prior to strength testing?

A

It can decrease performance therefore the accuracy of results.

155
Q

What is the proper form for a bench press?

A

Client is supine with feet flat on floor or on a riser as to accommodate a neutral/flat back. The back and neck should remain relaxed throughout.
Hands are positioned just past shoulder-width to allow a full 90 degree elbow bend in lowered. Whilst inhaling, client slowly lowers the barbell from above the chest until it lightly touches the bottom of the sternum, they exhale to push it back up above chest.

156
Q

What is the test protocol for a 1-Rep Max test?

A
  1. Client will warm up with 5-10 reps at 50% of the anticipated 1RM max and rests for 1 minute.
  2. Depending on first set effort, increase workload to 70-75% and perform 3-5 reps then rest for 1 minute.
  3. Depending on second set effort, increase workload to 85-90% of anticipated weight and perform 2-3 reps with a 1 minute rest.
  4. Based on the ease/reps of third set, determine clients next workload as their 1RM and allow first attempt and a 2-4 minute rest.
  5. If successful, increase workload and attempt again. If unsuccessful, lower load by 2.5%-5% and attempt again.
157
Q

What calculation would you do to determine a client’s strength:weight ratio?

A

1RM weight divided by client’s body weight.

158
Q

What is the proper form for a leg press?

A
  1. Client is seated with both feet planted on the foot plate.
  2. Legs fully extend with heels remaining flat and movement ends with knees bent at 90 degrees, aligned with or behind the toes.
159
Q

In a bench press 1RM test, at what % do you increase the weight with each set?

A

5-10%.

160
Q

According to the ACE repetition table, what % would 5 reps give for a 1RM test?

A

87%

161
Q

According to the ACE repetition table, what % would 4 reps give for a 1RM test?

A

90%

162
Q

According to the ACE repetition table, what % would 3 reps give for a 1RM test?

A

93%

163
Q

According to the ACE repetition table, what % would 2 reps give for a 1RM test?

A

95%

164
Q

According to the ACE repetition table, what % would 1 rep give for a 1RM test?

A

100%

165
Q

What is the proper form for a squat? (from unrack to lower)

A
  1. Bar is positioned between shoulders and nipple line and client grasps it with a closed, pronated grip wider than their shoulders and in a split stance to unrack.
  2. Barbell should be in a high-bar position with core engaged (to brace trunk) before using lower extremeties to lift bar.
  3. Feet are shoulder-width apart, back neutral, feet flat, chest up and out, head neutral or slight tilted upwards.
  4. Lowering is first initiated by hip flexion before bending knees to squat down to just 90 degree knee bend or when thighs are parallel to floor.
  5. Inhale during lower, exhale and push through heels to lift.
166
Q

Going beyond 10 reps in a submaximal strength test would measure what as opposed to muscular strength?

A

Muscular endurance

167
Q

What is the test protocol for a submaximal strength test?

A
  1. First, determine the amount of reps based on the client’s usual training regime and amount.
  2. Client warms up with 1 or 2 sets at a lower intensity of reps with target weight.
  3. First attempt is trying to complete the full no. of reps.
  4. If successful, rest for 2 mins and lift again for same no. of reps with heavier load. If unsuccessful, use the completed number of reps to calculate their 1RM.
168
Q

What is the Valsalva Maneuver?

A

When a client closes their mouth/pinches nose as to not let out exhaled air during exercise.

169
Q

What is determined as human power?

A

The rate that mechanical work is performed under a defined set of conditions.

170
Q

What is anaerobic power?

A

Single rep that represents the maximum power the body can generate.

171
Q

What is anaerobic capacity?

A

Sustainability of power output for brief periods of time.

172
Q

What is the power equation?

A

Force divided by velocity.

173
Q

What is the force equation?

A

Maxx multiplied by acceleration.

174
Q

What is the velocity equation?

A

Distance divided by time.

175
Q

What is the work equation?

A

Force multiplied by distance.

176
Q

What is the pro-agility test protocol?

A
  1. In a three point stance, client stands in the middle of a 10 yard line with two cones at either ends (5 yards to left, 5 yards to right.)
  2. On command, client sprints to the left line and then to the right and back to middle.
  3. The time is measured to nearest 100th second and is the best of 3 attempts.
177
Q

What is the 40 yard dash test protocol?

A
  1. Client stands in either a 3-point or 4-point stance at the start line.
  2. On command, they sprint 40 yards and timer stops when their chest crosses finish line.
  3. Time is recorded as best of 2 attempts.
178
Q

What is the standing-long jump test protocol?

A
  1. Client stands behind start line.
  2. Using arms and legs for propulsion, they jump off 2 feet and land as far as possible on 2 feet.
  3. Distance is measured from take-off position to where the back of their heel touches ground upon landing.
179
Q

Why would a standing-long jump test be deemed a fail?

A

If client steps backwards or falls upon landing.

180
Q

What is the vertical jump test protocol?

A
  1. Client stands adjacent to a wall and 6 inches away.
  2. Their arms extend overhead and they hold chalk.
  3. Lowering their arms and moving in to a squat, they explode in to an upward jump and mark the highest point of their jump on the wall.
  4. The distance is measured from their starting height to the highest distance within 3 attempts.
181
Q

How much is 1 MET equivalent to for mL/KG/Min?

A

1 MET = 3.5 mL/KG/Min

182
Q

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female and male client’s health is considered at risk?

A

Female - >0.86

Male - >0.95

ACE Personal Training (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions