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ACE Personal Training > Lesson 12: Nutrition > Flashcards

Lesson 12: Nutrition Flashcards

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1
Q

How do we obtain energy via nutrition?

A

From ingested food that has been mechanically and chemically processed by the body so it can pass through the gastrointestinal tract and enter the bloodstream.

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2
Q

Where does the vascular system carry food molecules through and to before distributing them around the body?

A

Through the hepatic portal vein and to the liver.

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3
Q

What are food molecules broken down in to after entering the cells?

A

Carbohydrates, fats and proteins or further used for energy production during exercise.

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4
Q

What is the simplified journey of food through the body? (6)

A
  1. First enters via ingestion of food in to the mouth
  2. Food is then moved along the digestive tract
  3. Molecules are mechanically prepped for digestion
  4. It is then chemically digested
  5. Now ready for absorption into the lymphatic and circulatory systems
  6. Indigestible/waste products are eliminated via defecation
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5
Q

What does the lymphatic system generally do?

A

Returns interstitial fluid (excess fluid between cells) back to the bloodstream as to prevent swelling of interstellar spaces.

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6
Q

what is the lymphatic system composed of? (4)

A

capillaries
collecting vessels
lymph nodes
lymphoid organs

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7
Q

how is lymph fluid different from blood?

A

it does not carry red blood cells or platelets as these cannot escape via blood-vessel walls

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8
Q

after entering the blood via lymphatic capillaries, where does lymph then circulate?

A

through the arteries, blood capillaries and veins

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9
Q

what are the 4 functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. to destroy bacteria and foreign substances
  2. aid in creation antibodies to destroy bacteria and foreign substances as a specific immune response
  3. return interstitial fluid to the bloodstream
  4. prevent excessive accumulation of tissue fluid and filtered proteins by draining them in to highly permeable lymphatic capillaries in the connective tissue
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10
Q

For food to be absorbed by the body, what must it do?

A

cross cells that line the walls of the gastrointestinal tract as opposed to just passing through

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11
Q

What is the gastrointestinal tract composed of?

A 
mouth
pharynx
esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
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12
Q

After entering the mouth, what mechanical process next helps break down the food in to smaller pieces?

A

chewing

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13
Q

How does saliva ease swallowing?

A

by blending in to the food and dissolving some of it during chewing.

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14
Q

What does saliva initiate?

A

carbohydrate digestion

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15
Q

where does swallowed food pass to and via from the mouth?

A

To the stomach via the pharynx and then esophagus

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16
Q

What is swallowed food first called?

A

bolus

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17
Q

what is bolus?

A

ball-like mix of food and saliva

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18
Q

what helps bolus reach the stomach from the esophagus?

A

waves of peristalses

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19
Q

what are peristalses?

A

rhythmic contractions of the longitudinal muscles in GI tract that help bolus reach the stomach

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20
Q

after the esophagus, where does bolus go at the top of the stomach?

A

cardiac sphincter

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21
Q

what does the stomach do to prepare food for entry in to the small intestine?

A

mechanically grinds the food into chyme and chemically uses specialized stomach cells that produce secretions to break down food particles.

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22
Q

why does the stomach wait for optimal absorption and digestion time before allowing chyme to enter the small intestine?

A

because the small intestine is the primary site for digestion and absorption, the body has to be careful as to not overwhelm it so that it can do its job well

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23
Q

what energy providing nutrients are absorbed and digested in the small intestine? (6)

A 
carbohydrates
fats
proteins
vitamins
minerals
water
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24
Q

what is the small intestine further divided in to?

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

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25
Q

when passed in to the duodenum, what is chyme exposed to?

A

bile and pancreatic ezymes

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26
Q

where does bile come from and what does it aid in?

A

comes from the liver and gallbladder

aids in the digestion of fats

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27
Q

what do pancreatic enzymes aid the digestion of

A

carbohydrates, fats and proteins

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28
Q

what does segmentation do with chyme whilst in the small intestine?

A

helps to push it along as well as momentarily squeezing its contents so that it is forced backwards a couple inches as to allow the digestive juices and absorbing cells to better connect with the nutrients

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29
Q

what is segmentation

A

contractions of the circular muscles in the digestive tract

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30
Q

where is food most absorbed in the small intestine divisions?

A

duodenum and jejunum

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31
Q

what are the hair-like projections called in the duodenum and jejunum?

A

villi and microvilli

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32
Q

why does each projection (villi and microvilli) in the duodenum and jejunum have their own capillary network and lymphatic vessel?

A

to allow nutrients to immediately pass in to the bloodstream and body fluids.

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33
Q

what final absorption occurs in the large intestine?

A

water and salt

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34
Q

where are the kidneys located?

A

at either side of the vertebral column in the posterior abdominal cavity

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35
Q

what are the main excretory organs?

A

kidneys

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36
Q

what organs make the urinary system?

A

kidneys

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37
Q

what are the kidneys critical for?

A

maintaining the body’s internal environment for survival of its cells

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38
Q

what do the kidneys eliminate and excrete/conserve?

A

they eliminate metabolic products such as urea, uric acid, creatinine and conserve/excrete water and electrolytes

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39
Q

what are electrolytes?

A

minerals that carry an electrical charge.

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40
Q

what substances are reabsorbed to the blood via the flowing filtrate in the kidneys? (4)

A

water
glucose
amino acids
electrolytes

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41
Q

what do hormones control in the kidney?

A

regulate absorption and secretion processes and control which materials will be excreted or reabsorbed.

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42
Q

once reabsorption and secretion are complete, what happens to the remaining fluid in the kidneys?

A

it is moved to the bladder to be excreted as urine.

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43
Q

what is the epiglottis?

A

a flap of tissue that sits beneath the tongue at the back of the throat

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44
Q

what is the main function of the epiglottis?

A

to close over the windpipe (trachea) while you’re eating to prevent food entering your airway.

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45
Q

what is gastric processing?

A

the process by which the contents of the stomach are moved into the duodenum.

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46
Q

what does the amount of time for gastric processing to occur depend on? (2)

A
  1. the type of food - carbohydrates will empty first, then proteins, then fat
  2. amount of muscle action of the stomach and in the receiving small intestine
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47
Q

how long will the small intestine spend digesting food?

A

1-4 hours

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48
Q

when the small intestine finally digests food in to chyme and absorbs its nutrients/energy in to the blood, where does this blood go?

A

Directly to the liver for process and distribution to the rest of the body.

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49
Q

where do the indigestibles and waste products (such as fiber) move to the large intestine through?

A

ileocecal valve

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50
Q

what happens with waste products as water is reabsorbed in the large intestine?

A

the waste becomes harder until it is excreted from the body via the rectum/anus

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51
Q

how long does it take for waste to typically pass through and leave the large intestine/rectum?

A

typically 18 to 72 hours

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52
Q

what is absorbed through the walls of the small intestine?

A 
carbohydrates
proteins
lipids
vitamins
minerals
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53
Q

what are lipids?

A

molecules that contain hydrocarbons and make up the building blocks of the structure and function of living cells

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54
Q

what do villi and microvilli form and what takes place here?

A

they form a brush border where nutrient absorption takes place

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55
Q

what differences constitute to the difference in absorption of nutrients?

A

their size, solubility and relative concentration

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56
Q

where does sugar, amino acids, water-soluble vitamins and minerals enter after passing from the membrane of the small intestine in to the blood?

A

the portal circulation

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57
Q

what does the portal circulation do?

A

takes nutrients through the bloodstream to the liver

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58
Q

what does the liver do with harmful substances?

A

detoxifies any harmful substances before sending them to the brain or heart

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59
Q

where do fat and fat-soluble vitamins transfer to as a result of being too large to enter capillaries?

A

they transfer in to the lymphatic system and are added to the bloodstream via the thoracic duct

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60
Q

what is the thoracic duct?

A

a large lymphatic vein that drains in to the heart

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61
Q

what are chylomicrons and what do they travel?

A

A small fat globule composed of protein and lipid (fat) that transports fat

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62
Q

what are macronutrients the body’s source of?

A

calories and energy to fuel life.

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63
Q

what are the 3 macronutrients?

A

carbohydrates
proteins
fats

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64
Q

how many calories are there per gram of carbohydrates?

A

4 calories

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65
Q

what are monosaccharides and what are the 3 main ones?

A

they are the most basic unit of carbs

  1. glucose
  2. fructose
  3. galactose
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66
Q

what is glucose?

A

the predominant sugar and building ground for most carbs

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67
Q

where is fructose found?

A

fruit

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68
Q

what does galactose form with and to create what?

A

forms with glucose to form the disaccharide, lactose.

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69
Q

what are disaccharides?

A

sugar formed by the joining of two monosaccharides

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70
Q

are mono/disaccharides water or fat soluble?

A

water

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71
Q

what are 2 other disaccharides other than lactose and what monosaccharides are they the combination of?

A

maltose - x2 glucose molecules

sucrose - glucose and fructose

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72
Q

what is oligosaccharide?

A

chain of 3-10 simple sugars

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73
Q

what is a polysaccharide?

A

a long chain of sugar molecules

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74
Q

what 2 polysaccharides are the only ones fully digestible by humans?

A

glycogen and starch

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75
Q

where is glycogen found?

A

in meat/seafood

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76
Q

where is starch found?

A

in grains and vegetables

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77
Q

what is a complex carbohydrate?

A

a long, complex chain of sugar molecules

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78
Q

what is a simple carbohydrate?

A

a short chain of sugar molecules

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79
Q

what happens with carbohydrates that are not immediatly used for energy after consumption?

A

they are stored as glycogen

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80
Q

where is glycogen stored?

A

liver and muscle cells

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81
Q

why would glycogen be broken down into single molecules?

A

to be used as a rapid source of energy

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82
Q

what will increase glycogen stores?

A

carb loading

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83
Q

what are carbohydrates converted to if the body consumes more than it can use and store?

A

it is converted in to fat for long-term storage

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84
Q

how many calories are there per gram of protein?

A

4 calories

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85
Q

what 6 things does protein function to help form?

A 
brain
nervous system
blood
muscle
skin
hair
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86
Q

what is protein the transport mechanism for? (5)

A

iron, vitamins, minerals, fats and oxygen

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87
Q

what is protein key for?

A

acid-base and fluid balance

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88
Q

what does protein form and what does each do?

A

enzymes - speed up chemical reactions

antibodies - used to fight infections

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89
Q

When in desperate need of energy, will the body turn to carbohydrates, fats or proteins as a last resort?

A

proteins

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90
Q

what are proteins build from?

A

amino acids

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91
Q

what are amino-acids?

A

carbohydrates with the nitro-containing amino group and sometimes attached to sulfur

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92
Q

how do amino acids form protein?

A

the amino acids join together through peptide bonds to form protein

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93
Q

how many essential amino acids cannot be formed by the body and must be consumed via the diet?

A

8-10

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94
Q

what is the protein quality in food determined by?

A

the composition, bioavailability and digestibility of the essential amino acids

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95
Q

what constitutes as a complete protein?

A

one that contains all 9 essential amino acids required for the body’s repair and build

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96
Q

how can you boost plant protein quality?

A

by combining complementary plant proteins that (when combined) will provide all 9 of the essential amino acids

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97
Q

what are 3 great plant combinations (of food sources) to get a complete protein?

A
  1. grains and legumes
  2. grains and dairy
  3. legumes and seeds
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98
Q

how many calories does fat have per gram?

A

9 calories

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99
Q

what are the functions of fat in the body? (5)

A 
insulation
cell structure
nerve transmission
vitamin absorption
hormone production
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100
Q

what is adipose tissue/fat stored as?

A

triglycerides

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101
Q

why do unsaturated fats have a shorter shelf life?

A

because they are susceptible to oxidative damage

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102
Q

how many double bonds does unsaturated fat contain?

A

1 or more between carbon atoms

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103
Q

how many double bonds does monounsaturated fats contain?

A

1 double bond between 2 carbon atoms

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104
Q

what are some positives of monounsaturated fats?

A

aids weight loss, decreases inflammation and risk of heart disease

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105
Q

what are some examples of monounsaturated fats?

A

avocado, olive oil, canola oil, peanut oil, nuts

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106
Q

how many double bonds does polyunsaturated fats cotain?

A

1 double bond between 2 or more sets of carbons

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107
Q

what are somes source of polyunsaturated fats?

A

soybean oils, corn oil, safflower oil and cold water fish

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108
Q

what is a type of polyunsaturated fat that MUST be consumed in the diet?

A

essential fatty acids

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109
Q

What are the 3 forms of Omega-3?

A
  1. Alpha linolenic acid (ALA)
  2. Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)
  3. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
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110
Q

where is alpha linolenic acid found and what is it converted in to?

A

found in plants and converted to EPA and DHA - the 2 other omega-3s

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111
Q

where are eicosapentaenoic acid and docosahexaenoic acids found?

A

egg yolk, cold water fish and shellfish

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112
Q

what are 6 functions of omega-3s?

A
  1. reduce blood clotting
  2. dilate blood vessels
  3. reduce inflammation
  4. eye and brain development - particularly in late stages of pregnancy
  5. reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels
  6. preserve brain function, reducing risk of mental illness and ADHD
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113
Q

are omega 3s and omega 6s produced or not produced by the body?

A

not produced, must be consumed via diet

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114
Q

what is the recommended dose of omega 3/6s daily?

A

250-500mg a day

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Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what are some sources of omega-6?

A

flaxseed, canola, soybean oils and green leafy vegetables

116
Q

why is the balance of omega-3 and omega-6 essential?

A

to maintain normal circulation and other biological processes

117
Q

what % and daily grams does the American Heart Association recommend of omega 6 and polyunsaturated fats?

A

5-10% of daily calories.

118
Q

how many double bonds do saturated fats contain?

A

none

119
Q

what type of cholesterol does saturated fat increase the levels of?

A

low-density lipoprotein - bad cholesterol

120
Q

what fats contribute to the clogging of arteries and increased risk of heart disease?

A

saturated and trans fats

121
Q

what may trans fats be listed as on a label/ingredient list?

A

partially hydrogenated oil

122
Q

what is trans fats the result of?

A

the manufacturing effort to make unsaturated fat solid at room temperature (where it would usually be liquid)

123
Q

how much trans fat has to be included per serving for a nutrition label to include it?

A

0.5g per serving

124
Q

what is the structure of cholesterol?

A

fat like, wavy, rigid, four-ring structure

125
Q

what are some functions of cholesterol? (5)

A
  1. helps to make bile acids which are important for fat absorption
  2. helps metabolize fat-soluble vitamins
  3. makes vitamin D
  4. makes hormones such as estrogen and testosterone
  5. help cell membrane function
126
Q

what is the cause of hypercholesterolemia?

A

it is caused due to saturated fat being converted to cholesterol in the liver

127
Q

where is cholesterol transported to and from via the bloodstream? (2)

A
  1. from liver to the body’s cells

2. from small intestine to liver and adipose tissue

128
Q

what does cholesterol need to transport it around the body and why?

A

It needs a water-soluble carrier protein as it is a fat-soluble component.

129
Q

what can the mixture of cholesterol and the water-soluble protein that carries it cause?

A

they can clog the arteries by getting stuck in the bloodstream

130
Q

what does high-density cholestrol do?

A

it removes excess cholesterol from the arteries and takes it to the liver to be exreted

131
Q

what vitamins are exempt from only being consumed via the diet?

A

Vitamin K, biotin and vitamin D

132
Q

where can you get vitamin K and biotin other than diet?

A

both can be produced by the normal intestinal flora

133
Q

what are provitamins?

A

inactive vitamins that are consumed in food and converted to active by the body

134
Q

how many vitamins do humans need?

A

13

135
Q

what are the 9 water-soluble vitamins?

A 
thiamin
riboflavin
niacin
panthothenic acid
folate
vitamin B6
vitamin V12
biotin
Vitamin C
136
Q

what are water-soluble vitamins considered as?

A

co-factors of the metabolism

137
Q

why are most water-soluble vitamins not stored in the body long-term? how are they exreted from body?

A

to avoid overconsumption and the risk this poses on clients health.
they are exreted via urine.

138
Q

what 2 water-soluble vitamins can be stored in the body?

A

vitamins B12 and B6

139
Q

why is folate crucial during pregnancy? (5)

A 
it is essential for producing:
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
red and white blood cells
neurotransmitter formation
amino-acid metabolism
140
Q

what are 3 names for folate?

A

folate
vitamin B9
folic acid

141
Q

what can deficiency of folate cause? (4)

A

megaloblastic anaemia
skin lesions
poor growth
neural tube defects for fetus during pregnancy

142
Q

what vitamin deficiency can excessive folate consumption mask?

A

B12

143
Q

what the 4 fat-soluble vitamins?

A

Vitamins A, D, E and K

144
Q

where are fat-soluble vitamins stored and for how long?

A

they are stored in the liver and adipose tissue until they are needed.

145
Q

what is choline important for?

A

neurotransmitter platelet function, it is said to reduce risk of Alzheimers disease too

146
Q

how are all minerals except iron absorped in the body?

A

in their free, ionic state and unbound to organic molecules and complexes

147
Q

if a mineral is bound to a molecule, what is it considered and what happens?

A

it is considered not bioavailable and is excreted through feces instead of being used by the body

148
Q

what minerals have high bioavailability? (5)

A 
sodium
potassium
chloride
iodine
fluoride
149
Q

what minerals have medium bioavailability? (2)

A

calcium

magnesium

150
Q

what minerals have low bioavailability? (3)

A

iron
chromium
manganese

151
Q

what should be considered when taking supplements for minerals?

A

the interference between minerals as some can prevent the absorption of others

152
Q

what supplements decrease the absorption of zinc?

A

iron

153
Q

what does too much calcium decrease the absorption of?

A

manganese, zinc and iron

154
Q

what are the 7 macrominerals?

A 
calcium
phosphorus
magnesium
sulfur
sodium
chloride
potassium
155
Q

what are 4 microminerals?

A 
zinc
iron
iodine
selenium
\+ any mineral with no establish DRI.
156
Q

how much % of water loss can cause death and how much will cause severe disorders?

A

20% will cause death

10% sever disorders

157
Q

what % of body weight is comprised of water?

A

50-70%

158
Q

what are 5 functions of water in the body?

A
  1. regulation of body temp
  2. protection of vital organs
  3. provide the driving force for nutrient absorption
  4. serves as medium for all biomechanical reactions
  5. maintains high blood volume for optimal athletic performance
159
Q

what is water volume influenced by? (5)

A

food/drink intake
sweat, urine and feces exretion
metabolic production of water
respiratory loss of water through breathing

160
Q

what is sweat made of?

A

water, sodium and electrolytes

161
Q

what is classed as dehydration?

A

when the loss of water (due to sweat) is not replenished and the body attempts to compensate by retaining water and excreting more concentrated urine

162
Q

what is classed as hyponatremic?

A

when there is a fluid overload as someone has ingested too much water to compensate for a small loss

163
Q

what occurs when the bloods water:sodium ratio is severly elevated?

A

water will leak in to the brain tissue and cause encephalopathy AKA brain swelling

164
Q

what is the influence of diuretics on water in the body?

A

they will increase the excretion of water and electrolytes by the kidneys which can lead to easier dehydration

165
Q

What are the 5 key guidelines presented by Federal Dietary Recommendations?

A
  1. Follow a healthy eating pattern across your lifespan
  2. Focus on variety, nutrient density and amount
  3. Limit calories from added sugars and saturated fats and reduce sodium intake
  4. Shift to healthier food and beverage choices
  5. Support healthy eating patterns for all
166
Q

What are 4 different vegetable groups?

A

dark green
red/orange
legumes
starchy

167
Q

By the Federal Dietary Recommendations, what constitutes as the main components of a healthy eating pattern?

A
  1. variety of vegetables from different groups
  2. fruit
  3. whole grains
  4. fat free/low fat milk and foritfied soy products
  5. Protein rich food
  6. Limited amounts of saturated/trans fat, added sugars and sodium
  7. Alcohol in moderation
168
Q

Why should you opt for nutrient-dense foods?

A

They provide higher levels of vitamins, minerals and other nutrients that will have many health benefits and are relative in caloric content.

169
Q

What are the 6 nutrient dense food groups?

A 
vegetables
fruit
grains
dairy
protein
oils
170
Q

How should society support healthy living?

A

by developing coordinated partnerships, programs and policies to support healthy living.

171
Q

what is MyPlate?

A

an interactive online tool designed to replace the MyPyramid icon

172
Q

how does MyPlate divide its food sections?

A

in to 4 sections of fruit, vegetables, proteins, and grains with a 1%/non-fat milk on the side.

173
Q

What would consumers input to MyPlate to get an individualised eating plan for their caloric needs?

A

their age, gender, height, weight and physical activity level

174
Q

what is energy expenditure?

A

the amount of energy that a person needs to carry out functions such as breathing, circulating blood, digesting food, exercising.

175
Q

What does RDA stand for?

A

Referenced Daily Amounts (of different nutrients based age and gender)

176
Q

What does EAR stand for?

A

Estimated Average Requirements (of adequate intake in 50% of an age and gender-specific group)

177
Q

What does TUL stand for?

A

Tolerable Upper Intake Level (maximum intake that is unlikely to pose risk of adverse health effects to almost ass individuals in an age and gender-specific group)

178
Q

What is the term Adequate Intake used for?

A

when a Reference Daily Amount cannot be based on an Estimated Average Requirement. Therefore Adequate Intake is a recommended nutrient intake level that would be sufficient for good health.

179
Q

Currently, what are there Dietary Reference Intakes for? (11)

A 
calcium
vitamin D
phosphorus
magneisum
fluoride
folate and other B vitamins
antioxidants (vitamin C, vitamin E, selenium)
macros (protein, carbs, fat)
trace elements (vitamin A, vitamin K, iron, zinc)
electrolytes
water
180
Q

what do consumers need to look at on food labels? (4)

A
  1. total calories and cals from fat to determine the energy that said product will supply
  2. what % of nutrients are there in each serving
  3. size of serving compared to your serving
  4. nutritious content of product
181
Q

What does PDV stand for?

A

Perceived Daily Value

182
Q

What % of PDV is considered high/low?

A

5% or less is low

20% or higher is high

183
Q

What calorie diet are PDV’s based on?

A

2000 calories

184
Q

What ingredients listed would signify solid fats are present in a product?

A 
beef fat
butter
chicken fat
coconut oil
cream
hydrogenated oils
palm kernel oils
lard/pork fat
shortening or stick margarine
185
Q

How is a whole-grain product classed as whole-grain?

A

if all essential parts of the orginial kernel are present/used - the bran, germ and endosperm

186
Q

If the first or second ingredient on a label is an enriched grain, what does this mean?

A

product is not whole grain

187
Q

what is a positive energy balance?

A

when more calories are consumed than expended

188
Q

what is a positive energy balance needed for?

A

it is necessary for times of growth such as pregnancy, infancy, childhood

189
Q

what would the result be of a positive energy balance?

A

weight gain

190
Q

What is a negative energy balance?

A

when more calories are expended than consumed

191
Q

what is the Mifflin St Jeor equation for RMR estimation?

A

Men = 9.99 x weight in kg + 6.25 x height in cm - 4.92 x age + age

Women = 9.99 x weight in kg + 6.35 x height in cm - 4.92 x age - 161

192
Q

How much should you multiply someones RMR if they are moderately active?

A

1.550

193
Q

what are the Institute of Medicine’s 2005 DRI recommendations?

A

% of daily calories
45-65% carbohydrates
10-35% protein
20-35% fat

194
Q

Why might active individuals require more carbohydrates?

A

To maintain their blood glucose levels during exercise and replace muscle glycogen that was expended during exercise.

195
Q

Why should active individuals consume more protein?

A

For muscle repair

196
Q

What is the EAR recommended amount of carbs for children/non-pregnant or lactating adults?

A

100g

197
Q

What is the EAR amount of carbs recommended for pregnant and lactating women?

A

135g for pregnant

160g for lactating

198
Q

What is the EAR recommended amount of carbs for athletes?

A

3-5g per lb of body weight (6-10g per kg bodyweight) depending on their energy expenditure, type of exercise, gender, enviromental conditions

199
Q

Why is carb loading good for prolonged workouts?

A

If more glycogen is stored then it will take longer to deplete the body’s preferred energy source during a prolonged workout.

200
Q

Why might clients gain a couple lb’s during carb loading?

A

because carbs require a lot of water for storage

201
Q

What would a one week sample carb loading diet look like 7 days prior to an event?

A
  • Days 1-3 moderate carb diet with 50% of calories being carbs
  • Days 4-6 high carb diet with 80% of calories being carbs (this is roughly 4.5 grams of carbs per pound of body weight)
  • Day 7 - pre-event meal with >80% calories from carbs
202
Q

What should a snack prior to exercise be in order to optimize the training session?

A
  • high in carbs to maximise blood glucose availability
  • relatively low in fat/fiber to minimise gastrointestinal distress and gastric empyting
  • moderate in protein
  • well-tolerated by the individual
203
Q

Why should clients consume 30-60g of carbs per our of training?

A

to maintain blood glucose levels

204
Q

Why should you eat within 30 minutes post exercise?

A

The muscles are best able to replenish energy stores within 30 mins post-exercise which enables the body to prepare for the next session.

205
Q

What does Glycemic Index rank carbs based on?

A

Their blood glucose response.

206
Q

What will a high-glycemic index food do?

A

break down rapidly and cause a large glucose spike

207
Q

what will a low-glycemic index food do?

A

digest slowly and cause a small glucose increase.

208
Q

what is Glycemic Load?

A

Glycemic Index multiplied by grams of carb.

209
Q

What Glycemic Index diet promotes better glyocgen storage?

A

High Glycemix

210
Q

What Glycemic Index diet is better for weight and diabetic clients?

A

Low Glycemic

211
Q

What % of daily energy intake is recommended for protein by the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR)?

A

10-35%

212
Q

What will protein consumption immediately post-exercise benefit?

A

The repair and synthesis of muscle proteins.

213
Q

What will a high protein diet do?

A

preserve lean muscle mass and assure most of the weight loss comes from fat

214
Q

What happens after the body has achieved its max ability to utilise amino acids/protein for muscle building?

A

the excess is broken down in to amino acids and converted to carbohydrates or fat in the liver.

215
Q

What scales are used to evaluate protein quality? (3)

A
  • Protein efficiency ratio
  • Biological value
  • Net Protein Utilisation
    Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score (PDCASS)
216
Q

How is Protein Digestibility Corrected Amino Acid Score calculated?

A

By multiplying the chemical score of the protein by its digestibility.

217
Q

How would you calculate the chemical score of a protein food?

A

Divide the essential amino acid content in chosen protein food by amino acid content in a reference protein food.

218
Q

What foods have the highest PDCAAS scores of 1.0?

A

casein, egg, milk, whey, soy proteins.

219
Q

What food has a high PDCAAS score of 0.92?

A

Beef

220
Q

What food has a high PDCAAS score of 0.75?

A

black beans

221
Q

What food has a high PDCAAS score of 0.52?

A

peanuts

222
Q

What food has a high PDCAAS score of 0.25?

A

wheat gluten

223
Q

Why is protein not the only consideration in a diet?

A

Because a high protein food might have high levels of saturated fat which poses negative health benefits.

224
Q

What are the 3 branched chain amino acids?

A

Leucine, isoleucine, valine

225
Q

What do some believe to be the advantages of consuming protein and branched chain amino acids prior to exercise?

A

It will enhance endurance by delaying the onset of CNS fatigue and will therefore increase energy availability.

226
Q

What do some believe to be the advantages of consuming protein and branched chain amino acids post exercise?

A

It will increase the rate of protein synthesis and decrease protein catabolism.

227
Q

What is protein catabolism?

A

The breakdown of proteins into amino acids and simply derivative compounds for transport into cells through the plasma membrane and ultimately polymerization into new proteins.

228
Q

What is catabolism?

A

a set of metabolic pathways that breaks down molecule into smaller units that are either oxidised to release energy or used in other anabolic reactions.

229
Q

What are the recommended % intakes of proteins, carbs and fats?

A

Protein - 15%
Carbs - 55%
Fats - 30%

230
Q

Why should carbohydrates not be severely restricted in athletes?

A

Because they require a lot of carbs to fuel optimal performance.

231
Q

What is the minimum recommendation for carbohydrates per day?

A

100g

232
Q

What 3 things should be avoided when it comes to hydration?

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Hyponatermia
  3. Severely reduced blood sodium levels as a result of overhydration
233
Q

What is hyponatermia?

A

When there is a low sodium concentration in the blood that causes your cells to swell.

234
Q

What is hyponatremia caused by? (7)

A 
Excessive consumption of water
Use of diuretics
Diarrhoea
Heart failure
Liver disease
Renal Diseas
Inappropriate ADH secretion
235
Q

What are the symptoms of hyponatremia? (9)

A 
nausea
vomiting
headache
confusion
fatigue
restlessness
muscle weakness
seizures
coma
236
Q

What are the recommended fluid intakes pre/during/post exercise?

A

2 hours prior to exercise = 500-600ML
Every 10-20 mins of exercise = 200-300ML
Post exercise = 450-675ML for every 0.5kg of body weight lost

237
Q

What does perfect hydration look like?

A

No weight is lost or gained during exercise as there is a perfect 1:1 ratio of fluid replaced to fluid lost in sweat.

238
Q

What will prevent hyponatremia in training sessions over 2 hours long?

A

Drinking fluids with sodium

239
Q

What will drinking carbohydrate-containing sports drinks helo with during prolonged exercise?

A

It will reduce fatigue and maintain muscle glycogen stores so that blood glucose does not become the primary fuel for energy.

240
Q

How many grams of carbohydrates should be consumed every hour of training?

A

30-60g

241
Q

What are 12 signs that yur GI is complaining?

A 
cramps
reflux
heart burn
bloat
side-stitch
gas
nausea
vomiting
urge to defecate
loose stool
bloody stool
diarrhoea
242
Q

What are the reasons for your GI complaining? (3)

A

reduced gastric emptying
delayed transit time
decreased blood flow

243
Q

What is gastric emptying?

A

The passage of fluid and food from the stomach to the small intestine for further absorption and digestions.

244
Q

What happens when gastric emptying is reduced?

A

Food sloshes around the stomach for a longer time.

245
Q

What are some fitness related causes to decreased/slow gastric emptying?

A

High intensity exercise
Dehydration
Hyperthermia
Consumption of high-energy/hypertonic drinks

246
Q

Why does low to moderate exercise speed digestion?

A

It stimulate the intestinal muscles to contract and push more food waste through the digestive system.

247
Q

What is the benefit of faster gastric emptying?

A

Quicker energy availability and decreased GI comfort.

248
Q

What will higher exercise intensity cause and why?

A

It pushes more blood flow and decreases colonic tone which causes waste to accumulate in the colon and rectum which further signals the stomach to slow down and reduce gastric emptying.

249
Q

Why will bulky high-fiber snacks reduce gastric emptying?

A

They increase intestinal distention and water content.

250
Q

What are 9 ways you can prepare the gut for exercise?

A
  1. Become acclimated to the temperature area
  2. Stay hydrated
  3. Practice drinking during training to increase comfort
  4. Avoid over-nutrition prior/during
  5. Avoid high-energy/hypertonic food/drinks prior/during
  6. Limit protein, fat and fiber intake prior
  7. Ingest high energy/high carb diet
  8. Limit non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, alcohol, caffeine, antibiotic, supplements prior/during
  9. Go the bathroom prior
251
Q

What is coronary heart disease?

A

An accumulation of fat and cholesterol in the lining of the arteries that supply oxygen/nutrients to the heart muscle.

252
Q

What happens overtime due to coronary heart disease?

A

Blood flow is reduced and oxygenation to the heart can be limited which leads to angina, myocardial infarction.

253
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

A disease in which plaque builds up inside your arteries.

254
Q

What causes atherosclerosis?

A

High blood cholesterol levels and cholesterols suspectibility to oxidation.

255
Q

What contributes to heart disease?

A

cholesterol, lipoproteins and triglycerides

256
Q

What are 6 contributors to optimize heart health?

A

eat a diet rich in fruit/veg/whole grain/high-fiber
consume fish at least twice per week
limit saturated fat to <10% of total calorie intake
limit alcohol to no more than one drink per day
limit sodium intake to <2.3g a day
keep trans fat intake as low as possible

257
Q

What is obesity described as?

A

A BMI of more than or equal to 30kg/m2

258
Q

What are 2 well-studied weight-loss medications?

A

sibutramine

orlistat

259
Q

What do sibutramine and orlistat each do for weight-loss?

A

sibutramine decreases your appetite whereas orlistat blocks fat absorption

260
Q

What is hypertension described as?

A

having a systolic blood pressure over or equal to 140mmHg and diastolic blood pressure less than or equal to 90mmHg.
is also often defined when on anti-hypertensive medication

261
Q

What are the BP measurements of pre-hypertension?

A

120/80 mmHg

262
Q

Why was the DASH eating plan developed?

A

to reduce blood pressure

263
Q

What does the DASH diet include?

A

Mainly consists of whole grains, fruits, vegetables and low-fat dairy products.

264
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

a condition that results from abnormal regulation of blood glucose

265
Q

what is type 1 diabetes?

A

the inability of the pancreas to secrete insulin which is the hormone that allows cells to take up glucose from the bloodstream

266
Q

what is type 2 diabetes?

A

when the cell’s have a decreased ability to respond to insulin

267
Q

What can diabetic clients do to better maintain a regular blood sugar level throughout their days?

A

balance nutrition with exercise and insulin/other medications as well as including 5/6 smaller meals as opposed to 3 large meals.

268
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

the weakening of bones which can lead to fractures of the hip, spine and other skeletal sites

269
Q

what are the estimations for women/men over 50 experiencing an osteoporotic fracture?

A

50% women and 20% men

270
Q

What is involved in nutrition therapy for osteroporosis?

A

Adequate levels of calcium, vitamin D and vitamin K.

271
Q

what does calcium, vitamin D and vitamin K pose for osteoporosis?

A

calcium is associated with bone mineral density, lack of vitamin D is associated with higher bone turnover, reduced calcium absorption and decreased bone mass and Vitamin K is thought to decrease fracture risk.

272
Q

how many more calories should be consumed per day for women breastfeeding?

A

500 calories

273
Q

how much folic acid do pregnant women need daily to reduce risk of neural tube defects?

A

600ug within first 6 weeks

274
Q

how much caffeine is too much for pregnant women a day and what are the risks?

A

over 300mg a day is too much. This poses the risk of delayed conception, miscarriage and low birth weight.

275
Q

by how much should women increase their calories in each trimester of pregnancy?

A

340 cals in the 2nd trimester and 450 in 3rd.

276
Q

what is a lacto-ovo-vegetarian diet?

A

one that does not include meat, fish or poultry

277
Q

what is a lacto-vegetarian diet?

A

one that does not include eggs, meat, fish or poultry.

278
Q

what is anorexia nervosa?

A

self starvation to keep weight low

279
Q

what is bulimia nervosa?

A

when someone is binge eating then forcing themselves to vomit, using laxatives or excessively exercising to burn it off

280
Q

what is considered binge eating disorder?

A

regularly eating large portions, eating very quickly even when not hungry until you are uncomfortably full, sometimes eating alone/secretly and feeling depressed/guilty/ashamed/disgusted with yourself

281
Q

what is considered successful aging?

A

maintaining a low risk of disease, high mental and physical function and active engagement in life.

282
Q

Why might older adults remain overweight even though their caloric intake is lower?

A

they are also experiencing decreased physical activity and metabolic rate.

283
Q

How many cals are there per gram in alcohol?

A

7cals

284
Q

How do you calculate someones daily calorific deficit needed to achieve a desired weight in a specific amount of weeks?

A
  1. (desired weight loss lbs x 3500 kcal) divided by number of weeks = weekly calorie deficit
  2. weekly calorie deficit divided by 7 days = daily calorie deficit
285
Q

ontributing to cell membrane function, making bile acids essential for fat absorption, metabolizing fat-soluble vitamins, and making vitamin D are all functions of which nutrient?

A

cholesterol

286
Q

According to the ADA, how much sodium should be consumed daily?

A

less than 2,300 mg

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