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IDC Stuff > Laboratory PT2 > Flashcards

Laboratory PT2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the clinical reasons to perform urinalysis testing?

A 
Indication of health
Screening test
Cost effective
Non-invasive
Simple to perform
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2
Q

What disorders can a screening UA test detect?

A

Renal disorder
Endocrine/Metabolic disorder
UTI
Systemic disease

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3
Q

What are the two methods of urine collection?

A

Non-instrumented

Instrumented

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4
Q

What are the non-instrumented collection methods?

A

First-morning void
Random
Clean catch
24-hour

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5
Q

What are the instrumented collection methods?

A

Urethral cath
Suprapubic Needle Aspiration
Catherization and Bladder Irrigation

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6
Q

Urine should be analyzed while fresh within how many hours?

A

1-2 hours

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7
Q

If urine can’t be analyzed in the first 2 hours, it must be refrigerated by what time frame?

A

3-6 hrs after collection

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8
Q

What decomposes urine?

A

Urea-splitting Bacteria

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9
Q

urea splittling bacteria produces ammonia that combines with hydrogen ions which increases what in urine?

A

pH

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10
Q

What does bacteria use as an energy source?

A

Glucose

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11
Q

What are the urine preservatives methods and chemicals?

A 
Freezing
Toluene
Thymol
CHloroform
Formaldehyde
Hydrogen Chloride
Boric Acid
Preservative tablet
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12
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the freezing preservative?

A

A-for transpo/store, no cost, simple

D-May destroy formed elements

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13
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the toluene preservative?

A

A-Preserves acetone, diacetic acid and proteins by floating on top making seal
D-Flammable, difficult to separate from specimen

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14
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the thymol preservative?

A

A-inhibits bacteria/fungi

D-False positive for protein

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15
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Chloroform preservative?

A

A-Preserves urine aldosterone levels

D-Settles to bottom of containers

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16
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the formaldehyde preservative?

A

A-Preserves urine sediment/cells

D-Interferes with gluclose evaluation

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17
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the Hydrogen Chloride preservative?

A

A-Stabilize steriods

D- Hazardous liquid and fumes. Formed elements are destroyed

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18
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the boric acid preservative?

A

A-preserves chemical and formed elements

D-Uric acid may precipitate

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19
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the preservation tablet preservative?

A

A- Preserves urine for dipstick chemical analysis and sediment eval for transport
D-unsuitable for sodium, potassium and hormone analysis

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20
Q

What is the most concentrated UA method that shows an increase of abnormal elements, decreases deterioration of formed elements and is recommended for chemical and microscopic examination?

A

First-morning void

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21
Q

What UA collection method is collected anytime, most convenient and common?

A

Random

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22
Q

Which UA collection method is choice for bacterial cultures?

A

Clean catch

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23
Q

How is the clean catch method performed?

A

Genitalia cleaned with mild antiseptic solution

Collect urine midstream in a sterile container

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24
Q

Which UA collection method gives quantitative results and may require preservatives?

A

24-hour urine specimen

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25
Q

What type of urine collection method is used for marked obese patients and is used when there is no other way to get urine?

A

Urethral catheterization

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26
Q

Which urine collection method inserts a needle directly into a distended bladder for a single sample and is choice for infants and young children?

A

Suprapubic needle aspiration

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27
Q

What urine collection method includes vigorous transcatheter agitation of the bladder with 50-72ml of saline?

A

catheterization and bladder irrigation

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28
Q

Which urine collection yields optimum cellular sample of bladder epithelium?

A

Cath and bladder irrigation

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29
Q

What are the three urine sample analysis methods?

A

Physical
Chemical
Microscopic

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30
Q

What is included in the physical analysis of urine?

A 
Volume
Color
Turbidity
Odor
Specific gravity
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31
Q

What is the normal and average volume of urine in 24 hrs?

A

600-2000ml

avg 1500ml

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32
Q

Urine output is directly related to what factors?

A

Intake
Temperature and climate
Amount of perspiration that occurs

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33
Q

What is the pigment concentration of urine that determines color called?

A

urochrome

34
Q

Blue green urine has what diagnostic significance?

A

Methylene blue used as dye for diagnostic procedure

35
Q

Dark orange urine has what diagnostic significance?

A

Use of Pyridium for UTI infection

36
Q

Milky white urine has what diagnostic significance?

A

caused by chyle (fats and lymphs)

37
Q

Olive green to brown black urine has what diagnostic significance?

A

Phenols

38
Q

Yellow to brown, turns green w/ foam when shaken, urine has what diagnostic significance?

A

Bile

39
Q

Red or red-brown urine has what diagnostic significance?

A

Blood

40
Q

Normal urine has what turbidity?

A

Clear

41
Q

What would sweet or fruity smell in urine indicate?

A

Ketones

42
Q

What would a pungent smell in urine indicate?

A

ammonia produced by bacteria

43
Q

What would a maple syrup smell in urine indicate?

A

maple syrup urine disease (congenital metabolic disorder)

44
Q

What would a musty or mousy smell in urine indicate?

A

Infant with phenylketonuria

45
Q

What would a smelly feet smell in urine indicate?

A

isovaleric acidemia, presence of butyric or hexanoic acid in urine

46
Q

What is the specific gravity of a random urine collection?

A

1.003-1.035

47
Q

What is the specific gravity of a 24-hour urine collection?

A

1.015-1.025

48
Q

What chemical analysis chemicals or elements are normally present in urine?

A

Urobilinogen, 1 EU or less concentration

49
Q

What is the threshold for glucosuria?

A

Will appear in urine when 160-180 mg/dL in blood is exceeded

49
Q

What is the threshold for glucosuria?

A

Will appear in urine when 160-180 mg/dL in blood is exceeded

50
Q

Glucose in urine could indicate what condition?

A

DM or conditions that cause hyperglycemia

51
Q

Ketones in the urine are from what?

A

Incomplete fatty acid utilization

52
Q

Ketosis, ketones in blood and urine, could indicate what condition(s)?

A 
DM
Starvation
KETO diet
Eclampsia
Prolonged vomiting 
Diarrhea
53
Q

Blood in urine is termed what?

A

Hematuria

54
Q

Intact RBCs in urine may indicate what condition(s)?

A 
Damage to kidney or urinary tract
Renal disease
-Glomerulonephritis
-Malignant hypertension
-PKD
Menstrual contamination or exercise
55
Q

What condition would result in appearance of bilirubin in urine?

A

Jaundice

56
Q

Bilirubinuria indicates what condition(s)?

A

Hepatocellular disease

Intra or extra-hepatic biliary obstruction

57
Q

Urobilinogen may be up to 1mg/dL in urine and could indicate what condition(s)?

A

liver disease

hemolytic disease

58
Q

What is the normal and average pH range for urine?

A

4.6 - 8.0
6.0
Slightly acidic

59
Q

What conditions may cause acidic urine?

A 
Resp or metabolic acidosis
UTI by E. coli
Uremia
Severe diarrhea
Starvation
60
Q

What conditions could cause alkaline urine?

A

UTI caused by Proteus or Pseudomonas species

Respiratory or metabolic akalosis

61
Q

What is an important indication in the chemical analysis of urine to indicate renal disease?

A

Protein

62
Q

Proteinuria mainly occurs by what two mechanisms?

A

Glomerular damage

Defect in the reabsorption process of tubules

63
Q

What are the levels and their values of proteinuria?

A

minimal - <0.5g/day
moderate - 0.5-3.5 g/day
significant >3.5g/day

64
Q

Nitrites are breakdowns of nitrates in urine caused by what?

A

E. coli that causes UTIs

65
Q

Bacteriuria indicates what?

A

UTI

66
Q

What is the chemical in urine that is an enzyme, and is released by neutrophils?

A

Leukocyte esterase (LE)

67
Q

What is the most common clinical tool used for renal and nonrenal problems?

A

UA

68
Q

UAs consists of what analysis?

A

Macro (apperance or physical)
Chemical (dip stick)
Micro (formed elements)

69
Q

How much protein is usually excreted by adults per day?

A

10-100mg

70
Q

What is the condition that is defined as excretion of >500mg/day of protein in urine?

A

Proteinuria

71
Q

Persistant pH greater than 7 is assocatied with what?

A

calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate and magnesium ammonium phosphate stones

72
Q

Persistent pH below 5.5 is associated with what?

A

Cystine and uric acid stones

73
Q

What is a non-treponemal test for serologic detection of the antibody reagin?

A

Rapid Plasma Reagin

74
Q

Reagin is produced in response to what?

A

Syphilis infection

75
Q

Syphilis infections are caused by what?

A

Treponema pallidum

76
Q

Reagin is found where?

A

in the serum/plasma

77
Q

What is the carbon charcoal particle used to see results macroscopically on an RPR test called?

A

Vehicle or “antigen”

78
Q

RPR is a ____________ test.

A

Screening

79
Q

If flocculation is present on an RPR test it is what?

A

Reactive (positive)

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